ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years

APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Maths Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Maths Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

These ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous 10 Years Board Question Papers with Answers Solutions are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ICSE Class 10 Board Exam and Score More marks.

ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10 Maths With Solutions are solved last 10 years here.

Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Maths
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Maths Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

We hope the ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years Pdf Free Download with Solutions will help you. If you have any query regarding ICSE Class 10 Maths Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years

APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Geography Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Geography Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

These ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous 10 Years Board Question Papers with Answers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ICSE Class 10 Board Exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Geography
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

We hope the ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years Pdf Free Download with Solutions will help you. If you have any query regarding ICSE Class 10 Geography Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10

ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Maths Previous Year Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10

General Instructions :

  • Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
  • You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
  • This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
  • The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
  • Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
  • All working, including rough work, must be clearly shown and must be done on the same sheet as the rest of
  • the answer. Omission of essential working will result in the loss of marks.
  • The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
  • Mathematical tables are provided.

Section A [40 marks]
(Answer all questions from this Section.)

Question 1.
(a) Solve the following in equation and write down the solution set : [3]
11x – 4 < 15x + 4 ≤ 3x + 14, x ∈ W
Represent the solution on a real number line.
(b) A man invests 4500 in shares of a company which is paying 7.5% dividend. [3]
If 100 shares are available at a discount of 10%. Find :
(i) Number of shares he purchases.
(ii) His annual income.
(c) In a class of 40 students, marks obtained by the students in a class test (out of 10) are given below : [4]
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 1
Calculate the following for the given distribution :
(i) Median
(ii) Mode
Solution :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 2
Total investment = ₹ 4500
Face value of a share = ₹ 100
Discount = 10%
∴ Market value of a share = ₹ (100 – 10) = ₹ 90
Now, Number of shares purchased = \(\frac{4500}{90}=50\)
Annual income = ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 3
= ₹ 375
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 4
Here,ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 5
Marks corresponding to cumulative frequency 20 is 6
Thus, the required median is 6.
Clearly, 6 occurs 10 times which is maximum.
Hence, mode is 6.

Question 2.
(a) Using the factor theorem, show that (x – 2) is a factor of x3 + x2 – 4x – 4. [3]
Hence, factorise the polynomial completely.
(b) Prove that :
(cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ) = 1 [3]
(c) In an Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) the fourth and sixth terms are 8 and 14 respectively.
Find the : [4]
(i) first term
(ii) common difference
(iii) sum of the first 20 terms.
Solution :
(a) Given polynomial is p(x) = x3 + x2 – 4x – 4
x – 2 is its factor, if p(2) = 0
p(2) = (2)3 + (2)2 – 4(2) – 4 = 8 + 4 – 8 – 4 = 0
Thus, x – 2 is a factor of p(x).
Now, x3 + x2 – 4x + 4 = x2(x +1) – 4(x + 1)
= (x + 1) (x2 – 4)
= (x + 1) (x + 2) (x – 2)
Hence, the required factors are (x + 1), (x + 2) and (x – 2).
L.H.S. = (cosec θ – sin θ) (sec θ – cos θ) (tan θ + cot θ)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 6
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 7
Hence, first term is – 1, common difference is 3 and sum of the first 20 terms is 550.

Question 3.
(a) Simplify :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 8
(b) M and N are two points on the X axis and Y axis respectively. [3]
P(3, 2) divides the line segment MN in the ratio 2 : 3.
Find :
(i) the coordinates of M and N
(ii) slope of the line MN.
(c) A solid metallic sphere of radius 6 cm is melted and made into a solid cylinder of height 32 cm. Find the : [4]
(i) radius of the cylinder
(ii) curved surface area of the cylinder
Take π = 3.1
Solution :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 9
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 10

(b) Let the coordinates of M and N be (x, 0) and (0, y)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 11

Thus, the coordinates of M and N are M(5,0) and N(0, 5).
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 12
Hence, the slope of the line MN is – 1.

(C) Radius of metallic sphere (R) = 6 cm
Height of cylinder (h) = 32 cm
Volume of cylinder = Volume of metallic sphere
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 13
Curved Surface area of the year = 2πrh
= 2 × 3.1 × 3 × 32 = 595.2 cm2

Question 4.
(a) The following numbers, K + 3, K + 2, 3K – 7 and 2K – 3 are in proportion. Find K. [3]
(b) Solve for x the quadratic equation x2 – 4x – 8 = 0
Give your answer correct to three significant figures.
(c) Use ruler and compass only for answering this question. [4]
Draw a circle of radius 4 cm. Mark the center as 0. Mark a point P outside the circle at a distance of 7 cm from the center. Construct two tangents to the circle from the external point P. Measure and write down the length of any one tangent
Solution :
(a) Here, \(\frac{K+3}{K+2}=\frac{3 K-7}{2 K-3}\)
⇒ (K + 3) (2K – 3) = (K + 2) (3K – 7).
⇒ 2K2 – 3K + 6K – 9 = 3K– 7K + 6K – 14
⇒ K2 – 4K – 5 = 0
⇒ (K – 5) (K + 1) = 0
⇒ K = 5 or K = – 1

(b) Given quadratic equation is x2 – 4x – 8 = 0
By using quadratic formula, we have
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 14
= \(2(1 \pm \sqrt{3})=2(1 \pm 1.73205)=2(2.73205) \text { or } 2(-0.73205)\)
= 5.46410 or – 1.4641
= 5.46 or – 1.46

(c) Steps of Construction :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 15
1. Draw a circle of radius 4 cm and centre 0.
2. Draw a radius and produce it to P, such that
OP = 7 cm.
3. Bisect OP at M.
4. With M as centre and MP as radius, draw a circle to intersect the given circle at Q and R.
5. Join PQ and PR.
PQ and PR are the required tangents and length of the tangents is 5.74 cm.

Section – B [40 Marks]
(Attempt any four questions)

Question 5.
(a) There are 25 discs numbered 1 to 25. They are put in a closed box and shaken thoroughly. A disc is drawn at random from the box.
Find the probability that the number on the disc is : [3]
(i) an odd number
(ii) divisible by 2 and 3 both
(iii) a number less than 16.
(b) Rekha opened a recurring deposit account for 20 months. The rate of interest is 9% per annum and Rekha receives 441 as interest at the time of maturity. Find the amount Rekha deposited each month.
(c) Use a graph sheet for this question. [4]
Take 1 cm = 1 unit along both x and y axis.
(i) Plot the following points :
A(0, 5), B(3, 0), C(1, 0) and D(1, -5)
(ii) Reflect the points B, C and D on the y-axis and name them as B’, C’, D’ respectively.
(iii) Write down the coordinates of B’, C’ and D’.
(iv) Join the points A, B, C, D, D’, C’, B’, A in order and give a name to the closed figure ABCDD’C’B’.
Solution :
(a) Sample space = 25 discs numbered from 1 to 25.
(i) Odd numbers are 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, 11, 13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25
Probability (an odd number) = \(\frac{13}{25}\) .
(ii) Numbers divisible by 2 and 3 both are 6, 12, 18, 24
Probability (divisible by 2 and 3 both) = \(\frac{4}{25}\) .
Numbers less than 16 are 1 to 15
(iii) Probability (a no. less than 16) = \(\frac{15}{25}\)  or \(\frac{3}{5}\)

(b) Here, n = 20, R = 9% p.a., Interest = ₹ 441
Let the monthly deposit be of ₹ x.
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 16
Hence, the monthly deposit is ₹ 280.

(c) (i) and (ii)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 17
(iii) B’ (- 3, 0), C’ (- 1, ) and D’ (- 1, – 5)
(iv) Arrow Head.

Question 6.
(a) In the given figure,∠PQR = ∠PST = 90°, PQ = 5 cm and PS = 2 cm.
(i) Prove that△PQR ∼ APST.
(ii) Find Area of △PQR : Area of quadrilateral SRQT.
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 18

(b) The first and last term of a Geometrical Progression (G.P.) are 3 and 96 respectively. If the
common ratio is 2, find :
(i) ‘n’ the number of terms of the G.P.
(ii) Sum of the n terms.
(c) A hemispherical and conical hole is scooped out of a solid wooden cylinder.
Find the volume of the remaining solid where the measurements are as follows : [4]
The height of the solid cylinder is 7 cm, radius of each of hemisphere, cone and cylinder is 3 cm. Height of cone is 3 cm. Give your answer correct to the nearest whole number. Take π = \(\frac{22}{7}\)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 19
Solution :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 20
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 21

(b) Given that, a = 3 and an = 96, r = 2
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 22
(c) Given that :
Radius of each of hemisphere, cone and cylinder (r) = 3 cm
Height of cylinder = 7 cm
Height of cone = 3 cm
Volume of remaining solid = Vol. of cylinder – Vol. of cone – Vol. of hemisphere
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 23

Question 7.
(a) In the given figure, AC is a tangent to the circle with centre 0.
If ∠ADB = 55°, find x and y. Give reasons for your answers. [3]
(b) The model of a building is constructed with the scale factor 1:30. [3]
(i) If the height of the model is 80 cm, find the actual height of the building in metres.
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 24
(ii) If the actual volume of a tank at the top of the building is 27 m, find the volume of the tank on the top of the model.
(c) Given , ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 25 M = 6I, where M is a matrix and I is unit matrix of order 2 x 2.
(i) State the order of matrix M.
(ii) Find the matrix M. [4]
Solution:
(a) We know that angle between the radius and the tangent at the point of contact is right angle.
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 26

(b) Here, scale factor (k) = \(\frac{1}{30}\)
(i) Height of the model = k(Actual height of the building)
⇒ 80 cm = \(\frac{1}{30}\) (Actual height of the building)
⇒ Actual height of the building = 30 × 80 = 2400 cm

(ii) Volume of the tank at the top of the model
= k3(Actual volume of the tank)
⇒ Volume of the tank at the top of the model
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 27

(c) Here,
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 28
∴ The order of matrix M = 2 × 2
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 29

Question 8.
(a) The sum of the first three terms of an Arithmetic Progression (A:P.) is 42 and the product of the first and third term is 52. Find the first term and the common difference. [3]
(b) The vertices of a ∆ABC are A(3, 8), B(-1, 2) and C(6, -6). Find : [3]
(i) Slope of BC.
(ii) Equation of a line perpendicular to BC and passing through A.
(c) Using ruler and a compass only construct a semi-circle with diameter BC = 7 cm. Locate a
point A on the circumference of the semicircle such that A is equidistant from B and C. Complete the cyclic quadrilateral ABCD, such that D is equidistant from AB and BC. Measure ∠ADC and write it down. [4]
Solution :
(a) Let the first three terms of an A.P. be a – d, a and a + d.
According to the statement, we have
a – d + a + a + d = 42
3a = 42
a = 14
Now,(a – d)(a + d) = 52
a– d2 = 52
142 – d2 = 52
⇒ d2 = 196 – 52 = 144
⇒ d = ± 12
Hence, the first term is 14 and common difference is ± 12.

(b) Vertices of a ∆ABC are A(3, 8), B(-1, 2) and C(6, -6)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 30
Slope of the line perpendicular to BC = \(\frac{7}{8}\)
Now, equation of the line perpendicular to BC and passing through A is
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 31
8y – 64 = 7x – 21
7x – 8y + 43 = 0

(C) Steps of Construction :
1. Draw a line segment BC = 7 cm.
2. Draw its perpendicular bisector 1 and let it intersect BC in M.
3. With M as centre and radius equal to BM or CM, draw a semi-circle and let the semi-circle intersect the perpendicular bisector of line segment BC in A. Join BA.
4. Draw the angle bisector of ∠ABC and let it intersect the semi-circle in D.
5. Join AD and CD.

ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 32
Hence, ∠ADC = 135°

Question 9.
(a) The data on the number of patients attending a hospital in a month are given below. [3]
Find the average (mean) number of patients attending the hospital in a month by using the shortcut method.
Take the assumed mean as 45. Give your answer correct to 2 decimal places.ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 33

(b) Using properties of proportion solve for x, given [3]
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 34
(c) Sachin invests ₹ 8500 in 10%, ₹ 100 shares at ₹ 170. He sells the shares when the price of each share rises by ₹ 30 He invests the proceeds in 12% ₹ 100 shares at ₹ 125. Find :
(i) the sale proceeds. [4]
(ii) the number of ₹ 125 shares he buys.
(iii) the change in his annual income.
Solution :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 35ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 36

ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 37
Applying componendo and dividendo, we have
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 38
Squaring both sides, we obtain
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 39

(C) Total investment = ₹ 8500
Market value of each share = ₹ 170
Number of shares purchased = \(\frac{8500}{170}\) = 50
Dividend received = ₹ \(\frac{10}{100}\) × 50 × 100 = ₹ 500
Now, market value of each share = ₹ (170 + 30) = ₹ 200
Amount received on selling = ₹ (50 x 200) = ₹ 10000
Market value of new shares = ₹ 125 each
Number of shares purchased = \(\frac{10000}{125}\) = 80
Dividend received = \(\frac{12}{100}\) × 80 ×100 =  ₹960
Change in income = ₹ (960 – 500)
= ₹ 460

Question 10.
(a) Use graph paper for this question. [6]
The marks obtained by 120 students in an English test are given below :
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 40
Draw the ogive and hence, estimate :
(i) the median marks.
(ii) the number of students who did not pass the test if the pass percentage was 50.
(iii) the upper quartile marks.
(b) A man observes the angle of elevation of the top of the tower to be 45°. He walks towards it in a horizontal line through its base. On covering 20 m the angle of elevation changes to 60°. Find the height of the tower correct to 2 significant figures. [4]
Solution :
(a)
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 41
Plot the points (10, 5), (20, 14), (30, 30), (40, 52), (50, 78), (60, 96), (70, 107), (80, 113), (90, 117), (100, 120). On the graph paper by taking upper limits on x-axis and number of students on y-axis. Join them free hand to get smooth curve.
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 42
Here, N = 120
\(\frac{N}{2}\) = \(\frac{120}{2}\) = 60
Median marks = 42 marks
Number of students who did not pass = 78 students
Upper quartile marks = 57 marks

(b) Let AB be the tower of height h m. P and Q are the two observing points, such that
∠APB = 45°, ∠AQB = 60°, PQ = 20 m
In rt. ∠ed ∆QBA,
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 43
In rt. ∠ed ∆QBA,
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 44
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 45
Hence, the height of the tower is 47.3 m.ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 46

Question 11.
(a) Using the Remainder Theorem find the remainders obtained when xy + (kx + 8)x + k is divided by x + 1 and x – 2. [3]
Hence, find k if the sum of the two remainders is 1.
(b) The product of two consecutive natural numbers which are multiples of 3 is equal to 810. Find the two numbers. [3]
(c) In the given figure, ABCDE is a pentagon inscribed in a circle such that AC is a diameter and side BC||AE. If ∆BAC = 50°, find giving reasons : [4]
(i) ∠ACB
(ii) ∠EDC
(iii) ∠BEC
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 47
Hence, prove that BE is also a diameter.
Solution :
Given polynomial is p(x) = x3 +(kx + 8)x + k
g(x) = x + 1
∴ R1 = P(-1)
= (-1)3 + {k{-1} + 8} (-1) + k
= -1 + k – 8 + k
= 2k – 9
h(x) = x – 2
∴ R2 = P(2)
= (2)3 + (2k + 8)2 +k
= 8 + 4k + 16 + k
5k + 24
Now, R1 + R2 = 1
⇒ 2k – 9 + 5k + 24 = 1
⇒ 7k = 1 + 9 – 24
⇒ 7k = – 14
⇒ k = – 2

(b) Let the two consecutive natural numbers which are multiples of 3 be 3x and 3(x + 1).
Now, 3x(3x + 3) = 810
⇒ x2 + x = 90
⇒ x2 + x – 90 = 0
⇒ (x + 10) (x – 9) = 0
⇒ x = 9 or x = – 10
Rejecting negative value of x, because numbers are natural. We have x = 9.
Hence, the required numbers are 27 and 30.

(c) Since AC is a diameter and angle in a semi-circle is right angle
∠B = 90° and
∠ACB = 40°
Also, BC || AE
∠EAC = ∠ACB
= 40°
[alt. int. ∠s]
ICSE Maths Question Paper 2019 Solved for Class 10 48
In cyclic quadrilateral ACDE
∠EAC + ∠EDC = 180°
40° + ∠EDC = 180°
∠EDC = 180° – 40° = 140°
∠BEC = ∠BAC
= 50° [∠s in the same segment]
Also,
∠EAC = ∠EBC
= 40° [∠s in the same segment]
∠ABE = ∠ABC – ∠EBC
= 90° – 40°
= 50°
Again, ∠ABE = ∠ACE = 50° [∠s in the same segment]
Now, ∠ACE +∠ACB = 50° + 40°
= 90°
∠BCE = 90°
Hence, BE is a diameter, because angle is a semi-circle is right angle.

ICSE Class 10 Maths Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years

APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Biology Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Biology Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

These ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous 10 Years Board Question Papers with Answers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ICSE Class 10 Board Exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Biology
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

ICSE Biology Class 10 Solved Question Papers

We hope the ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years Pdf Free Download with Solutions will help you. If you have any query regarding ICSE Class 10 Biology Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years

APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Previous Year Board Question Papers Solved Pdf Free Download with Solutions, Answers and Marking Scheme. Here we have given ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years. Students can view or download the ICSE Board 10th Chemistry Previous Year Question Papers with Solutions for their upcoming examination.

These ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Previous 10 Years Board Question Papers with Answers are useful to understand the pattern of questions asked in the board exam. Know about the important concepts to be prepared for ICSE Class 10 Board Exam and Score More marks.

Board – Indian Certificate of Secondary Education (ICSE), www.cisce.org
Class – Class 10
Subject – Chemistry
Year of Examination – 2020, 2019, 2018, 2017.

ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years

ICSE Chemistry Class 10 Solved Question Papers Last 10 Years 

We hope the ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Previous Years Question Papers Solved Last 10 Years Pdf Free Download with Solutions will help you. If you have any query regarding ICSE Class 10 Chemistry Solved Question Papers Last Ten Years with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

ICSE Previous Year Question Papers Class 10

ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures

ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures

Exercise 13.1

Question 1.
If two angles of a quadrilateral are 40° and 110° and the other two are in the ratio 3 : 4, find these angles.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q1.1

Question 2.
If the angles of a quadrilateral, taken in order, are in the ratio 1 : 2 : 3 : 4, prove that it is a trapezium.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q2.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q2.2

Question 3.
If an angle of a parallelogram is two-thirds of its adjacent angle, find the angles of the parallelogram.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q3.1

Question 4.
(a) In figure (1) given below, ABCD is a parallelogram in which ∠DAB = 70°, ∠DBC = 80°. Calculate angles CDB and ADB.
(b) In figure (2) given below, ABCD is a parallelogram. Find the angles of the AAOD.
(c) In figure (3) given below, ABCD is a rhombus. Find the value of x.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q4.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q4.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q4.3

Question 5.
(a) In figure (1) given below, ABCD is a parallelogram with perimeter 40. Find the values of x and y.
(b) In figure (2) given below. ABCD is a parallelogram. Find the values of x and y.
(c) In figure (3) given below. ABCD is a rhombus. Find x and y.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q5.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q5.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q5.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q5.4

Question 6.
The diagonals AC and BD of a rectangle > ABCD intersect each other at P. If ∠ABD = 50°, find ∠DPC.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q6.1

Question 7.
(a) In figure (1) given below, equilateral triangle EBC surmounts square ABCD. Find angle BED represented by x.
(b) In figure (2) given below, ABCD is a rectangle and diagonals intersect at O. AC is produced to E. If ∠ECD = 146°, find the angles of the ∆ AOB.
(c) In figure (3) given below, ABCD is rhombus and diagonals intersect at O. If ∠OAB : ∠OBA = 3:2, find the angles of the ∆ AOD.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q7.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q7.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q7.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q7.4

Question 8.
(a) In figure (1) given below, ABCD is a trapezium. Find the values of x and y.
(b) In figure (2) given below, ABCD is an isosceles trapezium. Find the values of x and.y.
(c) In figure (3) given below, ABCD is a kite and diagonals intersect at O. If ∠DAB = 112° and ∠DCB = 64°, find ∠ODC and ∠OBA.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q8.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q8.2
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q8.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q8.4

Question 9.
(i) Prove that each angle of a rectangle is 90°.
(ii) If the angle of a quadrilateral are equal, prove that it is a rectangle.
(iii) If the diagonals of a rhombus are equal, prove that it is a square.
(iv) Prove that every diagonal of a rhombus bisects the angles at the vertices.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q9.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q9.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q9.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q9.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q9.5

Question 10.
ABCD is a parallelogram. If the diagonal AC bisects ∠A, then prove that:
(i) AC bisects ∠C
(ii) ABCD is a rhombus
(iii) AC ⊥ BD.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q10.1

Question 11.
(i) Prove that bisectors of any two adjacent angles of a parallelogram are at right angles.
(ii) Prove that bisectors of any two opposite angles of a parallelogram are parallel.
(iii) If the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other at right angles, then prove that it is a square.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.5
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q11.6

Question 12.
(i) If ABCD is a rectangle in which the diagonal BD bisect ∠B, then show that ABCD is a square.
(ii) Show that if the diagonals of a quadrilateral are equal and bisect each other at right angles, then it is a square.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q12.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q12.2

Question 13.
P and Q are points on opposite sides AD and BC of a parallelogram ABCD such that PQ passes through the point of intersection O of its diagonals AC and BD. Show that PQ is bisected at O.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q13.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q13.2

Question 14.
(a) In figure (1) given below, ABCD is a parallelogram and X is mid-point of BC. The line AX produced meets DC produced at Q. The parallelogram ABPQ is completed. Prove that:
(i) the triangles ABX and QCX are congruent;
(ii)DC = CQ = QP
(b) In figure (2) given below, points P and Q have been taken on opposite sides AB and CD respectively of a parallelogram ABCD such that AP = CQ. Show that AC and PQ bisect each other.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q14.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q14.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q14.3

Question 15.
ABCD is a square. A is joined to a point P on BC and D is joined to a point Q on AB. If AP=DQ, prove that AP and DQ are perpendicular to each other.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q15.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q15.2

Question 16.
If P and Q are points of trisection of the diagonal BD of a parallelogram ABCD, prove that CQ || AP.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q16.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q16.2

Question 17.
A transversal cuts two parallel lines at A and B. The two interior angles at A are bisected and so are the two interior angles at B ; the four bisectors form a quadrilateral ABCD. Prove that
(i) ABCD is a rectangle.
(ii) CD is parallel to the original parallel lines.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.5
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.6
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q17.7

Question 18.
In a parallelogram ABCD, the bisector of ∠A meets DC in E and AB = 2 AD. Prove that
(i) BE bisects ∠B
(ii) ∠AEB = a right angle.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q18.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q18.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q18.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q18.4

Question 19.
ABCD is a parallelogram, bisectors of angles A and B meet at E which lie on DC. Prove that AB
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q19.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q19.2

Question 20.
ABCD is a square and the diagonals intersect at O. If P is a point on AB such that AO =AP, prove that 3 ∠POB = ∠AOP.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q20.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q20.2

Question 21.
ABCD is a square. E, F, G and H are points on the sides AB, BC, CD and DA respectively such that AE = BF = CG = DH. Prove that EFGH is a square.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q21.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q21.2

Question 22.
(a) In the Figure (1) given below, ABCD and ABEF are parallelograms. Prove that
(i) CDFE is a parallelogram
(ii) FD = EC
(iii) Δ AFD = ΔBEC.
(b) In the figure (2) given below, ABCD is a parallelogram, ADEF and AGHB are two squares. Prove that FG = AC
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q22.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q22.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q22.3

Question 23.
ABCD is a rhombus in which ∠A = 60°. Find the ratio AC : BD.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q23.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures Q23.2

Exercise 13.2

Question 1.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct the quadrilateral ABCD in which ∠ BAD = 45°, AD = AB = 6cm, BC = 3.6cm, CD = 5cm. Measure ∠ BCD.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q1.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q1.2

Question 2.
Draw a quadrilateral ABCD with AB = 6cm, BC = 4cm, CD = 4 cm and ∠ ABC = ∠ BCD = 90°
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q2.1

Question 3.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct the quadrilateral ABCD given that AB = 5 cm, BC = 2.5 cm, CD = 6 cm, ∠BAD = 90° and the diagonal AC = 5.5 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q3.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q3.2

Question 4.
Construct a quadrilateral ABCD in which AB = 3.3 cm, BC = 4.9 cm, CD = 5.8 cm, DA = 4 cm and BD = 5.3 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q4.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q4.2

Question 5.
Construct a trapezium ABCD in which AD || BC, AB = CD = 3 cm, BC = 5.2cm and AD = 4 cm
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q5.1

Question 6.
Construct a trapezium ABCD in which AD || BC, ∠B= 60°, AB = 5 cm. BC = 6.2 cm and CD = 4.8 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q6.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q6.2

Question 7.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD with AB = 5.1 cm, BC = 7 cm and ∠ABC = 75°.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q7.1

Question 8.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD in which AB = 4.6 cm, BC = 3.2 cm and AC = 6.1 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q8.1

Question 9.
Using ruler and compasses, construct a parallelogram ABCD give that AB = 4 cm, AC = 10 cm, BD = 6 cm. Measure BC.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q9.1

Question 10.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD such that BC = 4 cm, diagonal AC = 8.6 cm and diagonal BD = 4.4 cm. Measure the side AB.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q10.1

Question 11.
Use ruler and compasses to construct a parallelogram with diagonals 6 cm and 8 cm in length having given the acute angle between them is 60°. Measure one of the longer sides.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q11.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q11.2

Question 12.
Using ruler and compasses only, draw a parallelogram whose diagonals are 4 cm and 6 cm long and contain an angle of 75°. Measure and write down the length of one of the shorter sides of the parallelogram.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q12.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q12.2

Question 13.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD with AB = 6 cm, altitude = 3.5 cm and side BC = 4 cm. Measure the acute angles of the parallelogram.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q13.1

Question 14.
The perpendicular distances between the pairs of opposite sides of a parallelogram ABCD are 3 cm and 4 cm and one of its angles measures 60°. Using ruler and compasses only, construct ABCD.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q14.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q14.2

Question 15.
Using ruler and compasses, construct a rectangle ABCD with AB = 5cm and AD = 3 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q15.1

Question 16.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a rectangle each of whose diagonals measures 6cm and the diagonals intersect at an angle of 45°.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q16.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q16.2

Question 17.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a square having a diagonal of length 5cm. Measure its sides correct to the nearest millimeter.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q17.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q17.2

Question 18.
Using ruler and compasses only construct A rhombus ABCD given that AB 5cm, AC = 6cm measure ∠BAD.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q18.1

Question 19.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct rhombus ABCD with sides of length 4cm and diagonal AC of length 5 cm. Measure ∠ABC.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q19.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q19.2

Question 20.
Construct a rhombus PQRS whose diagonals PR and QS are 8cip and 6cm respectively.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q20.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q20.2

Question 21.
Construct a rhombus ABCD of side 4.6 cm and ∠BCD = 135°, by using ruler and compasses only.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q21.1

Question 22.
Construct a trapezium in which AB || CD, AB = 4.6 cm, ∠ ABC = 90°, ∠ DAB = 120° and the distance between parallel sides is 2.9 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q22.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q22.2

Question 23.
Construct a trapezium ABCD when one of parallel sides AB = 4.8 cm, height = 2.6cm, BC = 3.1 cm and AD = 3.6 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q23.1

Question 24.
Construct a regular hexagon of side 2.5 cm.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q24.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 Q24.2

Multiple Choice Questions

Choose the correct answer from the given four options (1 to 12):
Question 1.
Three angles of a quadrilateral are 75°, 90° and 75°. The fourth angle is
(a) 90°
(b) 95°
(c) 105°
(d) 120°
Solution:
Sum of 4 angles of a quadrilateral = 360° Sum of three angles = 75° + 90° + 75° = 240° Fourth angle = 360° – 240° = 120° (d)

Question 2.
A quadrilateral ABCD is a trapezium if
(a) AB = DC
(b) AD = BC
(c) ∠A + ∠C = 180°
(d) ∠B + ∠C = 180°
Solution:
A quadrilateral ABCD is a trapezium if ∠B + ∠C= 180°
(Sum of co-interior angles) (d)

Question 3.
If PQRS is a parallelogram, then ∠Q – ∠S is equal to
(a) 90°
(b) 120°
(c) 0°
(d) 180°
Solution:
PQRS is a parallelogram ∠Q – ∠S = 0
(∵ Opposite angles of a parallelogram, are equal) (c)

Question 4.
A diagonal of a rectangle is inclined to one side of the rectangle at 25°. The acute angle between the diagonals is
(a) 55°
(b) 50°
(c) 40°
(d) 25°
Solution:
In a rectangle a diagonal is inclined to one side of the rectangle is 25°
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures mul Q4.1

Question 5.
ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠ACB = 40°. Then ∠ADB is
(a) 40°
(b) 45°
(c) 50°
(d) 60°
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures mul Q5.1

Question 6.
The diagonals AC and BD of a parallelogram ABCD intersect each other at the point O. If ∠D AC = 32° and ∠AOB = 70°, then ∠DBC is equal to
(a) 24°
(b) 86°
(c) 38°
(d) 32°
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures mul Q6.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures mul Q6.2

Question 7.
If the diagonals of a square ABCD intersect each other at O, then ∆OAB is
(a) an equilateral triangle
(b) a right angled but not an isosceles triangle
(c) an isosceles but not right angled triangle
(d) an isosceles right angled triangle
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures mul Q7.1

Question 8.
If the diagonals of a quadrilateral PQRS bisect each other, then the quadrilateral PQRS must be a
(a) parallelogram
(b) rhombus
(c) rectangle
(d) square
Solution:
Diagonals of a quadrilateral PQRS bisect each other, then quadrilateral must be a parallelogram.
(∵ A rhombus, rectangle and square are also parallelogram) (a)

Question 9.
If the diagonals of a quadrilateral PQRS bisect each other at right angles, then the quadrilateral PQRS must be a
(a) parallelogram
(b) rectangle
(c) rhombus
(d) square
Solution:
Diagonals of quadrilateral PQRS bisect each other at right angles, then quadrilateral PQRS [ must be a rhombus.
(∵ Square is also a rhombus with each angle equal to 90°) (c)

Question 10.
Which of the following statement is true for a parallelogram?
(a) Its diagonals are equal.
(b) Its diagonals are perpendicular to each other.
(c) The diagonals divide the parallelogram into four congruent triangles.
(d) The diagonals bisect each other.
Solution:
For a parallelogram an the statement ‘The diagoanls bisect each other’ is true. (d)

Question 11.
Which of the following is not true for a parallelogram?
(a) opposite sides are equal
(b) opposite angles are equal
(c) opposite angles are bisected by the diagonals
(d) diagonals bisect each other
Solution:
The statement that in a parallelogram, .the opposite angles are bisected by the diagonals, is not true in each case. (c)

Question 12.
A quadrilateral in which the diagonals are equal and bisect each other at right angles is a
(a) rectangle which is not a square
(b) rhombus which is not a square
(c) kite which is not a square
(d) square
Solution:
In a quadrilateral, if diagonals are equal and bisect each other at right angles, is a square. (d)

Chapter Test

Question P.Q.
The interior angles of a polygon add upto 4320°. How many sides does the polygon have ?
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures ch Qp1.1

Question P.Q.
If the ratio of an interior angle to the exterior angle of a regular polygon is 5:1, find the number of sides.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures ch Qp1.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures ch Q1.3

Question P.Q.
In a pentagon ABCDE, BC || ED and ∠B: ∠A : ∠E =3:4:5. Find ∠A.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures ch Q3.1

Question 1.
In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram. CB is produced to E such that BE=BC. Prove that AEBD is a parallelogram.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures p.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures p.2

Question 2.
In the given figure, ABC is an isosceles triangle in which AB=AC. AD bisects exterior angle PAC and CD || BA. Show that
(i) ∠DAC=∠BCA
(ii) ABCD is a parallelogram.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures p.3

Question 3.
Prove that the quadrilateral obtained by joining the mid-points of an isosceles trapezium is a rhombus.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 13.2 p.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures p.5

Question 4.
Find the size of each lettered angle in the Following Figures.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 4.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 4.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 4.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 4.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 4.5

Question 5.
Find the size of each lettered angle in the following figures :
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 5.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 5.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 5.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 5.4
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 5.5

Question 6.
In the adjoining figure, ABCD is a rhombus and DCFE is a square. If ∠ABC = 56°, find
(i) ∠DAG
(ii) ∠FEG
(iii) ∠GAC
(iv) ∠AGC.
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 6.1
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 6.2
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 6.3
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 6.4

Question 7.
If one angle of a rhombus is 60° and the length of a side is 8 cm, find the lengths of its diagonals.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 7.1

Question 8.
Using ruler and compasses only, construct a parallelogram ABCD with AB = 5 cm, AD = 2.5 cm and ∠BAD = 45°. If the bisector of ∠BAD meets DC at E, prove that ∠AEB is a right angle.
Solution:
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 8.1
ML Aggarwal Class 9 Solutions for ICSE Maths Chapter 13 Rectilinear Figures 8.2

Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Nervous System

Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Nervous System

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Biology. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Biology Chapter 6 Nervous System

Synopsis —

  • The interaction of these activities of a living being as per the needs of the body internally or externally is called coordination.
  • Nervous coordination is brought about by the nervous system which is made up of the brain, spinal cord, nerves and the sense organs.
  • Chemical coordination is brought about through chemical messengers called hormones.
  • The nervous system is made up of special cells called nerve cells or neurons.
  • The end of the axon terminates in a number of branches called terminal branches.
  • The terminal branches of the axon of one neuron lie very close to the dendrites of another neuron. This point of contact is called a synapse.
  • A nerve is formed of a bundle of axons (nerve fibres) enclosed in a tubular medullary sheath. There are three kind of nerves as describe
    1. sensory nerve
    2. motor nerve
    3. mixed nerve.
  • The nervous sytem of human beings consists of the following three systems:
    1. The central nervous system
    2. The peripheral nervous system
    3. The autonomic nervous system
  • The brain has three main parts:
    1. The cerebrum
    2. The cerebellum, and
    3. The medulla oblongata
  • The main functions of the spinal cord are:
    1. To control reflexes below the neck.
    2. To conduct messages from the skin and muscles to the brain.
    3. To conduct commands from the brain to muscles of the trunk and limbs.
  • The autonomic nervous system consists of a pair of chain of nerves and ganglia found on either side of the backbone.  This system controls the involuntary activities of the internal organs.
  • Stimulus: Any change in the environment that usually results in change in the activity of the body.
  • Response: The activity of the body in response to a received stimulus.
  • Impulse: A wave of electrical disturbance that runs through the nerves.
  • Receptors : These are sense organs which receives the stimulus.
  • Effector: Any muscle or gland where the response occurs.

Review Questions

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) Medulla oblongata controls
(i) Smelling
(ii) Beating of heart and respiratory movement
(iii) Intelligence and will power
(iv) Balancing the body

(b) Spinal cord is an extention of:
(i) Cerebellum
(ii) Cerebrum
(iii) Vertebral column
(iv) Medulla oblongata

(c) Body posture is mantained by:
(i) Cerebellum
(ii) Cerebrum
(iii) Medulla oblongata
(iv) Spinal cord

Short Answer Questions:

1. Write one word in the space provided to complete the second pair of the related words pertaining to nervous system.
Memory: cerebrum:: breathing:
Balance: cerebellum:: reasoning:
Answer:
Memory: cerebrum: beathing: medulla oblongata
Balance: cerebellum:: reasoning: cerebrum

2. (a) Name three major divisions of the human nervous system.
Answer:

  1. The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
  2. The peripheral nervous system
  3. The autonomic nervous system

(b) Name the three main parts of human brain.
Answer:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla oblongata

3. Given here is the diagram of a neuron. Name the parts numbered 1-6.
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 1

Answer:

  1. dendrite
  2. dendrite (Terminal Arborization)
  3. nucleus
  4. axon (Nerve fibre)
  5. cell Body (cyton)
  6. node of ranvier
  7. sheath

Long answer questions

Question 1.
With the help of a suitable diagram describe the structure of a neuron.
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 2

Nervous system consists of special cells called nerve cells or neurons. It has a main cell body called cyton. It gives out many processes called dendrites. From it a very long process is given out. It is called axon or nerve fibre.

The cell body has a nucleus. The dendrites get the message from the organs and send this message to the axon through the cell body. Then the axon sends the message to muscles to contrast or to the gland for secretion.

The neurons make contact with one another through their processes. The axon at its end branches and meets the dendrites of another neuron. The meeting point is called synapse. The message is passed on from one axon to the dendrites of another neuron. How the message goes ? It is like this:
Organ → Message goes to dendrites →Cell body → Axon → Muscles or  glands

Question 2.
Briefly describe the structure of the cerebrum in human brain, and mention its functions.
Answer:
Brain consists of main three parts and lies in the cranial cavity of skull.

  1. The cerebrum
  2. The cerebellum
  3. The medulla oblongata

Cerebrum — It is very large and form two third of the whole brain. The two hemispheres are separated from each other by a deep longitudinal groove, the median fissure. The outer surface is folded with ridges and grooves. The hemispheres are hollow from inside and their walls have outer and inner portions. The outer portion has cell bodies of the neurons and it is called grey matter.
The wavery edges of the folded layer has large number of neurons to the extent of nine billion. The inner portion of the cerebrum has axons and it is called white matter.
Functions:

  1. It controls all the voluntary activities.
  2. It is the seat of intelligence, consciousness and will power.

Question 3.
Mention the three functions of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord has the following functions.

  1. It is the centre of reflex actions below the neck.
  2. It carries messages from the skin and muscles to the brain.
  3. All the stimuli and responses are passed from and to the brain through the spinal cord.

Question 4.
Describe three kinds of nerves, giving example of each.
Answer:
A nerve is formed by a group of nerve fibres (axons) encased
by tubular medullary sheath. The medullary sheath acts as insulation and do not allow mixing up of impulses of the neighbouring axons (nerve fibres) We have three kinds of nerves:

  1. Sensory nerve — It brings impulses from sense organs as these have sensory fibres. These nerve carry the impulses from the sense organs to the brain or to the spinal cord as optic nerve of the eye.
  2. Motor nerves—These carry impulses to muscles or glands from the brain or spinal cord. These nerves have only motor fibres as nerves to the muscles of the eye ball.
  3. Mixed nerve — It has both sensory and motors fibres as nerve going to the tongue.

Question 5.
What are voluntary and involuntary actions ? Which part of the nervous system controls them ?
Answer:
Voluntary action: When an action is produced with the involvement of thoughts, they are called the voluntary action. For example, writing an article jumping from heights. These actions are produced consciously by our body.
Involuntary action: Actions which take place without consciousness or willingness of an individual are called the involuntary action. Digestion, heart beating, sneezing, etc are few examples of involuntary actions.

  1. The cerebral cortex controls our voluntary actions like running and walking etc.
  2. Medulla helps in involuntary actions like hearbeat, breathing etc.

Additional Questions

I. Multiple choice questions. Tick (✓) the correct choice:

I. Nervous system in humans consists of
(a) brain and nerves
(b) brain and spinal cord
(c) brain, spinal cord and nerves
(d) none of the above.

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Basic structural unit of the nervous system is the neuron.
  2. Central nervous system consists of brain and spinal cord.
  3. A neuron consists of cell body, dendrite and axon.
  4. The neurons carrying impulses from the brain to the muscles are called motor or efferent neurons.
  5. Peripheral nervous system consists of nerves.
  6. The three main parts of the brain are cerebrum, cerebellum and medulla oblongata (brain stem).

III. State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Each neuron consists of three parts called cell body, cyton and axon.
 False. Each neuron consists of three parts called cell body, dendrite and axon.

2. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum.
 True.

3. Cerebellum maintains balance of the body.
True.

4. There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves.
 False. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

IV. Find the odd-one out, giving reasons:
Axon, cell body, dendrite, cerebellum
Ans. Cerebellum is the odd one out as it is a part of brain while rest three are parts of a neuron.

V. Define the following:
1. Reflex arc
2. Sensory neuron
3. Motor neuron
4. Neuron
Answer:

  1. Reflex arc: The path that an impulse takes in a reflex action is called a reflex arc.
  2. Sensory neuron: The neurons which carry impulses
    from the body parts to the spinal cord or the brain are called sensory or afferent neurons. For example, optic nerve of the eye.
  3. Motor neuron: The neurons which carry impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the body parts are called motor or efferent neurons.
  4. Neuron: A neuron or a nerve cell is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
 Describe the two parts of the nervous system.
Answer:
The nervous system of human has two parts:

  1. Central Nervous System (CNS): It consists of the brain and the spinal cord. The brain lies protected inside the skull while the spinal cord is protected within the vertebral column.
  2. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): It consists of nerves arising from the spinal cord (spinal nerves) and the brain (cranial nerves). These nerves link the central nervous system with the various body organs.

Question 2.
What are nerves? Mention the types of nerves found in humans.
Answer:
A bundle of nerve fibres joined together as a tubular sheath that transmits impulses between brain or spinal cord and other body parts is called a nerve. The nerves constitute the peripheral nervous system.
Nerves are of two types in humans:

  1. Cranial nerves: They emerge from the brain. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
  2. Spinal nerves: They emerge from the spinal cord. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of brain.
Answer:
The brain is the main control centre of the nervous system.
It is enclosed within the bony shell of cranium.
It consists ofthree main part:

    1. Cerebrum: It is the uppermost and largest part with many ridges and grooves. It is divided into right and left halves called cerebral hemispheres. It controls our thinking, reasoning, intelligence, memory and perception of pain, sound, touch, taste and smell.
    2. Cerebellum: It is located under the cerebrum at the back of the head. It maintains balance of the body and coordinates muscular activity.
    3. Brain stem (medulla oblongata): It joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the activity of internal organs like heartbeat and breathing.
      Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 3

Question 4.
Compare the nervous system and the endocrine system.
Answer:
Nervous system

  1. Messages are sent through nerve fibres.
  2. It consists of brain, spinal cord and nerves.
  3. No hormones are secreted. Messages are sent as impulses.
  4. Transmission of impulse is quick.

Endocrine system

  1. Messages are sent through blood in the form of hormones.
  2. It consists of endocrine glands.
  3. Hormones secreted by glands regulate the body activities. .
  4. Transmission takes time.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Population

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Population

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. China has the largest population in the world.
  2. Death rate is number of deaths per year per 1,000 of the population.
  3. Life expectancy is the number of years that a person is likely to live.
  4. Urban areas generally have a higher population density.
  5. A population pyramid is a diagram that shows the age and sex composition of a population.

B. Choose the correct answer 

1. Which continent has the highest population ?

  1. Asia
  2. Europe
  3. North America
  4. South America

2. Which of these is an adverse effect of over population ?

  1. Environmental degradation
  2. Poverty
  3. Unemployment
  4. All of these.

3. Which of these is not a positive effect of under population?

  1. Adequate employment
  2. fewer taxpayers
  3. Lesser environmental degradation
  4. Lower levels of poverty

4. Which of these is a part of the demographic structure of a population ?

  1. Age composition
  2. Sex ratio
  3. Rural and urban populations
  4. All of these

5. Which type of population is shown in a bell-shaped population pyramid ?

  1. Expanding population
  2. Declining population
  3. Constant population
  4. None of these

C. State whether the following are true or false 

1. In 2016 alone, the population of the world increased by more than 80 million.
Answer. True.

2. Immigration is a factor that can cause overpopulation.
Answer. True.

3. In rural areas, people are typically engaged in secondary activities.
Answer. False. In rural areas, people are typically engaged in primary activities.

4. An adverse sex ratio shows the high position given to women in society.
Answer. False.
An adverse sex ratio shows the low position given to women in society.

5. In a population pyramid, the youngest age group is shown at the bottom.
Answer. True.

D. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Define the term ‘population’.
Answer:
The term ‘population’ refers to all the people who live in a particular area, city or country.

Question 2.
Define population density.
Answer:
Population density refers to the number of people living in a unit area of space, such as a square kilometre.

Question 3.
Distinguish between immigration and emigration.
Answer:
Immigration is the process of coming to live permanently in another country that is not one’s own.
Emigration is the process of leaving one country to go and live permanently in another country.

Question 4.
Write any two causes of overpopulation ?
Answer:
Causes of overpopulation are :

  1. Immigration – When people come from another country.
  2. Increased birth rate – due to better medical facilities
  3. Decreased death rate – due to better medical facilities.
  4. Better medical facilities
  5. Lack of family planning.

Question 5.
Mention any two factors that cause population growth in a developed country.
Answer:
In the developed countries of the world, the population increased earlier due to :

  1. Economic growth and prosperity as a result of industrialization.
  2. Improved medical techniques and health care facilities.
  3. Immigration because of better job opportunities and better living conditions.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors that cause population growth in a developing country.
Answer:
In developing countries of the world, rapid increase in population was due to :

  1. Modern medical techniques which increased the lifespan of the people.
  2. Ignorance of the masses.
  3. Traditional beliefs, customs and outlook of people.

Question 7.
What do the rural and urban population consist of ?
Answer:
The rural population consists of the people residing in villages.
The urban population consists of the people living in towns and cities.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘working population’?
Answer:
The section of the population between 14 – 60 years of age is
considered to be the working population. They are willing and eligible to work and considered an asset for a country as it means high availability of labour for the development of the nation.

 

E. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs:

Question 1.
Write a note on the distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
At present, the population of the world stands at 7.35 billion. China has the largest population in the world with over 1.3 billion people, followed by India, with over 1.2 billion people, the USA with over 321 million people and Indonesia with over 257 million people. Island nations of the Pacific Ocean have populations of just a few thousand.
Continent-wise, Asia has the largest population with over 4.4 billion people, followed by Africa with 1.18 billion people. Europe has over 738 million people, North America has over 573 million people, South America has over 418 million people and Oceania (Australia, New Zealand, Pacific Islands of Fiji, Papua New Guinea, Vanuatu, Samoa, etc) has over 3’9 million people)

Question 2.
Briefly explain any four factors that affect the population of a place.
Answer:
The are various factors that affect the population of a place such as birth rate, death rate, immigration, emigration, influx of refugees, agricultural development, urbanization, education, topography and climate of a place, employment opportunities, etc,
In developed countries, due to improvements in medical facilities, the death rates have reduced and the lifespan of the people have increased resulting in increase in population.

Question 3.
What is the impact of overpopulation ?
Answer:
Impact of Overpopulation :

  1. Adverse effect on the environment : Higher population consumes more natural resources like fresh water, arable land and mineral resources. This leads to deforestation, scarcity of water, extinction of plants and animals, depletion of fossil fuels, pollution, global warming.
  2. Adverse effect on economy : Higher population leads to unemployment, overcrowding, shortage of food, fuel, minerals and other resources. This leads to poor quality of education, low per capita income, inflation, less productivity and slow economic growth of the country.
  3. Poor quality of life : There is not enough affordable food, shelter and education. People live in congested areas with poor sanitary conditions leading to spread of diseases, poverty and rise in crime rate.

Question 4.
Write the positive as well as negative effects of under population.
Answer:
Impace of Under population
Under population has several positive effects :

  1. There are sufficient employment opportunities for everyone.
  2. There are fewer instances of overcrowding.
  3. There are lower levels of poverty.
  4. There are adequate educational, medical and other facilities to meet everyone’s needs.
  5. There are sufficient natural resources to meet the requirements of the population.
  6. There is lesser pressure on the environment, and hence, lower rates of environmental degradation.

However, there are also some negative effects of under population :

  1. The lack of adequate labour leads to low productivity.
  2. In some instances, a higher proportion of the population is either too young or too old to work.
  3. There are lesser taxpayers, leading to low income for the government.
  4. There are not enough people to develop the natural resources of the country.

Question 5.
Write the main differences between rural and urban populations.
Answer:
Rural Population

  1. It refers to people living in villages.
  2. The population density in rural areas is low.
  3. The people do primary activities like farming, fishing, mining etc.
  4. The educational and medical facilities are not very highly developed.
  5. Poor standards of transport and communication there.
  6. Village communities are usually closely-knit with strong emphasis on culture and traditions.

Urban Population

  1. It refers to people living in towns and cities.
  2. The population density in urban areas is generally high.
  3. The people do secondary and tertiary activities like trade, transport, services, etc.
  4. The educational and medical facilities are highly developed.
  5. Better standards of transport and communication.
  6. The socio-cultural ties between people in cities are not as strong as in villages.

Question 6.
What is sex ratio ? What is the meaning of favourable and unfavourable sex ratios ?
Answer:
Sex-ratio means the number of females per 1000 males in a given population. In India, sex ratio is calculated in terms of females per 1000 males. The formula to calculate the sex
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 1
The sex ratio is an important characteristic that helps us to study the population of a given area. For example, when we say that the sex ratio in India is 940, it means that there are 940 girls for every 1000 boys.
Favourable sex ratio: The sex ratio is considered favourable if there is an equal or higher number of females per 1000 males in the population. For example, Latvia in Europe has the highest sex ratio with 1179 females for every 1000 males.
Unfavourable sex ratio : An unfavourable sex ratio means that there is a lower number of females per 1000 males in the population. Practices like female foeticide (killing of girls in the womb), female infanticide (killing of girls when they are babies) and domestic violence towards women due to gender discrimination lead to unfavourable sex ratio. For examples, countries like India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China and Saudi Arabia have low sex ratio.

G Picture study.

Question 1.
What does the picture tell us?
Answer:
A crowded street in Mumbai, India’s most populous city.

Question 2.
Mention any three impacts of such a condition.
Answer:
Overpopulation usually has an adverse effect on the environment, the economy and the quality of life that people lead. A larger population consumes more natural resources
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 2
such as fresh water, arable land and mineral resources. As more land is brought under cultivation, the amount of land under forests keeps reducing, impacting the diverse animal and plant populations in these forests. Increases mining for minerals causes further environmental damage. As more factories are set up to meet the needs of the people, more fossil fuels are used and more pollutants are released into the environment.

G Map work. On an outline map of the world mark the top five populous countries of the world.
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 3

Extra questions

Question 1.
Define the following —

  1. Birth rate
  2. Death rate
  3. Life expectancy
  4. Family planning
  5. Demography
  6. Overpopulation

Answer:

  1. Birth rate — It is the number of live births per year per 1000 of the population. The formula for calculating birth rate is
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 4
  2. Death rate — It is the number of deaths per year per 1000 of the population. It is calculated as :
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 5
  3. Life expectancy — It is the number of years that a person is likely to live. It is calculated as the average life span of a population.
  4. Family planning — It is the process of controlling the number of children that a person has and the intervals between their births.
  5. Demography — It refers to the study of population of a place especially of humans, based on physical, socio-cultural and economic factors such as age and sex, language, religion, economic status, literacy, marital status, etc.
  6. Overpopulation — It is an undesirable condition where the number of people in a given area exceeds the availability of resources to meet the needs of all the people. In an over-populated environment, the number of people might be more than the available essential materials for survival like food, clothes, water, shelter, transport, etc.
  7. Under population — It is a condition where the number of people living in a given area is less in relation to the available resources of a country. This happens when there are not enough people to make full use of resources such as land, water, forests and the available technology.
  8. Population pyramid — It is specially designed diagram that shows the age and sex composition of a population. It is also called as age-sex pyramid.

Question 2.
List few countries with high population density (over population) and few with low population density (under population) ?
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 6

Question 3.
Mention the causes of underpopulation ?
Answer:
Causes of underpopulation are :

  1. Increase in the death rate due to natural disaster like earthquake, Tsunami, flood or man-made disasters such as war.
  2. Decrease in birth rate due to genetic reasons.
  3. Infertility in the people
  4. Emigration – people moving out of a country.

Question 4.
What do you mean by composition of population or demographic structure? What is its significance? Name any two characteristics of a population.
Answer:
Population composition or demographic structure: Refers to the physical, sociocultural and economic attributes of the population such as age and sex, place of residence, language, religion, martial status, literacy, etc.
Significance: The characteristics of population composition are measurable and help in distinguishing one group from another.
Two Characteristics of a population are :

  1. Rural and Urban Composition: This is on the basis of where a person resides. Rural refers to villages and urban refers to cities and towns.
  2. Age and sex Composition : It refers to the percentage of people in different age groups in a given population and sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males in a population).

Question 5.
What do you understand by age composition of a population ?
Answer:
Age composition refers to the percentage of people in different age groups in a given population. It differs from country to country. It can be working population (people between 14-60 years of age) or dependent population (below 14 and above 60 years of age).

Question 6.
What is the working population of India ?
Answer:
62.5 per cent of the population of India is working population. 29.5 % is in the age group of 0-14 years while 8 % is above 60 years of age.

Question 7.
What leads to unfavourable sex ratio at some places ? Name few social practices leading to it ?
Answer:
Gender discrimination is the major cause of unfavourable sex ratio which gives women a lower status in society. Few social practices leading to unfavourable sex ratio are :

  1. Female Foeticide
  2. Female infanticide
  3. Domestic violence.

Question 8.
Name one scheme launched by the government of India that works towards generating awareness and improving the efficiency of welfare services meant for women in the country.
Answer:
Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (Save girl child, educate girl child).

Question 9.
What is the most effective way to show the age and sex structure of a population ?
Answer:
Population pyramid or Age-sex Pyramid.

Question 10.
Explain the diagram of a population pyramid. Also show the three types of pyramids.
Answer:
The diagram of a population pyramid consists of bars arranged in the form of a pyramid. The bars show different age groups, with the males on the left and females on the right. The base represents the youngest age group and the top represents the oldest. The shape of the population pyramid shows the characteristics of the population. The three types of pyramid are :

  1. Expanding population : In this case, the age-sex pyramid is more or less triangular with a broad base and a narrow top. The broad base shows large population of young people which indicates high birth rate. The narrow top shows high death rate in the older age group. Such a pyramid indicates rapid population growth. For example, countries like Bangladesh, India, Mexico, Nigeria have such a population pyramid.
  2. Constant Population : The shape of the pyramid is like a bell, with the narrow top and a broad middle for several bars. This shows that the birth rate is almost equal to the death rate, leading to a constant population with the percentage of males and females remaining almost the same. Usually, developed countries such as the USA have this kind of a pyramid.
  3. Declining Population : Such a pyramid has a narrow base, a bulging middle that indicates low birth rate and death rates and a slightly narrow apex. Countries like Japan, Germany and Italy have this kind of a pyramid.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 7

Question 11.
Why is it important to study the population ?
Answer:
Studying the population helps us to understand how it shapes the world in different ways. Controlling the population correctly is an important task for the government. It plays a big role in the development of a country.

12. Fill in the blanks

  1. Population refers to all the people who live in a particular area.
  2. At present, the population of the world stand at 7.35 billion.
  3. Second most populated country in the world is India.
  4. Continent-wise, Asia has the largest population, followed by Africa
  5. India’s most populous city is Mumbai.
  6. Population Density refers to the number of people living in a unit area of space.
  7. In Overpopulation condition, the number of people in a particular area is more than the available resources.
  8. Under population puts less pressure on the environment.
  9. Sex ratio of 940 means there are 940 girls for every 1000 boys.
  10. The sex ratio is usually unfavourable in those countries where gender discrimination is widespread.
  11. The average sex ratio in the world is 982 females to every 1000 males.
  12. Latvia in Europe has the highest sex ratio with 1179 females for every 1000 males.
  13. Triangular shaped population pyramid indicates rapid population growth.
  14. Not being able to have babies or produce young ones is called infertility.
  15. In India 69 % population is rural and 31 % urban.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Recording of Weather

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Recording of Weather

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Discuss

How are dew drops beneficial for plants ?
Answer:
In the early morning dew surrounds the leaves of plant with moisture and plant does not close its stomata.

EXERCISES

A. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What is relative humidity? How does it differ from absolute humidity ?
Answer:
Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the total amount the air can hold at a given temperature. It is expressed in percentage.
While absolute humidity is measured in grams per cubic metre.

Question 2.
What does a large difference between the temperatures of a dry bulb thermometer and a wet bulb thermometer of a hygrometer indicate?
Answer:
A large difference between the readings of the two thermometers means low relative humidity and a small difference between them means high relative humidity.

Question 3.
Differentiate between precipitation and condensation. Give one example of each.
Answer:
Condensation – Dew is a form of condensation. Condensation is the process by which water vapour in the air gets converted into tiny droplets of water or ice. Dew formsin winters when the temperature is very low but not below 0°C. Moist air comes in contact with the cold surfaces near the ground. The water vapour in the air changes to water and we see it as dew drops on grass or on plants. Dew drops are beneficial for plants. Precipitation – Precipitation is the falling of atmospheric moisture as a result of condensation. It has many forms such as rainfall, snowfall, and hail.

Question 4.
What are nimbus clouds?
Answer:
Nimbus are real rain clouds-thick, dark and black and spread out in layers. They cause continuous rain or snow.

Question 5.
What is the Beaufort scale?
Answer:
Beaufort scale is the scale that is used to estimate wind speed. The scale is based on the effect of the wind at different speeds.

B. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
What is a hygrometer ?
Answer:
The instrument used for measuring relative humidity is called hygrometer. The hygrometer consists of wet and dry bulb thermometer. The dry bulb thermometer is an ordinary thermometer while the wet bulb thermometer is kept wet by a wick that dips into a container of distilled water. The wet bulb thermometer shows the lower temperature than the actual temperature as evaporation from the moist wick has a cooling effect. A larger difference between readings of two thermometers means low relative humidity and small difference means high relative humidity.

Question 2.
Describe the various types of clouds.
Answer:
The four types of clouds are :

(a) Cirrus clouds — These are feathery, fibrous clouds which form at very high levels of 5 to 10 km. They consist of tiny crystals of ice and look like wisps of cotton floating in the sky.
(b) Cumulus clouds — These are cauliflower-shaped clouds that have great vertical height and a flat base; they cause rainfall with lightning and thunder, and are usually white or grey in colour.
(c) Stratus clouds — These are sheet-like clouds that spread out 42 Arundeep’s Self-Help to Voyage-7 over the whole sky. They usually form at low levels, less than 2 km. They are uniformly grey and dull.
(d) Nimbus clouds — These are the real rain clouds – thick, dark and black, and spread out in layers. They cause continuous rain or snow.

Question 3.
What is wind? What precautions must be taken while placing a wind vane?
Answer:
Wind is air in motion. A wind vane indicates the direction of the wind and consists of a rotating arm pivoted on a vertical rod. The arrow of the wind vane always points in the direction from which the wind blows and the wind is named accordingly. For example, if the pointer is pointing to the East, the wind is blowing from East to West and, therefore, this wind is called an easterly wind. Wind vanes are usually placed away from obstacles such as high buildings, trees, etc.

Question 4.
What are isohyets and isotherms ?
Answer:
Isohytes : A weather map, which shows, by the help of lines, the amount of rainfall a place receives. Each of these lines is made by joining points that show the same amount of rainfall received in a given period. These lines are known as isohyets.
Isotherm : On the map, places experiencing the same temperature at a given time are connected with a line. This line is known as an isotherm. Each of these points on the line reflects one temperature reading, or an average of several readings, over a period of time.

Question 5.
What is a weather report ? How is weather forecast made? Why is weather forecast necessary ?
Answer:
When the weather conditions of the previous day are published, it is called a weather report. Weather forecasting is the application of science and technology to predict the state of the atmosphere for a given location. Nowadays it is made with the help of data gathered from weather satellites and radar systems. Forecasts help to plan what to wear, when to travel or which products to stock in super markets. It’s specially important for farmers, builders, sailors or anyone else who works out doors.

C. For a week, gather information on the weather conditions of your city using simple instruments or from weather reports published in newspapers. Present this information in a table. One has been done for you here. My observation of the weather at for a week.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 1

D. This could be a classroom activity. If your school laboratory has an anemometer, use it to record your city’s wind speed for a week. Use the Beaufort Scale to find out the character of wind during these days. Record your observations carefully in your notebook. You could even draw small neat sketches to show the effect of the wind.
Answer:
Do it Yourself

E. From the weather report published in your local newspaper, record the time of sunrise and sunset for a month in your notebook, as shown on the next page : My observation of the time of sunrise and sunset for the month of ______ 20, ______
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 2

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 3

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 4

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 5

F. Picture Study
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 6

  1. Identify the four types of clouds shown in the photographs.
  2. Which of these causes heavy rainfall?

Answer:

1.(a) Cirrus clouds
(b) Cumulus clouds
(c) Stratus clouds
(d) Nimbus clouds

2. Nimbus clouds causes heavy rainfalls.

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – A Period of Transition

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – A Period of Transition

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

I.Fill in the blanks :

  1. The Renaissance thinkers believed in life in this World.
  2. The term Reformation refers to two major developments, the Protestant Reformation and the Catholic Reformation.
  3. Vasco-da-Gama reached Calicut on the West Coast of India.
  4. The Industrial Revolution began in England in about 1750.
  5. In 1793, Eli Whitney invented a Cotton gin

II.Match the contents of Column A and Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 1

Answer:
Column A                                             Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 3

III.State whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. The Renaissance and the Reformation alongwith new voyages ushered in the Modern Age.
    True.
  2. The Industrial Revolution began in Germany.
    False.
  3. Me Adam devised railway tracks.
    False.
  4. The Rise of capitalism and imperialism can be attributed to the industrial Revolution.
     True.
  5. The East India Company gradually became rulers from being traders.
    True.

IV.Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How did the Renaissance, Reformation and the new geographical discoveries lead to the Modern Age?
Answer:
The Renaissance, Reformation and the new geographical discoveries gradually ushered in the modern age. The Renaissance developed rationalism, humanism, scientific spirit and a spirit of inquiry in people at large. The Reformation led to establishment of Protestant church and Catholic Reformation which rid the churches of many evils and corruption. Religious dogmas and superstitions gave way to a scientific temper and spirit of inquiry among people. The new geographical knowledge led to discovery of new lands which opened new opportunities for trade, travel and further voyages and discoveries.
All these factors gradually ushered in the modern age. These were logically followed by the Industrial Revolution.

Question 2.
Give reasons why did the Industrial Revolution first begin in England?
Answer:
During the later part of the 18th century, England was in the most favourable position for an industrial revolution.

  1. Through her overseas trade, England had accumulated vast profits which could provide the necessary capital.
  2. She had acquired colonies which ensured a regular supply of raw material and markets for finished goods.
  3. England had plenty of natural resources, such as iron and coal existing in vicinity and essential for industries. This provided the basis for new industries.
  4. Due to the enclosure movement, a large army of landless unemployed people was created. Thus, there was abundance of labour force to work in the factories.
  5. England had developed a large shipping industry and had no problem of transportation of raw materials and finished goods abroad.

Question 3.
Discuss the impact of the Industrial Revolution on society, economy and polity.
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution had profound effect on society, economy and polity.

  1. The Industrial Revolution resulted in mass production of a variety of goods which had to be exported overseas. This led to acquisition of colonies in Asia and Africa.
  2. Industrialisation resulted in urbanisation. A large part of rural population shifted to cities which became very crowded. This led to problems of housing, rise of slums and problems of health and sanitation.
  3. The Industrial Revolution brought countries and people together.
  4. This led to socio-economic polarisation of people. Two classes of people emerged – the capitalists and workers.This led to hunger for more and more wealth among capitalists, exploitation of workers and shocking social inequalities.

Question 4.
The rise of socialism and communism can be attributed to the reaction against the evils of capitalism
What is the imperialism? Discuss the factors which give rise to imperialism.
Answer:
The practice of establishing a country’s rule and dominance over the economic and political life of people of another country is called imperialism.

The factors which give rise to imperialism were:

  1. Surplus Production: The capitalists asserted influence on their governments to capture colonies so that surplus goods could be sold profitably in colonies of Asia and Africa.
  2. Need for Raw Materials: Growing demand for huge quantities of raw materials to feed the new industries in Europe led to imperialism.
  3. Development of Modern means of Transportation & Communication: Invention of steamships, railways, telephone, telegraph and posts enabled man to conquer space and time. Modern means of transport and communication enabled and facilitated acquisition of colonies.
  4. Pressure of Population: The extra and surplus population in Europe had to be provided basic facilities and new regions to settle down. This led to the establishment of colonies.
  5. Rise of Industrial Capitalism: The surplus capital of industrialists needed to be invested safely. Owners of shipping companies and bankers always looked for new and better opportunities to earn more and more. This obviously led to imperialism.
  6. Ardent Nationalism: Goaded by the spirit of chauvinistic nationalism, the countries of Europe were eager to acquire colonies. Colonies added to the power and prestige of imperialist countries.
  7. Contribution of Christian Missionaries: The zeal to spread Christianity in distant lands of Asia and Africa played a crucial role in the spread of imperialism.
  8. Pretence of ‘Divine task’ to Spread Advance Civilisation: Europeans considered it their divine task to spread the ‘modernised’ European culture in backward areas of Asia and Africa. It was considered a ‘white man’s burden’ to teach civilised customs and manners to the coloured people.

Question 5.
Describe the general impact of imperialism with special reference to South Asia.
Answer:
Imperialism led to acquisition of colonies and colonial rivalries. It eventually led to the First World War (1914-1918) and the Second World War (1939-1945). Imperialism led to political and economic subjugation of Asian and African countries. They became sources of raw materials and dumping grounds for finished goods for European industries. On the postitive side, imperialism led to development of modern infrastructure in colonies. Imperialism also led to national unity as people fought against the colonial power to free their country, so evident in India and Vietnam. India, Sri Lanka and Burma became colonies of England. China was divided into several ‘spheres of influence’ by European powers

V.Tell me why
Question 1.
Most of the countries in South Asia became colonies of Europe.
Answer:
Countries in South Asia had huge population, were backward and could not face the colonial powers. They had huge raw materials and vast markets for goods produced in European countries.The glory of nationalism and national pride was yet to take roots in South Asia. People were disunited.

Question 2.
New inventions and discoveries led to the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
New inventions and discoveries led to rapid industrialisation and urbanisation. Mass production of goods whetted the appetite for profit of industrialists. Development of modem infrastructure led to establishment of industries. Invention of flying shuttle, spinning jenny, water frame, mule, power loom, cotton gin, blast furnace and overall steam engine led to the Industrial Revolution

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Modem Age in India began with the conquest of India by the British.
  2. India was ruled by the British for nearly 200 years.
  3. The two kinds of source material for the Modem period are primary sources and secondary sources.
  4. The Renaissance ushered in revolutionary changes in Europe and marked the transition from the Medieval Age to the Modern Age.
  5. The four characteristic features of the Renaissance period are advent of new and powerful ideas of Humanism, rationalism, scientific spirit and spirit of inquiry.

B.Match the Following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 5

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

I. In India the Modern Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid-i 5th/mid-l8th/mid-i6th century.
Ans. In India the Modern Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid-l8th century.

2. The primary sources for the study of the Modern Period are preserved in archives/banks? factories.
Ans. The primary sources for the study of the Modern Period are preserved in archives.

3. The wealthy merchants and the professional class consisting of doctors, lawyers, teachers etc., formed the upper class? middle class/lower class.
Ans. The wealthy merchants and the professional class consisting of doctors, layers. teachers etc.,formed the middle class.

4. The invention of the printing press/telegraph/telephone helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers far and wide.
Ans. The invention of the printing, press helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers far and wide.

5. Martin Luther was an Italian/a German/a French Christian monk.
Ans. Martin Luther was a German Christian monk.

D.State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The source material of the Modern period is of two kinds— primary and secondary
    True
  2. Primary sources of history includes books, reviews, reports and articles
    False. Secondary sources of history includes books, reviews, reports and articles.
  3. Renaissance scholars shifted the focus from divine affairs to human affairs.
    True.
  4. The voyages of discoveries led to a decline of trade and commerce.
     False.
  5. The Reformation was also known as the Protestant Movement.
    True

E.Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
The history of most nations can be divided into a number of periods. Name them.
Answer:
History in most countries is classified into three periods—ancient, medieval and modem. Each period has some characteristics— political, economic, religious and social — that sets it apart from other period.

Question 2.
What distinguishes one historical period from another ?
Answer:
Historical periods differ from country to country depending on the stage of development of that region.

Question 3.
In what way is the classification of historical periods useful to us ?
Answer:
The classification of historical periods helps to bring a sense of order and continuity to the bewildering array of historical processes that have taken place over centuries of evolution.

Question 4.
When did the Modern Period begin in
(a) Europe
(b) India?
Answer:
Europe the Modern Age started in 15th century. In India the Modem Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid- 18th century.

Question 5.
Mention any four characteristic features of the Modern Period?
Answer:
The characteristic features of the Modern Period are: urbanization, technological advancement, democratic institutions, fundamental civil liberties, rationalism and humanism and industrialization.

Question 6.
Mention any two (a) primary and (b) secondary source materials of the Modern Period.
Answer:
(a) Many of these primary sources have been preserved in archives and museums.
They include :

  1. Original documents like British official records
  2. Literary works like accounts of European residents, visitors and Indian officials, novels, plays, short stories and poems by British and Indian authors of this period
  3. Historical works by contemporary historians
  4. Artistic works like paintings, sketches engravings and drawings
  5. Photographs, audio cassettes, films and videotapes of incidents and interviews of important personalities
  6. Newspapers in both English and in Indian languages
  7. Archaeological remains like monuments and artifacts
  8. Oral history

(b) Secondary Sources include books, reviews, reports and articles written by historians and scholars who study and research primary source material, interpret evidence and arrive at conclusions.

Question 7.
Why is it important to study developments in Europe to understand the history of modern India ?
Answer:
Since the Modem Age in India began with the advent of the British rule, the roots of the transition from the Medieval Period must be traced to Europe. To understand the impact of British rule on Indian history, it is imperative to understand the changes that were taking place in Europe.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of Renaissance ?
Answer:
A great movement of change and discovery spread across Europe which radically altered the pattern of peoples lives and thinking.This movement, representing a new spirit in every field of life, is referred to as the Renaissance. It is a French word that means ‘rebirth’ or ‘revival’.

F.Answer the following questions briefly:

1.The capture of Constantinople by the Ottoman Ttirks led to the beginnings of Renaissance in Europe. With reference to this statement answer the following questions:

(a) How did it lead to the revival of classical Greek and Roman learning in Europe ?
Answer:
A large number of Greek scholars fled from Constantinople, (a great centre of classical Greek and Roman learning) to Italy with rare manuscripts. These scholars were patronized and encouraged by the rulers, scholars and the rich Italian merchants of Rome, Florence, Milan and Venice. Libraries were set up and universities were established to promote classical and modem learning.

(b) What effect did it have on the outlook and attitudes of the people of Europe ?
Answer:
The Renaissance, or the revival of classical Graeco-Roman learning, inspired and encouraged people to question and challenge long established ideas and institutions that had been imposed on them by the church and their- kings. They refused to blindly accept the dictates of their rulers and the Church. They demanded to know the truth based on logic and reason and rejected everything that did not satisfy the yardstick of reason. This new spirit of rationalism led to the rise of scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry. This scientific temper and the desire to inquire or seek the truth led to new and varied developments in the fields of art, architecture, sculpture, painting, literature, science and technology.

(c) What effect did it have on trade ?
Answer:
The Renaissance fostered a spirit of exploration and discovery which led to a steady growth of trade and commerce. A new- class of rich merchants emerged in society. These merchants accumulated enormous wealth and helped their rulers to build prosperous, strong and stable states. The king’s dependence on feudal lands gradually declined.

2.With reference to the causes of the Reformation, how did the following contribute to the movement
(a) Renaissance
(b) Evil practices of the Roman catholic Church
(c) Rise of strong and powerful rulers
Answer:
(a)
The Renaissance had radically altered the pattern of thinking and outlook of the people. It had set in motion the advent of new and powerful ideas of humanism, rationalism, scientific spirit and the spirit of Inquiry. These revolutionary ideas unleashed unstoppable forces that completely charged the way people thought and behaved. It was like the awakening of a sleeping giant.People had finally found truthful and rational answers to their questions and discovered the real truth about themselves and their environment. Everything based on blind faith was questioned. The teachings of the Church were rejected and its authority challenged.Even, the invention of the printing press helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers quickly and far and wide,
(b)
With the passage of time the clergy, with some exceptions, began to lead immoral lives of luxury, wealth and comfort. The monasteries owned nearly one-third of the landed property in Europe. Religious duties and services to mankind were largely ignored or forgotten.The Roman Church levied various taxes such as ‘tithe’ and ‘Peter’s Pence’ on all European Christians under their control. High fees were charged for conducting religious services.Bribery and corruption became common. Church offices were sold, bringing many unworthy people into the Church.The Church also started the practice of selling ‘Indulgences’ to those who had committed sins. It was like a certificate of pardon by God for their sins and a ‘passport to heaven’ without having to undergo any penance.
(c)
With the decline of feudalism in Europe strong rulers emerged. They defied the authority of the Pope and refused to let him interfere in their administrative affairs. They resented the papal taxes and the drain of their wealth to Rome in the form of papal taxes.

G Picture study:

This is a portrait of the German monk who opposed certain activities of the Catholic Church.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 7

  1. Identify the person in the picture.
    Ans. Martin Luther.
  2. With which great religious movement is his name associated?
    Ans. Reformation movement.
  3. Where was he born and in which country did he lead his movement ?
    Ans. Martin Luther was a German Christian monk and preacher at the University town of Wittenburg.
  4. Mention any four effects of the movement started by him.
    Ans.

    • The church was split up permanently.
      Civil wars broke out in many countries between the Catholics and the Protestants.
    • Religious intolerance, hatred and persecution of Protestants in Catholic countries and
    • Catholics in Protestant countries became the order of the day, and led to many wars in Europe.
    • Religious persecution of the Protestants in England was a major reason for their migration to and colonization of North America (New England). By the end of the 18th century the colonists would establish the United States of America.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Union Executive

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Union Executive

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Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. A person to be appointed a minister must be a member of either House of Parliament.
  2. The Prime Minister decides the business to be carried on by the Cabinet.
  3. The Vice President is elected for a period of five years.
  4. The Prime Minister distributes portfolios among the ministers.
  5. The public servants constitute the permanent executives.

II. Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B : Column A
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 3

III. Tick mark (✓) the correct statements and cross mark (X) the wrong ones :

  1. The Prime Minister is the vital link between the President and the Cabinet.
  2. The Prime Minister acts on the advice of the President.
     X
  3. A money bill cannot be introduced without the President’s authority.
  4. The President can appoint anyone as the Prime Minister.
     X
  5. Most of the Civil Servants at the Centre are selected by the Union Public Service Commission.

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Executive of the Indian Union? Who votes for him?
Answer:
The Chief Executive of the Indian Union is the President. The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies elect the President.

Question 2.
State two executive and two judicial powers of the President.Under what circumstances can the President proclaim a state of emergency?
Answer:
Two Executive powers of the President are:

  1. He appoints the Prime Minister and Union Minister.
  2. He appoints state Governors, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court, the Comptroller and Auditor-General, the Attorney General and members of the Union Public service Commission.

Two Judicial powers of the President are:

  1. He can pardon, remit or suspend a sentence of punishment given by a court martial or death sentence passed by the court.
  2. He is not answerable to any law court for the exercise of his powers, except in case of impeachment in Parliament.

The President can declare emergency if:

  1. Security of India is threatened.
  2. There is a break down of the constitutional machinery in a state.
  3. The financial stability of the country is threatened.

Question 3.
What are the two main functions of the Cabinet?
Answer:
The two main functions of the Cabinet are:

  1. All important decisions are taken by the cabinet ministers.
  2. Cabinet formulates the policies and programmes of the government.

Question 4.
Name the three categories of the union ministers.
Answer:
The three categories of Ministers are:

  1. Cabinet Ministers
  2.  Minister of State
  3. Deputy Ministers

Question 5.
What is the position of the Prime Minister? Mention his powers.
Answer:
Leader of the political party or parties securing absolute majority in the Lok Sabha.

  1. Leader of the Lok Sabha.
  2. Manages the affairs of the country both internal as well as extrenal.
  3. He is the chief spokesperson of the Government.
  4. Selects other ministers.
  5. Distributes portfolios.
  6. Can demand the resignation of any minister.
  7. Advises the President on various appointments to important posts.
  8. Presides over cabinet meetings.

Question 6.
Do you think the President of India should be directly elected by the people? Why/why not?
Answer:
We have a system of government in which the Prime Minister is the most important person in the government of the country, the President is only a nominal Head. If the President was to be elected then he too would be equally important was powerful. Then there would be a clash of powers. So, in my opinion it is preferable that the President should not be directly elected by the people.

V. Explain the following statements:

Question 1.
“The President is a nominal head.”
Answer:
It means that in our system of government, it is the Prime Minister who runs the government under a parliamentary from of government. The President is a constitutional head of the Indian Union. He is only a nominal head. The government is run by the Prime Minister and his council of Ministers. The real executive power vests in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Question 2.
“All the ministers, including the Prime Minister, swim and sink together.”
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are directly responsible to the Lok Sabha. If a vote of no confidence is passed against one minister, the whole Council of ministers including the Prime Minister has to resign.

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The President can be removed from office by a procedure known as Impeachment.
  2. The President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
  3. The President can call a joint session of the Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. The Cabinet is the inner core of the Council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold important portfolios.
  5. The Prime Minister is the link between the President, the people and the Parliament.

B. Name the following:

  1. The current Prime Minister of India
    Ans. Narendra Modi
  2. The current Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha –
    Ans. Mohammad Hamid Ansari
  3. The current Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces
    Ans. Pranab Mukherjee
  4. The current ministers in charge of (a) Defence (b) External Affairs (c) Finance (d) Health
    Ans.
    (a) Defence Minister – Manohar Parrikar
    (b) External Affairs – Sushma Swaraj
    (c) Finance Minister – Arun Jaitley
    (d) Health Minister – Jagat Prakash Nadda

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. The President/Prime Minister/Vice President is the nominal head of the government of India.
    Ans. The President is the nominal head of the government of India.
  2. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Administrative Service/Defense Forces/Indian Foreign Service.
    Ans. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defense Forces.
  3. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha/Vidhan Sabha.
    Ans. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
  4. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Vice President/Speaker/Prime Minister.
    Ans. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Prime Minister.
  5. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister/President/Vice-President. ”
    Ans. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The President is elected for a term of 4 years.
    False.
    Correct : The President is elected for a term of 5 years.
  1. The President can pardon a death sentence.
    True.
  1. The President can declare war or conclude peace.
    True.
  1. The Prime Minister choose the Cabinet Ministers.
    True.
  1. Civil servants belong to the majority party in Parliament.
    False.
    Correct : Civil servants belong to the minority party in Parliament.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Who is the real executive head in a parliamentary form of government?
Answer:
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government.

Question 2.
Name the body that elects the President of India.
Answer:
An Electoral College elects the President.

Question 3.
Name any two officials appointed by the President?
Answer:
The President appoints the State Governors, the Comptroller Auditor General, the Attorney General and Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories.

Question 4.
What is an ordinance?
Answer:
Ordinances are executive orders which are issued when the Parliament is not in session.

Question 5.
What can the President do when the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion?
Answer:
If the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion, National Emergency is declared.

Question 6.
Whose advice is the President bound to follow in carrying out his/her functions?
Answer:
Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers advice the President in the exercise of his/her functions. He/she is bound to follow this advice.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.

Question 8.
When two or more political parties form the government, what is it called?
Answer:
When two or more parties usually agree to work together and form the government. This is known as a Coalition Government.

Question 9.
What is meant by allotment of portfolios?
Answer:
The Prime Minister allots each minister in the Council a separate department or portfolio to handle. This is called allotment of portfolios. Hence, we have a Minister of Communication, Agriculture, Foreign Affairs, etc.

Question 10.
What happens when a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister?
Answer:
If a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
In the context of the President of India, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the qualifications required for the post of the President.
(b) How is the President elected ?
(c) How can the services of the President be terminated ?
Answer:
(a) Qualifications for the post of the President are:

  1. They must be citizens of India.
  2. They must be at least 35 years of age.
  3. They must have all the qualifications necessary to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. They should not hold an office of profit under the Central,the state or the local governament

(b) The President is elected indirectly. An electoral college elects the President. The electoral college consists of the following members:

  1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
  2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

(c) The President can be impeached by the Parliament. Impeachment is a procedure by which the Parliament can remove the President if he/she is found guilty of violating the Constitution, of treason or of corruption.

Question 2.
With reference to the powers of the President, discuss:
(a) Any four executive powers
(b) Military powers
(c) Any four legislative powers
Answer:
(a) Executive powers: The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the Majority party or coalition parties or single largest party in the Lok Sabha. The President appoints the Union Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(b) Military powers: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces. He or she can declare war or conclude peace. All important treaties and contracts are made in the President’s name.

(c) Legislative powers:

  1. The President can summon or prorogue the Parliament. He/she addresses the opening session of the Parliament every year. The President’s address is a statement of the government’s policy.
  2. The President can also dissolve the Lok Sabha and order fresh elections.
  3. He/she can call a joint session of both Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. Each bill passed by the Parliament has to receive the President’s assent in order to become a law. The President may send the bill back to the Parliament if he/she does not approve, but if it is passed a second time, he/she is obliged to sign it and give his/her assent.
  5. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
  6. When the Parliament is not in session, the President can issue ordinances. Ordinances are like laws and are valid for only 6 weeks after the Parliament meets again.

Question 3.
The President is an integral part of the Parliament. In this context explain the following:
(a) The financial powers of the President
(b) The judicial powers of the President
(C) The emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
(a) The financial powers of the President:

  1. The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.

(b) The judicial powers of the President:

  1. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  2. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

(c) The emergency powers of the President:

  1.  The President can declare Emergency if the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion.
  2. If the administrative machinery of a state breaks down, Presidential Rule is imposed in that state.
  3. If the financial stability of the country is threatened, a Financial Emergency can be declared by him.

Question 4.
With reference to the functions of the Parliament, explain the following:
(a) Law-making functions
(b) Control over the executive
(c) Judicial functions
Answer
(a) Law making functions of the Parliament:

  1. The Parliament can frame new laws or modify existing ones on any subject in the Union or Concurrent List.
  2. In some cases the Parliament can also pass laws on subjects under the State List.
  3. Only the Parliament can initiate a Bill to amend the Constitution.

(b) Control over the Council of Ministers:

  1. The Parliament keeps a watch over the government. The Council of Ministers is directly responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for its policies and actions.
  2. The Council of Ministers has to resign immediately if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it by the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Members of Parliament can discuss government policies and question the ministers. Hence, they can exercise a check on the working of the government.
  4. The Parliament can move an adjournment motion to discuss and focus on any matter of public importance which requires immediate and urgent attention from the government, for instance, natural disasters such as earthquakes and unforeseen situations such as police firing or terrorist attacks, etc.

(c) Judicial functions of the Parliament: The Parliament can impeach or remove the President, the Vice-President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts if any of them violate the Constitution or misuse their authority.

Question 5.
Discuss the powers and position of the Prime Minister with reference to his relationship with the following:
(a) Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
(a)
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government. It is the Prime Minister who actually exercises all the powers vested in the President. This is because of the following reasons:
The Prime Minister is the elected head of the country.The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party or the largest coalition in the Parliament.
(b)
The Prime Minister advises the President in the discharge of his/her functions and informs him/her about the decisions taken by the Cabinet. The advice of the Prime Minister is binding on the President.
The Council of Ministers:

  1. The Prime Minister selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
  2. He/she distributes portfolios among the ministers and presides over Cabinet meetings.
  3. He/she coordinates the working of the different departments and is the vital link between the President and the Cabinet.
  4. He/she can expand the Cabinet and also demand the resignation of any minister.

Question 6.
In the context of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, explain the following:
(a) Appointment of the Prime Minister
(b) Formation of the Council of Ministers
(c) The Cabinet
Answer:
(a)
According to the constitution, The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. In actual practice, however, the choice of the President in the appointment of Prime Minister is limited. He appoints only that person as Prime Minister who is the leader of the party or coalition of parties having an absolute majority in House of the people.
In case no party has an absolute majority in house of the people, the president can appoint any person as Prime Minister who, is his opinion, is able to form a stable government.The person to be apointed as Prime Minister must be member of either house of parliament.
(b)
The Prime Minister selects a number of ministers according to his/her preference and submits a list to the President. When the President approves and appoints the Ministers on the list, the Council of Ministers is formed.The Council of Ministers has three ranks within if

  1. Cabinet Ministers,
  2. Ministers of State and
  3. Deputy Ministers.

(c)
All ministers of the Council have to be members of either House of Parliament. In case a non-member is selected, he/ she has to be elected to either House within 6 months from the date of appointment.The Cabinet is the inner core of the council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold the most important portfolios and make the most important decision and policies. The Cabinet Ministers hold the highest ranks and have the greatest responsibility. They holds the real executive power of the Indian government and is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Cabinet can remain in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of a majority in the Lok Sabha. If a vote of no­confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately. The entire Council has to answer for the shortcomings or failure on the part of any one minister.

G Picture study:

Until 1950, the building in the picture was known as ‘Viceroy’s House’, and served as the residence of the Governor General of India.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 4

  1. Identify the building. Whose official residence is it now?
    Ans. Rashtrapati Bhavan, President of India.
  2. How is he or she elected?
    Ans. The President is elected indirectly by the elected members of the Legislature as he or she is a nominal (de jure) and not the de facto head. An Electoral college elects the President. The Electoral College elects the President. The Electoral College consists of the following members:

    1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
    2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
  3. What is his/her term of office?
    Ans. The President is elected for a period of 5 years. He or she can be re-elected after his or her term.
  4. Mention two powers each held by this person of with reference to the following:
    (a) Financial power (b) Judicial Power
    Answer:
    (a) Financial power:
  1. The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.
    (b) Judicial Power:
  3. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  4. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Impact of British Rule on India

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Impact of British Rule on India

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Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks
:

  1. The British domination of India brought many changes in the cultural, educational and social life of India.
  2. The Indian villages were self sufficient village communities before the coming of the British.
  3. The British charged revenue in cash instead of kind.
  4. The three kinds of land settlements made by the British were Permanent settlement (b) Ryotwari settlement and (c) Mahalwari settlement
  5. A new class of landholders called Zamindars came into existence during this time.
  6. Lord Macaulay, is known as the founder of British system of education in India.

II. Match the contents of Column A and Column B:
Column A                                                                    Column B

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 3

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 4

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. The British rule resulted in the destruction of Indian industry, trade and handicrafts.
    True.
  2. The important centres for Indian goods were Dhaka, Benaras, Lucknow, Multan, Ahmadabad, etc.
    True.
  3. The British greatly developed Indian agriculture.
    False.
  4. Lord Cornwallis intoduced the Permanent Land Settlement in India.
    True.
  5. The first railway line was built during Lord Dalhousie’s time.
    True.
  6. The British took interest in building up transport and communication system to help them in trade and military affairs.
    True.
  7. The English took great interest in Indian culture and promoted it
    False.
  8. The English took interest in education of Indians only because they needed low paid, English speaking clerks.
    True.
  9. The new education policy benefitted only the upper and th middle class.
    True.
  10. The Company promoted education of girls and technical education.
    False.

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Mention the social evils prevalent in India during British rule.
Answer:
Inhuman practice of Sati was prevalent in many parts of the country. Female infanticide prevailed in some parts of the country. The practice of sacrificing little children to please gods and goddesses was another major evil. Widows were not allowed to remarry. Child marriage and polygamy were other social evils prevalent in society.

Question 2.
Why did India’s foreign trade decline during the British rule?
Answer:
India traded in wool, silk, textiles, metal craft like vessels and ornaments, objects in gold, silver, copper, steel and iron. British trade policies led to the drain of wealth from India. Indian trade, industries and handicrafts declined. Indian artisans lost support of kings and nobles. The British wanted India to become a supplier of raw materials and an importer of finished goods.

Question 3.
During the British rule, “India was a loser both ways – as a buyer and also a seller.” Explain.
Answer:
The British exploited India’s resources, bought raw materials from India at nominal rates to be exported to England, and dumped their machine made goods in the Indian markets. Thus, India was a loser both ways as a buyer and also as a seller.

Question 4.
Why did the English East India Company feel the need for educational; reforms?
Answer:
The first objective of education in India was to form a class of interpreters between the British rulers and the millions of Indians they governed. The second objective was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour but British in taste, opinion, morals and intellect. The third objective was to obtain a cheap supply of clerks for holding subordinate posts in administration and British business concerns.                     ‘

Question 5.
Who was Lord Macaulay? Why did he recommend the system of British education in India?
Answer:
Lord Macaualy is considered the founder of the British system of education in India. He was the law member of the council of Lord William Bentinck, the Governor General of India.Macaulay recommended

  1. English shoud be the medium of instruction in schools
  2. Indians should be taught sciences and western literature. He had a very poor opinion of traditional Indian learning which he thought was inferior to European learning.

According to him, “single shelf of a good European library was worth native literature of India and Arabia.”

Question 6.
What were the main objectives of British education in India? Mention the steps recommended to implement the policy.
Answer:
There were three main objectives of education in India according to Lord Macaulay. The first objective was to form a class of interpreters between the British rulers and the millions of Indians they governed.
The second objective was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour but British in taste, opinion, morals and intellect.
The third objective was to obtain a cheap supply of clerks for holding subordinate posts in administration and British business concerns.
In 1835, Bentinck agreed to Macaulay’s view and made English the medium of instruction. In 1844 the government declared their intention to employ only English educated Indians. In 1854, Wood’s Despatch was accepted and implemented. New Universities were set up in Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Question 7.
Describe the recommendations in Wood’s Despatch and their effects.
Answer:
(a)
It declared that the aim to Government’s educational policy was the teaching of Western education “The education which we desire to see extended in India”, wrote Wood in the Despatch, “is that which has for its object the diffusion of the improved arts, science, philosophy and literature of Europe, in short of European knowledge.”

  1. As to the medium of instruction, it declared that for higher education. English language was the most perfect medium of education. It also emphasised the importance of vernacular languages.
  2. It proposed setting up of vernacular primary schools in villages Anglo-Vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at district level.
  3. It recommended a grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.
  4. A department of public instruction under the charge of a Director in each of the five provinces to review progress of education.
  5. Universities on the model of London University were set up in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
  6. The Despatch emphasised the importance of vocational Instruction and need for establishing technical schools and colleges.
  7. Teachers Training institutions on the model then prevalent in England were recommended.
  8. The Despatch gave frank and cordial support for fostering the education of women.

Question 8.
Discuss various aspects of the drain of wealth.
Answer:
The British exported to Britain part of India’s wealth and resources for which India got no adequate economic or material return. This ‘Economic Drain’was peculiar to British rule. Previously the rulers had spent the revenue they extracted from the people inside the country. But the British spent part of the taxes and income they derived from the Indian people not in India but in Britain, their home country.
The drain of wealth from Bengal began in 1757 when company’s servants began to carry home immense fortunes extorted from Indian rulers, zamindars, merchants and the common people. They sent home nearly £ 6 million between 1758 and 1765. This was more than four times than total land revenue collection of the Nawab of Bengal in 1765.
In 1765 the company acquired the Diwani of Bengal and thus gained control over its revenues. The company began to purchase Indian goods out of the revenue of Bengal and to export them.
From 1765 to 1770 the company sent out nearly £4 million worth of goods or about 33 percent of the net revenue of the net revenue of Bengal. The drain took the form of an excess of India’s exports over its imports for which India got no return. The drain went on increasing after 1858.

V. Picture Study –
(A) Look at the picture.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 5

1.Which important development does the picture depict?
Ans. In 1853 the first Railway line was opened between Bombay and Thane.

Write a short note on its development in India.
Ans. Railway lines were developed to transport raw’ material to factories and finished goods from factories to markets. The Indians benefitted from railways. Travel and transportation became quicker, easier and cheaper.

How did it prove to be a boon for the Indians?
Ans. The railways brought Indians of all castes and religions together. They later united against the English and joined hands to fight against them.

(B) This is the picture of a Governor-General.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 6

1.Identify him.
Ans. Lord William Bentinck.

2.What do you understand by ‘Sati’? Who put an end to this practice and why?
Ans. Sati was an inhuman practice of widow immolation at the funeral pyre of her husband. It was prevalent in many parts of India specially in Bengal. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.

3.Mention four social reforms introduced by the British.
Ans.

  1. Abolition of Sati.
  2. Abolition of female infanticide.
  3. Abolition of sacrificing little children to please gods and goddesses.

A strong movement in support of widow remarriage. Lord Dalhousie passed a law which allowed widows to remarry

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Bengal famine of 1770 was one of the most terrible famines in human history.
  2. A large share of revenue collected by the Company in India had to be paid to the British government as home charges.
  3. Under the Mahalwari system the revenue settlement was made with the village as a whole.
  4. To eliminate competition from India’s traditional industries the British transfonned India into a supplier of raw material and a market for british products.
  5. Before the advent of the British the Indian craftspeople operated at two levels—the rural and the urban levels.
  6. Before the advent of the British the Indian textile industry was the finest and the largest in the world.
  7. After the Battle of Plassey the Company used its political power to destroy the Indian handicraft industry and promote British industries.
  8. With the spread of the Industrial Revolution in England, Indian markets were flooded with cheap, machine made textiles of British mills.
  9. By 1850, India became a major importer of english textiles.
  10. Lord Dalhousie introduced the railway system in India in 1853.
  11. The Grand Trunk Road from Calcutta to Peshawar was reconstructed by the British in the 19th century.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 7
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 10

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The Treaty of Allahabad/Madras/Benaras granted the English East India Company the right to collect revenue from Bihar, Bengal and Orissa.
Ans. The Treaty of Allahabad granted the English East India Company the right to collect revenue from Eihar, Bengal and Orissa.

2. To remove the defect of the revenue system Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent settlement/Ryotwari system/ Mahalwari system in 1793.
Ans. To remove the defect of the revenue system Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent settlement in 1793.

3. The Ryotwari system of revenue collection was introduced in Madras/Calcutta/Bombay presidency.
Ans. The Ryotwari system of revenue collection was introduced in Madras presidency.

4. The Charter Act of 1813, directed the Company to spend 1/ 10/15 lakh rupees on the education of Indians.
Ans. The Charter Act of 1813, directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians.

5.The first railway line was from Bombay to Poona/Thana/ Calcutta.
Ans. The first railway line was from Bombay to Thana.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Before the advent of the British more than 95 per cent of Indians lived in villages.
    True.
  2. The Indian peasants were satisfied with the Company’s revenue collection methods.
     False.
  3. The Permanent Settlement assured the Company a fixed revenue at a fixed time even during natural calamities.
    True.
  4. Lord Macaulay insisted that Western education should be imparted through the medium of the vernacular languages.
    False.
    Correct : Lord Macaulay insisted that Western education should be imparted through the medium of the English.
  5. The development of transport and communication systems did not benefit Indians in any way.
    False.
    Correct : The development of transport and communication systems benefit Indians in unexpected ways.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Why did the Indian peasants begin to grow cash crops ?
Answer:
Since revenue payments had to be paid in cash, the peasants began to grow cash crops like jute, cotton, sugarcane etc., which could be sold for ready cash in the markets.

Question 2.
How did the Company utilize the revenues from Bengal ?
Answer:
The revenue from Bengal was used to cover as salaries of officials and to finance the trading activities of the company. Raw materials for England’s growing industries were bought with the revenues collected from Bengal.

Question 3.
What were the drawbacks of Warren Hastings’s five-year revenue settlement ?
Answer:
The new zamindars, unsure of retaining the contract at the next auction, had no permanent interest in the land and did nothing to improve it. The peasants were fleeced to meet the revenue targets.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Charter Act of 1813 in the context of British educational policy in India?
Answer:
The Charter Act of 1813 directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians. This was the first step taken by the British rulers towards the encouragement of the study of literature and science in India. The Charter Act, however, did not lay down any specific guidelines.

Question 5.
In what way would westernized Indians help to promote the interests of British manufacturers?
Answer:

  1. The British system of education produced English-speaking Indian graduates who helped their British masters to run the empire.
  2. It also created a class of Indians who were Westernized to the extent that they rejected Indian culture and patronized anything and everything that was British including British goods.

Question 6.
How did knowledge of contemporary nationalist movements in Europe inspire the Indians?
Answer:
Knowledge of contemporary nationalist movements in Europe fired the Indians with an intense desire to build a new India progressive, strong, prosperous and united.

Question 7.
Mention any two positive effects of the introduction of English in the Indian educational system.
Answer:
Western education, however, impacted Indian society in a way the British could never have imagined.

  1. It aroused in them an awareness of the evil effects of foreign rule.
  2. The teachings of modem European philosophers instilled in them an admiration for democratic institutions.

Question 8.
Which section of Indians gained from the British commercial policies ?
Answer:
Indian Steel, Urban Centres specialized in gold and silver ornaments, cooper, brassware, and crafts people.

Question 9.
How would the improved transport and communication system benefit the Indian later ?
Answer:
The transport and communication system, however, would ultimately benefit Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it would bring the people of India closer to one another and infuse in them a sense of unity and nationalism—a development that would have far-reaching effects on India’s future.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
In the context of Permanent Settlement of Bengal answer the following:
(a) Explain the special features of the Permanent Settlement.
(b) What are its advantages ?
(c) Briefly describe its disavantages
Answer:
(a) The system had two special features:
Permanent ownership of land

  1. The zamindars, collectors of land revenue, were made permanent legal owners of the land from which they collected the land tax. The tax collector became the landlord.
  2. The zamindar’s ownership rights became hereditary and he was given the freedom to sell or mortgage his land.
  3. The cultivators of the land became the tenants of the zamindar and lost their ancestral rights. They had to pay a rent to the zamindar who could increase the rent as and when they wanted to.

Fixed Revenue

  1. The land revenue was fixed on a permanent basis. The Company could not make any further demands on the zamindars.
  2. The zamindar had to pay the land revenue once a year on a spe ­cific date. If he failed to pay on time, his lands were confiscated and sold.

(b) Advantages

  1. The Company was assured of a fixed revenue at a fixed time even during natural calamities.
  2. The collection of revenue was simpler and cheaper. The zamindars replaced hundreds of paid tax officials.
  3. The British won the support and loyalty of the powerful and priviledged class of zamindars that they had created.
  4. As permanent owners of the lands, the zamindars took several steps to increase agricultural production whose benefits they would enjoy.

(c) Disadvantages

  1. The cultivators were left at the mercy of the zamindar, who ex­ploited and oppressed them, increased their rents and evicted them from the land when they unable to pay the high rents. This led to widespread poverty and misery of the cultivators.
  2. Since the revenue was fixed, the government would not get a share of increasing returns form the land.
  3. This system gave rise to a class of absentee landlords. These zamindars preferred to live in cities and towns and sublet their land to tenants at high rates. These tenants in turn sublet it to other tenants. As this process continued, the rent rates increased with each successive layer. The entire burden of paying the enhanced rates had to be borne by the actual cultivator—the last tenant.

Question 2.
With reference to Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems answer the following:
(a) Explain the features of the Ryotwari system.
(b) What were the features of the Ryotwari system.
(c) What were the fundamental changes introduced by these systems in the traditional land system of the country ?
Answer:
(a)
The features of Ryotwari system were:

  1. The cultivator (ryot) was recognized as the owner of his land as long as he paid the land revenue.
  2. The revenue was paid directly by the cultivator to the rev­enue officials.
  3. The revenue was fixed for 30 years after which it could be revised.
  4. Collection of revenue was rigid. There was no remission of revenue even when the crops failed.

(b)
‘Mahal’ means a group of villages. Under this system land was collectively owned by the villagers. The revenue settle­ment was made with the village as a whole. The talukdar or head of the mahal collected the revenue and handed it over to the British collectors.

(c)
The Zamindari and Ryotwari systems introduced fundamen­tal changes in the traditional land systems of the country. Land became a commodity — a new form of property — which could be bought, sold and mortgaged as and when the need arose. The stability and continuity of the Indian villages were shaken and the traditional structure of rural society began to disintegrate.

Question 3.
The first century of British rule resulted in the decay and destruction of traditional India trade and industry. Explain this statement with reference to the following:
(a) Political powers of the Company
(b) Collapse of ruling dynasties and ruling courts
(c) Decline of modern India industries.
Answer:
(a) After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the company used its political power to destroy the Indian handicraft industry and promote British industries. The Indian weavers were forced to sell their products to the Company at very low prices. To add to their miseries, they were compelled to buy interior raw cotton at high prices from the Company officials who bought it from the Indian farmers at low rates.

(b) 
With the establishment and expansion of the British empire in India, the royal courts and the nobility of the ruling dynas­ties, (including the Mughals) collapsed one by one. The craftspersons and artisans were deprived of royal patronage and Indian handicrafts suffered a severe setback.

(c) 
The British government also obstructed the growth of mod­ern Indian industries to keep the country underdeveloped and economically backward. Almost everything of daily use like needles, pins, sewing machines, thread, soaps, biscuits, cycles, medicines, paper, etc. were imported from England.

Question 4.
The Charter Act of 1813 passed by the British Parliament was the first major step to introduce changes in the Indian system of education. In this context discuss:
(a) The general directives issued to the Company in the Charter Act of 1813 and its inherent weakness
(b) The Great Debate over the content and medium of education
(c) The introduction and spread of Western education
Answer:
(a) The Charter Act of 1813 directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians. This was the first step taken by the British rulers towards the encouragement of the study of literature and science in India. The Charter Act, however.- did not lay down any specific guidelines. The money sanctioned for the education project lay untouched for 2 decades while a great controversy raged over the content and medium of education.

(b) 
One group favoured the promotion of traditional Indian learning through the medium of classical (Sanskrit and Persian) and regional language. This group was known as the Orientalists. The other group led by Lord Macaulay (Law Member of the Governor General’s Council) insisted that Western education should be introduced and imparted.

(c) 
The government began to set up English medium schools and colleges for the education of a limited number of Indians. In 1844, English became the official language and the government announced that Indians educated in British schools would be given jobs in government services. This helped the spread of English education in India.

Question 5.
The Wood’s Despatch introduced further changes in the Indian educational system. With reference to the above statement, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the purpose behind the introduction of Western education in India?
(b) How did the introduction of Western education benefit the British?
(c) Explain how

  1. Western education and
  2. The English language led to the rise of a spirit of nationalism among the Indians.

Answer:
(a)  The purpose behind the introduction of Western education in India.

  1. The primary motive of the British government was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but British in taste, opinions, morals and intellect. The class of Indians could be employed, on low salaries, as clerks in the Civil Service.
  2. This would greatly reduce the heavy expenditure involved in running the administration. Employing theBritish in these posts was very expensive and difficult.
  3. Westernized Indians, it was hoped, would create a demand for British goods and promote the interests of British manufacturers.
  4. Western education would inculcate in the Indians a sense of admiration and respect for British rule. This would strengthen the foundations of the British empire in India.

(b) The introduction and spread of Western education in India benefited the British like:

  1. The British system of education produced English­speaking Indian graduates who helped their British masters to run the empire.
  2. It also created a class of Indians who were Westernized to the extent that they rejected Indian culture and patronized anything and everything that was British including British goods.

(c) Western education, however, impacted Indian society in a way the British could never have imagined.

  1. It aroused in them an awareness of the evil effects of foreign rule.
  2. The teachings of modern European philosophers instilled in them an admiration for democratic institutions.

Question 6.
With reference to the transport and communication system in India, answer the following questions:
(a) Why and how did the British develop proper transport and communication facilities in India?
(b) How did the railways serve the interests of the British?
(c) Explain how the improved transport and communication system proved beneficial for Indians.
Answer:
(a)

  1. The transport and communication system in India in the 18th century was very backward. The British realized the importance of developing proper
    communication facilities to consolidate their position in India and promote their industrial and commercial growth.
  2. Steps were taken to link all the major cities, ports, agricultural centres and markets through an elaborate network of roads, canals and railways. Metalled roads, steamships and trains were introduced.

(b)
The railways ensured quick transfer of troops and ammunition during revolts and other disturbances and the easy tranportation of raw materials and manufactured goods.
(c)
The transport and communication system, however, whould ultimately benefit Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it would bring the people of India closer to one another and infuse in them a sense of unity and nationalism. A development that would have far-reaching effects on India’s independence.The improved communication system established by the British benefited the Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it brought the people of India closer to one another and infused in them a sense of unity and nationalism which had far-reaching effects on Indian’s future.

G Picture Study:

This is the picture of an Indian nationalist.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 9

1. Identify the person.
Answer.
DadabhaiNaoroji.

2.What did he think about the British rule in India ?
Answer.
Dadabhai Naoroji one of the early nationalist of India, described British rule as an ‘everlasting….foreign invasion that was utterly though gradually destroying the country’.

3.Explain any three ways in which he felt that the Indian economy was being exploited by the British.
Answer.

  1. A greater part of the salaries of British officials and employees of the Company (paid out of Indian revenues) was deposited in England as savings.
  2. Material resources like cotton, jute, indigo, tea, coffee, etc. were transported to England.
  3. Goods purchased in India with revenues drawn from the country were sent to England.
  4. Huge sums of money which the officials received as bribes and gifts were sent out of the country.