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ICSE Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016 BIOLOGY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION-I (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questiohs from this Section.)

Question 1:
(a) Name the following : [5]
(i) The exchange of chromatid parts between the maternal and the paternal chromatids of a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
(ii) The number of individuals inhabiting per unit area.
(iii) The immunity acquired by providing readymade antibodies from outside for treating certain infectious diseases.
(iv) The pollutants that cannot be broken down to simple and harmless products.
(v) The part of the bra ip that carries impulses from one hemisphere of the cerebellum to the other.

(b) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below : [5]
(i) A plant cell may burst when :
(A) Turgor pressure equalises wall pressure.
(B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(C) Wall pressure exceeds turgor pressure.
(D) None of the above
(ii) The individual flattened stacks of membranous structures inside the chloroplasts are known as :
(A) Grana (B) Stroma (C) Thylakoids (D) Cristae
(iii) The nephrons discharge their urine at the :
(A) Urinary bladder (B) Urethra (C) Renal pelvis (D) Renal pyramid
(iv) Gigantism and Acromegaly are due to :
(A) Hyposecretion of Thyroxine
(B) Hyposecretion of Growth hormone
(C) Hypersecretion of Thyroxine
(D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) The mineral ion needed for the formation of blood clot is :
(A) Potassium (B) Sodfrym (C) Calcium (D) Iron

(c) In each set of terms given below, there is an odd one and cannot be grouped in the same category to which the other three belong. Identify the odd term in each set and name the category to which the remaining three belong. [5]
Example: Ovary, Fallopian tube, Ureter, Uterus
Odd term: Ureter
Category: Parts of female reproductive system
(i) Sewage, Newspaper, Styrofoam, Hay.
(ii) Thymine, Cytosine, Adenine, Pepsin.
(iii) Malleus, Iris, Stapes, Incus.
(iv) Cortisone, Somatotropin, Adrenocorticotropic hormone. Vasopressin.
(v) Typhoid, Haemophilia, Albinism, Colour blindness.

(d) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (ii) with appropriate words : [5]
The amount of urine output is under the regulation of a hormone called (i) ……… secreted by the (ii) ……… lobe of the pituitary gland. If this hormone secretion is reduced, there is an increased production of urine. This disorder is called (iii) ……… Sometimes excess glucose is passed with urine due to hyposecretion of another hormone called (iv) ……… leading to the cause of a disease called (v) ……… .

(e) State the exact location of the following structures : [5]
(i) Centromere (ii) Chordae tendinae (iii) Thyroid gland (iv) Ciliary body (v) Proximal convoluted tubule.

(f) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye, study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the defect shown in the diagram.
(ii) What are the two possible reasons that cause this defect ?
(iii) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
(iv) With the help of a diagram show how the defect shown above is rectified using a suitable lens.

(g) Given in the box below are a set of 14 biological terms. Of these, 12 can be paired into 6 matching pairs. Out of the six pairs, one has been done for you as an example.
Example: endosmosis – Turgid cell.
Identify the remaining five matching pairs:
Cushing’s syndrome, Turgid cell, Iris, Free of rod and cone cells, Colour of eyes, Hypoglycemia, Active transport, Aerosome, Addison’s disease, Blind spot, Hyperglycemia, Spermatozoa, Endosmosis, Clotting of blood.

(h) State the main function of the following: [5]
(i) Lymphocytes of blood
(ii) Leydig cells
(iii) Guard cells
(iv) Eustachian tube
(v) Corpus luteum

Answers:
(a) (i) Crossing over (ii) Population density (iii) Passive immunity (iv) Non biodegradable (v) Pons varoli

(b) (i) (B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(ii) (C) Thylakoids
(iii) (C) Renal pelvis
(iv) (D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) (C) Calcium

(c) (i) Odd term: Styrofoam
Category: Biodegradable wastes.
(ii) Odd term: Pepsin
Category: Nitrogen bases of DNA molecule.
(iii) Odd term: Iris
Category: Ear ossicles/Tiny bones present in the middle ear.
(iv) Odd term: Cortisone
Category: Hormones secreted by Pituitary gland.
(v) Odd term: Typhoid
Category: Sex linked inheritence.

(d) (i) Antidiuretic hormone
(ii) Posterior
(iii) Diabetes insipidus
(iv) Insulin
(v) Diabetes mellitus

(e) (i) Centromere: Between two chromatids of a chromosome.
(ii) Chordae tendinae: At the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
(iii) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck/lower part of the neck below the larynx.
(iv) Ciliary body: Extension of choroid layer as a muscular ring around the lens.
(v) Proximal Convoluted Tubule: In the cortex of the kidney.

(f) (i) Myopia.
(ii) 1. The eye ball is too long from front to back.
2. The lens is too curved.
(iii) Concave lens
(iv)

(g) (i) Hyperglycemia: Cushings syndrome
(ii) Hypoglycemia: Addison’s disease.
(iii) Blind Spot: Free of rod cells and cone cells.
(iv) Iris: Colour of eyes.
(v) Acrosome: Spermatozoa.

(h) (i) Lymphocytes of blood: Produce antibodies.
(ii) Leydig cells: Secrete male sex hormone testosterone.
(iii) Guard cells: Regulate the opening and closing of stomata in leaf to facilitate transpiration and exchange of gases.
(iv) Eustachian tube: Balance air pressure on either sides of the ear drum. So that ear drum can vibrate freely.
(v) Corpus luteum: Secretes hormones oesterogen, progesterone and relaxin.

SECTION-II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any Four questions from this Section.)

Question 2:
(a) The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the cross section of the root in the root hair zone. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 4.
(ii) Which is the process that enables the passageqf water from the soil into the root hair ?
(iii) Name the pressure that is responsible for the movement of water in the direction indicated by the arrows. Define it.
(iv) Due to an excess of this pressure sometimes drops of water are found along the leaf margins of some plants especially in the early mornings. What is the phenomenon called ?
(v) Draw a well labelled diagram of the root hair cell as it would appear if an excess of fertiliser is added to the soil close to it.

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned within brackets : [5]
(i) Human skin cell and. Human ovum (number of chromosomes)
(ii) Sperm duct and fallopian tube (function)
(iii) Red Cross and WHO (one activity)
(iv) Rod cells and cone cells (pigment)
(v) LUBB and DUP (names of the valves whose closure produce the sound)

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Root hair 2. Soil water 3. Xylem Vessels 4. Cortical cells.
(ii) Osmosis Process
(iii) Osmotic pressure: The pressure exerted by a solution to prevent the entry of water molecules, through the semi -permeable membrane is called Osmotic pressure.
(iv) Guttation.
(v)

(b) (i) Human skin cell: 46 Chromosomes
Human ovum: 23 Chromosomes
(ii) Sperm Duct: Transfer mature sperm from testis for release. Fallopian Tube : Site of fertilisation in human female.
(iii) Red Cross: Supply blood to victims of war.
WHO: Set, pharmaceutical standards.
(iv) Rod cells: Rhodopsin
Cone cells: Iodopsin
(v) LUBB: Atrioventricular valves
DUP: Semilunar valves.

Question 3:
(a) Given below is the outline of the human body showing the important glands : [5]
(i) Name the glands marked 1 to 4.
(ii) Name the hormone secreted by part 2. Give one important function of this hormone.
(iii) Name the endocrine part of the part numbered 3.
(iv) Why is the part labelled 1 called, the master gland ? Which part of the forebrain controls the gland labelled 1 ?
(v) Name the gland, that secretes the ’emergency hormone’.

(b) The. diagram of an apparatus given below demonstrates a paniadar process in plants. Study the same and answer the Questions that follow. [5]
(i) Name the apparatus.
(ii) Which phenomenon is demonstrated, by this apparatus
(iii) Explain the phenomenon mentioned in (ii) above.
(iv) State two limitations of using this apparatus.
(v) What is the importance of the air bubble in, the experiment ?
(vi) Name the structures in a plant through which the above process takes place.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Pituitary gland.
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pancreas
4. Adrenal gland
(ii) Thyroxine. It regulates basal metabolism of the body.
(iii) Islets of Langerhans.
(iv) Because it controls the secretions of all the other endocrine gland. Hypothalamus controls it.
(v) Adrenal medulla (part of Adrenal gland.)

(b) (i) Ganong’s potometer
(ii) Transpiration
(iii) The process in which water is given out in the form of vapour through the aerial parts of the plant.
(iv) 1. The small twig can not remain alive for a long time.
2. Introducing a single air bubble is practically very difficult.
(v) The movement of the air bubble shows the amount of water transpired by the twig in a given time.
(vi) 1. Cuticle 2. Stomata 3. Lenticel

Question 4:
(a) (i) Draw a well labelled diagram of the membranous labyrinth found in the inner ear.
(ii) Based on the diagram drawn above in (i) give a suitable term for each of the following descriptions :
1. The sensory cells that helps in hearing.
2. The part that is Responsible for static balance of the body.
3. The membrane covered opening that connects the middle ear to the inner ear.
4. The fluid present in the middle chamber of cochlea.
5. The structure that maintains dynamic equilibrium of the body. [5]

(b) Give the Biological / technical term for the following : [5]
(i) Complete stoppage of menstrual cycle in females.
(ii) Pigment providing colour to urine.
(iii) The vein which drains the blood from the intenstine to the liver.
(iv) The canal through which the testes descend into the scrotum just before the birth of a male baby.
(v) The process causing an undesirable change in the environment.
(vi) The removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body.
(vii) The repeating components of each DNA strand lengthwise.
(viii) An alteration in the genetic material that can be inherited.
(ix) The process of uptake of mineral ions against the concentration gradient using energy from the cell.
(x) Blood vesels carrying blood to the left atrium.

Answer:
(a) (i)

(ii) 1. Organ of corte 2. Utriculus and sacculus 3. Oval window 4. Endolymph 5. Semicircular canals

(b) (i) Menopause
(ii) Urochrome
(iii) Hepatic portal vein
(iv) Inguinal canal
(v) Pollution
(vi) Excretion
(vii) Nucleotide
(viii) Mutation
(ix) Active absorption
(x) Plumonary veins

Question 5:
(a) The given diagram shows a stage during mitotic division in an animal cell: [5]
(i) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.
(iii) In what two ways is mitotic division in an animal cell different from the mitotic division in a plant cell ?
(iv) Name the type of cell division that occurs during : A. Growth of a shoot B. Formation of pollen grains

(b) Give scientific reasons for the following statements : [5]
(i) Colour blindness is more common in men than in women.
(ii) Injury to medulla oblongata leads to death.
(iii) When an ovum gets fertilized, menstrual cycle stops temporarily in a woman.
(iv) Mature erythrocytes in humans lack nucleus and mitochondria.
(v) Blood flows in arteries in spurts and is under pressure.

Answer:
(a) (i) Prophase
Reason : Chromosomes clearly visible as paired chromatids connected by centromere. Centrosome split into centrioles and are moving to opposite poles. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappearing. Chromosomes not arranged in any pattern.
(ii)

(iii)

Mitotic in Plant cell	Mitotic in Animal cell
1. Centrosome and centrioles absent.	1. Centrosome and centriole present
2. Cell plate developing from centre and glowing towards periphery during cytokinesis.	2. Cell furrow developing from periphery grows towards centre during cytokinesis.

(iv) A – Mitosis.
B – Meiosis.

(b) (i) Colour blindness is an X-linked inheritence. Women have two X- chromosomes. so even when one X-chromosome carry colour blindness, the other X-chromosome over comes the abnormal trait Whereas men have only one X-chromosome. So when it is affected the man becomes a colour blindness.
(ii) Medulla oblongata controls the involuntary activities like respiration, heart beats etc. So any injury to this part of brain arrests these movements and cause death.
(iii) Menstrual cycle occurs due to rupture and shedding oi the endometrium lining of the uterus. When an ovum gets fertilised the endometrium gets thickned, and vascularized to house the embryo. So during the whole term when the embryo/foetus is in the uterus, menstrual cycle stops temporarily.
(iv) Presence of nucleus would occupy space and reduce the oxygen carrying capacity. Nucleus is also not required as a mature RBC does not divide. Mitochrondria is absent so that oxygen is not consumed by the RBC and all the oxygen is transported to target areas.
(v) Arteries carry blood from heart. With every pump of heart blood flows with a jerk and pressure through it.

Question 6:
(a) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Study the diagram and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram.
(ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram.
(iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram.
(iv) Define the term ‘GestationWhat is the normal gestational period of the developing human embryo ?
(v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo

(b) The following diagram demonstrates a physiological process taking place in green plants. The whole set up was placed in bright sunlight for several hours. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow :
(i) What aspect of the physiological process is being examined ?
(ii) Explain the physiological process mentioned in (i) above.
(iii) Label the parts numbered 1 and 2 in the diagram.
(iv) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the physiological process explained in (ii) above.
(v) What would happen to the rate of bubbling of the gas if a pinch of sodium bicarbonate is added to the water in the beaker ? Explain your answer.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Umbilical cord 2. Placenta 3. Amniotic cavity/Amniotic fluid
(ii) Functions of Placenta:
1. Transfer nutrients and oxygen from mother’s blood to foetus.
2. Releases hormones called oestrogens, progesterone.
(iii) Significance of Amniotic Fluid:
1. Protects the foetus against jerks, mechanical shocks, and injury.
2. Allows foetus movements.
3. Keeps the pressure even, around the foetus.
4. Prevent sticking of foetus to the amnion.
(iv) Gestation : The full term of development of the embryo in the uterus.
In a developing human embryo gestational period is of 280 days.
(v) Male embryo = XY
Female embryo = XX.

(b) (i) Photosynthesis.
(ii) The process in which plant cells having chlorophyll take raw materials like carbondioxide from air & water from soil and manufacture glucose in presence of light. Oxygen is a waste product during this process.
(iii) Part 1 – Oxygen gas.
Part 2 – Hydrilla plant.
(iv)

(v) Rate of bubbling of gas suddenly increases on adding a pinch of sodium bicarbonate.
Sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide into the water which is made available to the plant. This.increases the rate of photosynthesis. So more oxygen is released thus more bubbles released.

Question 7:
(a) A homozygous tall plant (T) bearing red coloured (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous dwarf (t) plant bearing white (r) flowers : [5]
(i) Give the genotype and phenotype of the plants of F₁ generation.
(ii) Mention the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained from the F₁ hybrid plant.
(iii) State the Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment.
(iv) Mention the phenotypes of the offsprings obtained in F₂ generation.
(v) What is the phenotypic ratio obtained in F₂ generation ?

(b) Briefly explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Reflex action
(ii) Power of accommodation
(iii) Photophosphorylation
(iv) Hormone
(v) Synapse

Answer:
(a) (i) Genotype of F₁ generation : Tt Rr
Phenotype of F₁ generation : All heterozygous tall and red.
(ii) TR: Tall and Red
Tr: Tall and White
tR: Dwarf and Red
tr: Dwarf and White
(iii) Mendel’s law of independent Assortment: “In a dihybrid cross, one pair of character is independent of the other pair during gamete formation.”
(iv) Tall & Red
Tall & White
Dwarf & Red
Dwarf & white
(v) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) (i) Reflex action: A quick and involuntary action built-in-response to a stimulus.
(ii) Power of accomodation: It is the power and adjustment of our eyes to focus objects at different distances.
(iii) Photophosphorylation: The conversion of Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) with one inorganic phosphate by light.
(iv) Hormone: A chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands which reaches its destination by the blood stream and which has the power of influencing the activity of other distant target organs.
(v) Synapse: It is the point of contact between the axon endings of one neuron comes in contact with dendrites of the other neuron through a synaptic cleft.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016
GEOGRAPHY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
To be supplied with this Paper : Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7
and 20 cm of twine.

Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 must not be taken out of the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the Paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to answer the rest of the paper.

PART I [30 Marks]

Attempt all questions from this Part.

Question 1:
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/7 and answer the following questions :
(a) Give the six figure grid reference for :  [2]
(i) Surveyed tree 219 north east of Pirojpura settlement.
(ii) Triangulated height 364 in the southern part of the map extract.

(b) What is the direction of flow of Banas river? Give one evidence for your answer.  [2]

(c) What do you understand by:  [2]
(i) 12r in the grid square 9878 and
(ii) 180 in the grid square 9182.

(d) Calculate the area in kilometre of the region between 93 and 99 eastings and 76 and 81 northings. [2]

(e) (i) What is the compass direction of settlement Juvol from settlement Arnivada ?
(ii) Give the difference in altitude between the highest point on the map to the altitude of Moti Bhatamal. [2]

(f) Name the feature depicted by:  [2]
(i) Blue line in Balaram nadi
(ii) Brown patch in 9678

(g) Name the drainage pattern found in:  [2]
(i) 9782
(ii) 9478

(h) What do you infer about the climate of the region by the information provided on the map ? Give an evidence in support of your answer.  [2]

(i) Name two man made and two natural features in 9580.  [2]

(j) What do the following denote:  [2]
(i) Black vertical line running along with 93 easting.
(ii) RS near Chitrasani settlement.

Answer:
(a) Six Figure grid reference are :
(i) Surveyed tree 219—979755.
(ii) Triangulated height 364—957744.

(b) Direction of flow of River Banas is from ENE to WSW.
Evidence: Contour height is decreasing towards WSW i.e., from 200 m to 180 m.

(c) (i) 12 r in grid square 9878 is the relative height of a sand dune i.e., 12 m.
(ii) 180 in grid square 9182 is the contour height above mean sea level.

(d)

(e) (i) Compass direction of juvol from settlement Arnivada is NW. (North-West)
(ii) Highest point in the map is 542
Altitude of Moti Bhatamal is 198
Difference in Height = 542 – 198 = 344 m.

(f) (i) Blue line in Balaram nadi is a perennial water channel in a seasonal river, (ii) Brown patch in 9678 indicates sanddunes.

(g) Drainage pattern in
(i) 9782-Radial
(ii) 9478 – Disappearing.

(h) Climate of the region depicted in the map is hot and dry with seasonal rainfall.
Evidence: Rivers and streams in the map are seasonal in nature.

(i) Two man made and natural features in 9580 are :
Man Made: Perennial lined well and permanent huts.
Natural Features: Broken ground and seasonal stream.

(j) (i) Black vertical line running along with 93 easting is Longitude.
(ii) RS near Chitrasani settlement is Railway Station.

Question 2:
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Draw and number the Standard Meridian of India.  [1]
(b) Label the river Mahanadi. [1]
(c) Mark and name Lake Chilka. [1]
(d) Shade and name the Gulf of Mannar. [1]
(e) Mark and name the Vindhya Mountains. [1]
(f) Shade and name a sparsely populated region in western India. [1]
(g) Shade a region with alluvial soil in South India. [1]
(h) Mark and name Kolkata. [1]
(i) Mark with arrows and name South West Monsoon winds over the Bay of Bengal. [1]
(j) Mark and name Mumbai High. [1]

Answer:

PART II [50 Marks]

Attempt any five questions from this Part.

Question 3:
(a) What is the name given to the climate of India ? Mention any two factors responsible for such a type of climate.  [2]

(b) Name the following:  [2]
(i) The winds that bring heavy rain to Cherrapunji.
(ii) The local wind that bring a light rainfall to South India and is good for tea and coffee crops.

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Kanpur has extreme temperature conditions.
(ii) Kochi is warmer than Mumbai even though both lie on the western coast of India.
(iii) The Ganga Plain gets the monsoon rain much later than the west coast of India.

(d) Study the climatic data of station x given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]

Month	JAN	FEB	MAR	APR	MAY	JUN	JUL	AUG	SEP	OCT	NOV	DEC
Temp°C	24.5	25.7	27.7	28.4	30.0	32.5	31.0	30.2	29.8	28.0	25.9	24.7
Rainfall cm	4.3	1.6	1.7	2.4	2.8	4.6	8.6	11.4	11.8	30.6	35.0	13.9

(i) Calculate the total annual rainfall experienced by the station.
(ii) What is the annual range of temperature ?
(iii) On which coast of India does the station lie ? Give a reason for your answer.

Answer:
(a) Name given to the Indian climate – ‘Tropical Monsoon Type’.
Two factors responsible for it are :
(i) Altitude
(ii) Distance from the sea.

(b) (i) Moisture Laiden Monsoon winds of Bay of Bengal Branch of South West Monsoon.
(ii) Mango Showers.

(c) (i) Kanpur has extreme type of temperature conditions because it is away from the influence from the sea and is not influenced by the land and sea breezes.
(ii) Kochi is warmer than Mumbai even though both lie on the western coast of India because Kochi is located on lower latitude and is close to the equator.
(iii) Ganga plain gets the monsoon rain much later than the west coast of India because Ganga plain lies in the north India and the monsoon being S.W. Monsoon, first strikes the west coast of India.

(d) (i) Total annual rainfall experienced by the station is 128.7 cm.
(ii) Annual range of temperature of the station is 8°C.
(iii) Station lies on the east coast of India because it receives its maximum rainfall in the month of October and November.

Question 4:
(a) What is soil erosion ? Mention two steps that could be taken to prevent soil erosion.  [2]

(b) Mention two similarities between red soil and laterite soil.  [2]

(c) Give a geographical reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Alluvial soil differs in texture.
(ii) Black soil does not get leached.
(iii) Khadar is more fertile than bhangar

(d) Define the following:  [3]
(i) Sheet erosion
(ii) Soil conservation
(iii) In situ soil

Answer:
(a) Soil Erosion: The detachment of the soil particles from the uppermost portion of the earth’s crust is called soil erosion.
Steps taken to prevent soil erosion are :
(i) Contour Ploughing: The fields are ploughed and sown along the contours instead up and down the slope.
(ii) Planting of Shelter belts: In desert areas trees are planted on the margins of deserts perpendicular to the wind direction which prevents soil erosion.

(b) Two similarities between red soil and laterite soil are :
(i) Both are red is colour as they are rich in iron oxide.
(ii) Both are porous and friable.

(c) (i) Alluvial soil differs in texture because it is a transported soil deposited by rivers.
(ii) Black soil does not get leached because it is moisture retentive.
(iii) Khadar is new alluvium deposited by the rivers in their flood plains which is replensid every year. Bangar is older alluvium found in upland area above the flood plains, Bangar is older alluvium which is not renewed by the floods.

(d) (i) Sheet Erosion: When the vegetation cover of an area is removed, the rainwater instead of seeping into the ground, washes down the slope. A complete layer is carried along with water in a larger area. It is called sheet erosion.
(ii) Soil Conservation: It refers to the steps taken to protect the soil from erosion. It aims at prevention as well as reclamation of soil that has been damaged by natural phenomenon or due to exploitation and improvishment over centuries.
(iii) In Situ Soil: When the soil remains at the place of its formation it is called in situ soil. e.g. Black Soil.

Question 5:
(a) (i) Name the forest which is commercially most important in India.  [2]
(ii) Name two trees which grow in this forest.

(b) (i) Name the forests which grow on the wind ward slope of the Western Ghats.  [2]
(ii) Why do such forests grow in this region ?

(c) To which type of forest do the following trees belong ?  [3]
(i) Hintal and Sundari.
(ii) Rosewood and Ebony.
(iii) Deodar and Chir Pine.

(d) Give three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources in India in the past.  [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Tropical monsoon deciduous forest.
(ii) Two trees found in these forest are Teak and Semul.

(b) (i) Tropical evergreen rainforests grow on the wind ward slope of the western ghats.
(ii) These forests grow in this region because the temperature here ranges between 24°C to 27°C and rainfall is above 200 cm.

(c) (i) Hintal and Sundari – Tidal or Littoral Forest
(ii) Rosewood and Ebony – Tropical Evergreen Rain Forest.
(iii) Deodar and Chirpine – Mountain Forest.

(d) Three reasons for rapid depletion of forest resources are :
(i) Increase in Population.
(ii) Industrial Growth.
(iii) Defects in the method of farming (slash and burn farming).
(iv) Dependence of forest fuel for energy. (any three)

Question 6:
(a) “Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India.” Clarify the statement by giving two reasons.  [2]

(b) Mention two factors which are essential for the development of tube well irrigation.  [2]

(c) Give one reason for each of the following:
(i) The Northern Plain of India is found suitable for canal irrigation.
(ii) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka.
(iii) Although expensive, yet, sprinkler irrigation is gaining popularity in recent times.

(d) (i) What is rain water harvesting ?  [3]
(ii) Mention two objectives of rain water harvesting.

Answer:
(a) Without irrigation, development of agriculture is difficult in India because :
(i) India is an agricultural country and proper irrigation becomes a must. Rainfall in India is uncertain in both time and amount.
(ii) Cultivation in winters is only possible when there is proper irrigation facilities as monsoon in India are limited for four months only.

(b) Two factors for development of tubewell irrigation:
(i) Cheap supply of Electricity.
(ii) High underground water label.

(c) (i) Northern plains are suitable for canal irrigation because the rivers in the north are perennial in nature.
(ii) Tank irrigation is an important method of irrigation in Karnataka because its a plateau region with natural depressions.
(iii) Sprinkler irrigation is gaining importance in recent times because it prevents loss of water and there is economical use of water.

(d) (i) Rain Water Harvesting: Collection of rain water for recharging the underground water is called rainwater harvesting.
(ii) Two Objectives:
(1) Preventing soil erosion and flooding.
(2) Dilutes salinity of ground water.

Question 7:
(a) (i) Name any three types of coal found in India.  [2]
(ii) Which type of coal is mostly used in Iron and Steel Industries ?

(b) Name the following:  [2]
(i) An off-shore oil field of India
(ii) An iron ore mine of Karnataka.

(c) Name the following:  [3]
(i) Largest coal field of India.
(ii) Oldest oil-field of India.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore.

(d) (i) Name the metal extracted from Bauxite.
(ii) Mention two uses of this metal.

Answer:
(a) (i) Three types of coal found in India are :
(1) Anthracite. (2) Bituminous. (3) Lignite.
(ii) Iron and steel industries mainly use Bituminous type of coal.

(b) (i) Mumbai High in Maharashtra.
(ii) An iron ore mine of Karnataka : Kudremukh iron ore mine.

(c) (i) Jharia coal field in Jharkhand.
(ii) Digboi oil reserves in Assam.
(iii) Haematite.

(d) (i) Aluminium is extracted from Bauxite.
(ii) Uses of aluminium are :

1. Used in air craft Industry.
2. Used for making head light reflectors.

Question 8:
(a) Mention any two reasons for the importance of agriculture in India.  [2]

(b) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following:  [2]
(i) Why does rice grow well in a soil with a clay like subsoil ?
(ii) What is the advantage of growing rice in nurseries before it is transplanted ?

(c) Study the picture given below and answer the questions that follow:  [3]
(i) Name one State where this crop grows well.
(ii) Why are mostly women employed to harvest it ?
(iii) Mention two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of this crop.

(d) Explain briefly the following terms:  [3]
(i) Shifting cultivation
(ii) Budgrafting
(iii) Oil cake.

Answer:
(a) Two reasons for the importance of Agriculture are :
(i) One-third of the India’s national income is earned through agriculture.
(ii) About 70% of working population of India is directly involved in agriculture.

(b) (i) Rice grow well in a soil with a clay like subsoil because rice requires stagnant water in the field. The subsoil layer prevents water from draining away and allows the water to stagnant in the field.
(ii) Advantages of growing rice in nurseries before it is transplanted is that, the weeds are removed so problem of weeds is solved and there is less wastage of seeds.

(c) (i) Assam.
(ii) Mostly women are employed to harvest tea leaves because of their temprament. Tea leaves plucking is a very skilled job. They are able to pluck the leaves delicately. Other work on the fields is done by men.
(iii) Two geographical conditions suitable for the cultivation of tea are :

1. It requires the temperature ranging between 13°C to 35°C.
2. Rainfall ranging between 150-200 cm annually is best suited. Dry spell is harmful. High humidity, heavy dew and morning fog favours its growth.

(d) (i) Shifting Cultivation: It is widely practiced on the hill slopes of north eastern states. In this farming a patch of ground is cleared by burning the trees. After cultivating for 2 to 3 years they switch over to another piece of land when soil is exhausted. Mainly practiced by tribals. This farming has been banned by the government as it encourages deforestation and increases the green house gases.
(ii) Bud grafting: It is associated with rubber crop. This method is done by the insertion of a strip of bark containing a bud from high yielding clones under a bark of a young seedling about 5 cm high till they become united in 3 to 4 weeks. The old seedliqg stem is then cut off above the grafted bud, which then grows to form a new rubber plant.
(iii) Oil Cake: The residue left after crushing the nuts is called oil cake. It makes an excellent feed for cattle.

Question 9:
(a) Give two reasons for the importance of the jute industry in the Ganga-Brahmaputra delta region. [2]

(b) Mention two problems of the Cotton Textile industry in India.  [2]

(c) (i) Give two reasons why the woollen industry is not a flourishing industry in India.  [3]
(ii) Name two centres for this industry.

(d) With reference to the silk industry, answer the following:  [3]
(i) Why is Karnataka the largest producer of mulberry silk ?
(ii) Mention two varieties of non-mulberry silk produced in India.
(iii) Name one silk weaving centre each in U.P. and in Tamil Nadu.

Answer:
(a) Two reasons for the importance of the jute industry in the Ganga-Brahmaptra delta region are :
(i) Raw material is easily available, as jute is grown in Ganga delta.
(ii) The hot and humid climate is favourable for spinning and weaving.

(b) Three problems faced by the cotton textile industry are :
(i) Shortage of raw material. India has still to face shortage of raw material and has to import it.
(ii) Obsolete Machinery
(iii) Competition with synthetic fibre which is cheapand aurable.

(c) (i) (1) India is a tropical country and woollen colothes are required only in Northern India during winter season.
(2) A large number of people are poor and cannot afford to spend on costly woollen clothes.
(3) Woollen industry is decentralised. Therefore improvement and development is difficult. (any two)
(ii) Two centres of this industry are Ludhiana and Kanpur.

(d) (i) Karnataka is the largest producer of mulberry silk because

1. Temperature in this region ranges between 16°C to 30°C which is favourable for rearing silk worms.
2. Enough fresh water free from alkaline salts for the processing of silk fibre is also available.

(ii) Two varieties of non mulberry silk—eri and muga.
(iii) U.P. — Banaras, Tamil Nadu – Tanjore.

Question 10:
(a) Mention two advantages that a mini steel plant has over an integrated iron and steel plant.  [2]

(b) (i) Name an iron and steel plant which was established with British collaboration.  [2]
(ii) From where does it get its supply of:
1. iron ore
2. manganese
3. coal

(c) Give a reason for each of the following:  [3]
(i) Products made from petrochemicals are growing in popularity.
(ii) A heavy engineering industry requires huge capital investment.
(iii) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country.

(d) Name the industrial product for which the following centres are well known:  [3]
(i) Bhilai
(ii) Chittaranjan
(iii) Koraput.

Answer:
(a) Advantages of Mini steel plants are:

1. They use the electric arc furnace and thus conserve coal.
2. They require small capital investment.
3. They cater to the local need of the market and the cost of transport is reduced. (any two)

(b) (i) Durgapur steel plant.
(ii) It gets its supply of

1. Iron ore from Keonjhar in Orissa and Singhbhum in Jharkhand.
2. Manganese from Keonjhar in Orissa.
3. Coal from Jharia and Raniganj.

(c) (i) Products made from petrochemicals are growing in popularity because they are cost effective, economically stable and do not depend on agricultural raw material.
(ii) A heavy engineering industry requires huge capital investment because it requires enormous amount of power, good transport facility and heavy bulky raw material which is costly.
(iii) The electronics industry contributes to the development of the country because it has largely contributed to space technology, communication, information technology, software industry, medical sciences and defence to develop with electronic apparatus.

(d) Industrial products of the following centres are:
(i) Bhilai—Iron and Steel-rails, beams etc
(ii) Chittaranj an—Electrical and diesel locomotives
(iii) Koraput—Air Crafts.

Question 11:
(a) Mention two advantages and one disadvantage of waterways.  [3]

(b) Roadways are always considered more important than any other means of transportation. Give two reasons in support of the statement.  [2]

(c) (i) Mention any two sources of waste.  [2]
(ii) What are Biodegradable waste ?

(d) Explain briefly the meaning of the following terms:  [3]
(i) Composting.
(ii) Incineration.
(iii) Segregation.

Answer:
(a) Two advantages of waterways are :

1. It is the cheapest source of transport.
2. Most suitable transport to carry heavy and bulky goods.

One disadvantage of waterways is :

1.  Demand for waterways is declining because its movement is not as fast as airways or railways.

(b) Roadways are considered more important than any other means of transportation because

1. It is a cheap transport for long distances and for bulky products.
2. It promotes national integration and integration within states.

(c) (i) Two sources of wastes are :

1. Domestic Waste
2. Industrial Waste

(ii) Biodegradable Waste: Waste produced by plants and animals, kitchen, paper, green waste etc that can be broken down in a reasonable amount of time through microbial activities of fungi and bacteria.

(d) (i) Composting: It is a process that involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost which is a good fertilizer for the plants.
(ii) Incineration: It is a process of controlled high temperature oxidation of primary organic compounds that release thermal energy and produce carbon dioxide and water.
(iii) Segregation: The waste from residential areas, hotels and restaurants, office complex and commercial areas must be segregated at source into different categories of biodegradable and non-degradable waste, this process is called Segregation.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers