ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The budget contains an estimate of the total volume of production week wise, month wise and product wise.
(a) Production
(b) Purchase
(c) Cash
(d) Sales
Answer:
(a) Production
Explanation:
The production budget is a forecast of the production for the budget period. It is prepared in two parts, viz., production volume budget for the physical units of the products to be manufactured and the cost of manufacturing budget detailing the budgeted costs.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(ii) market consists of all organizations, institutions and instruments that provide long term funds.
(a) Money
(b) Goods
(c) Capital
(d) Services
Answer:
(c) Capital
Explanation:
Capital market consists of all organizations, institutions and instruments that provide long term funds to the borrowers.

(iii) The capital of the company is divided into equal parts called
(a) Debentures
(b) Shares
(c) Deposits
(d) Funds
Answer:
(b) Shares
Explanation:
The capital of a company is divided into small units of capital called shares. These shares can be classified into Equity shares and Preference Shares.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(iv) The selection tests seek to measure a candidate’s capacity to learn particular skills and test his potential abilities.
(a) Personality
(b) Dexterity
(c) Trade
(d) Aptitude
Answer:
(d) Aptitude
Explanation:
Aptitude means the potential which an individual has for learning the skills required to do a job efficiently. Aptitude tests measure an applicant’s capacity and his potential for development.

(v) is a positive process which creates a pool of candidates.
(a) Recruitment
(b) Selection
(c) Training
(d) Development
Answer:
(a) Recruitment
Explanation:
Recruitment is the process of searching for prospective employees and stimulating and encouraging them to apply for jobs in an organisation. It is the positive activity in the sense that it aims at reaching as many job-seekers as possible for jobs in the enterprise.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(vi) The function of the Central bank involves settling of claims of Commercial banks through a process of book entries.
(a) Monopoly of note issue
(b) Government’s bank
(c) Clearing house
(d) Developmental
Answer:
(c) Clearing house
Explanation:
The Central Bank performs ‘The-Clearing-House Function’ for the commercial banks. This means, it settles the mutual claims of commercial banks by a process of book entries.

(vii) shares do not carrv voting rights.
(a) Equity
(b) Preference
(c) Debentures
(d) Public deposits
Answer:
(b) Preference
Explanation:
Preference shares do not carry voting rights. This privilege is available to only Equity Share holders who are considered to be true owners of a company.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(viii) The result of the trading account is the and it is transferred to the Profit and Loss account.
(a) Gross Profit
(b) Net Profit
(c) Bills Receivable
(d) Bills Payable
Answer:
(a) Gross Profit
Explanation:
The result of the trading account is the Gross Profit and it is transferred to the Profit and Loss account.

(ix) A is an establishment for storage or accumulation of goods.
(a) Bank
(b) Warehouse
(c) Budget
(d) Forecast
Answer:
(b) Warehouse
Explanation:
A warehouse is a properly constructed place where surplus goods can be kept safely for future use.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(x) means a promise to compensate in case of loss.
(a) Causa Proxima
(b) Doctrine of Subrogation
(c) Indemnity
(d) Contribution
Answer:
(c) Indemnity
Explanation:
The principle of indemnity is based on the idea that the assured in the case of loss only shall be compensated against the actual loss.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Explain Application Blank as a step in the selection process. [2]
(ii) What is a Production Budget? [2]
(iii) Explain any three reasons why warehousing is important. [3]
(iv) Explain any three Principles of Insurance. [3]
Answer:
(i) A candidate who succeeds in preliminary interview is generally required to fill in a specially drafted application blank (form). The application blank contains the record of the candidate’s qualifications, experience, etc. It can be used as a good test device to understand the expression, handwriting and other abilities of the candidate.

(ii) The production budget is an estimate of the production, both in terms of physical quantity as well as cost aspect, for a specified period. It may be prepared in two parts, i.e., production volume budget for the physical units of the products to be manufactured and the cost of manufacturing budget detailing the budgeted costs.

(iii) Following are the causes of importance of warehousing:
1. Seasonal Production: Goods which are produced seasonally (like agricultural products) must be stored so that they can be supplied to the consumers throughout the year. In order to supply such commodities to the consumers, their storage is very much necessary.

2. Seasonal Demand: Many goods (like woollen cloth, umbrella, rain coats, fans, etc.) are produced throughout the year but their demands are seasonal. Such goods must be stored and preserved in warehouse until the beginning of the next season.

3. Production at One Place but Demand at Various Places: When goods are produced at a particular facility at a place, they must be stored in various warehouses near the customers. It enables goods to be available to the consumers whenever and wherever they are required by them.

(iv) Following are the three principles of Insurance:

1. Utmost Good Faith: All types of contracts of insurance depend upon the utmost good faith. Both parties (insurer and the insured) in the contract must disclose all the material facts for the benefit of each other. False information or non-disclosure of any important fact makes the contract voidable.

2. Insurable Interest: The insured must have an actual interest called the insurable interest in the subject-matter of the insurance. A person is said to have an insurable interest in the subject- matter (i.e., property, human life, machinery, goods etc.) if he is benefitted by its existence and is at loss by its destruction. Without insurable interest the contract of insurance is void.

3. Indemnity: All types of contracts except life and personal accident insurance are contract of indemnity. A contract of insurance is a contract of indemnity. The principle of indemnity is based on the idea that the assured in the case of loss only shall be compensated against the actual loss and in no case more than the value of the policy.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) Explain ‘Mobile Wallets’. [2]
(ii) What is Insurance? [2]
(iii) Write short notes on: [3]
(a) Fire Insurance
(b) Cash Credit
(iv) What is External recruitment? Explain Employment Exchanges and Recommendations as sources of external recruitment. [3]
Answer:
(i) A mobile wallet is an app based payment service through which money can be transferred to another person or received from him. For this purpose one has to download a prescribed payment app on the smart phone and get registered for the same. The mobile application can be linked to one’s bank account, debit card or credit card and payment can be processed by using QR scan code or the mobile number.

(ii) Insurance is a contract between two parties by which one of them undertakes, against a sum known as premium, to indemnity the other against a loss which may arise on the happening of some untoward event. The document containing the contract is called the Policy of Insurance, the person insured is called the Assured or Insured, and the party which insures is known as the Assurer, Insurer or Underwriter.

(iii)
(a) Fire insurance is the insurance which covers losses caused by fire. It is a contract of indemnity in which the insurer undertakes to indemnify the loss suffered by the insured caused by fire, against a consideration known as premium.

(b) Cash Credit is an arrangement by which the bank advances cash loans upto a specified limit to the customers against a security. When the cash loan is granted, the borrower opens a current
account with that amount in the bank. The borrower has the right to withdraw the full amount of loan. Interest is charged on the amount actually utilised by the borrower and not on the whole amount granted to him.

(iv) External source of recruitment refers to the sources external to the organisation through which the
suitable candidates are searched. Following are the two external sources of recruitment:

1. Employment Exchanges: The Government has set up employment exchanges throughout the country. Anyone seeking employment can get himself registered in the employment exchange. Employees notify the vacancies and the various exchanges refer suitable candidates for recruitment.

2. Recommendations: Applicants introduced by employees, their friends and relatives may prove to be a good source of recruitment. It saves the cost and time of organization in searching for suitable candidates.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) What is a Budget? [2]
(ii) Explain Placement Agencies as sources of External Recruitment. [2]
(iii) Explain any three steps of the Selection Process. [3]
(iv) Write Short notes on: [3]
(a) Discounting of bills of exchange
(b) IMPS
Answer:
(i) Budget is an estimate of the financial activities of the business to achieve certain specific purpose. In other words, budget is an outline of future financial activities. Primarily it involves an estimation of the future receipts, and payments.

(ii) A placement agency is an institution which assists other organisations in recruiting and selecting suitable human resources. There are several recruitment agencies such as ABC consultants, A. F. Ferguson Associates, etc., which provide recruitment and selection services to various companies.

(iii) The steps of the selection are following:

1. Preliminary Interview: The very first stage of the selection process is the preliminary interview of the candidate. The preliminary interview is generally conducted by a junior level officer or functional specialist to determine whether it is worthwhile for the candidate to move to the next stages of the selection process.

2. Blank Application: The candidate who succeeds in preliminary interview is generally required to fill in a specially drafted application blank (form). The application blank contains the record of the candidate’s qualifications, experience, etc. It can be used as a good test device to understand the expression, handwriting and other abilities of the candidate.

3. Selection Tests: A Candidate may be required to undertake employment tests to express his knowledge of his domain. These tests are of various types based on the specific requirement of the job.

(iv)
(a) Discount of a bill refers to the payment of a bill of exchange by the bank at some discounted rate. When the holder of the bill of exchange need money before the maturity of the bill, it may present the bill before its bank which can make the payment after deducting some amount as the discount. Later the bank may get its payment for the drawee after maturity period.

(b) IMPS is the short form of Immediate Payment Service. It refers to the real time inter-bank electronic fund transfer service. Through this service, a client of a bank can instantly transfer a certain amount to any other person who has bank account with any other bank. This service is provided by National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) 24 x 7 in a year.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) What is a Central Bank? [2]
(ii) What is a Master Budget? [2]
(iii) Explain any two functions of the Central Bank. [3]
(iv) Write short notes on: [3]
(a) Intellectual Property Fraud
(b) Internet and Cyber fraud
Answer:
(i) Central Bank is the apex policy making and monitoring institution of the monetary and banking system of the country. Reserve Bank of India is the Central Bank in India.

(ii) Master budget is a consolidated summary of the various functional budgets. It is the culmination of the preparation of all other budgets, like the sales budget, production budget, purchase budget etc. It consists in reality of the budgeted profit and loss account, the balance sheet and the budgeted funds flow statement.

(iii) Following are the functions of a central bank:

1. Issue of Currency: The central bank has the monopoly of issuing currency notes of the country. For issuing the notes, the central bank has to maintain a minimum reserve of gold, silver and foreign securities so as to inspire and retain the confidence of the people in the paper currency.

2. Custodian of Foreign Currency: The central bank is the custodian of the foreign exchange reserves of the country. The reserves with central bank are utilized for making payments to foreign countries.

(iv)
(a) Intellectual Property Fraud: This type of fraud is committed when the fake and counterfeit products and pirated products which are no longer original are passed to customers as being original. Such kinds of fraud generally take place in the areas of health, fashion, softwares, films and music etc.

(b) Internet and Cyber Fraud: Internet refers to the global network of computers linked with communication lines and facilities. Cyber fraud refers to the use of internet to befool or cheat the people by hacking, downloading malware or spyware, sending spams etc. Hackers steal financial information of people in this way and harass them for financial or personal gains.

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) State any two differences between Credit Card and Debit Card. [2]
(ii) State any two Disadvantages of Internal Recruitment. [2]
(iii) Use the following Trial Balance to complete the Final Accounts of Ms. K. Pant for the year ending March 31,2021. [6]
ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers img-1 ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers img-2 ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers img-3 ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers img-4
Answer:
(i) Following are the two differences between credit card and debit card:

Credit Card Debit Card
A credit card entitles the holder to buy goods and services on credit no matter the amount is available or not in his bank account. A debit card entitles the holder to buy goods and services only when he has amount available in his bank account.
It is a kind of loan facility to the holder. It is a cash withdrawing facility or payment alternative of available cash in the bank account.

(ii) Following are the two disadvantages of internal recruitment:

1. No Opportunity for Outside Deserving Candidates: The major drawback of this source is that the enterprise may deprive of competent, talented and deserving candidates from outside.

2. Promotion of Inefficient Employees: Sometimes, unsuitable persons may use their influence to get promotions. They are promoted from within the organisation without giving any importance to merit simply because they are working in the organization and have good relations with the superiors.

(iii) Trading Account
(i) Purchase returns – ₹ 14000
(ii) Carriage Inwards – ₹ 18,000
(iii) Gross Profit – ₹ 116000
P&L Account
(iii) Gross Profit – ₹ 116000
(iv) Net Profit – ₹ 6000
Balance Sheet
(v) Capital – ₹ 378000
(iv) Net Profit – ₹ 6000
(vi) Closing Stock – ₹ 100000

ICSE Class 10 Commercial Studies Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the following questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The general formula of alkynes is:
(a) CnH2n-2
(b) CnH2n+2
(c) CnH2
(d) CnH2n+2O
Answer:
(a) CnH2n-2
Explanation:
The general formula of alkyne is CnH2n-2

(ii) The drying agent used to dry NH3 is :
(a) P2O5
(b) Cone. H2SO4
(c) CaCl2
(d) CaO
Answer:
(d) CaO
Explanation:
The drying agent used to dry NH3 is quicklime (CaO).

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(iii) The main ore used for the extraction of aluminium is:
(a) Calamine
(b) Bauxite
(c) Haematite
(d) Chalcopyrite
Answer:
(b) Bauxite
Explanation:
The main ore used for the extraction of aluminium is bauxite and Hall – Heroult process is the major industrial process for extraction of aluminium from its oxide alumina.

(iv) Formation of ethylene bromide from ethene and bromine is an example of:
(a) Hydrogenation reaction
(b) Dehydrohalogenation reaction
(c) Substitution reaction
(d) Addition reaction
Answer:
(d) Addition reaction
Explanation:
The reaction of ethene with Br2 to form 1,2-Dibromoethane (Ethylene bromide) is an addition reaction. The atoms that add to the double bond are located on adjacent carbon atoms, a common characteristic of addition reactions of alkenes.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 8

(v) The delivery tube used in the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride is dipped in:
(a) Concentrated nitric acid
(b) Dilute nitric acid
(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid
(d) Dilute sulphuric acid
Answer:
(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid
Explanation:
The delivery tube is dipped in concentrated sulphuric acid so that easy movement of HCl gas takes place and no impurity can add to it. It also helps in making the HCl gas moisture-free.

(vi) When sulphuric acid is added to sodium carbonate brisk effervesence is produced which is due to:
(a) evolution of H2S gas
(b) evolution of Cl2 gas
(c) evolution of CO2 gas
(d) evolution of O2 gas
Answer:
(c) evolution of C02 gas
Explanation:
The reaction of sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate produces sodium sulphate, water, and brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide. The reaction is given as:
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2 (↑)

(vii) The reactants for laboratory preparation of nitric acid are:
(a) Ammonium hydroxide and sulphuric acid
(b) Sodium nitrate and sulphuric acid
(c) Sodium nitrate and water
(d) Ammonium nitrate and water
Answer:
(b) Sodium nitrate and sulphuric acid
Explanation:
Nitric acid in the laboratory is prepared by reaction of sodium or potassium nitrate and sulphuric acid. They are distilled to produce the required ammonia.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(viii) The process used to convert impure alumina to pure alumina is:
(a) Roasting
(b) Electrolytic refining
(c) Purification
(d) Bayer’s process
Answer:
(d) Bayer’s process
Explanation:
Concentration of ore or purification of ore, i.e., conversion of bauxite (impure alumina) to pure alumina, is known as Bayer’s process. Roasting refers to the heating of compounds in the presence of air, while electrolytic refining is the process of purification of metal using electrolysis.

(ix) Calcium oxide reacts with HCl gas to produce __________ and water.
(a) Calcium chloride
(b) Calcium sulphate
(c) Hydrogen gas
(d) Chlorine gas
Answer:
(a) Calcium chloride
Explanation:
The reaction of calcium chloride with water is neutralisation and a double displacement reaction, which produces salt and water. The chlorine atom of HCl displaces oxygen from CaO and hence produces calcium chloride (CaCl2).

(x) The compound A and B, as shown in the figure below, can be:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 1
(a) Water and salt solution
(b) Water and cone. H2SO4
(c) Baking soda solution and water
(d) Water and NaOH solution
Answer:
(b) Water and cone. H2SO4
Explanation:
When water is added to concentrated sulphuric acid, a highly exothermic reaction occurs, leading to the spurting of the acid. This can be very dangerous.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Define:
(a) Homologous series
(b) Gangue or Matrix
(ii) Name the compound formed when:
(a) Ethene reacts with hydrogen chloride.
(b) Sodium aluminate is diluted with water and cooled to 50°C
(iii) Draw the structural diagram of the following isomers:
(a) Pentane
(b) 2-Methyl butane
(c) 2,2-Dimethyl propane
(iv) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 2
Answer:
(i) (a) A series of compounds of the same family in which each member differ from its adjacent member by one CH2 unit is called homologous series.
(b) The unwanted impurities which are associated with ore are called gangue or matrix, e.g., stone, clay etc.

(ii) (a) Ethyl chloride (chloroethane) is formed. The reaction can be represented as follows:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 9

(b) Aluminium hydroxide is formed. The reaction can be represented as follows:
NaAlO2 + 2H2O → NaOH + Al(OH)3
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 10

Question 3.
(i) Dry ammonia gas is passed over black substance as shown in figure below:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 3
(a) Name the black substance A.
(b) Name the gas evolved B.
(c) Write a balanced equation for the reaction of ammonia with A.
(ii) State the following:
(a) The catalysts used in contact process.
(b) The product formed when glass rod dipped in NH4OH is brought near the mouth of a bottle full of HCl gas.
(iii) State the observation for the following, when:
(a) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added to a lump of blue vitriol.
(b) Copper turnings are heated with concentrated nitric acid.
(c) Dil hydrochloric acid is added to silver nitrate solution.
(iv) Refer to the flow chart diagram below and give balanced equations with conditions if any for the following conversions A to D.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 4
Answer:
(i) (a) Copper (II) oxide
(b) Nitrogen gas
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 11a

(ii) (a) Vanadium pentoxide (V2O5)
(b) Ammonium chloride

(iii) (a) The blue coloured hydrated copper sulphate loses its water of crystallisation and white annhydrous copper (II) sulphate is formed.:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 11

(b) The reddish brown nitrogen dioxide gas which has pungent smell is evolved along with the formation of (Cupric nitrate) and water.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 12

(c) A thick curdy white precipitate of silver chloride is formed.
AgNO3 + HCl → AgCl ↓ + HNO3
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 13

Question 4.
(i) State the relevant reason for the following:
(a) Methane is called as marsh gas. Why?
(b) All glass apparatus are used in the laboratory preparation of HNO3.
(ii) Name the ores of the given metals :
(a) Aluminium
(b) Zinc
(iii) Identify the terms for the following:
(a) Another name of nitric acid
(b) The catalyst used in the conversion of ethyne to ethane.
(c) A mixture of three parts of cone. HC1 and one part of cone. HNOj.
(iv) Copy and complete the following table : Column 3 has the names of gases to be prepared using the substance you enter in column 1 alongwith dilute or concentrated sulphuric acid as indicated by you in column 2.

Column 1
Substance reacted with acid
Column 2
Dilute or concentrated sulphuric acid (H2SO4)
Column 3
Gas
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Only chlorine

Answer:
(i) (a) Methane is called as marsh gas because methane is formed by the decomposition of plant and animal matter lying under water in marshy areas.

(b) All glass apparatus are used in the laboratory preparation of HNO3 because nitric acid being very corrosive and destroys the rubber or cork of the apparatus.

(ii) (a) Bauxite
(b) Calamine

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(iii) (a) Aqua fortis
(b) Lindlar catalyst
(c) Aqua regia

(iv)

Column 1
Substance reacted with acid
Column 2
Dilute or concentrated sulphuric acid (H,S04)
Column 3
Gas
(a) Zinc Dilute H2SO4 Hydrogen
(b) Copper carbonate Dilute H2SO4 Carbon dioxide
(c) Sodium chloride
+
Manganese oxide
Concentrated H2SO4 Only chlorine

Question 5.
(i) (a) Write a balanced chemical equation for the laboratory preparation of nitric acid.
(b) Mention two precautions to be followed while carrying on the above experiment.
(ii) Select the correct answer from the brackets to complete the following statements:
(a) Haber’s process is used for industrial preparation of __________ (ammonium hydroxide/ammonium chloride/ammonia).
(b) Pure nitric acid is __________. (brown coloured/yellow coloured/colourless)
(iii) Give the IUPAC name of the following:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 5
(iv) (a) Which of A and B is the cathode and which one is the anode?
(b) What is the electrolyte in the tank?
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 6
(c) What material is used for the cathode?
Answer:
(i) (a) KNO3 + cone. H2SO4 → KHSO4 + HNO3 (below 200°C)
(b) 1. The reaction mixture should not be heated beyond 200°C because nitric acid decompose at highter temperatures.
2. The apparatus must be made of all glass as the vapours of nitric acid are corrosive therefore it damages the rubber and cork.

(ii) (a) Ammonia
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 14

(b) Colourless. (Pure nitric acid is colourless fuming liquid while commercial nitric acid is yellowish brown.)

(iii) (a) 2-Methyl butanoic acid
(b) 1,2-Dibromoethane
(c) Propan-2-ol

(iv) (a) A is cathode and B is anode.
(b) Molten fluorides of Al, Na and Ba.
(c) Graphite rods dipped in pure aluminium.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) Distinguish between the following:
(a) Alkane, alkene and alkyne [using potassium permanganate solution]
(b) Ethylene and Acetylene [ammonical solution of silver nitrate]
(ii) Give the formula of the next higher homologue of the following:
(a) Ethane.
(b) Ethene.
(iii)
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 7
(a) Name (i) the ammonium salt A (ii) alkaline gas C.
(b) How the conversion D is carried out ? State all the conditions like temperature, pressure and catalyst.
(c) (i) How is C converted to nitric oxide? Write the equation.
(ii) How is temperature maintained in above process?
(iii) Write the equation for conversion of F and G.
(iv) Draw the structural formula for each of the following:
(a) Isomer of n-butane.
(b) A three membered unsaturated hydrocarbon with a triple bond.
(c) The straight chain structure of 2-methyl butane.
(d) The mono-substituted product formed when ethane reacts with bromine gas.
Answer:
(i) (a)

Test Alkanes Alkenes Alkynes
Alkaline Potassium Permanganate Test: Add a few drops of alkaline potassium permanganate sol. to the hydrocarbon. No change takes place. The purple colour of Potassium permanganate is decolourised. The purple colour of potassium permanganate is decolorised.

(b) When acetylene is passed through an ammonical solution of silver nitrate, it gives a white precipitate of silver acetylide, while ethylene does not show any such reaction.

(ii) Propane – C3H8
(b) Propene – C3H6

(iii) (a) (i) Ammonium nitrate, NH4NO3
(ii) Ammonia

(b) D is mixed with hydrogen in the ratio of 1 : 3, compressd to a pressure of 200 to 500 atomosphere and passes over a catalyst (iron) heated to 450 to 500°C.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(c) (i) By passing the gas with excess of air over platinium gauze heated to 800°C.
4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO + 6H2

(ii) The oxidation of ammonia of nitric oxide is exothermic reaction and once the reaction is started it maintains the temperature of the platinium gauze.

(iii) 2N2O + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3
Ca(OH)2 + 2HNO3 → Ca(NO3)2 + 2H2O

(iv) (a) Isomer of n-butane
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 15

(b) Propyne is the three membered unsaturated hydrocarbon with a triple bond.
H3C – C ≡CH

(c) The compound n-pentane represents the straight chain structure of 2-methyl butane.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 16

(d) The monosubstituted product formed when ethane reacts with bromine gas is bromoethane.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers 17

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The IUPAC name of Acetylene is:
(a) Propane
(b) Propyne
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethyne
Answer:
(d) Ethyne
Explanation:
Because formula of acetylene is CH ≡ CH .
Thus, IUPAC name is Ethyne.

(ii) Aluminium powder is used in thermite welding because:
(a) it is a strong reducing agent.
(b) it is a strong oxidising agent.
(c) it is corrosion resistant.
(d) it is a good conductor of heat.
Answer:
(a) It is a strong reducing agent
Explanation:
It reduces Fe2O3 to iron, this reduced iron (molten) sinks and flows in to the gap of grinder thereby welding it.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(iii) An aqueous solution of HCl gas is named:
(a) Aqua fortis
(b) Aqua regia
(c) Oil of vitriol
(d) Muriatic acid
Answer:
(d) Muriatic acid
Explanation:
An aqueous solution of HCl gas is hydrochloric acid. It was first named by Lavoisier as muriatic acid. Later on, Davy, in 1810, named it as hydrochloric acid.

(iv) Which of the following can be used as a drying agent for ammonia?
(a) CaO
(b) H2SO4
(c) P2O5
(d) CaCl2
Answer:
(a) CaO
Explanation:
Calcium oxide or limewater is generally used for obtaining dry ammonia gas. On the other hand, sulphuric acid, phosphorus pentoxide, and calcium chloride react with ammonia to give a product, and hence they are not suitable for drying purposes.

(v) Rearrange the following steps involved in the contact process for the manufacturing of H2SO4.
(i) Production of sulphur trioxide
(ii) Addition of water to H2S2O7
(iii) Production of sulphur dioxide
(iv) Production of oleum
(v) Purification of gases
(a) (i), (v), (iii), (iv), (ii)
(b) (iii), (v), (i), (iv), (ii)
(c) (v), (iii), (i), (iv), (ii)
(d) (iii), (i), (v), (iv), (ii)
Answer:
(b) (iii), (v), (i), (iv), (ii)
Explanation:
The first step in the contact process is to produce SO2 from sulphur or metallic sulphide, which includes some impurities. Therefore, the second step is the purification of SO2 produced in the first step. Then purified SO2 is used to produce SO3 gas, which is further converted to oleum (H2S2O7). The last step is the production of sulphuric acid by adding water to the oleum.

(vi) Compounds having the same molecular formula but different arrangements of atoms are called:
(a) Isotope
(b) Isobar
(c) Isomers
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Isomers
Explanation:
The compounds which have the same number of atoms of the same elements but differ in structural arrangements and properties.

(vii) Liquor ammonia fortis is:
(a) Unsaturated solution of ammonia in water
(b) Saturated solution of ammonia in water
(c) Saturated solution of ammonia in alcohol
(d) Unsaturated solution of ammonia in alcohol
Answer:
(b) Saturated solution of ammonia in water
Explanation:
Liquor ammonia fortis is a name given to the saturated solution of ammonia in water, and it is also known as 880 ammonia because it has a density of nearly about 0.880. It is always stored in tightly stoppered bottles in a cold place.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(viii) What are the constituent elements of duralumin?
(a) Al, Cu, Mg
(b) Al and Mg
(c) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn
(d) Al, Cu and Mn
Answer:
(c) Al, Cu, Mg and Mn
Explanation:
The constituents of duralumin are aluminium, copper, magnesium and manganese.

(ix) The arrangement of the round bottom flask in the fountain experiment is:
(a) Inverted position
(b) Erect position
(c) Facing 900 to left
(d) Facing 90° to right
Answer:
(a) Inverted position
Explanation:
The round bottom flask is generally arranged in an inverted position using a retort stand for the fountain experiment. It is arranged in such a position so that suction of the litmus solution can take place.

(x) When sulphuric acid is added to sodium carbonate, brisk effervesence is produced which is due to:
(a) Evolution of H2S gas
(b) Evolution of Cl2 gas
(c) Evolution of CO2 gas
(d) Evolution of O2 gas
Answer:
(c) Evolution of CO2 gas
Explanation:
The reaction of sulphuric acid and sodium carbonate produces sodium sulphate, water, and brisk effervescence of carbon dioxide. The reaction is given as:
Na2CO3 + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + H2O + CO2(↑)

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Define: [2]
(a) Isomerism
(b) Ore
(ii) Name the compound formed when: [2]
(a) Copper turnings are heated with cone. H2SO4.
(b) A mixture of ammonia and oxygen are passed over heated platinum at 800°C.
(iii) Draw the structural diagram of: [3]
(a) Ethanol
(b) Methanoic acid
(c) 2,3-Dimethyl butane
(iv) Complete and balance the following chemical equations:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 1
Answer:
(i) (a) Compounds having the same molecular formula but different structural formula are called ‘isomers’ of one another and this phenomenon is called ‘isomerism’.

(b) A mineral from which, metals are extracted commercially at a comparatively low cost and with minimum effort are called ores of the metals.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 4

Question 3.
(i) Study the figure given below and answer the questions that follow: [2]
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 2
(a) Identify the gas Y.
(b) What property of gas Y does this experiment demonstrate?
(ii) State the following: [2]
(a) Name one lead compound that can be used to oxidise HCl to chlorine.
(b) The compound added to pure alumina to lower the fusion temperature during the electrolytic reduction of alumina.
(iii) State the observation for the following, when: [3]
(a) Hydrogen chloride gas comes in contact with ammonia solution.
(b) Ammonia is passed through yellow lead oxide.
(c) Action of nitric acid on limestone.
(iv) Write balanced equation for the following conversions:
(a) Potassium sulphate from potassium hydrogen carbonate and sulphuric acid.
(b) Methyl chloride from methane
(c) Carbonic acid from carbon and concentrated nitric acid.
Answer:
(i) (a) Y is Hydrochloride (HCl) gas.
(b) Gas Y is highly soluble in water.

(ii) (a) Lead dioxide or red lead
(b) Cryolite

(iii) (a) When hydrogen chloride gas comes in contact with ammonia, it combines with ammonia to form dense white fumes of ammonium chloride.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 5

(b) When ammonia is passed through yellow lead oxide, it changes to silvery white lead.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 6

(c) When nitric acid reacts with limestone(calcium carbonate) carbon dioxide gas is liberated.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 7

Question 4.
(i) State the relevant reason for the following: [2]
(a) During the extraction of aluminium, cryolite and fluorspar are added to alumina. Why?
(b) Why in construction work alloy duralumin is used rather than aluminium?
(ii) Write the composition of the alloys given below: [2]
(a) Duralumin
(iii) Identify the terms for the following: [3]
(a) The experiment which demonstrates extreme solubility of hydrogen chloride gas.
(b) The industrial process which starts with the reaction of catalytic oxidation of ammonia.
(c) The electrode where oxidation takes place.
(iv) Complete and balance the equations given below:
(a)
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 3
(b) Mg3N2 + H2O → Mg(OH)2 + NH3
(c) C2H5OH + H2SO4 → _______ + _______
Answer:
(i) (a) Cryolite and fluorspar are added to alumina :
(i) To lower the melting point of aluminium.
(ii) To make alumina a good conductor of electricity.
(iii) Cryolite acts as a solvent for alumina.

(b) In construction work alloy duralumin is used rather than aluminium because duralumin is harder, stronger and more resistant to corrosion.

(ii) (a) Al (90%) Cu (4%), Mg (0.5%) and Mn (less than 1 %)
(b) Al (95%), Mg (5%)

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(iii) (a) Fountain experiment.
(b) Ostwald’s process.
(c) Anode

(iv) (a) Na2SO4+ HCl
(b) NH3
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 8

Question 5.
(i) The chief ore of aluminium, bauxite is concentrated by Baeyer’s process and extracted by electrolytic reduction by Hall Heroult’s process. Furnish the following by means of equations. [2]
(a) The three steps required in the concentration of the ore.
(b) The cathode and anode reactions in the extraction of aluminium by electrolytic reduction.
(ii) Select the correct answer from the brackets to complete the following statements: [2]
(a) The drying agent used to dry ammonia gas is _______ [quick lime / calcium carbonate].
(b) The product formed when ammonia reacts with carbon dioxide at 150 °C and 150 atm. pressure is _______ [urea / ammonium nitrate]
(iii) Name the following organic compound: [3]
(a) A hydrocarbon which on catalytic hydrogenation gives a saturated hydrocarbon.
(b) The first homologue whose general formula is CnH2n.
(c) The product formed when mixture of acetylene and hydrogen is heated at 200°C temperature.
(iv) Some bacteria obtain their energy by oxidizing sulphur, producing sulphuric acid as a byproduct. In the laboratory, or industrially, the first step in the conversion of sulphur to sulphuric acid is to produce sulphur dioxide. Then sulphur dioxide is converted to sulphur trioxide which reacts with water, producing sulphuric acid.
(a) Name the catalyst used industrially which speeds up the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide.
(b) Write the equation for the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide. Why does this reaction supply energy?
(c) What is the name of the compound formed between sulphur trioxide and sulphuric acid?
Answer:
(i) (a) Bauxite is mixed with concentrated sodium hydroxide solution, bauxite dissolves to from sodium aluminate leaving behind the impurity ferric oxide unreacted. The solution is filtered where sodium is collected as filtrate and the impurities are left behind.
Al2O32H2O + 2NaOH → 2NaAlO2 + 3H2O
Sodium aluminate solution is diluted with water, white precipitate of aluminium hydroxide is formed which is filtered, washed and dried.
NaAlO2 + 2H2O → NaOH + Al(OH)3
Aluminium hydroxide is heated to high temperatures to obtain alumina.
2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O

(b) At cathode:
Al3+ + 3e → Al
At anode:
O-2 + 2e → [O]
[O] + [O] → O2
2C + O2 → CO2
2CO + O2 → 2CO2

(ii) (a) Quick lime
(b) Urea

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(iii) (a) Ethene
(b) Methane (An alkane) (CH4)
(c) Ethane (C2H6)

(iv) (a) Platinum and Vanadium pentaoxide.
(b) When conversion of SO2 to SO3 takes place according to the following reaction.
SO2 + O2 → 2SO3 + 45 kcal
The 45 k cal energy supplied by above reaction.

(c) Oleum (H2S2O7).

Question 6.
(i) Distinguish between the following: [2]
(a) Ethene and ethane [using potassium permanganate solution]
(b) Hydrogen chloride gas and carbon dioxide gas [using silver nitrate solution]
(ii) Give one word for the following statements: [2]
(a) A hydrocarbon which is a greenhouse gas.
(b) The processes involved in the extraction of pure metals from their ore.
(iii) A, B, C and D summarize the properties of sulphuric acid depending on whether it is dilute or concentrated. [3]
A = Typical acid property.
B = Non-volatile acid C = Oxidizing agent D = Dehydrating agent
Choose the property (A, B, C or D) depending on which is relevant to each of the following :
(a) Preparation of Hydrogen chloride gas.
(b) Preparation of copper sulphate from copper oxide.
(c) Action of cone, sulphuric acid on sulphur.
(iv) Copy and complete the following table which relates to three homologous series of Hydrocarbons:

General formula CnH2n-2 CnH2n CnH2n+2
IUPAC name of the homologous series Alkynes (a) _______ (b) _______
Characteristics bond type (c) _______ (d) _______ Single bonds
IUPAC name of the first member of the series (e) _______ Ethene (f) _______

Answer:
(i) (a) When few drops of purple colour potassium permanganate is added to ethane, its purple colour
does not fades but when a few drops of it is added to ethene, the solution decolourizes.

(b)
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 9
When carbon dioxide gas is passed into lime water, it forms a milky white precipitate of calcium carbonate.
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers 10

(ii) (a) Methane
(b) Metallurgy

(iii)
(a) B = Non-volatile acid.
(b) A = Typical acid property.
(c) C = Oxidizing agent.

(iv)

General formula CnH2n-2 CnH2n CnH2n+2
IUPAC name of the homologous series Alkynes Alkenes Alkanes
Characteristics bond type Triple bond Double bond Single bonds
IUPAC name of the first member of the series Ethyne Ethene Methane

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) Locker facility, cheques, letter of credit are what kind of functions of commercial bank?
(a) General utility
(b) Agency function
(c) Primary function
(d) Secondary function
Answer:
(a) General utility
Explanation:
There are several general utility services that commercial banks offer like: Issuing traveller cheques. Offering locker facilities for keeping valuables in safe custody. Also, issuing debit cards and credit cards, etc.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

(ii)Which institute work as banker to the government?
(a) Central bank
(b) Private bank
(c) Commercial bank
(d) Government bank
Answer:
(a) Central bank
Explanation:
Central bank work as banker of the government and provide assistance whenever required. Central Bank keeps the cash balances of commercial banks and issues loans to them on requirements in the same manner as the commercial banks do for its customers. That’s why it is also called as bankers’ bank.

(iii) When the rise in prices is very slow like that a snail or creeper is called as:
(a) Walking inflation
(b) Running inflation
(c) Hyperinflation
(d) Creeping inflation
Answer:
(d) Creeping inflation Explanation:
Creeping inflation means rise in price with slow speed. This is also known as mild inflation or moderate inflation. This type of inflation occurs when the price level persistently rises over a period of time at a mild rate.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

(iv) Currency notes or coins are form of:
(a) Standard money
(b) Bank money
(c) Near money
(d) Electronic money
Answer:
(a) Standard money
Explanation .
Standard money or currency money includes currency notes and coins, a monetary unit which is designated by a government to serve as the basis of its currency system and into which other types of money in the country are convertible as compare standard of value.

(v) General acceptability, durability, homogeneity all are features of:
(a) Money
(b) Tax
(c) Policies
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Money
Explanation:
The characteristics of money are durability, portability, divisibility, uniformity, limited supply, and acceptability.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

(vi) What can be the objective of privatization?
(a) Rising budgetary deficit
(b) Increase in investment
(c) Reducing state interference
(d) Increase in production
Answer:
(a) Rising budgetary deficit
Explanation:
Rising budgetary deficit means increase in expenditure as compare to the income due to which the need for privatization arises of a public sector enterprise that’s make it an objective of privatization.

(vii) Corruption, bribery are very commonly seen defects of which type of sector?
(a) Private sector enterprise
(b) Public sector enterprise
(c) Capitalist economy
(d) Mixed
Answer:
(b) Public sector enterprise
Explanation:
Corruption, bribery are commonly seen defects in public sector enterprise. Which work as limitations of public sector enterprise and effects its working efficiency.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

(viii) The following graph show which type of tax?
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(a) Progressive tax
(b) Regressive tax
(c) Proportional tax
(d) Degressive tax
Answer:
(b) Regressive tax
Explanation:
Regressive tax means decrease in tax rate as the income increases. A regressive tax is a tax imposed in such a manner that the tax rate decreases as the amount subject to taxation increases. “Regressive” describes a distribution effect on income or expenditure, referring to the way the rate progresses from high to low, so that the average tax rate exceeds the marginal tax rate.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

(ix) Which of the following statement is true in relation with Indirect tax?
(a) They can be shifted on to others
(b) They cannot be shifted on to others
(c) It is imposed on income and wealth
(d) Directly paid to government
Answer:
(a) They can be shifted on to others
Explanation:
One of the main feature of indirect tax is tax liability which means:-
Tax liability: The service provider or seller pays indirect taxes to the government, and the liability is transferred to the consumer. One feature of indirect tax is that it can be shifted on to the others.

(x) Fiscal policy mainly focuses towards which two components to produce desirable effects on national income, production and employment?
(a) Expenditure, revenue
(b) Income, tax
(c) Foreign income, export
(d) Import, export
Answer:
(a) Expenditure, revenue
Explanation:
Fiscal policy mainly focuses towards expenditure and revenue to produce desirable effects on national income, production and employment.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Section-B[40 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) What do you understand by hyperinflation?[2]
(ii) How central bank work as a clearing agent for commercial banks? Explain.[2]
(iii) Write three differences between central bank and commercial bank.[3]
(iv) Money is the basis of credit system. Explain in brief.[3]
Answer:
(i) Hyperinflation is a situation when the rise in prices is 20% to 30% or more. This rise is uncontrollably high. Basically, hyperinflation is accelerating inflation. Hyperinflation very quickly diminishes the value of the currency and individuals tend to minimize their holding in the currency.

(ii) As the custodian of cash reserves of the commercial banks, the central bank acts as the clearing house for these banks. Since all banks have their accounts with central bank, the central bank can easily settle the claims of various banks against each other simply by book entries of transfer from and to their accounts. This method of settling accounts is called clearing house function of the central bank.

Central bank Commercial bank
Central bank is the apex institution of the monetary and banking structure of the country. It regulates the entire banking system of the country. Commercial bank is a bank which deals in money and credit for purposes of earning profit.
Its main objective is to promote social welfare It main objective is to earn profit
Central bank is generally a government owned institution Commercial banks may be both privately owned or government owned institutions.

(iii) In modem economic system, credit plays a key role and money constitutes the basis of credit. Money facilitates the functioning of credit instruments such as cheques, promissory notes, bills of exchange etc. such credit instruments facilitate transfer of value from one person to another and these instruments cannot be used without existence of money.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) What do we mean by central bank?[2]
(ii) Write down two differences between demand deposit and fixed deposit.[2]
(iii) Mention three important differences between direct and indirect taxes.[3]
(iv) Explain the benefits of privatization in economy.[3]
Answer:
(i) Central bank is an apex institution of the monetary and banking structure of the country. It regulates the entire banking system of the country.Central Bank of India is an Indian nationalised bank. It is under the ownership of Ministry of Finance, Government of India and is one of the oldest and largest nationalised commercial banks in India.

(ii)

Demand deposit Fixed deposit
A demand deposit account (DDA) is a bank account from which deposited funds can be withdrawn at any time, without advance notice. The interest rate in demand deposit is very low. In a Fixed Deposit, the sum of money is blocked for the period of the deposit. Banks allow depositors the flexibility to invest their funds from periods as low as 7 days to 10 years.Since the interest rate and the period of this deposit are fixed, banks refer to this type of deposit as a Fixed Deposit.
Demand deposits are chequable, i.e. they can be withdrawn through cheques. Fixed deposits are not chequable, i.e they can’t be withdrawn through cheques.

(iii) Difference between Direct Taxes and Indirect Taxes

Direct Taxes Indirect Taxes
The tax is paid by the person, on whom it is imposed, e.g., income tax, property tax, profit tax, etc. The tax is imposed on one person but the burden is borne by some other person, e.g., excise duty, sales tax etc.
They promote civic consciousness. They do not promote civic consciousness.
They are more susceptible to evasion. They are less susceptible to evasion.

(iv)
The benefits of privatization are as shown:
Improved performance: private companies are profit incentivized rather than politically motivated. Privatization allows companies to turn more efficient by eliminating unnecessary elements within organization like overwhelming bureaucracy & red tape. Moreover, private companies assess their employees based on their performance and adequately incentivise better performance. This factor spurs overall performance in an organisation.

Reduction in Unproductive Expenditure: Due to unproductive expenditure, most of the public sector units are running under heavy loss. Hence, the governments has to incur huge sum of subsidy every year to keep them running. It increases financial burden on the government. Hence there is a move of privatisation-particularly that of loss making units in India.

Improved management: privatization fosters improved management of a company. As mangers of a privately owned organization are accountable to the company’s owners.it becomes their responsibility to ensure efficient management.This factor of accountability is less intense in public sector companies which results in poor and inefficient operations that may ultimately harm the economy.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) Define cost push inflation.[2]
(ii) Write four points in favour of depositing money with commercial bank.[2]
(iii) Discuss the importance of banks in modem economy. Write three points.[3]
(iv) Mention the type of loans advanced by the commercial banks.[3]
Answer:
(i) Cost-push inflation is a type of inflation caused by substantial increases in the cost of important goods or services where no suitable alternative is available. Higher prices are then the result, as costs of production increase due to decreased aggregate supply.

(ii) Commercial banks are one of the best options to opt for depositing money by the customers. Reasons in favour are as shown:

(i) Safety: Banks provide safe and secure place to keep customers money as compare to the house or a working place.

(ii) Earning via interest: Depositors can earn interest on the basis of their deposits. This is the advantage of depositing money in banks that they provide the means to earn on your deposits for fixed time period.

(iii) Easy withdrawal: People have the provisions to withdrawn the money as and when they require, customers can withdraw there money any time by following simple procedures decided by the banks on the basis of their type of deposits.

(iv) Fast Payments: People can also make payment through cheques or by online transfers, banks make tranfer of money easy and fast by the feature of online transfering of money.

(iii) On the basis of these Important Functions of Banks, we may easily describe the importance of banks in today’s global life.

1. Collections of Savings and Advancing Loans: Acceptance of deposit and advancing the loans is the basic function of commercial banks. On this function, all other functions depend accordingly. Bank operates different types of accounts for its customers.

2. Money Transfer: Banks have facilitated the making of payments from one place or persons to another by means of cheques, bill of exchange and drafts, instead of cash. Payment through cheques, the draft is more safe and convenient, especially in case of huge payments, this facility is a great help for traders and businessmen. It really enhances the importance of banks for the business community.

3. Encourages Savings: Banks perform an invaluable service by encouraging savings among the people. They induce them to save for profitable investment for themselves and for the national interest. These savings help in capital formation.

(iv) Loans can be granted in the form of cash credit, demand loans, short term loan, overdraft, discounting of bills etc.

Cash credit: under the cash credit system the borrower is sanctioned a credit limit up to which he can borrow from the bank.The interest payable by the borrower is calculated on the amount of credit limit actually drawn.

Demand loan: demand loan granted by a bank is those loans that can be recalled on demand by the bank at any time. Short term loans (car loans, housing loan etc) are given as personal loans against some security .The interest is payable on the entire sum of loans granted.

Overdraft: In case of overdraft facility, an account holder is allowed to withdraw a sum of money in excess of the amount deposited with the bank.Here,the borrower who has received this facility has to pay interest on the amount overdrawn.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) What is the advantage of indirect taxes? Write any two.[2]
(ii) Give two characteristics of money.[2]
(iii) What is the effect of inflation on production? explain.[3]
(iv) Explain clearly how indirect taxes can be both regressive and progressive.[3]
Answer:
(i) Advantages of indirect taxes are as follows:

1. Convenient: They are convenient to both the tax-prayer and the State. I he tax-payers do not feel the burden much partly because an indirect tax is paid in small amounts and partly because it is paid only when making purchases.

2. Broad-based: Indirect taxes can be spread over a wide range. Very heavy direct taxation at just one point may produce harmful effects on social and economic life. As indirect taxes can be spread widely, they are more beneficial and suitable.

(ii) The two characteristics of money are:

1. Acceptability supports the function of medium of exchange. The essential quality of money is that it must act as an item being acceptable to all, without having any hesitation in the exchange for goods and services. Acceptability means that everyone must be able to accept the money for transactions. Money is universally accepted around the world as a universal mean for transaction.

2. Portability: which also serves as a medium of exchange means that money can be movable from place to place to be used as monetary transaction to be exchanged for goods and services.
Portability also means that consumers are now able to carry money along with them to be used as transactions for goods and services. In modem days, money is carried from one location to another without needing much effort as all types of money such as cash notes, coins and cards are carried easily in a wallet.

(iii) Effects of inflation are wide-ranging in terms of the type of impact, recipient of impact, or even on the different economic scenarios. As mentioned earlier the impacts of inflation on production and distribution of wealth are prominent. The impact of inflation on production also depends on the type of inflation.

1. If inflation is a cost-push, then there will be a decline in production as the increase in production cost will hamper the confidence as well as meet the budget constraints of the producer.

2. In demand-pull inflation, there are high chances for an increase in production. The increase in money supply pushes the demand for goods and services up and this increased demand for existing goods will have a positive impact on the prices.
As higher prices are a production incentive, the producers tend to ramp up their production to meet the high demand. The demand-pull inflation also has a short-run positive impact on the stakeholders of production including the laborers as they tend to receive a higher wage.

(iv)
1. Indirect taxes are progressive when they are imposed on luxury goods which are consumed
by the richer sections of the society. They generate economic resources which can be spent on necessities of the poor masses.

2. Indirect taxes do not remain equitable when they are imposed on necessities. They become regressive in nature. They affect the poor more than the rich man. For example, a commodity tax imposed on food ingredients will affect a poor family to a much greater degree than a rich family.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) What is inflation?[2]
(ii) How public expenditure does promotes economic development. Give two points.[2]
(iii) Money is standard of deferred payments. Explain this statement.[3]
(iv) Suggest three measures to control inflation in the nation.[3]
Answer:
(i) Inflation refers to a situation in which prices rise and value of money falls or we can say inflation is the rate of increase in prices over a given period of time. For example, a sudden decrease in the supply of oil, leading to increased oil prices, can cause cost-push inflation.

(ii) Public expenditure promotes economic development in various ways:-

1. Public sector & capital formation: This sector has been a major reason for the generation of capital in the Indian economy. A large amount of the capital comes from the Public sector Units in India

2. Creation of Employment opportunities: Public sector has brought about a major change in the employment sector in the country. They provide a lot of opportunities under various domains and thus help in uplifting the Indian economy and society.

(iii) When money is generally accepted as a medium of exchange and a unit of value, it naturally becomes the unit in terms of which deferred or future payments are expressed. This function in fact is an extension function of money. The amount of loan is measured in terms of money and it is paid back in money.
A large number of credit transactions involving huge future payments are made daily. Money performs this function of standard for deferred payments because its value remains more or less stable.

(iv) Three measures adopted by government to control inflation in the nation are:-

1. Monetary measures: Monetary policy is one of the most commonly used measures taken by the government to control inflation. The government of a country takes several measures and formulates policies to control economic activities. Monetary policy is one of the most commonly used measures taken by the government to control inflation.

2. Fiscal Measures: Apart from monetary policy, the government also uses fiscal measures to control inflation. The two main components of fiscal policy are government revenue and government expenditure. In fiscal policy, the government controls inflation either by reducing private spending or by decreasing government expenditure, or by using both.

Price Control: Another method for ceasing inflation is preventing any further rise in the prices of goods and services. In this method, inflation is suppressed by price control, but cannot be controlled for the long term.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 3 with Answers

Question 7.
(i) State two objectives of fiscal policy.[2]
(ii) Can direct tax reduce income inequality? Explain.[2]
(iii) Write down three differences between fiscal policy and monetary policy[3]
(iv) What is CRR? How does it affect the creation of money by banks?[3]
Answer:
(i) Two objectives of fiscal policy are:

1. Economic growth: Reduction in inequalities of Income and Wealth: Fiscal policy aims at achieving equity or social justice by reducing income inequalities among different sections of the society. The direct taxes such as income tax are charged more on the rich people as compared to lower income groups.
Indirect taxes are also more in the case of semi-luxury and luxury items which are mostly consumed by the upper middle class and the upper class. The government invests a significant proportion of its tax revenue in the implementation of Poverty Alleviation Programmes to improve the conditions of poor people in society.

2. Reduction in inequalities of Income and Wealth: Fiscal policy aims at achieving equity or social justice by reducing income inequalities among different sections of the society. The direct taxes such as income tax are charged more on the rich people as compared to lower income groups.

Indirect taxes are also more in the case of semi-luxury and luxury items which are mostly consumed by the upper middle class and the upper class. The government invests a significant proportion of its tax revenue in the implementation of Poverty Alleviation Programmes to improve the conditions of poor people in society.

(ii) All those taxes which are directly imposed on income wealth and property are called as direct tax. They usually increase with increase in income. That is the reason we can say that direct tax reduces income equality.
Taxes and benefits have an impact on income being shared more equally between households.

Both cash benefits and income tax lead to an overall reduction in income inequality. For example- Income tax. It is a from of direct tax. People with more income will pay more tax and people with less income will pay less.

Monetary policy Fiscal policy
It is a financial tool that is used by the central banks in regulating the flow of money and the interest rates in an economy It is a financial tool that is used by the central government in managing tax revenues and policies related to expenditure for the benefits of the economy.
Managed by central bank Managed by finance ministry
Focuses on stability of an economy Focuses on growth of an economy.

(iii) Cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that it needs to maintain as liquid cash. This is an RBI requirement, and the cash reserve is kept with the RBI.

The higher the CRR, the lower is the liquidity with the banks and vice-versa. During high levels of inflation, attempts are made to reduce the flow of money in the economy. For this, RBI increases the CRR, lowering the loan able funds available with the banks. In other words If a depositor has made a stock investment in a bank, a higher CRR rate indicates that the bank will have lesser margins.

Similarly, when the CRR rate is low, banks have more money to invest in other firms, lowering loan interest rates. A bank does not earn interest on this liquid cash maintained with the RBI and neither can it use this for investing and lending purposes.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) The main objective of fiscal policy does not include:
(a) Price stability
(b) Optimum allocation  of resources
(c) Capital formation and growth
(d) Influencing supply and demand
Answer:
(d) Influencing supply and demand
Explanation:
Price stability, optimum allocation of resources, capital formation and growth are main objective of fiscal policy. As fiscal policy is a change in government expenditure and taxation designed to influence the pattern and level of activity. Influencing supply and demand is not the main objective of fiscal policy.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

(ii) The process whereby the real per capita income of a country increases over a long period of time is termed as:
(a) Economic growth
(b) Price stability
(c) Exchange stability
(d) Full employment
Answer:
(a) Economic growth
Explanation:
The process whereby the real per capita income of a country increases over a long period of time is termed as economic growth. A constant economic growth is one of the progressive indicator of the country.

(iii) Economic equality, increase in employment, welfare activities. These are some of the main objectives of:
(a) Private sector enterprise
(b) Public sector enterprise
(c) Mixed economy
(d) Capitalist economy
Answer:
(b) Public sector enterprise
Explanation:
Public sector enterprise works for the welfare of the society. They mainly focus towards economic equality, increase in employment other then public sector private sector always works for their personal profit and growth.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

(iv) Currency notes are form of:
(a) Paper money
(b) Electronic money
(c) Metallic money
(d) Credit money
Answer:
(a) Paper money
Explanation:
Paper money is a country’s official paper currency that is circulated for the transactions involved in acquiring goods and services. Paper money like 150,100, 200 notes are called as currency notes.

(v) Primary function of commercial banks involves:
(a) Acceptance of deposits
(b) Collection of statistics
(c) Giving advice on financial matters
(d) Safe custody of valuable goods
Answer:
(a) Acceptance of deposits
Explanation:
Acceptance of deposits is primary function of commercial banks and other functions like collection of statistics, giving advice on financial matters, safe custody of valuable goods are subsidiary functions of commercial banks.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

(vi) Sales tax, VAT are form of which type of tax:
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Proportional tax
(d) Regressive tax
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax
Explanation:
Sales tax, VAT are indirect form of tax as indirect tax is a type of tax where the incidence and impact of taxation does not fall on the same entity.

(vii) The measure which central bank adopt to encourage investment in the economy:-
(a) Decrease CRR
(b) Increase CRR
(c) Privatization
(d) Increase bank rate
Answer:
(a) Decrease CRR
Explanation:
By decreasing CRR central bank can encourage investment in the economy as lesser amounts of reserves banks have to keep with themselves and rest they can use for loan purpose.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

(viii) Rate of tax remaining same regardless of income such type of tax is called as:-
(a) Progressive tax
(b) Proportional tax
(c) Regressive tax
(d) Degressive tax
Answer:
(b) Proportional tax
Explanation:
Proportional tax is the kind of tax in which rate of tax remains same regardless of income.

(ix) Fiscal policy = Policy related to government expenditure and budget ……………..= Policv related to credit and supply of money
(a) Monetary policy
(b) Credit control policy
(c) Credit creation policy
(d) Economic development policy
Answer:
(a) Monetary policy
Explanation:
Monetary policy is the policy related to the credit and supply of money. It includes the control of qunatity of money available in the economy and the channels by which new money is supplied.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

(x) The full form of ATM is:-
(a) Any time machine
(b) Automatic teller machine
(c) All time money
(d) any time money
Answer:
(b) Automatic teller machine
Explanation:
The full form of ATM is automated teller machine.

Section-B[40 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Define SLR.[2]
(ii) Write any two services rendered by commercial banks.[2]
(iii) Elaborate any three contingent functions of money.[3]
(iv) Why developing nation likes India follow privatization? Give three reasons.[3]
Answer:
(i) SLR (Statutory liquidity ratio) is the minimum percentage of deposit that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities. The SLR is fixed by RBI.

(ii) Two services rendered by commercial bank are:

1. Accepting deposits: The commercial banks accepts deposit from people,businesses and other entities in form of saving deposits, time deposits, and current deposits.

2. Lending of funds: the second important function of commercial bank is lending funds to customers in form of loans, advances, cash credits,overdrafts and discounting of bills.

(iii) The contingent functions of money are discussed below:

1. Basis of credit: credit creation function by commercial banks is not possible without money. Money as a store of value has encouraged savings by peoplein form of demand deposits in the banks which are used by banks for credit creaiton.

2. Distribution of national income: Money helps in optimum distribution of income among different factors of production by genrating factor income as rent,interest, wages and profits.

3. Increase productivity of assests: Money increases the productivity of capital as it is the most liquid asset and can be put to alternative uses. Due to liquidity of money, capital can be easily transferred from less productive uses to more productive uses.

(iv) Developing nations like India should adopt privatization as it improves performance in long term and create positve envrionment for economic growth. Certain Arguments in favour of Privatization are as shown:

1. Reduction of Budgetary Deficits: The government can control its staggering(reducing) budgetary deficit by using the sale process on the shares in PSU’s(Public sector undertakings).

2. Creation of New jobs: If PSU’s start earning rich profits, several new projects will come up which in turn will help to generate more employment opportunities in the country.

3. Less political intervention: The PSU can perform their function in a more precise manner without much interference of political groups, which will help them in working more efficeintly and effectively.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) Write short note on the term open market operations.[2]
(ii) What is the difference between direct and indirect tax? Write two points.[2]
(iii) What do we mean by credit control? Write any two objectives of credit control.[3]
(iv) Explain the phrase “Lender of last resort”.[3]
Answer:
(i) Open market operations refer to the selling and purchasing of the treasury bills and government securities by the central bank of any country in order to regulate money supply in the economy. It is one of the most important ways of monetary control that is exercised by the central bank.

Direct tax Indirect tax
A direct tax is paid by the person on whom it is legally imposed or paid directly by the person concerend and because of which burden of tax cannot be shifted to another person. An indirect tax is imposed on one person but paid partly or wholly by another.lt is paid by one person but he recovers the same from another person i.e. person who actually bear the tax ultimate consumer.
Example- Income tax, Wealth tax Example- GST, Excise duty

(iii) Credit control is the most significant function of central bank by which it maintains the stability of monetary unit. It regulates the supply of currency and credit to ensure economic stability. Credit control deals with the regulation of credit by central bank for achieving some definite objectives.

The main objectives of credit control are as follows:

1. Stabilization of money market: Stabilization of money market is the foremost objective of central banks credit control policy so as to reduce the fluctuations in the interest rates.

2. Exchange rate stability: Instability in the exchange rates is harmful for the foreign trade of the country. Thus the central bank, in the countries which are largely dependent upon foreign trade, should attempt to eliminate the fluctuations in the foreign exchange rates through its credit control policy.

(iv) The phrase ‘Lender of the last resort’ is used in the context of central bank. As banker to the banks, the central bank performs funtion of “lender of last resort”. A lender of last resort is the institution in a financial system that acts as the provider of liquidity to a financial institution which finds itself unable to obtain

sufficient liquidity in the interbank lending market when other facilities or such sources have been exhausted.
It means that if commercial banks fail to meet their financial requirement from other sources, they can approach the central bank for help (loans and advances).

Therefore central bank provides financial assistance to commercial bank through discounting of approved securities and bills of exchange. It increases the elasticity and liquidity of the entire structure. In short central bank is ‘Lender of last resort’.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) Define mixed economy.[2]
(ii) Describe two objectives of public sector enterprise.[2]
(iii) Explain any three qualitative methods adopted under monetary policy.[3]
(iv) Write three differences between Tax and Price.[3]
Answer:
(i) A Mixed economy is an economic system that combines elements of a capitalist, market based system and Socialist economic system. India follows mixed economic system as it is the best option for the democratic nation like India to adopt working which fulfills public and private motives.

(ii) The main objectives of public sector undertakings are as follows:-

1. Balanced Regional Development: Public sector undertakings locate their plants in backward parts of the country. These areas lack basic industrial and civic facilities like electricity, water supply, township and manpower. Public enterprises then develop these facilities, thereby bringing about a complete transformation. Transformation in the socio-economic life of the people in these regions.

2. Employment Generation: Public sector creates millions of jobs to fight the obvious problem of unemployment in India.Furthermore, the public sector contributes a lot towards the improvement of working and living conditions of workers.

(iii) Following are the qualitative methods adopted under monetary policy.
1. Regulation of Consumer Credit: In this instrument, consumers’ credit supply is regulated through the instalment of sale and hire purchase of consumer goods. Here, features like instalment amount, down payment, loan duration, etc., are all fixed in advance, which helps to check the credit and inflation in the country.

2. Moral suasion: Moral suasion refers to the suggestions to commercial banks from the RBI that helps in restraining credits in the inflationary period. RBI implies pressure on the Indian banking system without taking any strict action for compliance with rules.

3. Rationing of Credit: RBI fixes a credit amount to be granted for commercial banks. Credit is given by limiting the amount available for each commercial bank. For certain purposes, the upper credit limit can be fixed, and banks have to stick to that limit. This helps in lowering the bank’s credit exposure to unwanted sectors. This instrument also controls the bill rediscounting.

(iv)

Tax Price
Tax is compulsory contribution to be paid by every citizen on whom it is imposed.People are not guaranteed with any benefit for the tax
paid by them.
Price is paid by the person who purchases goods and services.Price is direct payment for goods and services purchased
Taxes are imposed only by the government. Prices are fixed by producer and sellers of goods and services.
Amount collected by taxation is used for public welfare activities or for development process Benefits from pricing is mainly taken by the producer and seller of goods and services.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) What do we mean by Hyperinflation?[2]
(ii) Discuss the term “Rationing of credit”.[2]
(iii) Elaborate the role of CRR in credit creation process.[3]
(iv) How paper money is different from Electronic money? Write three points.[3]
Answer:
(i) Hyperinflation is a term to describe rapid, excessive and out of control general price increases in an economy. Hyperinflation is rapidly rising inflation. This type of inflation is caused by the issue of too much currency to finance government expenditure.

(ii) This is the qualitative method adopted under monetary policy. Under this method, the central bank fixes a limit for the credit facilities to commercial banks. Being the lender of last resort, central bank rations the available credit among the applicants. By adopting few ways, like Reducing the amount of loan, fixing quota of the credit, refusing the loan to any bank etc.

(iii) CRR refers to the minimum proportion of the total deposits that the commercial banks has to maintain with the central bank in the form of reserves. An increase in CRR would mean that banks would be required to keep a greater portion in form of deposits with the central bank.
This implies that the commercial banks are left with lesser amount of funds to lend out. Hence the lending capacity of the banks reduces, leading to fall in the money supply. On the contrary a fall in CRR will lead to an increase supply in the money.

Paper money Electronic money
The currency notes issued by the reserve bank of India except on rupee note issued by the government of India are examples of paper money. Electronic money is currency that is stored in banking computer system.
It is risky to carry paper money in huge quantity from one place to another. Electronic money is often considered safer and more transparent than physical currency; it is not without its risks.
It is tangible as we can tocuh paper money i.e; notes. It is intangible, we can see it but can’t touch it and feel it.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) Define monetary policy.[2]
(ii) What are the objectives of taxation? Give two points.[2]
(iii) Define commercial banks. Elaborate any two functions of commercial banks.[3]
(iv)”Commercial banks do not have unlimited capacity to control credit”. Explain with three points.[3]
Answer:
(i) Monetary policy is the control of the quantity of money available in an economy and the channels by which new money is supplied. By managing the money supply, a central bank aims to influence macroeconomic factors including inflation, the rate of consumption, economic growth, and overall liquidity.

(ii) The main objectives of taxation are as shown:

1. To raise revenue: The principal objective of taxation is to raise revenue for the government, which is needed for the provision of essential services and execution of other activities of the government.

2. Growth and development: Growth and improvement of a country depend on tax structure of that country. The tax money is used by the government for the process of development of the nation.

(iii) A Commercial bank is a financial institution which accepts deposits from the public and gives loans for the purpose of consumption and investment to make profit. Commercial banks include private sector banks and public sector banks.
The two functions of commercial banks are a shown:

1. Accept deposit: The bank takes deposits in the form of saving, current and fixed deposits. The surplus balances collected from the firm and individuals are lent to the temporary requirements of the commercial transactions.

2. Provides loans and advances: It offers loans and advances to the entrepreneurs and business people and collect interest. Loans are advances that a bank extends to his customers with or without security for a specified time and at an agreed rate of interest. Further, the bank credits the loan amount in the customers’ account which he withdraws as per his needs.

(iv) As we know that central bank work as an apex body to regulate and supervise the working of commercial banks. So there are certain limitation to the power of commercial bank .Limitations of the power to control credit are as follows:

1. Policy of central bank: The central bank can influence the powers of banks to create money. Commercial banks maintain CLR and SLR rate decided by central bank and have to follow rules and regulations made by central bank in relation with that.

2. CRR (cash reserve ratio): RBI decides the CRR and the need for maintaining adequate cash reserves sets a limit on the power of banks to create credit.Cash reserve ratio (CRR) is the percentage of a bank’s total deposits that it needs to maintain as liquid cash. This is an RBI requirement, and the cash reserve is kept with the RBI.

3. Amount of cash: The total amount of cash in the country sets another limitation on the power of the commercial banking system to create credit.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 2 with Answers

Question 7.
(i) Write two disadvantage of Indirect Tax.[2]
(ii) What do we mean by walking inflation?[2]
(iii) Explain any three social, political and moral consequences of Inflation in society.[3]
(iv) Give three reasons behind setting up an apex body above all the public and private banks in India.[3]
Answer:
(i) Demerits of indirect taxes are discussed below:

1. Unfair/Regressive: Both rich and poor people have to pay same amount of tax because taxes are included in the price of the products and services. So, poor people have to may more amount of their income as tax. So, indirect taxes are regressive and unfair in nature.

2. Inflationary: The indirect taxation proves to be highly inflationary when excessively relied upon. Higher tax rate increases the price of the products which may lead to inflation.

(ii) When rise in prices becomes more marked as compared with the situation obtaining under creeping inflation. Inflation of this rate is a warning signal for the government to control it before it turns into running inflation.

(iv) Inflation may cause many consequences some of them are as follows:

1. Inequality in Income Distribution Increases (Social effect): During inflation, businessmen and entrepreneurs experience an increase in profits. On the other hand, people belonging to the fixed-income groups experience a decline in their real income. Hence, the inequality in income distribution becomes acute during this period. It is said that inflation is socially unjust and inequitable for society. It is because it redistributed income and wealth in favour of those who are already well off.

2. Moral and ethical effects: Inflation breeds moral degeneration among people in general and business and official in particular.moral and economic problem with inflation is that it thrusts more and more people into higher-income tax-brackets while simultaneously decreasing their money’s spending power.

3. Upsets the Planning Process (Political effect): During inflation, the prices of goods, raw materials, and factor services increase. Therefore, the Government has to spend more money to complete any investment project taken up during the planning period.If the Government fails to raise more financial resources through savings or taxation, then it upsets the entire planning process.The lower social, moral and ethical values generate dissatisfaction among the common masses.

(v) In India Central bank work as an apex institution for all the public and private banks. As an apex institution it organizes, supervises, regulates and develops the monetary system by performing shown functions:

1. Banker’s bank: The central bank provides financial assistance to the scheduled commercial banks. RBI supervise and controls the activities of various scheduled commercial bank.lt lays down various policies for the working of the bank and revises them as and when necessary. It also releases a set of operational instructions. RBI records all the information related to credit.
Rules and regulations for the functioning of a bank are also clearly defined. If RBI feels that any transaction is unethical, doubtful or any suspicious activity is undertaken, they can interrogate the bank.

Control of credit: In order to ensure the internal price stability and economic growth the central bank undertakes the responsibility of controlling credit.The RBI decides the rates, and that is mandatory for every bank to follow. The rates can be the policy rates which include bank rate, the repo rate, the reverse repo rate, and marginal standing facility rate. The percentage of reserves that every bank has to maintain with the RBI is also decided by the RBI. It includes the cash reserve ratio (CRR) and the statutory liquidity ratio (SLR). RBI also decides the foreign exchange rates.

Monopoly of note issue: central bank has the monopoly rights of issuing notes of all denominations. This is called as currency authority function of central banks.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) Which of these is the apex bank of the Indian Banking System?
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Central Bank of India
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Canara Bank
Answer:
(c) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
Reserve bank of India is the apex bank of Indian banking system. It regulates money supply and credit in the country and controls monetary policy and banking system in India. It functions for the welfare of the economy and has the exclusive right to issue currency.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(ii) SLR stands for:
(a) Statutory Limit Rationing
(b) Standard Liquid Requirement
(c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(d) Standard Limit Rationing
Answer:
(c) Statutory Liquidity Ratio
Explanation:
SLR stands for statutory liquidity ratio. It is the minimum percentage of deposits that a commercial bank has to maintain in the form of liquid cash, gold or other securities. It is the reserve requirement that banks are expected to keep before offering credit to costomers. The SLR is fixed by RBI.

(iii) The policy of converting public ownership of an asset to private ownership is
(a) Nationalization
(b) Liberalization
(c) Globalization
(d) Privatization
Answer:
(d) Privatization
Explanation:
Privatization is the process to transfer of public ownership of an asset to private ownership. Privatization is a process mainly adopted to convert the loss generating public enterprises into private enterprise.

(iv) Which of these is generally a short term loan?
(a) Cash credit
(b) Home loans
(c) Overdraft
(d) Car loans
Answer:
(a) Cash credit
Explanation:
A cash credit is a short term source of financing for a company. It enables a company to withdraw money from a bank account without having a credit balance. The account is limited to only borrowing up to the borrowing limit. The interest is charged on the running balance and not the borrowing limit which is given by bank.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(v) Which of the following is a selective/qualitative method of credit control?
(a) Bank Rate
(b) Cash Credit Ratio
(c) Open Market Operations
(d) Moral suasion
Answer:
(d) Moral suasion Explanation:
Moral suasion is qualitative method of credit control, being used by Central Bank. It refers to advice, suggestions and persuasion which Central Bank exerts on member banks in order to follow its directues to regulate the supply of credit. It is a moral appeal of RBI to Commercial Bank urging them to restrain from certain line of credit operation.

(vi) Identify the type of taxation shown in the figure below:
D:\1-1-2020 (Shirisha)-work\ML Aggarwal Solutions.com\Oswal Gurukul Sample Question Papers ICSE Class X All Subjects Combined\Economics Applications\ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers
(a) Progressive taxation
(b) Regressive taxation
(c) Proportional taxation
(d) Degressive taxation
Answer:
(a) Progressive taxation
Explanation:
A tax is called as progressive when the rate of taxation increases.
As the tax payers income increases. In this tax system, the rate of tax goes on increasing with every increase in income.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(vii) Study the relationship in the first pair of words and complete the second pair:
Creeping inflation: 2% to 3%
Running inflation: ………
(a) 8% to 9%
(b) 8%to20%
(c) 3. 3% to 8%
(d) 20%to40%
Answer:
(b) 8% to 20%
Explanation:
When the price rise moderately at the rate of 2 to 3 percent per annum it is called as creeping inflation. This type of inflation is considered good as it helps to boost consumer demand, and consumption driving economic growth.
When prices rise rapidly at the rate of 8 to 20 percent per annum it is called as running inflation. This type of inflation has tremendous adverse effects on the poor and middle class. Its control requires strong monetary and fiscal measures.

(viii) Study the relationship in the first pair of words and complete the second pair:
Income tax: Direct tax
……………..: Indirect tax
(a) Property tax
(b) Entertainment tax
(c) House tax
(d) Road tax
Answer:
(b) Entertainment tax
Explanation:
Tax that a person and organization pays directly to the entity that imposed it is called as direct tax. Income tax is an example of direct tax.
Indirect tax is the tax imposed by the government on a taxpayer for goods and services rendered. Entertainment tax is an indirect tax imposed by the government

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

(ix) Which of the following does not belong to the group?
(a) Accepting deposits
(b) Giving loans
(c) Controlling credit
(d) Creating credit
Answer:
(c) Controlling credit
Explanation:
Accepting loans, giving loans, creating credit are some of the function of commercial banks except controlling credit as it is performed by the Central Bank. With this function the Central Bank regulates the credit granted by the Commercial Bank to its customers.

(x) A compulsory payment by the citizens of the country to the government without any expectation of corresponding benefits for such payments. This defines:
(a) Tax
(b) Subsidy
(c) Discount
(d) Concession
Answer:
(a) Tax
Explanation:
Taxes are the compulsory payment by the citizens of the country to the government without any expectation of corresponding benefits for such payments. Tax is one sided payment made by the citizen of the country to its government.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Section-B[40 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Define money. [2]
(ii) State two advantages of a bank account. [2]
(iii) Mention any three demerits of Public Sector Enterprises. [3]
(iv) What are direct taxes? State two merits of direct taxes. [3]
Answer:
(i) According to crowther : “money is defined as anything that is generally acceptable as a means of exchange and at the same time, act as a measure and store of value.”

(ii) Advantages of a Bank account are as follows:
1. Secured deposits: Bank accounts are safe and secure place to deposit money for short as well as long term and a customer can withdraw their money whenever they require.

2. Safe transaction: Through bank a customer can transfer his money from one place to another in simple, easy and safe manner.

(iii) The main demerits of public sector enterprise are:
1. Lack of initiative: As public enterprises do not face any competition because of which their employees do not take initiative towards profit increment, innovation and loss reduction.

2. Political Interference: Due to regular political and boreaucratic interference in the free and frequent transfer of employees from one palce to another, public sector enterprises face many problems daily administration of the enterprise.

3. Under utilization of capacity: A large number of public sector enterprises face losses due to underutilization of their capacity. Such underutilisation of capacity leads to an increase in the cost of production. A large number of public enterprises operates at 50% of their installed capacity.

(iv) Direct taxes refer to those taxes which are imposed on income, wealth and property. It is paid by those on whom they are legally imposed.
Merits of direct taxes
1. Economical: The cost of collecting direct taxes are low because of which they are economical option for the government.

2. Certainty: Direct taxes are certain as the tax payer knows how much tax is due himand when so he can adjust his income and expenditure. The government also knows the definite amount of tax revenue it will receive and can adjust its income and expenditure.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) What is Privatization? [2]
(ii) Differentiate between progressive taxation and proportional taxation. [2]
(iii) Briefly explain how Cash Reserve Ratio cart be used to control credit. [3]
(iv) Explain how money acts as a measure of value. [3]
Answer:
(i) Privatization refers to the transfer of ownership, management and control of public sector enterprise to the private sector. By this the government transfers the ownership of a government enterprise to the private stakeholders. The main objective of Privatisation is to make use of Privately owned resoureces for collective welfare of people.

Progressive Taxation Proportional Taxation
A tax is said to be progressive when the rate of tax increases as the tax payer’s income increases. A proportional tax is one in which the rate of tax remains the same and unaffected by the changing income.
In this type of taxation more tax is charged from high income groups and vice versa. In this type of taxation same percentage of tax is applicable for all income groups.

(ii) CRR refers to that portion of total deposits of a commercial bank which it has to keep with reserve bank in form of cash reserves. Thus all scheduled banks are required to maintain a certain proportion (CRR decided by the reserve bank) of their total deposits with reserve bank. By changing this ratio of reserves the reserve bank seeks to influence the credit creation power of commercial banks and use to control credit ratio in the country. Raising of the CRR leads to credit contraction and any reduction in the CRR brings about credit expansion.

(iii) The fundamental functions of money include measure of value which means that money serves as a unit of measurement in terms of which the values of all goods and services are measured and expressed. For example a phone may cost ₹ 10,000 or more, a laptop may cost ₹ 30,000 or more etc. When we express the value of commodity in terms of money it is called its price by which we justify the value of any commodity. Thus we can say money act as a measure of value.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) Name two instruments of Fiscal Policy. [2]
(ii) Explain why the purchasing power of money falls when price level rises. [2]
(iii) State three reasons why privatization is not always desirable. [3]
(iv) What are commercial banks? Name one commercial bank in India. [3]
Answer:
(i) Two instruments of Fiscal policy are:
1. Taxation: Taxes transfer income from people to the government either in direct or indirect manner. It reduces disposable income. Increase in taxation helps to control inflation.

2. Public Dept: It refers to loans raised by a government within the country or outside the country. It transfer the funds from the public to government.

(ii) By purchasing power of money we mean the amount of goods and services that a unit of money (e.g. rupee In India) can buy. Inflation (rise in price in the market) reduces the purchasing power of money. During inflation, people will be able to buy lesser amount of goods and services than before with same income.
In other words real income declines. So we can say purchasing power of money falls when price level rises. For example – The petrol Prices in Year 2020-1 litre petrol price was ₹ 90 Year 2021-1 litre petrol price rose to ₹ 100 Purchasing power of consumer having hundred rupees decreased as petrol price level increased.

(iii) Arguments in favour that why privatization is not always desirable are as discussed:
1. Public interest: Private sector always focuses towards their profit motive as their primary objective. Privatisation of many industries such as healthcare, education is not a good idea to follow.

2. Losing profits: Government losses out their dividends as some of privatised companies turn out to be profitable in long run.

3. Monopoly: Privatisation creates monopoly and there are certain sectors such as water, rail which need to be regulated in fair manner so that consumer should be protected against abuse.

(iv) Commercial banks are those institutions which deal with money and credit. They accept deposits from the public, advancing loans creating credit, advancing loans and offers basic financial products to individuals and businesses. The general role of commercial bank is to provide financial services to the general public and business, ensuring economic and social stability and sustainable growth of the economy. HDFC is one of the many commercial banks in India.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) Give one difference between qualitative and quantitative credit control. [2]
(ii) What is galloping inflation? [2]
(iii) State three differences between a commercial bank and a central bank. [3]
(iv) What type of tax is Goods and Services Tax? State two features of this type of tax. [3]
Answer:

Qualitative credit control Quantitative credit control
They focus on alternative uses of credit in an economy. These measures control the flow of credit to specified areas of economic activity by adopting various methods for example- margin requirement moral suasien etc. These methods influence the total volume of credit without differentiating between essential and non-essential uses of credit by adopting various methods for example -bank rate, CRR, etc.

(ii) When prices rise very fast at double or triple digit rates from more than 20 to 100 percent per annum or more it is usually called as galloping inflation. This situation brings total collapse of the monetary system because of the continuous fall in the parchasing power of money.

(iii)

Commercial Bank Central Bank
Commercial Bank deals in money and credit for purposes of earning profit. An apex institution of the monetary and banking structure of the country.
It just operates under the guidelines of the Central Bank It regulates the entire banking system of the country.
It does not have monopoly right of note issue It has the monopoly right note issue

(iv) GST is a type of indirect tax which is introduced to boost the economic growth of India. GST has 3 Parts.

1. CGST (Central goods and Service Tax)
2. SGST (State goods and Service Tax)
3. IGST (Integrated goods and Service Tax)

Features of indirect tax are :

  1. They are paid to the government by one person but their burden is borne by another person.
  2. Indirect taxes are imposed on goods and services which people consumes.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) Give two reasons as to why a central bank is needed. [2]
(ii) Mention two important differences between Public Sector and Private Sector. [2]
(iii) Explain how taxes can bring about equality in income distribution. [3]
(iv) What are term/time deposits? Explain any one type of term deposit. [3]
Answer:
(i) Two reasons why central bank is needed are:
1. Central bank plays a crucial role in ensuring economic and financial stability by making rules and regulations related to the banks and their functions.

2. They resulate monetary policy to achieve low and stable inflation and helps in economic development of the country.

Public sector Private sector
This sector is controlled and managed by the government. This sector is owned by private individual
This sector is focoses on serving the general people of the country i.e., Public welfare Activites in private sector are guided by the motive to earn profit.

(ii) Government makes budgetary policies which include taxation policies which help in reducing inequalities of income and wealth. It aims to influence the distribution of income by imposing high taxes on rich section of society and reduce tax on essential goods for poor people. This will reduce the income of rich and thus reduce the inequalities in the distribution of income and wealth among people.

(iii) It is an investment in which some amount is deposited at an agreed rate of interest for a fixed period of time. These deposits can be withdrawn only after the expiry of a certain fixed time period.

Type of term deposit:
Short term and long term deposit- These term deposits have been classified on the basis of holding period of the investment. A short term deposit has a period ranging from 1 to 12 months. Long term deposits have a lock in period ranging from 1 to 10 years. These deposits provide higher interest rate than short term deposits.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Sample Question Papers 1 with Answers

Question 7.
(i) What is bank rate? [2]
(ii) What are current accounts? [2]
(iii) Can inflation lead to economic development? Give a reason for your answer. [3]
(iv) Explain how an increase in sales tax can cause an increase in price. [3]
Answer:
(i) Bank rate is the rate at which Central Bank lends money to commercial banks against approved securities. A charge in Bank rate leads to change in other interest rate prevailing in the market. Central Bank use Bank rate as a instrument to control credit.

(ii) In current account amount can be deposited and withdrawn any number of times. It is opened by businessman who conducts a higher number of regular transactions with the bank. Bank provide the overdraft facility to the current account holder. No interest is paid on this type of account.

(iii) Inflation is good for the economy because as the economy grows demand for the goods also increases, increasing demand pushes the prices forward or higher and suppliers try to create more products by increasing production to cope up with the increasing demand. Increase in production creates more employment opportunities and need for more labour will arise in market. This will improve the economic conditions all over the country. So we can say that moderate inflation leads to economic development.

(iv) Sales tax is a form of indirect tax and the imposition and increment in indirect taxes increases the market prices of the goods and services. The introduction of indirect tax increases the firms cost of production. It results in the equilibrium price to fall on a result the market supply curve shifts to the left. This result in new equilibrium at a lower quantity and higher price than initial equilibrium. It leads to increase in the price.

ICSE Class 10 Economic Applications Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The IUPAC name of Ethylene is:
(a) Propane
(b) Propyne
(c) Ethene
(d) Ethyne
Answer:
(c) Ethene
Explanation:
Ethylene is the common name of ethene. Its structure is given by CH2 = CH2. Ethene is called ethylene because it looks like an ethyl group having a double bond between the two carbon atoms.

(ii) Carbon to carbon double bond is found in:
(a) 2-Butylene
(b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Acetic acid
(d) Ethyl alcohol
Answer:
(a) 2-Butylene
Explanation:
Structure of 2-butylene contains a double bond between the two carbon atoms. It can also be verified directly by its IUPAC name. As its name contains ‘ene’ as a suffix, this means it contains a double bond. On the other hand, acetaldehyde contains an aldehyde group; acetic acid is common name of ethanoic acid which contains a carboxylic group; and ethyl alcohol contains an alcoholic group.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(iii) Fused alumina is reduced to aluminium by electrolytic reduction, since:
(a) Alumina is highly stable.
(b) Alumina is least stable.
(c) Alumina is not reduced by drying agents.
(d) Alumina is not reduced by reducing agents.
Answer:
(a) Alumina is highly stable
Explanation:
Alumina or aluminium oxide (Al2O3) is a very stable compound as it has great affinity for oxygen. Therefore, it is not reduced by common reducing agents like carbon, hydrogen or carbon monoxide. Hence it is reduced by electrolytic reduction known as Hall Heroult’s process.

(iv) The catalyst preferred in the conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide is:
(a) Finely divided iron
(b) Graphite
(c) Vanadium pentoxide
(d) Platinum
Answer:
(c) Vanadium pentoxide
Explanation:
Vanadium pentoxide is appropriate catalyst which is preferred over platinum in conversion of sulphur dioxide to sulphur trioxide because platinum is more expensive and get easily poisoned with impurities.

(v) Substitution reaction is a characteristic property of:
(a) Alcohols
(b) Alkanes
(c) Alkenes
(d) Alkynes
Answer:
(b) Alkanes
Explanation:
Alkanes undergoes substitution reaction with halogens like chlorine, bromine, iodine in presence of sunlight or ultraviolet light to give respective alkyl halides as a product.

(vi) The gas evolved when dilute sulphuric acid reacts with iron sulphide:
(a) Sulphur dioxide
(b) Carbon dioxide
(c) Hydrogen sulphide
(d) Nitrogen dioxide
Answer:
(c) Hydrogen Sulphide
Explanation:
Iron sulphide reacts with dilute sulphuric acid to give ferrous sulphate and hydrogen sulphide (H2S) gas. The reaction is given as
FeS + H2SO4 → FeSO4 + H2S (↑)

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(vii) An acid obtained from concentrated nitric acid on reaction with Sulphur:
(a) Carbonic acid
(b) Sulphuric acid
(c) Nitric acid
(d) Hydrochloric acid
Answer:
(b) Sulphuric acid
Explanation:
Concentrated nitric acid reacts with sulphur to give H2SO4, water and nitrogen dioxide gas. Therefore, the acid obtained during this reaction is sulphuric acid. The reaction is given as:
S + 6HNO3 → H2SO4 + 2H2O + 6NO2

(viii) The hydroxide soluble in excess of ammonium hydrogen is:
(a) Zinc hydroxide
(b) Lead hydroxide
(c) Magnesium hydroxide
(d) Ferrous hydroxide
Answer:
(a) Zinc hydroxide
Explanation:
Zinc hydroxide (Zn(OH)2) is amphoteric in nature, i.e., it can react with both acid and base. Excess of ammonium hydroxide can easily dissolve zinc hydroxide.

(ix) The chemical name of the principal ore of aluminium is:
(a) Sodium aluminium fluoride
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Hydrated Aluminium fluoride
(d) Hydrated aluminium oxide
Answer:
(d) Hydrated aluminium oxide
Explanation:
The principal ore of aluminium is bauxite having molecular formula Al2O3.2H2O. Since it contains two molecules of water of crystallisation therefore its chemical name is hydrated aluminium oxide.

(x) A hydrocarbon which is a greenhouse gas.
(a) Acetylene
(b) Ethylene
(c) Ethane
(d) Methane
Answer:
(d) Methane
Explanation:
Methane gas (CH4) absorbs outgoing heat radiation from the earth and hence is a greenhouse gas which leads to change in temperature and climate of earth’s atmosphere. It is a primary component of natural gas.

Section-B
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Define: [2]
(a) Catenation
(b) Alloy
(ii) Name the compound formed when: [2]
(a) Ethene reacts with hydrogen in the presence of a catalyst.
(b) Bauxite reacts with sodium hydroxide
(iii) Draw the structural diagram of: [3]
(a) Propanal
(b) Ethanoic acid
(c) 1, 2-Dichloroethane
(iv) Complete and balance the following chemical equations: [3]
(a) C2H6 + O2
(b) C2H2 + I2
(c) NH3 + HCl →
Answer:
(i) (a) Catenation: The self-linking property of atoms of an element to form very long straight or branched chains and cyclic rings is known as catenation. This property is shown by carbon whose small size and tetravalency helps it to form large structures by self-linking.

(b) Alloy: A homogeneous mixture of two or more metals or metals with non-metals is known as alloy. For example- Duralumin is a homogeneous mixture of aluminium, copper, magnesium and manganese.

(ii) (a) Ethane
Explanation:
When ethene reacts with hydrogen in presence of suitable catalyst like Ni at about 150°C temperature then ethane is formed, i.e., saturated compound is formed from unsaturated compound. This reaction is known as hydrogenation of ethene and is given as
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers 1

(b) Sodium meta aluminate
Explanation:
Bauxite reacts with sodium hydroxide at 140°C – 150°C to give sodium meta aluminate and water. Also, insoluble impurities are left behind as mud which consists ferric oxide, sand, etc. The reaction is given as:
Al2O3.2H2O(S) + 2NaOH(aq) → 2NaAlO2(aq) + 3H2O

(iii) (a) The propanal consists of three carbon atoms and an aldehyde as a functional group. Its molecular formula is given by C3H60 or CH3CH2CHO. Its structure is given as:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers 2

(b) Ethanoic acid consists of two carbon atoms and carboxylic acid as a functional group. Its molecular formula is CH3COOH. Its structure is given as:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers 3

(c) 1,2-Dichloroethane has only two carbon atom and two chlorine atoms one at each carbon atom. Its molecular formula is C2H4Cl2 or ClCH2 – CH2Cl. Its structure is given as:
ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers 4

(iv) (a) 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 4CO2 + 6H2O
Explanation:
When hydrocarbons are heated in presence of oxygen then combustion reaction takes place giving carbon dioxide gas, water and heat and light energy.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(b) C2H2 + I2 → C2H4I2
Explanation:
When ethene (C2H2) reacts with iodine then addition reaction takes place leading to attachment of iodine on both sides. The product formed is 1,2-Di-iodoethane or Ethylene iodide.

(c) NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl
Explanation:
When ammonia gas is added to hydrochloric acid then ammonium chloride is produced whose presence can be detected by formation of white fumes.

Question 3.
(i) Identify the anion present in the following compounds. [2]
(a) Compound Z which on reacting with dilute sulphuric acid liberates a gas which has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate but turns lime water milky.
(b) The solution of Compound L on reacting with freshly prepared ferrous sulphate solution followed by addition of few drops of concentrated sulphuric acid to the reactants along the sides of a test tube forms a brown ring at the junction of the two liquids.
(ii) State the following: [2]
(a) The drying agent used in the laboratory preparation of HCl gas.
(b) Products formed when ammonia is burnt in excess of oxygen.
(iii) State the observation for the following, when: [3]
(a) Manganese dioxide reacts with concentrated HCl.
(b) A glass rod dipped in concentrated HCl acid is brought near ammonia gas.
(c) Concentrated sulphuric acid is added to carbon.
(iv) Write balanced equation for the following conversions: [3]
(a) Lead sulphate from lead nitrate and sulphuric acid.
(b) Nitrogen tri chloride from ammonia.
(c) Sodium chloride from sodium sulphite and dilute hydrochloric acid.
Answer:
(i) (a) Carbonate ion (CO32-)
Explanation:
Compound Z is a salt of carbonate (CO32-) or bicarbonate (HCO3). Carbonates and bicarbonates react with dilute sulphuric acid to give metallic sulphate, water and carbon dioxide gas. This gas has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate but it turns lime water milky which confirms the evolution of carbon dioxide gas during the reaction.

(b) Nitrate ion (NO3)
Explanation:
The formation of brown ring at the junction of the two liquids indicates the brown ring test which is generally performed to test the presence of nitrate ion (NO3). Hence the compound L must contain the nitrate ion in order to give brown ring on reacting with ferrous sulphate followed by addition of sulphuric acid along the sides of the test tube.

(ii) (a) The drying agent used in laboratory preparation of HCl gas is concentrated sulphuric acid. As sulphuric acid is non-volatile in nature therefore it helps in removing the moisture and hence act as drying agent.

(b) Ammonia bums with yellowish green flame in excess of oxygen. The products obtained during this reaction are nitrogen gas and water. The reaction is given as:
4NH3 + 3O2 (excess) → 2N2 + 6H2O

(iii) (a) When manganese dioxide gas reacts with concentrated HCl then liberation of greenish – yellow
gas is observed. This gas is chlorine which turns moist iodide starch paper blue black. The reaction is given as:
MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + 2H2O + Cl2

(b) When a glass rod dipped in HCl is brought near to the ammonia gas then thick white fumes coming out of the glass rod is observed. These white fumes are observed due to the formation of ammonium chloride gas. The reaction is given as:
NH3 + HCl → NH4Cl

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(c) Sulphuric acid is a strong oxidising agent. When it is added to carbon it oxidises carbon and evolution of colourless gas is observed. This gas is carbon dioxide along with sulphur dioxide gas. The reaction is given as:
C + 2H2SO4 CO2↑ + 2H2O + 2SO2

(iv) (a) The reaction of lead nitrate with sulphuric acid to give lead sulphate is given as:
Pb(NO3)2 + H2SO4 → PbSO4 + 2HNO3

(b) The reaction of ammonia with excess of chlorine gives yellow coloured highly explosive liquid nitrogen trichloride. The reaction is given as:
NH3 + 3Cl2 → NCl3 + 3HCl

(c) The reaction of sodium sulphite with dilute hydrochloric acid gives sodium chloride, water and sulphur dioxide gas. The reaction is given as:
Na2SO3 + 2HCl → 2NaCl + H2O + SO2 (↑)

Question 4.
(i) State the relevant reason for the following:
(a) A layer of powdered coke is used over the electrolytic mixture in Hall Heroult’s process.
(b) Graphite anodes are continuously replaced during the electrolysis of alumina.
(ii) Name the alloys for the given composition: [2]
(a) Magnesium and aluminium
(b) Magnesium + Manganese + Aluminium + Copper
(iii) Identify the terms for the following: [3]
(a) The experiment which demonstrates high solubility of ammonia gas.
(b) A method used to collect HCl gas.
(c) The electrode where reduction takes place.
(iv) Complete the table given below: [3]

Name of the process Reactants Acid product formed
(a) ________ Nitrogen dioxide + water + oxygen (b) ________
(c) ________ Oleum + water Sulphuric acid

Answer:
(i) (a) A layer of powdered coke is used over the electrolytic mixture in Hall Heroult’s process due to
following reason:
(I) It prevents burning of anode.
(II) It reduces heat loss by radiation.

(b) Oxidation process takes place at anode. In this process oxygen is released which oxidises the anode made up of graphite to carbon monoxide which further oxidises to give carbon dioxide. Therefore, the anode is needed to be replaced from time to time.

(ii) (a) Magnalium
Explanation:
Magnalium is an alloy of aluminium in which homogeneous mixture of aluminium and magnesium is made. This alloy is light and strong in nature.

(b) Duralumin
Explanation:
Duralumin is an alloy of aluminium in which a homogeneous mixture of aluminium, copper, magnesium and manganese is made. It is light in nature but as strong as steel.

(iii) (a) Fountain Experiment
Explanation:
The high solubility of ammonia gas in water can be demonstrated by performing the fountain test in which fountain of litmus solution is obtained when ammonia dissolves in water.

(b) Upward displacement of air (or downward delivery)
Explanation:
HCl gas is heavier than air therefore it is collected by displacing air from downward position to upward position. The HCl gas is collected at the bottom of the container. This process is known as upward displacement of air.

(c) Cathode
Explanation:
The cathode is a negatively charged electrode in electrolytic process where reduction takes place. This electrode is rich in electrons therefore it helps cation to gain electrons and undergo a reduction reaction.

(iv) (a) Fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.
Explanation:
The reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water and oxygen is the last step of the preparation of nitric acid from atmospheric nitrogen gas. The conversion of free atmospheric nitrogen into useful nitrogenous compounds in the soil is called fixation of atmospheric nitrogen.

(b) Nitric acid
Explanation:
The reaction of nitrogen dioxide with water and oxygen gives nitric acid. The reaction is given as:
4NO2 + 2H2O + O2 → 4HNO3

(c) Contact process
Explanation:
Contact process is the process used for the manufacturing of sulphuric acid at industrial scale. The given reaction is the last step of the contact process in which oleum is diluted to give sulphuric acid.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) Write the balanced chemical equation to show the concentration of ore in Baeyer’s process. [2]
(a) Sodium aluminate to aluminium hydroxide
(b) Aluminium hydroxide to alumina
(ii) Select the correct answer from the brackets to complete the following statements: [2]
(a) The catalyst used in the oxidation of ammonia is ________ [zinc / platinum].
(b) The product formed when ammonia reacts with oxygen is ________ [nitric oxide / nitrous oxide]
(iii) Name the following organic compound: [3]
(a) The compound with 3 carbon atoms whose functional group is a carboxylic acid.
(b) The first homologue whose general formula is CnH2n.
(c) The compound formed by complete chlorination of ethyne.
(iv) Answer the following questions related to the laboratory preparation of the hydrogen chloride gas: [3]
(a) Why is sodium chloride preferred to other metallic chlorides?
(b) State the temperature required in the preparation.
(c) Write the chemical equation.
Answer:
(i) (a) NaAlO2 + 2H2O → NaOH + Al(OH)3 (↓)
Explanation:
Sodium aluminate on hydrolysis at 50°C gives sodium hydroxide and precipitates of aluminium hydroxide. This step is done in order to remove the impurities.

(b) 2Al(OH)3 → Al2O3 + 3H2O
Explanation:
Aluminium hydroxide upon heating at 1000°C gives alumina, i.e., aluminium oxide and water.

(ii) (a) Platinum
Explanation:
The catalyst used in catalytic oxidation of ammonia is platinum whereas zinc is not suitable for this purpose as it can react with ammonia in presence of moisture.

(b) Nitric oxide
Explanation:
When ammonia is oxidised in presence of suitable catalyst then nitrous oxide (NO) is formed. The reaction is given as:
4NH3 + 5O2 → 4NO (↑) + 6H2O

(iii) (a) Propanoic acid
Explanation:
As the compound consist of 3 carbon atoms therefore its IUPAC name will start from propane. The suffix for functional group carboxylic acid is ‘oic acid’. This suffix is added to base name by removing letter ‘e’. Therefore, the final name is propanoic acid.

(b) Ethene
Explanation:
CnH2n is the general formula for the homologous series of alkene. The first member of alkene family is the compound having two carbon atoms which is known as ethene. Methene is not possible as at least two carbons are required for the formation of double bond.

(c) 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro ethane
Explanation:
The complete reaction of ethyne with chlorine gives 1,1,2,2-Tetrachloro ethane. The reaction in steps is given as:
(I) C2H2 + Cl2 → ClCH = CHCl
(II) ClCH = CHCl + Cl2 → Cl2CH – CHCl2

(iv) (a) Sodium chloride also known as common salt is cheap and easily available. Therefore, it is used over other metallic chlorides in the preparation of hydrogen chloride.

(b) The temperature used during the laboratory preparation of hydrogen chloride is nearly 200°C. The temperature above 200°C is not preferred as it can lead to breakage of glass apparatus and wastage of fuel.

(c) The chemical reaction of sodium chloride with sulphuric acid is given as:
NaCl + H2SO4 → HCl(↑) + NaHSO4

Question 6.
(i) Distinguish between the following: [2]
(a) Dilute HCl and dilute HNO3[ using silver nitrate solution]
(b) Dilute HCl and dilute H2SO4[using lead nitrate solution]
(ii) Give one word for the following statements: [2]
(a) Naturally occurring minerals from which metals are extracted.
(b) Organic compounds having the same molecular formula but different Structural formula.
(iii) A, B and C are the chemical properties of sulphuric acid: [3]
A. Oxidizing agent
B. Dehydrating agent
C. Non volatile acid
Match the following equations 1 to 3 to the above chemical properties of sulphuric acid.
1. KNO3 + H2SO4 → KHSO4 + HNO3
2. C12H22O11 → 12C + 11H2O
3. S + 2H2SO4 → 2H2O + 3SO2
(iv) Study and complete the following table:

Homologous series Alkane Alkyne
General formula CnH2n+2 1. ________
IUPAC name 2. ________ Ethyne
Common name Marsh gas 3. ________

Answer:
(i) (a) We can distinguish between dilute HCl and dilute HNO3 using silver nitrate. Dilute HCl reacts
with silver nitrate solution to give white precipitate of silver chloride. On the other hand, dilute HNO3 does not reacts with silver nitrate. The reaction of HCl with AgNOs is given below:
HCl + AgNO3 → AgCl (↓) + HNO3

(b) Both dilute HCl and dilute H2SO4 will react with lead nitrate to give white precipitates of lead chloride and lead sulphate respectively. In order to distinguish them, both are added to hot water. The PbCl2 precipitates dissolve in hot water while Pb(SO4)2 precipitates does not dissolve in hot water. The reactions involved are given as:
2HCl + Pb(NO3)2 → PbCl2 (↓) + 2HNO3
H2SO4 + Pb(NO3)2 → PbSO4 (↓)+ 2HNO3

(ii) (a) Ores
Explanation:
Ores are those naturally occurring minerals from which the metals can be extracted commercially at comparatively low cost and with minimum effort.

(b) Isomers
Explanation:
More than one structure can be drawn from same molecular formula. For example, three different structures can be drawn from pentane (C5H12). These different structures having same molecular formula are called isomers.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(iii) The chemical properties of sulphuric acid along with their correct chemical equation is given below in the table:

Chemical Properties Chemical Equations
A. Oxidizing agent 3. S + 2H2SO4 → 2H2O + 3SO2
B. Dehydrating agent 2. C12H22O11 → 12C + 11H2O
C. Non-volatile acid 1. KNO3 + H2SO4 → KHSO4 + HNO3

Explanation:
(A) Sulphuric acid is a strong oxidising agent which means it can easily add oxygen to other elements or compounds. So, it is used to oxidise sulphur to sulphur dioxide.

(B) Sulphuric acid is a very strong acid therefore it can easily remove water from carbohydrates like sucrose (C12H22O11). In this reaction pure form of carbon is obtained along with water.

(C) Sulphuric acid has high boiling point therefore it is considered as almost non-volatile in nature and hence this property is used in manufacturing of other volatile mineral acids like HNO3. Therefore, reaction of sulphuric acid with potassium nitrate represents the non-volatile character of sulphuric acid.

(iv) 1. CnH2n-2
Explanation:
The general formula of alkyne is CnH2n-2. Due to the presence of triple bond four hydrogens are removed from the molecular formula of alkane. For example, in case of ethyne the two carbons have already formed triple bond therefore they only need one more bond in order to complete their octet.

2. Methane
Explanation:
The IUPAC name of the first member of alkane family is methane. Also, the common name given in the table is Marsh gas which is common name of methane gas.

3. Acetylene
Explanation:
The common name of ethyne is acetylene as it contains acetyl group. This name was coined by a French chemist (Marcelin-Pierre-Eugene Berthelot) in 1864.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Eonomics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which inflation is considered healthy for economy?
(a) Creeping inflation
(b) Walking inflation
(c) Running inflation
(d) Hyper inflation
Answer:
(a) Creeping inflation
Explanation:
Creeping or crawling inflation remains in the limit of 2-3 percent annual inflation which is considered healthy for the economy as it gives additional inducement to businessmen to invest.

(ii) In this deposit account, an account holder has to deposit certain fixed amount every month for a specified period:
(a) Fixed deposit account
(b) Current account
(c) Savings bank account
(d) Recurring deposit account
Answer:
(d) Recurring deposit account
Explanation:
In Recurring deposit account, an account holder has to deposit certain fixed amount every month for a specified period.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(iii) RTI stands for:
(a) Referred True Instance
(b) Right to Information
(c) Reliance Transport Insurance
(d) Rural Trust of India
Answer:
(b) Right to Information
Explanation:
RTI stands for Right to Information.

(iv) Which of them is considered to be the banker to the government?
(a) Central Bank of India
(b) Dena Bank
(c) Reserve Bank of India
(d) Federal Bank
Answer:
(c) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
Reserve Bank of India is considered to be the banker to the government.

(v) The formula of Credit Multiplier is:
(a) 1/R
(b) R/P
(c) R/l
(d) P/R
Answer:
(a) 1/R
Explanation:
The formula of Credit Multiplier is 1/R. R stands for cash reserve ratio.

(vi) This is not a function of a Central Bank:
(a) Maintaining law and order
(b) Issue of notes
(c) Government’s bank
(d) Managing exchange rate
Answer:
(a) Maintaining law and order
Explanation:
Maintaining law and order is the function of Police and a Central Bank.

(vii) Under demonetisation, the Indian Government cancelled the legal tender status of the notes of:
(a) ₹500
(b) ₹1000
(c) ₹2000
(d) Botha, andb.
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Under demonetization, the Indian Government cancelled the legal tender status of ? 500 and ? 1000 notes.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(viii) When the government acquires the unclaimed property or assets of dissolved trusts, then it is known as:
(a) Fee
(b) Special assessment
(c) Gift
(d) Escheat
Answer:
(d) Escheat
Explanation:
When the government acquires the unclaimed property or assets of dissolved trusts, then it is known as Escheat.

(ix) PDS stands for:
(a) People’s Department of Security
(b) Public Distribution System
(c) Priority Department Section
(d) Poverty Dissolution Scheme
Answer:
(b) Public Distribution System
Explanation:
The full form of PDS is Public Distribution System.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

(x) When the rate of tax decreases as the slab of income increases, then such tax is known as:
(a) Proportional tax
(b) Regressive Tax
(c) Natural Tax
(d) Excellent tax
Answer:
(b) Regressive Tax
Explanation:
When the rate of tax decreases as the slab of income increases, then such tax is known as Regressive Tax.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) What do you understand by public expenditure?[2]
(ii) Who is a consumer?[2]
(iii) What are the causes of rise in public expenditure?[3]
(iv) Write three ways of consumer protection.[3]
Answer:
(i) Public expenditure refers to the expenditure incurred by the public authorities such as central government, state government or local government to satisfy those common wants which the people in their individual capacities are unable to satisfy efficiently. Public expenditure thus tends to satisfy collective social wants.

(ii) A person who has indicated his or her willingness to obtain goods and/or services from a supplier with the intention of paying for them is termed as consumer.

(iii) The main reasons for the increase in public expenditure are as follows :

1. Developmental Work: Modern State has to take up developmental work in addition to their primary functions of administration and defense. For example, the Central and State Governments in India perform a large variety of developmental functions. The rise in developmental work is the primary cause of rise in public debt.

2. Rise in Price Level: As a result of the rise in price-level, the public expenditure has gone up everywhere. The reason is that the Government also has to buy goods and services from the market even if their prices are higher.

3. Greater Expenditure on Internal and External Security: Government has to spend today more and more on the maintenance of internal and external security which results into rise in public expenditure.

(iv) The three ways of consumer protection are:

1. Self-regulation by Business: Business community can help to achieve protection and satisfaction of consumers through disciplining their own self by adopting higher ethical standards. The trade associations and chambers of commerce may regulate the unfair trade practices used by some businessmen.

2. Consumer Self Help: Consumer may make efforts to know about his own rights. He should not allow the shrewd businessmen to cheat him.

3. Legislative Regulations: Consumer associations, consumer rights, Consumer Protection Act, consumer protection councils are the laws and bodies which help to regulate consumer protection.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) What is suppressed inflation?[2]
(ii) Write about the following:[2]
(a) Specific taxes
(b) Ad-valorem taxes
(iii) Write three differences between Central Bank and Commercial Bank.[3]
(iv) Explain the agency functions of a Commercial Bank.[3]
Answer:
(i) Suppressed inflation refers to a situation when there exist inflationary pressures in the economy but prices are controlled by certain administrative measures, such as price-control and rationing. The increase in prices is suppressed here. The controls ensued by the government on the prices of essential commodities in times of war is an example of suppressed inflation.

(ii)
(a) Specific Taxes: Taxes which are levied on the basis of units or weight, length and capacity are
called specific taxes.

(b) Ad valorem Taxes: When the taxes are levied on the basis of value of commodities irrespective of their size, length and weight etc., they are called ad-valorem taxes.

(iii) Following are the three differences between central bank and commercial bank:

Central Bank Commercial Bank
1. The Central Bank is the apex monetary institution which has been specially empowered to exercise control over the banking system of the country. 1. A commercial bank is a constituent unit of the banking system.
2. The Central Bank does not operate with a profit motive. 2. A commercial bank is normally guided by profit motive.
3. The Central Bank has the monopoly of issuing notes. 3. A commercial bank does not enjoy such right.

(iv) Apart from the functions of accepting deposits and providing loans, the commercial banks also render additional services to their customers and act as agents of the customers in such functions. The services so rendered are termed as ‘agency functions’ of the bank, some of which are as below :

1. Collection and Making Payments for Credit Instruments : The bank collects the payment of the bills of exchange, promissory notes, cheques, etc., on behalf of its customers.

2. Collection of Dividend : The bank collects the dividends and interests on shares and debentures as per the instructions of its customers.

3. Remittance of Funds : The banks also transfer funds from one branch of the bank to another according to the instructions of the customers.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) What is clearing house function of RBI?[2]
(ii) Write about the following:[2]
(a) Industrial Banks
(b) Agricultural Banks
(iii) Differentiate between public and private finance.[3]
(iv) Explain the functional classification of public expenditure.[3]
Answer:
(i) The Reserve Bank of India provides a clearing house facility to the commercial banks by settling the claims of various banks on each other, by adjusting the book entries. All the commercial banks have accounts with Reserve Bank of India and the RBI also holds the cash reserves of the commercial banks as such and makes clearing adjustments accordingly by means of debits and credits.

(ii)
(a) Industrial Banks: They generally extend long term loans to industries. In addition, they also help industrial firms to sell their debentures and shares.

(b) Agricultural Banks : They fulfill the needs of credit of the farmers by providing loans to buy seeds, fertilizers, etc., or to purchase land for further improvements of land.

Public Finance Private Finance
Adjustment of Income and Expenditure A government first prepares an estimate of expenditure and then means to raise that sum. The individual first estimates income and adjust his expenditure to his income.
Deficit Financing The government can print new notes to meet her expenditure. An individual cannot do so
Different Objectives The objective of government expenditure is to maximize social benefit. The objective of private expenditure is to maximize personal utility of profit.

(iv) On the functional basis, the public expenditure has been classified into following three groups:

(a) Protective expenditure : This includes the expenditure incurred by the government on the purchase of arms and ammunitions, maintenance of army, police, administration of justice, and jails.

(b) Commercial expenditure : This includes the expenditure incurred by the government on the commercial activities like the running of railways, roadways, construction of highways, etc., which are undertaken by the government in public interest.

(c) Developmental expenditure: This includes the expenditure incurred by the government on social and economic development of the country like the expenditure made on providing education, health, recreation, public utility facilities to the community.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) What is the relationship between value of money and price level?[2]
(ii) Write about the following:[2]
(a) AGMARK
(iii) What are the merits of indirect taxes?[3]
(iv) Write any three causes of demand pull inflation.[3]
Answer:
(i) The price level and the value of money have inverse relationship. The higher the price level, the smaller is the power of money to purchase and thus the value of money would be lower and with the lower price level the purchasing power would increase along with the increase in the value of money.

(ii)
(a) AGMARK: The term AGMARK is the amalgamation of two words, i.e., ‘AG’ to mean agriculture
and ‘MARK’ for a certification mark. Hence ‘AGMARK’ is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards laid down by Government.

(b) The Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS): The BIS is the national standard body of Indian Government. BIS works with the objectives of ensuring safe and reliable quality goods and minimising health hazards to consumers. BIS achieve these objectives by providing various kinds of certifications like ECOMARK and ISI on various categories of products.

(iii) The various merits of indirect taxes are:

1. Convenient: Indirect taxes are mostly levied on commodities and are paid by consumers when they buy them in the market. The amount of the tax is included in the price of the commodity and the consumer pays the tax without experiencing its pinch.

2. Wide coverage: Indirect taxes has wider coverage in the sense that they are paid by all the sections of the community at the time of making purchases of goods in the market; in the form of sales tax or customs duty.

3. No Possibility of Evasion: No person can evade the indirect taxes, because they are collected in the form of higher prices of goods sold to the consumers.

(iv) Following are the three causes of demand pull inflation:

1. Increase in Income: With the increased income of the people, their demand rises for the goods and services which results into the rise in the prices.

2. Hoarding of Black Money: Black money means unaccounted money. It is created through tax- evasion. Such money is spent on non-productive activities like buying real estate, gold smuggling, luxurious living, etc. which are responsible for price-rise.

3. Increase in Population: It is another major cause for rise in prices. Increase in population refers to increased demand of consumer goods which puts a pressure on existing supply of goods and services, thus resulting in inflation.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) Write about the following:[2]
(a) Compulsory Debts
(b) Unproductive Debts
(ii) What is tax?[2]
(iii) What are the characteristics of good tax system?[3]
(iv) Explain the circumstances which lead to food adulteration.[3]
Answer:
(i)
(a) Compulsory Debts: When government borrows from people by using coercive methods, loans so raised are referred to as compulsory public debts.

(b) Unproductive Debts: When government borrows for non-developmental purposes such as for maintaining public administration, armed forces, judiciary etc., such debt is known as unproductive debt. Such debt does not raise the productive capacity of the country but are taken to maintain it.

(ii) Taxes are compulsory contributions, imposed by the government on its citizens, to meet its general expenses incurred for the common good, without any corresponding benefits to the tax payer.

(iii) A good tax system should possess the following characteristics:

1. It should ensure maximum social advantage. Fund of taxation should be used to finance public services.

2. It should cause minimum aggregate sacrifice. In a good tax system, the allocation of taxes among tax-payers is made according to the ability to pay. It falls more heavily on the rich and less on the poor. It should be reasonably progressive so as to minimize the gap of inequality of income and wealth in the community, thereby ensuring their better distribution.

3. The entire structure of the tax system should have built-in flexibility, so that changes are possible according to the changing conditions of a dynamic economy. It should be possible to add or withdraw a tax without destroying the entire system and its balancing effect.

(iv) Circumstances leading to food adulteration are as follows:

1. Greater demand for food items than supply.

2. Temptation for quick gain by greedy traders.

3. Lenient attitude of government officers towards enforcement of laws on food safety

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Eonomics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question write the correct answer only.)
(i) Who gave the functional classification of public expenditure?
(a) Adam Smith
(c) David Ricardo
(b) J. S.Mill
(d) Lionel Robbins
Answer:
(a) Adam Smith
Explanation:
Adam Smith gave the functional classification of public expenditure.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(ii) Which of them is not a reason of consumer exploitation?
(a) Lack of unity among consumers
(c) Assembly elections
(b) Misleading advertisements
(d) Low literacy among consumers
Answer:
(c) State elections
Explanation:
Assembly elections is in no way associated with consumer exploitation.

(iii) When was the last demonetization initiated in India?
(a) 26th January 2014
(c) 08th November 2016
(b) 15th September 2015
(d) 16th December 2017
Answer:
(c) 08th November 2016
Explanation:
Last demonetisation in India was initiated on 8th November 2016.

(iv) This is a measure of inflation:
(a) PQLI
(c) CPI
(b) AQI
(d) CRR
Answer:
(c) CPI
Explanation:
Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of inflation in India.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(v) Expenditure on defence, law and order, civil administration and debt services is known as:
(a) Tertiary expenditure
(c) Marked expenditure
(b) Secondary expenditure
(d) Primary expenditure
Answer:
(d) Primary expenditure
Explanation:
The expenditure on defence, law and order, civil administration and debt service items is known as primary expenditure on the basis of classification given by Findlay Shirras.

(vi) The full form of GST is:
(a) General Services Tax
(c) Goods and Services Tax
(b) Gross Settlement Tax
(d) Generalised Superior Tax
Answer:
(c) Goods and Services Tax
Explanation:
The full form of GST is Goods and Services Tax.

(vii) This does not come under the scope of Public Finance:
(a) Foreign Trade
(c) Public Debt
(b) Public Revenue
(d) Financial Administration
Answer:
(a) Foreign Trade
Explanation:
Foreign Trade does not come under the scope of Public Finance.

(viii) What is the full form of COPRA?
(a) Convenient Poverty Right Act
(c) Complaint Power Regulation Act
(b) Consumer Protection Act
(d) Consumer Power Reaction Act
Answer:
(b) Consumer Protection Act
Explanation: .
The full form of COPRA is Consumer Protection Act.

(ix) Open Market Operations is a measure of credit control.
(a) Religious
(c) Qualitative
(b) Unknown
(d) Quantitative
Answer:
(d) Quantitative
Explanation:
Open Market Operations is a Quantitative measure of credit control.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

(x) Highest rate of interest to a customer is available on:
(a) Current account
(c) Savings bank account
(b) Fixed deposit
(d) Credit card
Answer:
(b) Fixed deposit
Explanation:
Highest rate of interest to a customer is available on Fixed deposit.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) What is special assessment?[2]
(ii) What do you mean by consumer exploitation?[2]
(iii) Write differences between direct and indirect taxes.[3]
(iv) How do you understand that food has been adulterated? (Three Points)[3]
Answer:
(i) Special Assessment is also called as betterment charge. The government charges this tax when the government carries some activities of public improvement such as construction of roads, provisions of drainage and sanitation, street lighting etc., which apart from providing common benefits also results into special benefits to some people such as the appreciation in the value of their properties. Hence, a levy in proportion to this increase in wealth is called special assessment.

(ii) When a consumer is cheated in any way, either by shopkeeper or the producer, by giving him poor quality or adulterated goods or by charging more price of a commodity or a service, it is called as consumer exploitation.
Consumer exploitation is said to take place when any of the following conditions take place:

1. When the producers cheat consumers of their hard earned money and hurt them either physically, mentally or financially by selling goods or services is called consumer exploitation.

2. Consumer exploitation also refers to the anti-consumer trade practices like adulteration of goods, offering spurious goods, unfair trade practices, etc., by the producers or the sellers.

(iii) Following are the differences between direct and indirect taxes:

 Direct Taxes Indirect Taxes
 The tax is paid by the same person, on whom it is imposed, e.g. income tax, property tax, profit tax, etc. The tax is imposed on one person and the final burden is borne by some other person, e.g. GST, excise duty, sales tax etc
 These taxes generate civil consciousness. These taxes do not generate civil consciousness.
They are more susceptible to evasion. They are less susceptible to evasion.

(iv) Food is said to be adulterated under the following conditions:

  1. If it contains inferior or injurious substances.
  2. If it contains prohibited preservatives or excess of permitted preservatives.
  3.  If it contains toxic ingredients that are injurious to health.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) What is CRR?[2]
(ii) What do you understand by unproductive expenditure?[2]
(iii) Why is consumer protection needed?[3]
(iv) What are the features of tax?[3]
Answer:
(i) All the commercial banks have to keep a certain percentage of their net deposits with the Central Bank. This percentage is known as Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). By increasing the cash reserve ratio, the excess reserve of the commercial bank is reduced which restricts the credit-granting capacity of the commercial bank. Similarly, the reduction in cash reserve ratio increases the capacity of commercial banks to expand credits.

(ii) Unproductive expenditure refers to the expenditure which does not increase the productive capacity of the nation. Rather helps to maintain it at the present level. For example, maintenance of army for defence, police for law and order, etc., are unproductive expenditure. But unproductive expenditure does not mean a wasteful expenditure.

(iii) Consumer protection is needed for the following reasons:

1. For the Physical Protection of a Consumer: Consumer protection is needed against the products that are unsafe or harmful to the health and welfare of a consumer.

2. Protection against Environmental Hazards: Consumer protection is needed against the use of chemical fertilizers, certain refinery complexes that pollute air, water and food and cause a threat to human life.

3. Protection from Deceptive Advertising: Consumer protection is needed against some producers who give incorrect information about their products and the consumer is misled by such fake advertisements which cost hard on their pockets.

(iv) The main features of a tax are as follows :

1. A tax is a compulsory payment to the government to be paid by the citizens who are liable to pay it.

2. There is no direct quid-pro-quo between the tax payers and the public authority. In other words, the tax-payer cannot claim reciprocal benefits against the taxes paid.

3. A tax is levied to meet public expenditure incurred by the government in the general interest of the nation. It is a payment for direct and indirect services provided by the government to the community as a whole.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) Explain the bankers’ bank function of RBI.[2]
(ii) What is cost push inflation?[2]
(iii) What are the demerits of direct taxes?[3]
(iv) Describe the composition of a district forum.[3]
Answer:
(i) The Reserve Bank acts as Banker’s Bank in the following respects:

1. The Reserve Bank provides financial assistance to the scheduled commercial banks by discounting their eligible bills and granting loans and advances against approved securities.

2. The RBI has been empowered the right to supervise and control the activities of various scheduled commercial banks. These powers are related to licensing, branch expansion, liquidity of assets, management and methods of working of the bank, and the inspection of banks etc.

(ii) Cost push inflation refers to any inflationary rise in prices due to increase in costs. The rise in cost may take place due to the rise in wages, rise in the prices of raw materials or increase in profit margin etc.

(iii) Following are the main demerits of direct taxes:

1. Inconvenient: The greatest drawback of direct taxes is that they put the tax-payer to a lot of botheration and inconvenience, both financial and psychological. He has to make sufficient provisions for paying the tax, no matter whether he is facing some financial crisis.

2. Evadable: By submitting false returns of income, the direct taxes are likely to be evaded which results into emergence of black money in the economy.

3. Uneconomical: The direct taxes are uneconomical to collect when the number of tax payers is large but the tax amounts they pay are small.

(iv) Each district forum consists of:

1. A president, who is or has been qualified to be a district judge, to be nominated by the State Government.

2. A person of eminence in the field of education, trade or commerce.

3. A lady social worker.
Each member of the forum will hold office for a term of five years or up to the age of 65 years whichever is earlier and will not be eligible for re-appointment.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) Write any two features of inflation.[2]
(ii) What is discounting of Bill of Exchange?[2]
(iii) Write any three qualitative credit control measures.[3]
(iv) Write characteristics of degressive taxes.[3]
Answer:
(i)
1. Inflation is always associated with a rise in prices which is continuous and persistent.

2. Excess of demand of goods and services over the available supply is the basic cause of inflation. It is a condition of economic disequilibrium.

(ii) The banks provide financial help to the merchants and exporters by way of discounting their bills of exchange. In such facility, the bank pays the amount of bill presented by the customer after deducting the usual bank discount. In this way, the customer gets the amount of the bill before the date of its maturity. As such the bank assists its customers to a great extent by accepting their bills and providing them with liquid assets (money).

(iii) The qualitative credit control measures are:

1. Credit Rationing: The RBI may specify a ceiling limit on the maximum amount of credit which can be given to a specific industry or sector of economy. This way the credit may be channelised towards the priority sectors. This is known as credit rationing.

2. Change in Margin Requirements: Margin is the percentage difference between the value of the security offered by borrowers against the loan and the amount of loan or advance granted by the banks. For example, against the asset worth ₹ 1 lakh offered as security, the bank may approve loan of ₹ 90,000. Hence, the margin requirement is 10 percent. RBI may change this limit to influence the amount of credit in the economy.

3. Moral Suasion: Suasion means to persuade. It is a method of request and advice to the commercial banks by the Central Bank. Under certain circumstances, the Central Bank requests and persuades the commercial banks not to grant credits for speculative and non-essential activities and follow RBI’s Instructions.

(iv) The various features of regressive taxation are as follows:

1. Regressive taxation is a mixture of proportional and progressive tax system.

2. In this system the tax rate rises with the rise in income and becomes stable at a higher slab of the income.

3. Regressive tax finds its application in the practice of income tax in India.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) What are the two limitations of public debt₹.[2]
(ii) Write about the following:[2]
(a) Recurring Deposit Account
(b) Cash Credit
(iii) Explain the “Custodian of Foreign Exchange” function of the central bank.[3]
(iv) Explain the credit creation function of a commercial bank.[3]
Answer:
Two limitations of public debt are as given below:

1. Possibility of Excessive Borrowing: Public debt is an easy way of borrowing for the government. There may be a possibility that government may borrow in excess of what may be required. In this situation the government may fall into the situation of debt trap.

2. Taxation for Repayment: Generally public debts are raised for financing public project. It is assumed, that repayment of these debt will be made from the outflow of these projects. But in practice this does not happen. At the time of repayment of these debts, the government imposes new taxes to raise money for repayment of debts. Thus, public debt leads to a greater tax burden on the public.

(ii)
(a) Recurring Deposit Account: In case of such deposits, an account holder has to deposit certain
fixed amount every month for a specified period. The amount accumulated along with interest is paid to the depositor after the specified period. Rate of interest paid by the bank is higher than the savings account but less than the fixed deposit account.

(b) Cash Credit: In cash credit, the bank advances a ‘cash loan’ up to a specified limit to the customer against a bond or any other security. A borrower is required to open a current account and bank allows the borrower to withdraw up to the full amount of the loan. The interest is charged only on the amount actually utilised by the borrower and not on the loan sanctioned.

(iii) Custodian of foreign exchange reserves is an important function of a central bank. Under this system, the central bank controls both, receipts as well as payments of foreign exchange. All the receipts of foreign exchange ultimately reach to the reservoir of the central bank. Similarly, it provides foreign exchange to various distributing agencies from its reservoir so that they may provide the foreign exchange to the needy.
It may buy or sell foreign currencies in the market to minimize the fluctuations which in turn helps to maintain stable foreign exchange rate in the market. During the period of emergency, the Reserve Bank may impose control on transaction of foreign currencies in the market. In this way, Reserve Bank performs the duty of custodian of exchange reserves.

(iv) The commercial banks are known as the creator of credit. The commercial banks perform this function through advancing of loans. The process of credit creation takes place in the following way:
It is a general practice that whatever money comes in a bank in the form of primary deposit, the bank provides loans on the basis of such deposits by keeping a certain portion as statutory reserve. But whenever a bank grants a loan to their customers, it does not lend the money in cash but opens an account in the name of the customer and credits (transfers) that amount of loan to his account.
In other words, whenever a loan is granted by a bank, the bank creates a deposit known as secondary or derived deposits. As the deposits of the bank circulate as money (demand deposits) in the economic system, such creation of secondary deposits lead to a net increase in the money-stock of the economic system. This act of bank is known as creation of credit.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Eonomics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
(Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question write the correct answer only.)
(i) Inflation means …………rise in price
(a) Continuous
(b) Sustainable
(c) No
(d) High
Answer:
(a) Continuous
Explanation:
Inflation means a state of general rise in prices. It is a situation in which prices of goods and services rise constantly at a fast pace.

(ii) The debt which yields income to the government is called as:
(a) Gross
(c) Unproductive
(b) Productive
(d) Internal
Answer:
(b) Productive
Explanation:
When government borrows for developmental expenditure so that it generates revenue then, the debt is productive.

(iii) Capital expenditure is in nature.
(a) Non-recurring
(b) Recurring
(c) Simple
(d) Complex
Answer:
(a) Non-recurring
Explanation:
Capital expenditure either creates assets or reduces liability of the government which are non – recurring on regular basis.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(iv) Public Distribution system is a measure of government to protect the consumers.
(a) Administrative
(b) Technical
(c) Collateral
(d) Demonstrative
Answer:
(a) Administrative
Explanation:
Public Distribution System is an administrative measure of government to provide food security to poor people.

(v) Under Right to Information any citizen of India may request information from a authority.
(a) Public
(b) Private
(c) Personal
(d) Professional
Answer:
(a) Public
Explanation:
The Right to Information Act 2005 is a law enacted by the Parliament of India, giving citizens of India access to records of the “public authority”, i.e., Central Government and State Governments.

(vi) Public debt whose principal amount is not refunded by the government is:
(a) Redeemable debt
(b) Irredeemable debt
(c) Social
(d) Public
Answer:
(b) Irredeemable debt
Explanation:
The loans for which no promise is made by the government regarding the date of maturity, but pay interest regularly, are called irredeemable debts.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

(vii) Goods and Services Tax (GST) is an example of:
(a) Direct tax
(b) Indirect tax
(c) Income tax
(d) Local tax
Answer:
(b) Indirect tax
Explanation:
Goods and Services Tax is the example of Indirect tax. It has replaced the plethora of other Indirect taxes such as excise duty and sales tax etc.

(viii) Revenue which is derived by the government from Railway fares is
(a) Commercial revenue
(b) Administrative revenue
(c) Social revenue
(d) Welfare revenue
Answer:
(a) Commercial revenue
Explanation:
Revenue which is derived by the government from Railways fare is called as Commercial revenues. These are the receipts, by way of prices paid for government produced goods and services e.g., postal charges and railway freight and fares.

(ix) Overdraft facility is available on:
(a) Saving account
(b) Current account
(c) Posting account
(d) Time deposit
Answer:
(b) Current account
Explanation:
The overdraft facility is allowed to the depositor maintaining a current account with the bank.

(x) Bank having power of note issue in India is:
(a) State Bank of India
(b) Reserve Bank of India
(c) Canara Bank
(d) Federal bank
Answer:
(b) Reserve Bank of India
Explanation:
The central bank has the monopoly of issuing currency notes of the country. India’s central bank is Reserve Bank of India.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) What is the meaning of consumer awareness?[2]
(ii) Define public debt.[2]
(iii) Differentiate between Demand deposit and Fixed deposit. (Three points)[3]
(iv) Explain any three duties of a consumer.[3]
Answer:
(i) Consumer awareness is the knowledge that a consumer should have about his/her legal rights and duties. An aware consumer is able to make informed choices while purchasing various goods and services of appropriate quality and at appropriate prices.

(ii) Public debts are the loans taken by the government. Such loans can be taken internally from the residents of the country as well as externally from the foreign governments, institutions and people. The public debts taken by the government carry interest burden on them which are to be paid back by the government along with the principal amount at a mutually agreed date.

Demand Deposit Fixed Deposit
A depositor can withdraw the money from such deposits at any time. A depositor can withdraw the money from such deposit generally only after the period of time agreed upon by the bank and the depositor.
Usually no interest or very low interest is paid by the bank on such deposits. The interest rates are higher in case of such deposits.
This deposit does not help depositors’ money to grow effectively. This deposit helps depositors’ money to grow effectively.

(iii) Following are the three duties of a consumer:

  1. To check the Maximum Retail Price of the product. A consumer must not pay price more than MRP.
  2. Take a proper bill of the purchase.
  3. If the product is found defective or non-performing then to take up the matter first with the manufacturer and then with the courts if not resolved by the manufacturer.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) Give one point of difference between creeping and running inflation.[2]
(ii) Why is central bank called as a Tender of last resort’ for a commercial bank?[2]
(iii) Explain any three rights of a consumer.[3]
(iv) Differentiate between revenue and capital expenditure. (Three points)[3]
Answer:
Following is the main difference between creeping and running inflation:
(i) Creeping inflation, also known as ‘mild inflation’ generally consists of 2-3 percent annual rise in prices and is generally known as conducive to economic progress and growth while running inflation consists of sustained rise in prices over 8 percent to 20 percent per annum. Running inflation is a warning signal indicating the need for controlling it. It affects the poor and middle class people adversely.

(ii) The Central Bank of the country is called the “Lender of the Last Resort” because it provides financial help to the commercial banks in times of emergency. Sometimes, the commercial bank may face liquidity shortage and may not get funds from other banks due to some reason. Under such circumstances, the Central Bank either grants loan or purchases the securities of that commercial bank to help it out. Thus, the Central Bank of the country acts as lender of the last resort for the commercial banks.

(iii) Following are the three rights of a consumer:
1. Right to choose: A consumer has every right to choose the product he desires. He cannot be compelled to buy things he does not want. For example, many of the gas cylinder providing agencies compel consumers to buy Gas Stove and other accessories from them on a new connection. Similarly, many schools compel parents to buy shoes, dress, and stationery from them. All these are denial to the Right to Choose and this is unlawful.

2. Right to information: A consumer has Right to Information. This means he has every right to know about the contents of the product, its Maximum Retail Price, its manufacturing and expiry time, the proper way of using or handling the product, manufacturer’s information, warranty coverage and certification of quality assurance etc. This helps a consumer to buy product from a reliable seller or manufacturer.

3. Right to safety: A consumer has every right to use safe and secure products. It is the responsibility of the manufacturer and seller to provide quality and defect free products. Proper instructions regarding ‘How to Use’ and ‘What Not to Do’ must be provided with the products.

(iv) Following are the three differences between Revenue and Capital Expenditure:

Revenue Expenditure Capital Expenditure
Revenue expenditure does not affect the asset- liability status of the government. Capital expenditure affects the asset- liability status of the government.
Revenue expenditure is of recurring nature. Capital expenditure is of non-recurring nature.
Revenue expenditure is incurred within the given productive capacity of the country. Capital expenditure is incurred to augment the productive capacity of the country.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Question 4.
(i) Define public expenditure.[2]
(ii) What does public finance mean?[2]
(iii)
(a) Mention two sources of public revenue.[3]
(b) Explain the term Internal debt.
(iv) Explain any three causes of cost push inflation.[3]
Answer:
(i) Public expenditure is the expenditure incurred by the public authorities (central, state and local governments) to satisfy those common wants which the people in their individual capacity are unable to satisfy efficiently. Public expenditure thus tends to satisfy collective social wants.

(ii) Public finance is the study of the financial aspects of the government. The various financial aspects which are studied by Public finance are the revenues, expenditure and debts of the central, state and local governments and their financial administration.

(iii) (a) Following are the two sources of public revenue:

1. Tax: The government has the right to collect compulsory contributions from the residents of the country in the form of various types of taxes to meet its general expenses incurred for the common good, without any corresponding benefits to the tax payer.

2. Fines: The government can charge the money in the forms of fines from the residents of the country as a monetary punishment for violating the laws like speeding more than the permitted limit or breaking traffic rules.

(b) Internal Debt: When the government takes the loans from the residents of the country which may include individuals, households and institutions etc. then such loan is known as internal debt. The internal debt may be voluntary or compulsory.

(iv) Following are the three causes of cost push inflation:

1. Fluctuations in Output and Supply: The wide fluctuations in production of raw materials, food grains and vegetables in the agriculture sector generally results into the price rise. The power breakdowns, strikes and lockouts result in lower production of manufactured goods which increase the cost.

2. Rise in Wages: The rise in the general price level raises the cost of living which, in turn, leads to demand for higher wages by workers. When the demand for higher wages is met, it leads to further rise in costs or prices.

3. Increases in Profit Margins: High profit margins charged by the producers due to their monopolistic position or emergency situations push up the prices. This kind of inflation is termed as profit induced inflation.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) Explain the term progressive tax.[2]
(ii) What does Consumer price index mean?[2]
(iii)
(a) What is the full form of COPRA?[3]
(b) Mention any two features of COPRA.
(iv)
(a) Define inflation.[3]
(b) What does hyper inflation mean?[3]
Answer:
(i) Progressive Tax refers to a kind of tax system in which rate of tax increases with the rise in tax payer’s income. The term “Progressive’ indicates to the way the tax rate progresses from low to high with the result that a person with low income pays less tax while a person

(ii) Consumer Price Index, also known as cost of living index is a measure that represents the average change over time in the prices of a basket of specific items consumed by the consumers.

(iii)
(a) Consumer Protection Act (COPRA), 2019.
(b)
(i) COPRA provides a consumer the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or exploitation by businessmen.
(ii) This Act covers almost all goods and services.

(iv)
(a) Inflation means a state of general rise in prices. It is a situation in which prices of goods and
services constantly rise at a fast pace. So, the inflation refers to a state of rising prices and not a state of high prices.

(b) Hyper inflation also known as galloping inflation, which occurs when annual increase in prices is more than 20 percent to 100 percent or even more. The economic situation becomes very dangerous. Money becomes almost worthless which results in complete collapse of currency and the monetary system and the economic and political life get disrupted.
with higher income pays higher tax.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Question 6.
(i) Explain the term food basket.[2]
(ii) What are the demerits of indirect tax?[2]
(iii) Explain the different rights of a consumer.[3]
(iv) Why are the consumers exploited by retailers?[3]
Answer:
(i) Food Basket refers to the combination of various food items which should be included as part of a person’s diet so that his everyday nutritional requirements can be fulfilled. The food basket is generally prepared with the objective of determination of poverty line for various groups in the country.
(ii) Following are the various demerits of indirect taxes:
1. Regressive: Indirect taxes are not equitable as they are regressive in nature. They are to be paid by even the poorest of the poor on many essential commodities such as medicines or packaged milk.

2. Inflationary: Indirect taxes tend to be highly inflationary. The imposition of indirect taxes on commodities increases their market prices. This tends to raise the cost of living for the people which results in the demand for higher wages by the worker. Thus indirect taxes generate a spiral of higher price, higher costs, higher wages and again higher price.

(iii) Different rights of a consumer are:

1. Right to be Heard: This means that consumer grievances will receive due consideration at appropriate forums. For this purpose, the consumers should form non-political and non¬commercial consumer organizations and other bodies to give them unity and a platform to voice their problems.

2. Right to Seek Redressal: This means a consumer has the right to seek redressal against unfair trade practices or unscrupulous exploitation. For this purpose, a consumer must make complaint for his genuine grievances at the appropriate forum.

3. Right to Consumer Education: A consumer has the right to acquire the knowledge and skill to be an informed consumer throughout life. Ignorance of the rights is responsible for his exploitation. He should know his rights and must exercise them. Only then consumer exploitation will be prevented.

(iv) The consumers are exploited by the retailers due to following reasons:

1. Low Literacy: Consumers’ low literacy leads to their exploitation by the retailers. For example many consumers are not aware of the differences between yards and meters related to cloth and between kilogram and liters in relation to ghee.

2. Lack of Bargaining Power: Proper bargaining helps in reducing the prices of the goods. But under many circumstances consumers lack the bargaining power.

3. Emergencies: Retailers often manipulate the pricing of the product during emergencies and in the absence of government control as had happened during Corona crises.

ICSE Class 10 Economics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Consider the following figure:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 1
What kind of vibration the picture depicts?
(a) Forced
(b) Free
(c) Damped
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
In damped vibration the amplitude reduces with time due to some external resistive force. Thus it is both forced and damped vibration.

(ii) Four pendulums A, B, C, and D are suspended from a piece of rubber string XY, as shown in figure. Pendulums A and D have same lengths of l. Pendulums B and C have lengths of l1 and l2, respectively.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 2
Which of the following will experience resonance when pendulum A is brought into vibration by setting its bob to one side normal to the length of XY?
(a) B
(b) C
(c) D
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(c) D
Explanation:
The vibrations produced in pendulum A will act as forced vibration to other pendulums through the rubber string XY. The pendulums B and C will remain in the state of forced vibrations while the pendulum D will come in the state of resonance. Because the natural frequency of pendulum D is equal to that of pendulum A (both pendulums A and D have the same length), energy will only be exchanged between the pendulums A and D. As a result, resonance will occur in pendulum D only.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

(iii) The piston of a truck makes ‘to and fro’ motion at a frequency controlled by the speed of the vehicle. Is it possible that some part of the engine vibrate vigorously due to resonance? If so, what’s the reason behind it?
(a) It is not possible.
(b) It is possible only if the truck moves at maximum velocity of the truck.
(c) It is possible only if the truck moves with the same velocity of its engine parts.
(d) It is possible only if the truck’s running velocity is such that vibration frequency of some parts matches with the natural frequency of the piston.
Answer:
(d) It is possible only if the truck’s running velocity is such that vibration frequency of some parts matches with the natural frequency of the piston.
Explanation:
Resonance will occur only if the truck’s running velocity is such that vibration frequency of some parts matches with the natural frequency of the piston.

(iv) Which of the following trend in V-I graph will never be obtained when two resistors of resistance 2 Ω and 6 Ω are connected in parallel?
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 3
(a) Trend A
(b) Trend C
(c) Trend B
(d) Both Trend A and B
Answer:
(b) Trend C
Explanation:
Whether the resistances are connected in series or parallel. It will be a straight line. So trend C will not appear.

(v) Which of the following is the approximate order of size of nucleus?
(a) 10-15 to 10-9 m
(b) 10-24 to 10-15 m
(c) 10-15 to 10-14 m
(d) 10-25 to 10-9 m
Answer:
(c) 10-15 to 10-14 m
Explanation:
The nucleus of an atom can be found at the centre of an atom whose size is of the order of 10-15 to 1CT14 m and it consists of protons and neutrons where both proton and neutron are charged particles.

(vi) Three bulbs, A, B, and C are connected in parallels with a battery of 16 V and a switch, as shown in the figure below. Resistance of bulb A is twice of B but half of C. Answer the following questions?
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 4
Which bulb will have access to minimum amount of current?
(a) Bulb A
(b) Bulb B
(c) Bulb C
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Bulb C
Explanation:
As bulbs are in parallel connection, the only thing that will determine accessible current is resistances of the bulb. As bulb C has highest resistance, it will carry less current.

(vii) Two wires X and Y of equal resistance is allowed to carry the current for equal time. If the ratio of current passing through wire X and wire Y is 1:3, what is the ratio of heat produced (HX:HY) by them?
(a) 1:9
(b) 1:3
(c) 3:1
(d) 9:1
Answer:
(a) 1:9
Explanation:
Heat produced, (H) = I²Rt.
Here R and t are constant.
Thus, HX/HY = (IX /IY)² = 1/9.
Thus the ratio of heat produced (HX:HY) = 1:9.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

(viii) In electric lamp, electrical energy changes into which of type/types of energy?
(a) Mechanical energy and light energy
(b) Light energy and heat energy
(c) Heat energy and chemical energy
(d) Chemical energy and nuclear energy
Answer:
(b) Light energy and heat energy
Explanation:
In electric lamp, electrical energy gets converted into light energy and heat energy. The bulb is heated, as a result of this heat energy.

(ix) What is nucleons?
(a) Electrons that are orbiting nearest to the nucleus.
(b) Electrons that are orbiting farthest to the nucleus.
(c) Combination of neutrons and protons.
(d) A newly discovered particles.
Answer:
(c) Combination of neutrons and protons.
Explanation:
The nucleons are the major constituents of the nucleus, which are protons and neutrons. The total number of nucleons in the nucleus is referred to as the element’s mass number, and it is represented by the letter A.

(x) In the following picture the magnetic field line over a horizontal plane ABCD will be :
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 5
(a) Elliptical in shape
(b) Concentric circle
(c) Straight lines
(d) Concentric at the centre elliptical as to away
Answer:
(b) Concentric circle
Explanation:
Magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor are in the form of concentric circle.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) What change occur in the nucleus of a radioactive element when it emit:
(a) an alpha particle
(b) a beta particle
(c) gamma radiations
(ii) In the nuclear reaction given below, a nucleus X changes to another nucleus Y:
\({ }_{88} X^{226}\) → Y + a + Energy
(a) What are the atomic and mass number of Y?
(b) Name the gas formed when the α-particle acquires two electrons.
(c) What is the effect on the motion of the α-particle when it passes through a region containing a magnetic field?
(iii) The temperature of a lead piece of mass 400 g rises from 20°C to 50°C when 1560 J of heat is supplied to it. Calculate:
(a) Heat capacity of lead piece
(b) Specific heat capacity of lead.
Answer:
(i) (a) Emission of an a-particle :
\({ }_{\mathrm{Z}}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X} \longrightarrow{ }_{\mathrm{Z}-2}^{\mathrm{A}-4} \mathrm{Y}+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\) (α-particle)
The resulting nucleus has 2 protons and 2 neutrons (total 4 nucleons) less than the original (or parent) nucleus.
Example:
\({ }_{92}^{238} \mathrm{U} \longrightarrow{ }_{90}^{234} \mathrm{Th}+{ }_{2}^{4} \mathrm{He}\) (α-particle)

(b) Emission of ß-Particle:
\({ }_{Z}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{X}\)→ \({ }_{Z+1}^{\mathrm{A}} \mathrm{Y}\)+\({ }_{-1}^{\mathrm{0}} \mathrm{e}\) (ß-particle)
The resulting nucleus has same number of nucleons.
In this mass number remains same but atomic number increased by one.
Example:
\({ }_{6}^{14} \mathrm{C} \longrightarrow{ }_{7}^{14} \mathrm{~N}+{ }_{-1}^{0} \mathrm{e}\)

(c) Gamma Emission:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 9
There is no change in mass number (A) and atomic number (Z) of the nucleus in gamma emission.

(ii) \({ }_{88} X^{226}\) → Y + α + Energy
(a) Atomic number of Y is 86 and mass number is 222.
(b) The gas formed is Helium (He).
(c) When the a-particle passes through a region containing a magnetic field, it gets deflected.

(iii) (a) Heat capacity of lead piece
= \(\frac{\text { Heat supplied }}{\text { Rise in temperature }}=\frac{1560}{\left(50^{\circ}-20^{\circ}\right)}\)
= 52 J/°C

(b) Specific heat capacity of lead
= \(\frac { Heat supplied }{ Mass x Rise in temperature }\)
= \(\frac{1560}{(400) \times\left(50^{\circ}-20^{\circ}\right)}\)
= 0.13 J/g°C

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) State three factors on which a current induced in a conductor depends when placed in a Magnetic field?
(ii) (a) What are superconductors?
(b) Calculate the current drawn by an appliance rated 110 W, 220 V when connected across 220 V supply.
(c) Name a substance whose resistance decreases with the increase in temperature.
(iii) The diagram above shows three resistors connected across a cell of e.m.f. 1.8 V and internal resistance r. Calculate:
(a) Current through 3 Ω resistor.
(b) The internal resistance r.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 6
Answer:
(i) Three factors on which a current induced in a conductor placed in a magnetic field depends are :
(a) Number of turns of the conductor. Greater the number of turns more is the current in it.
(b) Area of cross section of the conductor. Greater the area of cross section of the conductor more is the current induced in it.
(c) Rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the conductor. Greater the magnetic lines of flux cut by the motion of a conductor more is the current induced in it.

(ii) (a) Superconductors are substances with zero resistance at very low temperatures.
(b) P = 110W, V = 220 volt
Current I = \(\frac{\mathrm{P}}{\mathrm{V}}=\frac{110}{220}\)A = 0.5 A
(c) For semiconductors such as silicon, germanium, resistance decreases with the increase in temperature.

(iii) (a) Equivalent resistance of 3Ω and 1.5Ω in parallel,
R1 = \(\frac{3 \times 1.5}{3+1.5} \Omega\) = 1Ω
Potential difference, across Ra
⇒ V1 =IR1
= 0.3 x 1 = 0.3V
∴ Current through 3Ω resistor,
I1 = \(\frac{\mathrm{V}_{1}}{3}=\frac{0.3}{3}\) = 0.1A

(b) Total external resistance of the circuit, R = 1 + 4 = 5Ω
∵ E = I(R + r)
⇒ 1.8 = 0.3 (5 + r)
⇒ \(\frac { 1.8 }{ 0.3 }\) = 5 + r
⇒ 6 = 5 + r
∴ r = 6 – 5 = 1 Ω

Question 4.
(i) (a) Define heat capacity of a substance.
(b) Write the SI unit of heat capacity.
(c) What is the relationship between heat capacity and specific heat capacity of a substance?
(ii) The diagram below shows the change of phases of a substance on a temperature vs time graph on heating the substance at a constant rate.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 7
(a) Why is the slope of CD less than slope of AB?
(b) What is the boiling and melting point of the substance?
(iii) A piece of ice of mass 60 g is dropped into 140 g of water at 50°C.
Calculate the final temperature of water when all the ice has melted.
(Assume no heat is lost to the surrounding)
Specific heat capacity of water = 4.2 Jg-1 K-1
Specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 336 Jg-1
Answer:
(i) (a) Heat capacity of a body is the amount of heat energy required to raise its temperature by 1 Kelvin.
(b) SI Unit of heat capacity is joule per Kelvin (JK-1 ).
(c) Heat capacity = Mass x Specific heat capacity

(ii) (a) The slope of CD is less than slope of AB because specific heat capacity of liquid phase of
same material can be different from that of solid phase of same material.
(b) Boiling point is t2°C and melting point is t1°C.

(iii) Let final temperature of water = x°C
Ice
m1 = 60
T1 = 0°C
T2 = x°C
Rise in temp.
(∆T) = (x – 0)°C = x°C
Water
m2 = 140 g
T1 = 50°C
T2 = x°C
fall in temp.
(∆T) = (50 – x)°C
Heat gained by ice = m1L + m1C∆T
= (60 x 336 + 60 x 4.2 × x) J
Heat lost by water = m2c∆T
= 140 x 4.2 x (50 – x) J
Applying, the principle of mixtures,
140 x 4.2 x (50 – x) = 60 x 336 + 60 x 4.2 × x
⇒ 4.2 (7000 – 140x – 60x) = 60 x 336
⇒ 700 – 200x = \(\frac{60 \times 336}{4.2}=\frac{60 \times 336}{42} \times 10\) = 4800
⇒ 200x = 2200
⇒ x = 11°C
∴ Final temperature of water = 11°C.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Question 5.
(i) (a) Which materials are used for making wires of standard resistance?
(b) Give reasons.
(ii) An electric kettle is rated 2.5 kW, 250 V. Find :
(a) Energy consumed in 2 hrs in KWh.
(b) The cost of running the kettle for two hours at 60 paise per unit.
(iii) The diagram below shows the displacement time graph for a vibrating body.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers 8
(a) Name the type of vibrations produced by the vibrating body.
(b) Given one example of a body producing such vibrations.
(c) Why is amplitude of the wave gradually decreasing?
(d) What will happen to the vibrations of the body after some time?
Answer:
(i) (a) Alloys such as manganin, constantan etc., are used for making wires of standard resistance
(b) Since the resistance of these materials remain almost unaffected with the change in temperature, it is used for making wires of standard resistance.

(ii) Given: Power = 2.5 kW, V = 250 V
Energy in KWh = P x t = 2.5 kW x 2 h
= 5 kWh
∴ Cost = 0.60 x 5
= ₹ 3

(iii) (a) The diagram shows damped vibrations.
(b) A tuning fork vibrating in air.
(c) The amplitude of the wave decreases due to frictional force which the surrounding medium exerts on the vibrating body.
(d) After some time the amplitude gradually decreases and finally stops.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Safe limit of level of sound for hearing is:
(a) 20 to 100 dB
(b) 40 to 120 dB
(c) 50 to 100 dB
(d) 0 to 80 dB
Answer:
(d) 0 to 80 dB
Explanation:
Safe limit of level of sound for having is 0 to 80 dB. Beyond the sound level of 120 dB can cause permanent damage to ears.

(ii) The slope of the graph showing the variation of potential difference V on X-axis and current I on Y axis gives:
(a) Resistivity
(b) Inductance
(c) Resistance
(d) Conductance
Answer:
(d) Conductance
Explanation:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 1
According to Ohm’s law,
\(\frac { V }{ I }\) = R
∴ Slope of given graph is = \(\frac { I }{ V }\) = \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\)

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

(iii) The internal resistance of a 2.1 V cell which generates a current of 0.2 A through a resistance of 10 Ω is:
(a) 5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 0.5 Ω
(d) 50 Ω
Answer:
(c) 0.5 Ω
Explanation:
I = \(\frac { ε }{ R + r }\)
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 2
∴ IR + Ir = ε
or 0.2 x 10 + 0.2 x r = 2.1
or 2 + 0.2r = 0.1
or 0.2r = 0.1
or r = 0.5 Ω

(iv) A positively charged alpha particle projected towards west is deflected towards north by magnetic field. The direction of magnetic field is:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 3
(a) towards south
(b) towards east
(c) downward
(d) upward
Answer:
(d) upward
Explanation:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 4
The direction of motion of proton is the direction of current I. The direction of force F on the proton is towards north (as the proton is deflected towards north). Applying Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of magnetic field (B) is upwards.

(v) When amplitude of sound wave decreases, its:
(a) Pitch decreases
(b) Loudness decreases
(c) Pitch increases
(d) Loudness increases
Answer:
(b) Loudness decreases
Explanation:
Amplitude and Loudness are directly proportional to each other, when the amplitude of sound decreases, the Loudness also decreases.

(vi) Which of the following substances has the largest specific heat?
(a) Turpentine
(b) Kerosene
(c) Water
(d) Loudness increases
Answer:
(c) Water
Explanation:
Water has the largest specific heat i.ev 1 cal g-1 °C-1.

(vi) Which of the following is mass independent quantity?
(a) Specific heat capacity
(b) Heat capacity
(c) Weight
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(vii) (a) Specific heat capacity
Explanation:
Weight W = mg, which is mass dependent. Specific heat capacity is a property of the body’s material that is independent of its mass, whereas heat capacity is dependent on both the substance and the mass of the body.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

(viii) A rectangular coil ABCD is placed between the pole pieces of a horse-shoe magnet as shown in figure:
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 5
Choose the incorrect option from the following.
(a) Current in the coil is in direction DCBA
(b) On arm BC no force acts
(c) On arm CD, force is outwards perpendicular to the plane of the coil.
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Current in the coil is in direction DCBA
Explanation:
From figure, the current in the coil is flowing in direction ABCD. Using Fleming’s left hand rule, in the arm AB, the force is inward at right angle to the plane of the coil. On the arm BC no force acts. On the arm CD, the force is outward perpendicular to the plane of the coil. On the arm DA, no force acts.

(ix) A beaker had 100 g of water at temperature 90°C. Another 600 g of water at temperature 20°C is poured into the beaker later on. After mixing, the temperature of the water will be.
(a) 45°C
(b) 20°C
(c) 30°C
(d) 50°C
Answer:
(c) 30°C
Explanation:
Let the temperature of water after mixing is T.
Heat lost = Heat gained
100(90-T) =600 (T – 20)
9000 – 100 T = 600 T – 12000
700 T = 21000
∴ T = 30°C

(x) The amount of heat energy contained in a body depends upon which of the following.
(a) Mass of the body.
(b) Temperature of the body.
(c) Material properties of the body.
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Explanation:
The amount of heat energy contained in a body varies material substance to substance. Heat energy contained in a body depends upon mass, temperature, material properties of the body.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) A current carrying conductor PQ lies in the plane of the paper as shown in figure.
(a) Find the direction of the magnetic fields produced at the points A and B.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 6
(b) If r1 > r2, then where will the strength of the magnetic field be larger?
(ii) (a) What do you understand by shriller sound?
(b) How does loudness of sound is affected by amplitude?
(iii) The diagram given below shows a plot of temperature verus time, showing the changes in the state of ice on heating (not to scale). Answer the questions as follows.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 6a
(a) What does the region AB in graph signifies?
(b) Describe the region BC in the graph?
(c) What does the region CD in the graph represent?
Answer:
(i) (a) Magnetic field produced at A is into the plane of the paper whereas at B, it is out ot the plane of the paper.
(b) Magnetic field at any point due to a straight current carrying conductor is inversely proportional to the distance of the point from the conductor. As r1 > r2, thus magnetic field at B will be larger as compared to that at point A.

(ii) (a) Sound of higher pitch is called shriller sound. The pitch of the sound depends upon frequency of sound. The sound which have higher frequency of vibrations have higher pitch.

(b) Loudness of sound is proportional to the square of amplitude of the vibrations producing the sound. When the amplitude of vibration is large, the sound produced is loud when the amplitude is small, the sound produced is feeble.

(iii) (a) For the region AB, there is no change in temperature till the whole ice melts. In this process, the heat is being continuously supplied but the temperature of ice and water does not change. Here, the heat supplied is used in changing the state from solid (ice) to liquid (water). The process of change of state from solid to liquid is called melting.

(b) After the whole ice is converted into water in the region AB, if we continue heating, the temperature of the water begins to rise till it reaches at 100°C, where it again becomes steady. For the portion of the graph BC, the heat supplied is used to change water from liquid state to vapour or gaseous state. The change of state from liquid to vapour or gas, is called vaporisation.

(c) The region CD represents a constant temperature (100°C) with time. It means water and steam are in thermal equilibrium at boiling point.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Question 3.
(i) The diagram shows a coil connected to a galvanometer G. The galvanometer shows a deflection to the right when north pole of a powerful magnet is moved to the right as shown.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 6b
(a) What is the direction of current in the coil when viewed from end A?
(b) What is the direction of deflection of the galvanometer when both the coil and the magnet are moved to the right at the same speed?
(ii) In a process 10 g of ice at -5°C is converted into the steam at 100°C.
(a) Calculate the amount of heat required to convert of ice from -5°C to 0°C, if specific heat of ice is 0.5 cal g-1 °C-1
(b) Calculate the amount of heat required to convert 10 g of ice at 0°C into 10 g of water at the same temperature, if latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g-1.
(c) Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of 10 g of water from 0°C to 100°C, if specific heat of water is 1 cal g-1C-1.
(iii) The diagram given below shows a radioactive source S in a thick lead walled container having a narrow opening. The radiations pass through an electric field between the plates A and B.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 7
(a) Show the paths of α, ß and γ radiation.
(b) Why source S is kept in a thick walled container with a narrow opening?
(c) Which radiation deflected the most?
(d) Which radiation is unaffected by the electrostatic field?
Answer:
(i) (a) The current appears anti-clockwise when viewed from end A because end A will form a north pole.
(b) No deflection is observed as there is no relative motion between the magnet and coil.

(ii) (a) ∆Q = Sm∆T = 0.5 x 10 x 5 = 25 cal
(b) ∆Q = mL = 10 x 80 = 800 cal
(c) ∆Q = Sm∆T = 1 x 10 x 100 = 1000 cal

(iii) (a)
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 8

(b) The radioactive substance S is kept in thick lead container with a very narrow opening to stop the radiations coming out from other directions because they may cause biological damage.

(c) ß radiations deflected the most.

(d) γ radiations are unaffected by the electrostatic field and shows no deflection.

Question 4.
(i) The diagram shows two cases of a circular current carrying conductor.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 9
(a) Find the direction of magnetic field at the centre of both the conductors.
(b) Find the magnetic pole towards the reader side (your side) in both the conductors A and B.
(ii) Four simple pendulums A, B, C, and D with light bobs are suspended from a horizontal rubber string as shown in figure. The system is stretched between two fixed points P and Q. The lengths of pendulums B and D are equal. The length of pendulum C is shorter whereas the length of pendulum C is longer than the pendulum B and D. On displacing the bob of pendulum D to one side and then on releasing, the system is set into oscillations.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 10
(a) Which of the four pendulums shows free oscillations?
(b) Which of the four pendulums shows forced oscillation?
(ii) A nucleus \({ }_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\) emits an alpha particle and transforms into Thorium.
(a) What will be the mass number of Thorium?
(b) What will be the atomic number of Thorium?
(c) Write the nuclear reaction involved in the emission of this particle.
Answer:
(i) (a) The direction of magnetic field for A will be downwards and perpendicular to the plane of the paper.
The direction of magnetic field for B will be upwards and perpendicular to the plane of the paper.

(b) For A, it is South pole.
For B, it is North pole.

(ii) (a) The oscillations of pendulum D are free oscillations.
(b) The pendulums A and C having different lengths are made to oscillate with the frequency of D which is different from their natural frequency, hence the oscillations of A and C are forced oscillations.

(iii) (a) Mass number of Thorium = 235 – 4 = 231
(b) Atomic number of Thorium = 92 – 2 = 90
(c) \({ }_{92} \mathrm{U}^{235}\) – \({ }_{2} \mathrm{He}^{4}\) + \({ }_{90} \mathrm{Th}^{231}\)

Question 5.
(i) The circuit diagram shown below is formed out of the combination of three resistors R1; R2 and R3.
ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers 11
(a) Find total resistance of the circuit.
(b) Find total current flowing in the circuit.
(c) Find the potential difference across R1.
(ii) A lead bullet of mass 1 kg penetrates into a solid object and melts. Initial temperature of the bullet is 27°C and its melting point is 327°C.
Given that, Latent heat of fusion of lead = 2.5 x 104 J kg-1
Specific heat capacity of lead = 125 J kg-1 K-1
(a) Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of bullet from 27°C to 327°C.
(c) Calculate the heat required to melt the bullet.
(c) If 50% of kinetic energy of the bullet was used to heat it, then calculate the initial speed of the bullet.
(iii) An electric oven of 2KW power rating is operating in a domestic electric circuit (220V) that has a current rating of 5A.
(a) What is the power of the electric oven in watt?
(b) Calculate the current drawn by the electric oven.
Answer:
For R2 and R3,
\(\frac{1}{R}=\frac{1}{R_{2}}+\frac{1}{R_{3}}\)
Or R’ = \(\frac{R_{2} R_{3}}{R_{2}+R_{3}}=\frac{4 \times 4}{4+4}\) = 2 Ω
Total resistance of the circuit, R = R1 + R’
= 2 + 2 = 4 Ω

(b) Total current flowing through the I = \(\frac { V }{ R }\)
∴ I = \(\frac { 20 }{ 4 }\) = 5A

(c) Potential difference across R1, V = IR1 = 5 x 2
= 10V

(ii) (a) Given that, mass of the lead bullet, m = 1 kg
Heat required to raise its temperature from 27°C to 327°C
∆Q1 = Sm∆T
= 125 x 1 x (327 – 27)
= 3.75 x 104 J

(b) Heat required to melt the bullet,
∆Q2 = mL = 1 x 2.5 x 104 J = 2.5 x 104 J

(c) Given that, 50% of kinetic energy of the bullet is used to heat it.
∴ heat developed = \(\frac { V }{ R }\) x K.E
or ∆Q1 + ∆Q2 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) x \(\frac { 1 }{ 2 }\) mv²
where v is the initial speed of the bullet.
∴ (3.75 x 104 + 2.5 x 104) = \(\frac { 1 }{ 4 }\) x 1 x v²
or 6.25 x 104 = \(\frac{v^{2}}{4}\)
or v = \(\sqrt{4 \times 6.25 \times 10^{4}}\) = 5 x 10² m/s
= 500 m/s

(iii) (a) Power of the electric oven, P = 2 kW
= 2 x 1000 W
= 2000 W

(b) Given, potential difference or voltage, V = 220V
We know that, Power P = V x I
∴ I = \(\frac { P }{ V }\)
= \(\frac { 2000 }{ 220 }\)
= 9A

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers