Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 3 Elements, Compounds and Mixtures. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 3 Elements, Compounds and Mixtures

Exercise 3(A)

Question 1.
Define: (a) Elements (b) Compounds
Answer:
(a) Elements: Element is a substance which cannot be broken further into simpler substances and has a definite set of properties. Elements are made up of only one kind of atoms.
(b) Compounds: Compounds are pure substances composed of two or more elements in definite proportion by mass and has properties, entirely different from those of its constituents elements.
Compound, are made up of different types of atoms combined chemically.

Question 2.
Give two examples for each of the following:
(a) Metals (b) Non-metals
(c) Metalloids (d) Inert gases
Answer:
(a) Metals: Iron, silver, gold.
(b) Non-metals: Carbon, sulphur, oxygen.
(c) Metalloids: Antimony, silicon, boron.
(d) Inert gases: Helium, argon, neon.

Question 3.
Differentiate between:
(a) Pure and impure substances
(b) Homogenous and heterogenous substances
Answer:
(a) Pure substances —

  1. Pure substances have definite composition and definite physical and chemical properties.
  2. They are all homogeneous i.e. their composition is uniform throughout the bulk.
  3. Examples: Elements and compounds.

Impure substances —

  1. Impure substances are made up of two or more pure substances mixed together in any proportion.
  2. They may be homogeneous or hetergeneous i.e. their composition is not uniform throughout the bulk.
  3. They are all mixtures.
    Examples: air, sea water, petroleum, a solution of sugar in water are all impure substances.

(b) Homogeneous mixture — is a mixture where the components that make up the mixture are uniformly distributed throughout the mixture.
Example — air, sugar water, rain water.
Heterogeneous mixture — is a mixture, where the components of the mixture are not uniform or have localized regios with different properties.
Example—Cereal in milk, vegetable soup.

Question 4.
Write the chemical name of the following and also give their molecular formulae:
(a) Baking soda (b) Vinegar
(c) Marble (d) Sand
Answer:
(a) Sodium bicarbonate (Baking soda) — NaHCO3
(b) Acetic acid (Vinegar) — CH3COOH
(c) Calcium carbonate (Marble) — CaCO3
(d) Silicon dioxide (Sand) — SiO2

Question 5.
Name:
(a) a soft metal
(b) a metal which is brittle
(c) a non-metal which is lustrous
(d) a liquid metal
(e) a metal which is a poor conductor of electricity.
(f) a non-metal which is a good conductor of electricity.
(g) a liquid non-metal
(h) the hardest naturally occurring substance
(i) an inert gas
Answer:
(a) Gold
(b) Zinc
(c) Iodine
(d) Mercury
(e) Tungsten
(f) Graphite
(g) Bromine
(h) Diamond
(i) Neon, helium

Question 6.
How is sodium chloride different from its constituent elements ?
Answer:
The properties of sodium chloride are completely different from those of sodium and chlorine. Sodium is a soft, highly reactive metal. Chlorine is a poisonous non-metallic gas while sodium chloride is a very useful non poisonous compound which is added to our food to get minerals and also to add taste to it.

Question 7.
Why is iron sulphide a compound ?
Answer:
Iron sulphide is a compound which can be broken into the elements iron and sulphur they both have different properties. The properties of compound are entirely different from there of its constituents elements.

Exercise 3(B)

Question 1.
Classify the following substances into compounds and mixtures:
Answer:
Carbon dioxide, air, water, milk, common, salt, blood, fruit juice, iron sulphide.
Carbon dioxide — (Compound)
air — (Mixture)
water — (Compound)
milk — (Mixture)
common salt — (Compound)
blood — (Mixture)
fruit juice — (Mixture)
iron sulphide — (Compound)

Question 2.
Give one example for each of the following types of mixtures
(a) solid-solid homogenous mixture
(b) solid-liquid heterogenous mixture
(c) misicible liquids
(d) liquid-gas homogenous mixture
Answer:
(a) Solid-solid homogenous mixture — Alloys of metals e.g. brass, bronze stainless steel etc.
(b) Solid-liquid heterogenous mixture — Sand and water, mud and water, sugar and oil.
(c) Misicible liquids — water and ethanol.
(d) Liquid-gas homogenous mixture — Air

Question 3.
Suggest a suitable technique to separate the constituents of the following mixtures. Also give the reason for selecting the particular method.
(a) Salt from sea water
(b) Ammonium chloride from sand
(c) Chalk powder from water
(d) Iron from sulphur
(e) Water and alcohol
(f) Sodium chloride and potassium nitrate
(g) Calcium carbonate and sodium chloride
Answer:

(a) The technique used to separate the salt from seawater is Evaporation.
Reason – Because this method is used to separate the components of the homogeneous solid-liquid mixture. In this method, sea water is collected in a shallow bed and allowed to evaporate in the sun. When all the water is evaporated, salt is left behind. By this method, we only get solid and liquid is evaporated in its vapour form.

(b) Technique used to separate Ammonium chloride from sand is sublimation.
Because this method is used for solid mixtures in which one of the components can sublime on heating. In this method, Ammonium chloride changes into vapours on heating and salt is left behind.

(c) Technique used to separate chalk powder from water is filtration.
Reason – Because this process is used to separate the components of a heterogeneous solid-liquid mixture in which solids are lights and insoluble in liquids. Substances used as filters are sand filter paper at C. These filters allows the liquid to pass through them, but not solids.

(d) Technique to separate iron from sulpher is magnetic separation.
Because, this method is used when one of the component of mixture is Iron. Iron gets attracted towards the magnet and hence get separated.

(e) Technique used to separate water and Alcohol is Fractional Distillation.
Because in this method, the vapours of water is left behind in the original vessel as the alcohol boils at lower temperature than water. Thus these two liquids can be separated.

(f) Technique used is Fractional-crystallisation.
Because: This method is used when solubility of solid components of mixture and different in the same solvent. Here, sodium chloride and potassium nitrate. Both are soluble in water but solubility of potassium nitrate is more.

(g) Technique used is Solvent Extraction Method: Because, by this method, salts get dissolve in water while calcium carbonate being insoluble in water settles down in the container. And hence get separated about.

Question 4.
(a) Define mixture.
(b) Why is it necessary to separate the constituents of a mixture.
(c) State four differences between compounds and mixtures.
Answer:
(a) “Mixtures can be defined as. a kind of matter which is formed by mixing two or more pure substances (elements and compounds) in any proportion, such that they do not undergo any chemical change and retain their individual properties. Therefore they are impure substances.

(b) Because: The mixtures contain unwanted substances which may be harmful and may degrade the properties of mixtures. So we, need to separated them and extract useful substances.
This is necessary because
(i) It removes unwanted and harmful substances
(ii) to obtain pure and useful substances them.
Example: Sea water is rich in common salt which is an important ingredient of our food to add taste and nutrients. But sea water, cannot be directly used to get the salt.
Hence, it is necessary to separate both.

(c) Compound

  1. A compound is formed from its constituent elements as a result of chemical reaction.
  2. A compound is always homogeneous in nature.
  3. In a compound the elements are present in a fixed ratio by weight.
  4. The components of a compound can’t be separated by physical methods but can be separated by chemical methods only.
  5. The properties of a compound are different from those of its elements.
  6. The formation of a compound from its elements is accompanied by energy changes.

Mixture

  1. A mixture is obtained form its (elements, compounds) components as a result of physical change.
  2. The mixtures can be homogeneous or heterogeneous.
  3. In a mixture the components can be present in any ratio.
  4. The components of a mixture can be separated by physical methods only.
  5. The properties of a mixture lie between those of-its components.
  6. The formation of a mixture from its constituents is not accompanied by energy changes.

Question 5.
(a) What is chromatography ? For which type of mixture is it used ?
(b) What are the advantages of chromatography.
Answer:
(a) This is one of the latest techniques to separate the coloured components of a mixture when all the components are very similar in their properties. Example: Components of ink are separated by this method. Ink is a mixture of different dyes, which are separated by chromatography because some of the dyes are less soluble and some are more soluble in a solvent.

(b)

  1. A very small quantity of the substance can be separated.
  2. Components with very similar physical and chemical properties can be separated.
  3. It identifies the different constitutes of a mixture.
  4. It also helps in quantitive estimation of components of a mixture.

6. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below:

(a) a mixture of sand and ammonium chloride can be separated by

  1. filtration
  2. distillation
  3. sublimation
  4. crystallisation

(b) A pair of metalloids are

  1. Na and Mg
  2. B and Si
  3. C and P
  4. HeandAr

(c) Which of the following property is not shown by compounds?

  1. They are heterogeneous.
  2. They are homogeneous.
  3. They have definite molecular formulae.
  4. They have fixed melting and boiling points.

(d) A solvent of Iodine is

  1. Water
  2. Kerosene oil
  3. Alcohol
  4. Petrol

(e) Which of the gas is highly soluble in water ?

  1. Ammonia
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Carbon monoxide
  4. Oxygen

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – The Flower

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – The Flower

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 6 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology Chapter 2 The Flower

Review Questions

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) In a germinating seed, the roots develop from:
(i) Radicle
(ii) Plumule
(iii) Tegmen
(iv) Hilum

(b) In a germinating seed, the shoot develops from:
(i) Radicle
(ii) Plumule
(iii) Tegmen
(iv) Hilum

(c) Which one of the following is a monocotyledonous seed ?
(i) Bean
(ii) Pea
(iii) Maize
(iv) Gram

(d) If the cotyledons are pushed above the soil, then such type of germination is called :
(i) Epigeal
(ii) Hypogeal
(iii) Perigeal
(iv) Progeal

(e) If the cotyledons remain under the soil, then such seeds type of germination is called:
(i) Epigeal
(ii) Hypogeal
(iii) Perigeal
(iv) Progeal

(f) Pollen is produced in the:
(i) Filament
(ii) Style
(iii) Pistil
(iv) Anther

(g) Reproductive whorls of a flower are:
(i) Stamens and carpels
(ii) Sepals and petals
(iii) Sepals and stamens
(iv) Petals and carpels

PQ. Vegetative propagation is not observed in:
(i) Potato
(ii) Tomato
(iii) Pea
(iv) Bean

(h) Which one of the following is a false fruit ?
(i) Tomato
(ii) Apple
(iii) Potato
(iv) Pea

(i) In a seed, food is generally stored in:
(i) Radicle
(ii) Plumule
(iii) Fruit
(iv) Catyledons or endosperms

1. Given below is a longitudinal section of a bean seed. Label the parts marked 1 to 5 and write their functions.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 1
Answer :
1. Testa (seed coat)
2. Plumule
3. Radicle
4. Micropyle
5. Cotyledon

  1. Testa (seed coat) — It protects the seed from insects and bacteria as well as from mechanical injury.
  2. Plumule — Plumule develops into a shoot.
  3. Radicle — Radicle develops into a root
  4. Micropyle — The micropyle absorbs as much water as is required for germination.
  5. Cotyledon — Contain stored food material which is used by the seeding during germination.

2. Name the following:

(a) A seed which shows hypogeal germination.
Ans. pea seed, maize. seed
(b) Amonocotseed.
Ans. Maize seed, wheat seed
(c) A dicot seed.
Ans. Bean seed, gram seed, pea seed
(d) A seed which shows epigeal germination.
Ans. Bean seed castor seed, tamarind seed

Question 3.
Differentiate between the following pairs of terms:

Answer :
(a) Radicle and plumule.
Radicle: In a seed the radicle lies downwards near the lower pointed end of the grain. It gives rise to the root.
Plumule: In a seed the plumule lies upwani near the cotyledon and gives rise to the shoot.

(b) Ilium and micropyle.
Answer :
IlIum : On one side of seed câat, there is scar called hi hum, which marks the place where the seed was attached to the fiiüt wall.
Micropyle : Above the hilum is a small pore called micrope. The micropyle absorbs as much water as is required for germination

(c) Testa and tegmen.
Answer :
Testa: The seed is protected by a thick outermost coat called the testa or seed coat.
Tegmen: Under the testa lies a very thin membrane called the tegmen.

Question 4.
Give two functions of a fruit.
Answer :
Functions of a fruit are:

  1. Fruit is a protective case for the seeds.
  2. Fruit is a temptation to animals and man to eat it and scatter the seeds

Question 5.
Match the columns :
Column A           Column B
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 2

Answer :
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 3

Question 6.
Radicle emerges out of the seed earlier than plumule.What one advantage is served by this ?
Answer :
Radicle comes out of the seed earlier than the plumule has advantages as it gets water and minerals from the soil and gives it to the growing plumule.

Question 7.
State whether the following statements are True or False.

(a) Some seeds have no cotyledons.
False
(b) Warmth is necessary for the germination of seeds.
True
(c) All seeds have two cotyledons.
False
(d) Oxygen is necessary for the germination of seeds.
True

Question 8.
State one function of the following:

(a) radicle
(b) cotyledons
(c) endosperm
(d) micropyle
Answer :

  1. Radicle — form the roots
  2. Cotyledons — On removing th& testa and the tegmen from a soaked bean seed, you will find that the seed is made up of two fleshy seed leaves called the cotyledolm. They contain stored food material which is used by the seedlling for growth.
  3. Endosperm—ovary forms the fruit.
  4. Micropyle —Above the hilum is a small pore called micropyle (micro = small, pyle = passage). The micropyle absorbs and allows as much water as is required for germination.

Question 9.
The three conditions necessary for germination of seeds are (tick the correct answer):
(a) Oxygen, suitable temperature and water.
(b) Good soil, water and air
(c) Good soil, suitable temperature and light.
(d) Light, oxygen, and temperature.
(e) Oxygen, carbon dioxide, and light.

Question 10.
Name the part of the seeds from which the following are given out:

(a) Roots : .
(b) Leaves :
Answer :
(a) Roots — Radicle give rise to roots.
(b) Leaves—Plumule gives rise to shoot bearing leaves.

Question 11.
In the spaces provided below, draw labelled diagrams to show the three stages in the germination of any seed you have observed.
Answer :
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 4

Long Answer Questions
(Write the answers in your note-book)

Question 1.
What is meant by pollination ? Name the two types of pollination.
Answer :
The transfer of the pollen grains from the anthers to the stigma of a flower is called pollination.
The two types of pollination found in flowering plants are.

  1. self-pollination – that occurs within the same plant.
  2. cross-pollination – that occurs between two flowers of two different plants but of the same kind.

Question 2.
Imagine that all the seeds produced by a plant happen to fall under the same plant and sprout into new plants. Mention any two problems that will be faced by the new plants.
Answer :
If all the seeds produced by a plant happen to fall under the same plant and sprout into new plants then in this situation plants will face the following problems:

  1. A large number of plants will grow in a small limited space. The water and the minerals available to them in the soil will be limited.
  2. The air surrounding them will not be enough and less sunshine will be available to them. As a result, most of these sprouted plants will die.

Question 3.
What is a flower ? Draw a typical flower and label its different parts.
Answer :
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 5

A flower is a reproductive part of a plant. It helps in sexual reproduction as it has male parts and female parts.
A fully opened flower has the following parts:
Stalk—A flower is attached to the shoot by means of stalk or pedicel stalk. The tip of the stalk is swollen or flattened. This is called toms or thalamus or receptacle.
The different parts of a flower are inserted on the thalamus. There are usually four whorls as Calyx

  • (Sepals)
  • Corolla (Petals)
  • Androecium (stamens)
  • Gynoecium (Carpels)
  • Present on the thalamus.
  1. Sepals (Calyx): These are the outermost part of the flower. These are leaf like and green in colour. This is the outer covering of the flower and form outer whorl in a flower. The Calyx (sepals) enclose the inner parts of the flower when it is a bud. It is protective in function.
  2. Corolla (Petals): Petals form the second whorl inner to the sepals. These are usually coloured, gaudy, or white in colour and scented and give sweet smell. The value of a flower is due to the attractive colour of the petals. These attract the insects for pollination.
  3. Stamens (Androecium): The third whorls inner to the petals are stamens. This third whorl is called Androecium. These are the male parts of the flower. Each stamen is formed of a long narrow, hair like structure called filament. On its tip it bears a rounded broad sac like structure called anther. Each anther has two anther lobes. Each anther lobe has two pollen sacs which have powdery mass called pollen grains.
  4. Carpels (Gynoecium): Carpels are the inner most or fourth whorl in a flower. It is lodged on the thalamus and forms the female part of a flower. This whorl of carpels is called gynoecium. Each carpel or pistil has three parts,
    1. The lower most, swollen part is ovary. It is attached to the thalamus
    2. The middle part is style which is narrow, thread like
    3. Stigma: The style ends in a knob like, rounded structure which is sticky in nature to receive the pollen grains.The ovaries contain ovules which later turn into seeds after fertilization and the ovary wall forms the fruit sometimes the thalamus also becomes a part of the fruit as in apple.

Question 4.
With the help of a suitable labelled diagram, describe the structure of a dicot seed.
Answer :
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 6

It is a dicotyledonous and non-endospermic seed. It is produced in a long cylindrical pod (fruit – phali) External characters. The seed is brown or whitish brown in colour. The seed is hard and smooth and kidney shaped i.e.Convex on one side and concave on the other side. Concave side bears whitish scar called hilum. It is the place which is attached to the wall of the pod through a stalk called funicle. At one side of the hilum is a small pore called micropyle water enters through it.

Internal structure — The seed is covered by a hard, tough covering called testa. Inner to the tests is the embryo. Embryo consists of two cotyledons and embryo axis. Embryo axis has plumule and radicle. The plumule is present in between the two cotyledons and its top bears two folded tiny leaves. It forms future shoot and leaves of the growing seed. Radicle is rod shaped and is out of the two cotyledons. It forms the root of the growing seed. When the seed grows the two cotyledons come out of the soil and form cotyledonary leaves and turn green in colour. Cotyledons give food to the growing seedling as it has food. The germination in this seed is epigeal as cotyledons come outside the soil in the growing seed.

Question 5.
Define germination ? Name the two types of germination. Explain with examples.
Answer :
The growth and development of the embryo present in the seed into a seedling (or a young plant capable of independent existence) is called as seed germination.
The embryo in a seed remains inactive or dormant. When the seed is put into the soil and given water and under suitable temperature, the embryo becomes active on absorbing the water and the embryo turns into a seedling.

Types of germination — There are three types of germinations.
(i) Epigeal
(ii)Hypogeal
(iii) Viviparous
(i) Epigeal germination — Epi means above ; geo-ground (earth)
When the cotyledons in growing seed come out of the soil it is epigeal type of germination as in case of castor seed, cucumber, tamarind, bean seed the cotyledons come out of the soil and turn green. These are called cotyledonary leaves. These cany on photosynthesis till new leaves arise.

(ii) Hypogeal germination—Hypo-below, gea soil.
When in a growing seed the cotyledons remain under the ground as in case of gram, pea, groundnut and maize. The plumule firms the aerial shoot to which bears leaves and the radicle gives rise to roots. The growing seedling gets food from the cotyledons. As the seedling grows the cotyledons die in the soil.

(iii) Viviparous germination—This is special type of germination.
This occurs in plants growing along the sea coasts and in salt lakes. The seed start growing while it is still attached to the plant as in mangrove plants. The embryo comes out of the fruit with a long, dart like radicle. It falls directly into soft, slushy, wet mud. The radicle gives root and establishes as a seedling and the plumule give rise to shoot. This is in mangrove plants.

Question 6.
What are the three conditions necessary for the germination of seeds. How would you demonstrate this?
Answer: 
F or successful germination of any viable seed, three external conditions are necessary as:

  1. Water or moisture
  2. Warmth or temperature
  3. Air or oxygen.

We can demonstrate this with “Three seed experiment This is a simple experiment to demonstrate the necessity of these factors for proper germination.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 7
Experiment:
Three seed experiment to demonstrate germination Three mature dried bean seeds are taken and tied on a wooden strip at three different positions (above the figure). This strip is placed in a beaker containing water in such a way that the lower seed is completely submerged in water, the middle seed is partially submerged inside the water and the top seed is kept above water. This set-up is left in a warm place for few days.

It is observed that the middle seed shows germination and gives out radicle and shoot leaves. The top seed shows no growth and the bottom one shows negligible growth. The middle seed gets fully germinated due to the fact that this seed has all the favourable conditions required for germination i.e., air (oxygen), moisture and warmth (favourable temperature), which are necessary for germination.

Question 7.
Give the main difference between hypogeal and epigeal and germination.
Answer :
Epigeal germination—Epi means above; geo-means ground (soil). When the cotyledons in a growing seed come out of the soil it is epigeal type of germination as in case of castor seed, bean seeds, pulses, tamarind cucumber.
The cotyledons come out of the soil and turn green these are cotyledonary leaves and carry on the function of photosynthesis till new leaves arise in the growing seedling. Hypogeal germination — Hypo-below, geo-soil it is that type of germination in which in the growing seed the cotyledons remain under the soil as in case of pea, gram, ground-nut, maize. The plumule forms the aerial shoot which later bears leaves and die radicle gives rise to root. The tiny seedling gets food from the cotyledons till it establishes itself in the soil by its roots and starts getting water and minerals and as well the new leaves arise on the ascending axis and they start making food by the process of food making.

Differences—

Epigeal germination

  1. In this type of germination the cotyledons come out of the soil.
  2. The cotyledons turn green as they come out of the soil and serve as cotyledonary cotyledons
    leaves and carry on photo¬synthesis to make food for the growing seedling.
  3. The cotyledons become pale and fall off when the ascending axis bear leaves

Hypogeal germination

  1. In this type of germination the cotyledons remain under the soil.
  2. The cotyledons remain under the ground and the seedling gets food from the till it establishes in the soil.
  3. The cotyledons get rotten up in the soil when the seedling matures.

Question 8.
State the location of the following in a flower:
Answer :

  1. Sepals: These are the outermost part of the flower. These are leaf like and green in colour. This is the outer covering of the flower and form outer whorl in a flower. The Calyx (sepals) enclose the inner parts of the flower when it is a bud. It is protective in function.
  2. Petals: Petals form the second whorl inner to the sepals. These are usually coloured, gaudy, or white in colour and scented and give sweet smell. The value of a flower is due to the attractive colour of the petals. These attract the insects for pollination.
  3. Anther—It is present at the end of a stamen. Anther has poller sacs in which pollen grains are formed. Pollen grains contain the male gametes.
  4. Stigma—It is the terminal knob-like part, it may be divided into two or more lobes and assume a feathery appearance. The stigma is covered with hair or with glandular papillae. It serves as the landing place grains for pollen during pollination.

Question 9.
Given below is the diagram of a typical flower. Label the parts marked by guidelines.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 8
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Flower 9

 

Question 10.
Give the difference in the function between the following parts:
(a) Ovary and ovule
(b) Petal and sepal
(c) Filament and style
(d) Pollen and ovule
Answer :
(a) Ovary and ovule —

  1. Ovary is the female reproductive part of a flower and ovules are located inside the ovary.
  2. Ovary after fertilization turns into a fruit whereas ovules turn into seeds of fruit.

(b) petal and sepal—Petals are colourful and attractive and helps to attract insects for pollination whereas the main function of sepals is to provide protection to the growing bud.

(c) filament and style—The filament is a stalk like structure that attaches and support the flower and support the anther which is the structure that produces pollens whereas the style transfers the male gametes of the pollen grains into the ovary.

(d) pollen and ovule — The function of pollen is to deliver male gametes (sperm) from stamen of a plant to an ovule whereas ovule, when fertilized, well developed into a seed. It is a female reproductive cell.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Physical Quantities and Measurement

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Physical Quantities and Measurement

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement

  • Points to Remember
  • The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained in a body regardless of its volume or any force acting on it.
  •  The weight of a body is the force with which every body is attracted towards its centre.
  •  The unit of mass in S.I. system is kilogram (kg). Higher units of mass are quintal and metric tonne.
  •  The weight of body changes with acceleration due to gravity.
  •  Weight is zero at the centre of the earth.
  •  Mass per unit volume of a substance is called density of the body.
  •  The unit of density in S.I. system is kg m-3 and gcm-3 in C.G.S. system.
  •  The density in S.I. system is 1000 × numerical value in C.G.S. system.
  •  The density of liquids and gases decreases or increases with the rise or fall in temperature.
  • The cycle of upward and downward movements of the fluid form currents in the medium which are known as convectional currents.

Test Yourself

A. Objective Questions 

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) The S.I. unit of volume is litre.
Answer. False.
The S.I. unit of volume is cubic metre.

(b) A measuring beaker of capacity 200 ml can measure only the volume. 200 ml of a liquid.
Answer. True.

(c) cm2 is a smaller unit of area than m2.
Answer. True.

(d) Equal volumes of two different substances have equal masses.
Answer. False.
Equalvolumes of two different substances have different masses.

(e) The S.I. unit of density is g cm-3.
Answer. False.
The S.I. unit of density is Kg m-3.

(f) 1 g cm-3 = 1000 kg m-3.
Answer. True.

(g) The density of water is maximum at 4°C.
Answer. True.

(h) The speed 5 ms-1 is less than 25 km h-1.
Answer. True.

(i) The S.I. unit of speed is ms-1.
Answer. True

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) l m3106 cm3
(b) The volume of an irregular solid is determined by the method of displacement of liquid.
(c) Volume of a cube = (one side)
(d) The area of an irregular lamina is measured by using a grapl paper.
(e) Mass = density × volume.
(f) The S.I. unit of density is kg m-3.
(g) 1 g cm-3 = 1000 kg m-3.
(h) 36 km h-1 = 10 ms-1.
(i) Distance travelled d = speed v × time t.

3. Match the following

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 1

4. Select the correct alternative 

(a) One litre is equal to :

  1.  1 cm-3
  2. 1 m3
  3.  10-3  cm3
  4. 10-3 m3

(b) A metallic piece displaces water of volume 15 ml. The volume of piece is :

  1.  15 cm3
  2.  15 m3
  3.  15 × 103 cm3
  4.  15 × 103 cm3

(c) A piece of paper of dimensions 1.5 m x 20 cm has area :

  1.  30 m2
  2.  300 cm2
  3.  0.3 m2
  4.  3000 m3

(d) The correct relation is :

  1.  d = M × V
  2.  M = d × Y  
  3.  V = d × M
  4.  d = M + V

(e) The density of alcohol is 0.8 g cm-3. In S.I. unit, it will be :

  1.  0.8 kg m-3
  2.  0.0008 kg m-3
  3.  800 kg m-3
  4.  8 x 103 kg m-3

(f) The density of aluminium is 2.7 g cm-3 and of brass is 8.4 g cm-3. For the same mass, the volume of:

  1.  both will be same
  2.  aluminium will be less than that of brass
  3.  aluminium will be more than that of brass
  4.  nothing can be said.

(g) A block of wood of density 0.8 g cm-3 has a volume of 60 cm3. The mass of block will be :

  1.  60.8 g
  2.  75 g
  3.  48 g
  4.  0.013 g

(h) The correct relation for speed is

  1.  Speed = distance x time
  2.  speed = distance / time
  3.  speed = time / distance
  4.  speed = 1 / distance x time

(i) A boy travels a distance 150 m in 1 minute. His speed is

  1.  150 m s-1
  2.  2.5 m s-1
  3.  25 m s-1
  4.  9 m s-1

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Define the term volume of an object.
Answer:
The space occupied by an object is called its volume.

Question 2.
State and define the S.I. unit of volume.
Answer:
S.I. unit of volume – The S.I. unit of volume is cubic metre. In short form, it is written as m3.
One cubic metre is the volume of a cube of each side 1 metre as shown in figure below i.e., 1 m3 = 1 m × 1 m × 1 m.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 2

Question 3.
State two smaller units of volume. How are they related to the S.I. unit?
Answer:
A smaller unit of volume is cubic centimetre (symbol cm3) and cubic decimetre (symbol 1 dm3). One cubic centimetre is the volume of a cube of each side 1 centimetre, i.e.,
1 cm3 = 1 cm × 1 cm × 1 cm.
Relationship between m3 and cm3
l m= lm × lm × lm
= 100 cm × 100 cm × 100 cm
= 10,00,000 cm3 = 106 cm3.
Relationship between m3 and dm3
l m3 = lm × 1 m × 1 m .
= 10 dm × 10 dm × 10 dm
= 1000 dm
= 103 dm
Note 1 m = 10 dm

Question 4.
How will you determine the volume of a cuboid ? Write the formula you will use.
Answer:
Volume of a cuboid = length × breadth × height.

Question 5.
Name two devices which are used to measure the volume of an object. Draw their neat diagrams.
Answer:
Two devices that are used to measure the volume of an object are :
(i) Measuring cylinder and
(ii) Measuring beaker.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 3

Question 6.
How can you determine the volume of an irregular solid (say a piece of brass) ? Describe in steps with neat diagrams.
Answer:
To measure the volume of a piece of stone.
Take a piece of brass, a measuring cylinder, fine thread of sufficient length and some water.
Place a measuring cylinder on a flat horizontal surface and fill it partially with water. Note the reading of the water level very carefully. Now tie the piece of brass with a thread and dip it completely into water. We see that the level of water rises. Note the reading of the new water level.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 4
The difference in the two levels of water gives the volume of the piece of brass
Initial level of water = 60 ml
Level of water when brass is immersed = 80 ml
∴ Volume of water displaced = 80 ml – 60 ml = 20 ml
∴ Volume of the piece of brass = 20 cm3
Note : 1 ml = 1 cm3

Question 7.
You are required to take out 200 ml of milk from a bucket full of milk. How will you do it ?
Answer:
By using the measuring beaker A measuring beaker is used to measure a fixed volume of liquid from a large volume. Suppose it is required to measure 200 ml of milk from the milk contained in a bucket. For this, take the measuring beaker of capacity 200 ml. Wash it and dry it. Then, immerse the measuring beaker well inside the milk contained in the bucket so that the beaker gets completely filled with the milk.
Take out the measuring beaker from the bucket gently so that no milk splashes out and then pour the milk from the measuring beaker into the another empty vessel.

Question 8.
Describe the method in steps to find the area of an irregular lamina using a graph paper.
Answer:
Method to find the area of an irregular lamina using a graph paper : First, place the lamina over a graph paper and draw its boundary line on the graph paper with a pencil. Then remove the lamina and count and note the number of complete squares as well as the number of squares more than half within the boundary line (only the squares less than half, are left while counting). The area of lamina is equal to the sum of the area of complete squares and the area of squares more than half. Let n be the total number of complete and more than half or half squares within the boundary of lamina. Since area of one big square is 1 cm × 1cm = 1 cm2, so the area of lamina will be n x

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 5

Question 9.
Define the term density of a substance.
Answer:
The density of a substance is defined as the mass of a unit volumx of that substance.

Question 10.
State the S.I. and C.G.S. units of density. How are they inte related ?
Answer:
The S.I. unit of mass is kilogram (symbol kg) and of volume is
cubic metre (symbol m3). Therefore S.I. unit of density is kg/m3
or kg m-3.
The C.G.S. unit of mass is gram (symbol g) and of volume is cubic centimetre (symbol cm3). Therefore the C.G.S. unit of
density is g/cm3 or g cm-3.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 6

Question 11.
‘The density of brass is 8.4 g cm’3’. What do you mean by the statement ?
Answer:
Density of brass is 8.4 g cm-3. This means that unit volume of brass contain 8.4 g mass.

Question 12.
Arrange the following substances in order of their increasing density:
(a) iron
(b) cork
(c) brass
(d) water
(e) mercury
Answer:
b<a<c<d<e

Question 13.
How does the density of water changes when :
(a) it is heated from 0°C to 4°C,
(b) it is heated from 4°C to 10°C ?
Answer:
(a) Water contracts on heating from 0°C to 4°C and expands on heating above 4°C.
(b) The density of water is maximum at 4°C. It decreases when it is cooled from 4°C to 0°C or it is heated above 4°C.

Question 14.
Write the density of water at 4°C.
Answer:
The density of water at 4°C is 1.0 g cm-3, or 1,000 kg m-3

Question 15.
Explain the meaning of the term speed.
Answer:
The distance covered or travelled by a body in one second is called the speed of the body, i.e.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 7

Question 16.
Write the S.I. unit of speed.
Answer:
The S.I. unit of speed is metre/second or metre per second. Its symbol is m s-1.

Question 17.
A car travels with a speed 12 m s”1, while a scooter travels with a speed 36 km h-1. Which of the two travels faster ?
Answer:
Speed of car = 12 m s-1
Speed of scooter = 36 km h-1
here, 1 km = 1000 m
1 hr = 3600 sec

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 8
∴ Speed of car is more. Car travels faster than scooter.

C. Numericals

Question 1.
The length, breadth and height of a water tank are 5 m, 2.5 m and 1.25 m respectively. Calculate the capacity of the water tank in (a) m3 (b) litre.
Answer:
Given,
Length (1) = 5m
Breadth (b) = 2.5 m
and Height (h) = 1.25 m

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 9

Question 2.
A solid silver piece is immersed in water contained in a measuring cylinder. The level of water rises from 50 ml to 62 ml. Find the volume of silver piece.
Answer:
Given, initial level of water .v1 = 50 ml
Final level of water v2 = 62 ml
Volume of silver piece V = v2 – v1
= 62 ml – 50 ml
= 12 ml or 12 cm3

Question 3.
Find the volume of a liquid present in a dish of dimensions 10 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm.
Answer:
Volume of water = Length × breadth × height
= 10 cm × 10 cm × 5 cm
= 500 cm3 or 500 ml.

Question 4.
A rectangular field is of length 60 m and breadth 35 m. Find the area of the field.
Answer:
Length of a rectangular field = 60 m
Breadth of rectangular field = 35 m
∴ Area = 60 m × 35 m
= 2100 m2

Question 5.
Find the approximate area of an irregular lamina of which boundary line is drawn on the graph paper shown in fig. 1.16. below.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 10
Answer:
From figure, the number of complete squares = 11
The number of squares more than half = 9
∴ Total number of squares = 11 + 9 = 20
∴ Area of the 1 square = 1 cm × 1cm = 1 cm2
∴ Area of 20 squares = 20 × 1 cm2 = 20 cm2
∴ Approximate area of irregular lamina = 20 cm2

Question 6.
A piece of brass of volume 30 cm3 has a mass of 252 g. Find the density of brass in (i) g cm-3, (ii) kg m-3.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 11

Question 7.
The mass of an iron ball is 312 g. The density of iron is 7.8 g cm-3. Find the volume of the ball.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 12

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 13

Question 8.
A cork has a volume 25 cm3. The density of cork is 0.25 g cm-3. Find the mass of cork.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 14

Question 9.
The mass of 5 litre of water is 5 kg. Find the density of water in g cm-3.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 15

Question 10.
A cubical tank of side 1 m is filled with 800 kg of a liquid. Find: (i) the volume of tank, (ii) the density of liquid in kg m-3.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 16

Question 11.
A block of iron has dimensions 2 m × 0.5 m × 0.25 m. The density of iron is 7.8 g cm-3. Find the mass of block.
Answer:
Given, l = 2m
b = 0.5 m

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 17

Question 12.
The mass of a lead piece is 115 g. When it is immersed into a measuring cylinder, the water level rises from 20 ml mark to 30 ml mark.
Find:
(i) the volume of the lead piece,
(ii) the density of the lead in kg m-3.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 18

Question 13.
The density of copper is 8.9 g cm-3. What will be its density in kg m-3 ?
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 19

Question 14.
A car travels a distance of 15 km in 20 minute. Find the speed of the car in (i) km h-1, (ii) m s-1.
Answer:
Distance travelled by car =15 km
Time taken = 20 minutes
(i) Speed of car in km h-1
Convert 20 minutes to hour

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 20

Question 15.
How long a train will take to travel a distance of 200 km with a speed of 60 km h-1 ?
Answer:
Distance covered by train = 200 km
Speed of train = 60 km h-1

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 21

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 22

Question 16.
A boy travels with a speed of 10 m s-1 for 30 minute. How much distance does he travel ?
Answer:
Speed of boy = 10 m s-1
Time taken = 30 minutes
speed = distance travelled / time taken
Distance travelled = Speed × Time taken
Convert 30 minutes to seconds
1 minute = 60 sec
30 minute 60 × 30 = 1800 seconds
Putting the value of speed and time we get
Distance travelled = 10 ms-1 × (1800 sec) = 18000 m
= 18000 metre or 18 km Ans.

Question 17.
Express 36 km h-1 in m s-1
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 23

Question 18.
Express 15 m s-1 in km h-1.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 24

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Physical Quantities and Measurement 25

Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Magnetism

Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Magnetism

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 6 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Physics Chapter 6 Magnetism

  • Synposis
  • The first natural magnet was discovered in Magnesia, a town in Greece. It was called the lodestone.
  • Artificial magnets are made of iron or steel. They are made of different shapes namely the bar magnet, cylinderical magnet, U-shaped magnet, horse-shoe magnet, magnetic needle and compass.
  • The materials which are attracted by a magnet are called magnetic materials. Examples: iron, steel, cobalt.
  • The materials which are not attracted by a magnet are called non-magnetic materials. Examples: paper, wood, brass, plastic, copper aluminium, etc.
  • A magnet has two poles, a north and a south pole.
  • A magnet has the following properties:
  1. A magnet attracts the small pieces of iron.
  2. A magnet always rests in the north-south direction, if it is free to swing.
  3. Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.
  4. Poles always exist in pairs, cannot be isolated.
  • Magnets are used to separate iron and steel from their mixture with non-magnetic substances. –
  • Magnets are used in many electrical appliances such as electric . bell, loud-speaker, etc.
  • A magnetic compass is used by sailors and navigators to find the north-south direction.
  • Magnetic induction is the process in which a piece of iron temporarily behaves like a magnet in the presence of another magnet.
  • When a magnet is placed near an iron piece, the iron piece behaves like a magnet. The end of the iron piece near the north pole of the magnet becomes a south pole while the farther end becomes a north pole.
  • It is because of magnetic induction that a magnet attracts a piece of iron.
  • An iron piece can be made into a magnet by any of the following methods:
  1. Magnetic induction
  2. Single touch method
  3. Double touch method
  4. Electrical method
  • In the single touch method, we need a single magnet, but in the double touch method we need two magnets, hi these methods, the end touched last by the magnet has the polarity opposite to that of the striking pole.
  • Powerful magnets are made by the electrical method.
  • Electromagnets or temporary magnets are made of soft iron.
  • Permanent magnets are made of steel.
  • Electromagnets are used in devices like electric bell, magnetic toys, telephone etc.
  • Permanent magnets are used in devices like galvanometer, ammeter, voltmeter etc.
  • A magnet can be destroyed by rough handling, by dropping it several tunes, by hammering it repeatedly and by heating it.
  • The magnetic field around a magnet is the space in which a magnetic substance such as small iron piece experiences a force of attraction.
  • The earth itself behaves like a magnet. It has its own magnetic field.
  • The south polarity of the earth is near the geographic north pole and the north polarity of the earth is near the geographic south pole.
  • Magnetic keepers are used to store the magnets.
  • Magnetic keepers are small pieces of soft iron.

ACTIVITY 1

Magnetic objects
Iron, Steel, Cobalt, Nickel
Non-magnetic objects
Wood, Stone Plastic, Rubber Copper, Sand, Gold, Silver, Brass Paper, Aluminium

Test yourself

A. Objective Questions

1. Write true or false for each statement.

(a) Artificial magnets are weaker than the natural magnets.
Answer. False
Artificial magnets are stronger than the natural magnets.

(b) Poles of a magnet cannot be separated.
Answer. True

(c) A magnet can attract only a magnetic substance.
Answer. True

(d) A magnet has no effect when it is heated to a high temperature.
Answer. False.
A magnet get demagnetised when it is heated to a very high temperature.

(e) Permanent magnets get easily demagnetised.
Answer. False.
Permanent magnets cannot be demagnetised.

(f) Magnetic poles occur in pairs.
Answer. True

(g) Single touch method is better than the electrical method for making a magnet.
Answer. False.
Electrical method is better than single touch method.

(h) Magnetic keeper is a wooden piece.
Answer. False.
Magnetic keepers are the pieces of soft iron.

(i) Copper cannot be magnetised.
Answer. True

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) Temporary magnets are usually made up of soft iron.
(b) Rough handling destroys the magnetic properties of a magnet.
(c) Like poles repel each other.
(d) A freely suspended magnet points in the north-south direction.
(e) In a magnet, ends have the maximum attractive property.
(f) A magnet has two poles.

3. Match the following
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 1

4. Select the correct answer

(a) If we suspend a magnet freely, it will settle in .

  1. east-west direction
  2. north-south direction
  3. north-east direction
  4. east-south direction

(b) Making a magnetic substance a magnet by bringing it closer to another magnet without touching it, is

  1. magnetic induction method
  2. single touch method
  3. double touch method
  4. electrical method

(c) An example of natural magnet is

  1. iron
  2. steel
  3. lodestone
  4. none of above

(d) The artificial magnet used to detect direction in the laboratory is

  1. U-shaped magnet
  2. horse shoe magnet
  3. electromagnet
  4. magnetic compass

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is a magnet ?
Answer:
The substances which have the property of attracting iron, are called magnets.

Question 2.
What are magnetic and non-magnetic substances ? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Magnetic substances: The substances that get attracted by a magnet are called magnetic substances. Iron, steel, cobalt and nickel are magnetic substance
Non-magnetic substances : The substances that do not get attracted by a magnet are called non-magnetic substances, e.g., wood, plastic, copper, paper, aluminium, rubber, stone.

Question 3.
What are natural and artificial -magnets ?
Answer:
Natural magnets: Natural magnets are those which are found in nature e.g. load stone.
Artificial magnets: Man made magnets are called artificial magnets, e.g. electromagnet.

Question 4.
How is an artificial magnet prepared from a natural magnet ?
Answer:
Pieces of iron or other materials are made magnets by rubbing them with natural magnets (or by passing direct current through a wire wound around them). This is how artificial magnets are made.

Question 5.
State two ways of magnetising an iron piece.
Answer:
The two ways of magnetising an iron piece are:

  1. Magnetic induction method.
    Take a long iron nail and test it for magnetic properties by bringing near the magnetic substances. You will see nail does not attract the magnetic substances. Now bring near a pole of a bar magnet to the head of the nail. Now bring the iron paper clips near the pointed end of the nail, you will observe that the iron paper clips now get attracted towards the nail. This is because iron nail has become magnet. Now take the bar magnet away form the iron nail, paper clips fall off. This magnetism is temporary.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 2
  2. Single touch method: Take a demagnetised piece of iron. Place it on a table surface. Take a magnet and select its one pole. Now mb it with the selected pole on the iron in one direction for several times. After sometime, the iron piece turns into a magnet.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 3

Question 6.
How can magnetic properties of a magnet be destroyed ?
Answer:

  1. By hammering the magnet repeatedly.
  2. By rough handling
  3. By heating.

Question 7.
Why docs a freely suspended magnet always rest in north- south direction ?
Answer:
A freely suspended magnet always rest in north-south direction because the north-pole of the magnet lies in the geographic north direction and the south pole of the magnet lies in the geographic south direction. So it aligns itself in N-S direction. As unlike poles attract and like poles repel.

Question 8.
Draw diagrams of the artificial magnets of four different shapes.
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 4

Question 9.
Why are the artificial magnets preferred over the natural magnets ?
Answer:
Artificial magnets are preferred over natural magnets because natural magnets are weak and often irregular in shape, they can readily be magnetised and demagnetised by turning the current on or off in the coil.

Question 10.
Describe an experiment to show that the maximum attractive property is at the poles of a magnet.
Answer:
Take a bar magnet and place a steel pin at some distance. We observe that nothing happens. Now, bring the steel pin near the pole of the bar magnet. We notice that pin sticks to the magnet. This experiment shows that maximum magnetic force acts at the poles of the magnet.

Question 11.
State four important properties of a bar magnet.
Answer:

  1. Attractive property: A magnet can attract small pieces of iron filing or other ferromagnetic materials.
  2. Directive property: If a magnet is suspended horizontally by a thin thread (say silk thread), it rests always pointing north- south direction of earth.
  3. Like poles always repel each other and unlike poles attract each other.
  4. Poles always exist in pairs : Single pole can never exist.

Question 12.
Explain the attractive property of a magnet with the help of an experiment.
Answer:
Take iron filling on a piece of paper. Bring a bar magnet near it. Iron filling will cling to it. It shows the attractive property of magnet.

Question 13.
Describe the method by which an iron bar can be made a magnet.
Answer:
Single touch method : Place the iron bar (or the needle) AB on a table. Take a bar magnet NS and place it almost vertical with its north pole (N) on the end A of the bar.
Move the magnet along tire iron bar till the other end B is reached.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 5
Lift the magnet at the end B and again place it on the first end A Again stroke the bar. Repeat the process about 20 times. Then turn the iron bar AB upside down. Again stroke it with the magnet about 20 times. The bar now becomes a magnet.

Question 14.
How are the magnets kept safely ? What is the role of keepers in storing the magnets ?
Answer:
When magnets are not in use they should be kept and stored in magnetic keepers. The magnetic keeper are the pieces of soft iron. A magnetic keeper has a card board with one or two iron soft pieces. Two magnets are placed in such a way that their opposite poles are close to each other and then a soft iron keeper is attached with it.

Question 15.
Define the term magnetic field of a magnet. How will you recognise it experimentally ?
Answer:
The space around a magnet in which if a magnetic substance such as small pieces of iron, are placed, they get attracted to-wards the magnet, is called the magnetic field.
Recognition of the magnetic field around a magnet: If a magnet is placed below a sheet of stiff paper and some iron filings are spread on it, then on tapping the sheet gently, the iron filings are found to arrange themselves in a definite pattern as shown in fig.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 6

Question 16.
How will you make an iron bar electromagnet ? Draw a diagram showing the polarities of the electromagnet.
Answer:
Take the given iron bar AB. Wound several turns of insulated copper wire over the bar. Connect the ends of the wire to a battery through a switch. Press the switch to pass current. After some time, the bar AB becomes a magnet.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 7
The end A of the bar at which the current enters the coil in clock¬wise direction becomes the south pole (S) and the end B of the bar at which the current leaves the coil in anti-clockwise direction becomes the north pole (N).

Question 17.
State two ways of increasing the strength of an electro Magnet
Answer:
Strength of the electromagnet: The strength of the electromagnet can be increased:

  1. by increasing the current in the coil, and
  2. by increasing the total number of turns of the coil.

Question 18.
Suppose you are given a long bar magnet and you are asked to break it into four small magnets. Draw diagrams showing the polarities of each broken part.
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 8

Question 19.
State three important uses of a magnet.
Answer:
Use of magnet:

  1. Magnets are used in magnetic compass, door bells, refrigerators.
  2. Magnets are used in dynamos, motors, loudspeakers, microphones etc.
  3. Ceramic magnets are used in computers.
  4. Magnets are used in toys to give magic effect.

Question 20.
What is magnetic induction ? Explain with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Magnetic Induction: The property by which an ordinary piece of iron acquires magnetic properties temporarily due to the pres¬ence of another magnet close to it, is known as magnetic induction
Take a long nail. Put it on the arm of a stand. Spread some iron pins on the base of stand. You will find that the pins do not get attracted towards the nail. Now touch a magnet at the end of nail. As the end is brought close to the head of nail, some pins cling to the nail. It happens because the nail turns into magnet and acquires the properties of magnetism. The moment you remove the magnet from the head of the nail. The pins will fall down. It will no more be a magnet.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 9

Question 21.
In which direction does a suspended bar magnet come to rest? Give reason.
Answer:
A magnet always rests in North and South direction, i.e. N-end always towards North of Earth and S-end towards South of Earth.

Question 22.
State three differences between the temporary and permanent magnets.
Answer:
Temporary magnet

  1. It is made up of soft iron.
  2. The magnet which loses its magnetism as soon as magnetising force is removed away from it.
  3. Because of its weak power, it is not used to make iron piece into magnet.

Permanent magnets

  1. It is made up of steel, cobalt and nickel.
  2. The magnet, which does not lose its magnetic properties easily is called permanent magnet.
  3. It can convert ordinary piece of iron into a temporary magnet.

Question 23.
State three ways of demagnetising a magnet.
Answer:
A magnet can be demagnetized in the following ways 

  1. rough handling
  2. hammering the magnet several times.
  3. passing an alternating current around the magnet.
  4. dropping the magnet on the floor several times.
  5. heating the magnet to a very high temperature.

Question 24.
Suggest one way to recognise the magnetic field of the earth.
Answer:
If we suspend a magnet such that it is free to swing, we see that it always rests in the north-south direction. The north pole of the magnet lies in the geographic north direction and the south pole of the magnet lies in the geographic south direction. So it aligns itself in N-S direction.

Question 25.
Name the material of core of an electromagnet for

  1. temporary magnet
  2. permanent magnet.

Answer:

  1. They are made of soft iron.
  2. They are made of iron, steel, cobalt, nickel or an alloy called ANILCO.

Question 26.
You are given an iron nail, a torch cell and a long piece of insulated copper wire. With the help of a labelled neat diagram, describe in steps how you will make the nail, an electromagnet.
Answer:
Aim : To make an electromagnet.
Materials Required : An iron nail, a battery, a switch, some insulated copper wire and some iron paper pins.
Procedure : Coil the insulated copper wire around the iron nail. Connect the ends of the wire to the battery through the switch. Close the switch so that electric current flows through the copper wire. Now bring the iron paper pins close to the iron nail.
Observation And Conclusion : The paper pins get attracted to the nail, showing that the nail has turned into an electromagnet. Now, if you switch off the current, the iron paper pins will drop off the iron nail.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 10

Question 27.
Describe an experiment to illustrate that like poles repel while the unlike poles attract.
Answer:

  1. Take two bar magnets A and B. Suspend one magnet A with a silk thread from a support so that it is free to swing. The magnet will come to rest in the north-south direction. The north pole of the magnet is in the north direction and the south pole of the magnet is in the south direction.
  2. Now holding the other magnet B in your hand, bring its north pole near the north pole of the suspended magnet A (such that the two magnets do not touch each other) as shown in figure. You will observe that the suspended magnet A moves away from the magnet B. This shows that the like poles repel each other.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 11

Now bring the south pole of the magnet B near the north pole of the suspended magnet A as shown in figure, without touching it. You will observe that the magnet A moves towards the magnet B. This shows that the unlike poles attract each other.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 12

Question 28.
What are magnetic keepers ? Name its material.
Answer:
Magnetic keepers are used to store the magnets. Magnetic keepers are small pieces .of soft iron.

Question 29.
How are the north and south poles of a magnet located ? Explain.
Answer:
Suspend a bar magnet with a silk thread from a wooden stand as shown in figure. The magnet swings for some time and then eventually comes to rest in a particular direction i.e., north-south direction. If we disturb the magnet a little, the magnet again comes to rest in the north-south direction.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 6 Magnetism 13
The end of the magnet which points towards the north is called the north seeking pole or simply the north pole and the end which points towards the south is called the south seeking pole or simply the south pole. The north and south poles are marked by the letters N and S respectively.

 

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Habitat and Adaptation

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Habitat and Adaptation

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 6 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology Chapter 8 Health and Hygiene

Multiple Choice questions:
1. Put a tick mark (✓ ) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) In cactus plant found in desert regions, the photosynthesis occur in:
(i) leaves
(ii) spines
(iii) modified roots
(iv) modified stem

(b) The animals such as birds have:
(i) light pneumatic bones
(ii) solid heavy bones
(iii) heavy pointed bones
(iv) no bones

(c) The biotic components of environment includes:
(i) greeen plants
(ii) animals
(iii) decomposer
(iv) all of these

(d) The presence of hollow plant stems is the characterstics of:
(i) desert plants
(ii) aquatic plants
(iii) mountaineous trees
(iv) none of these

(e) Slow breathing is the characterstics of:
(i) desert animals
(ii) aquatic animals
(iii) aerial animals
(iv) mesophytic animals

(f) Diversity of organisms are found in the different habitats because of different for
(i) average temperature
(ii) soil type
(iii) annual precipitation
(iv) all the these

Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
List any four abiotic factors which affect different living beings.
Answer:
The various non-living things, such as soil, rocks, air, water, temperature, etc. are its abiotic components.

Question 2.
How is a whale similar to a fish in adaption to life in water ? Explain any two features.
Answer:
Whale are marine mammals. Its huge body is also spindle — shaped (streamlined). It front legs are modified into paddles or flippers for kicking water, hind limbs are absent. Whales have to periodically come up to the surface of water to breathe-inthe atmospheric air into their lungs.

Question 3.
Describe any two adaptations seen in desert plants.
Answer:
The adaptations seen in desert plants are :

  1. Well-developed root systems.
  2. Leaves either very small or converted to spines.
  3. Stem is green and fleshy in some plants.

Question 4.
Describe the aerial adaptations in birds.
Answer:
The bird’s body is perfectly adapted for aerial life. Various aerial adaptations found in birds are:

  1. Body shape: The body of birds is streamlined. Necks stretched forward with the head pointed in front and a narrowed tail at the end provide them a sleek shape. The body surface is smooth to minimize resistance against air.
  2. Wings: The forelimbs are modified into wings.The fingers are very much reduced. The whole length of the forelimb carries long flight feathers.         .
  3. Steering and brakes: The feathers on the tail help to slow down the speed and also help in steering (changing direction).
  4. Wing muscles: These are the much strong, active and enlarged breast muscles.
  5. Cutting down the body weight: Except for the most necessary bulky heavy wing muscles, the rest of the bird’s body tends to be light to facilitate flight.
  • Bones have air cavities.
  • Much less water is required in the body. The birds excrete solid urine (formed of uric acid instead of urea which otherwise requires much water to be excreted out).
  • Right ovaiy and oviduct are greatly reduced.

Question 5.
Briefly explain the term “Habitat”.
Answer:
The place where animals survive, flourish and reproduce is known as habitat. A suitable habitat should be safe and food should be available in plenty. The climate of the habitat should be favourable for the animals living there.

Question 6.
Give two adaptations in animals found in mountain habitat by which they protect themselves from the cold climate.
Answer:
Animals living in the mountain regions are also adapted. Such adaptations are basically to protect them from cold and snow. For example, yak has thick skin covered with fur to protect it from cold. Mountain goat has thick fur on its body including feet and toes. These animals have strong hooves for running up rocky slopes of the mountains.

  • The oxygen content in the mountain air is thin. So the blood of most of these animals contains more red blood cells. This helps them to breathe in sufficient oxygen even when air pressure is low.
  • Some animals hibernate or go for a long winter sleep when the temperatures are very low. In this way they conserve their energy and survive the winter without food. Frogs, and hedgehogs are some animals which hibernate.

Question 7.
Define the following: habitat, adaptation.
Answer:
Habitat — The place where a biotic community lives is called a habitat. It includes plants, animals along with their physical environment.

Question 8.
List the environmental factors that influence a habitat.
Answer:
Environment in which that organism generally lives. The special feature of habitat is that this environment includes all the physical characteristics around (air, water, temperature, etc.), along with the effective plants and animals. Forexample, a pond is the habitat of a fish where it lives with other organisms and also interacts with water, air, temperature, etc. The natural home of an organism (niche) and its immediate surroundings is called its habitat. The habitat of any living creature should be a place where it can find shelter, food, water and suitable conditions for breeding.

Question 9.
Differentiate between an aquatic habitat and a terrestrial habitat.
Answer:
Habitats of plants and animals that live in water are called aquatic habitat.The plants and animals that live on land are said to live in terrestrial habitats

Question 10.
Name any three types of terestrial habitat.
Answer:
The plants and animals that live on land are said to live in terrestrial habitats: For example, forests, grasslands, deserts, coastal and mountain region.
The three types of terrestrial habitat are:

  • Desert habitat — Vast regions of sand, high daytime temperatures and low night time temperatures, very little water are the main environmental factors of this habitat.
  • Mountain habitat — Rocky land, snow and ice laden regions are the main features of this habitat. Temperatures in the mountains change with altitude. The lower regions are cooler whereas at higher altitudes it gets extremely icy and cold.
  • Polar habitat—is extremely cold and covered with snow throughout the year. Polar bears, reindeer, penguins and very scanty plant growth survive in the cold regions.

Question 11.
Name two types of terrestrial habitats with low temperature.
Answer:
Desert habitat — Vast regions of sand, high daytime temperatures and low night time temperatures, very little water are the main environmental factors of this habitat.

Mountain habitat — Rocky land, snow and ice laden regions are the main features of this habitat. Temperatures in the mountains change with altitude. The lower regions are cooler whereas at higher altitudes it gets extremely icy and cold.

Question 12.
Complete the table given below. Write down two points in each given column.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - Habitat and Adaptation 1

Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - Habitat and Adaptation 2

Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Classification of Plants

Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Classification of Plants

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Biology. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Biology Chapter 2 Classification of Plants

Synopsis:

  • Classification means grouping things together on the basis of certain common features.
  • The classification helps us to identify the living organisms and to study them more easily and systematically.
  • The plants can be classified as follows on the basis of their size and shape as:
    1. Herbs
    2. Shrubs
    3. Trees.
  • The plants which have soft, green and perishable stems are called herbs.
    Example: maize, rice, mint etc.
  •  The plants with woody stems, with branches of almost equal size arising from the stem immediately above the soil are called shrubs.
    Example: Lemon, jasmine etc.
  • The plants which are tall and have hard, woody stems and bear woody branches, twigs and leaves at some distance above the ground are called trees.
    Example: Coconut and palm.
    Non – flowering plants are called Cryptogams
  • Flowering plants are called Phanerogams.
  • The non-flowering plants can be further classified as:
    1. Thallophyta (Bacteria, Fungi and Algae)
    2.  Bryophyta (Mosses)
    3. Pteridophyta (Ferns)
  • Thallophyta do not bear-roots, stems or leaves.
  • Mosses have stems and leaves but no roots rather have
    thread-like structures called rhizoids.
  • Mosses are called Amphibians of the plant group as they need water to reproduce.
  • Spores are not seeds.
  • Spores are tiny structures capable of producing new plants.
  • The flowering plants can be further classified into
    1. Gymno sperms.
    2.  Angiosperms.
  • The flowering plants that bear seeds but no fruit are called Gymnosperms. Their seeds are thin and naked.
  • The characteristic feature of gymnosperms is that their roots are well developed, trunk is thick and woody and their leaves are long and pointed.
  •  The female part of the angiosperms plant is called ovary.
  •  The plants can be classified on the basis of life span as:
    1. Annuals
    2. Biennials
    3. Perennials
  •  The plants which live for only one season in a year are called annuals.
    Example: Wheat, rice, pea, sunflower.
  •  The plants which complete their life cycle in two years, i.e. in the first year they bear the vegetative parts while in the second year they bear flowers, fruits and seeds are called
    biennials.
    Example: Carrot, potato, cabbage.
  •  The plants which live for more than two years and bear flowers, fruit and seeds every year.
    [They may even live for hundreds of years] are called
    perennials.
    Example: Banyan, pine.
  • The perennial plants can be further divided as
    1.  Deciduous: Shed their leaves once in a year usually before winter. •
      Example: Oak, mulberry.
    2. Evergreen: These never shed their leaves all at one time. They keep shedding their leaves throughout the year. Example: Mango, guava etc.
  • The self – nourishing living beings are called autotrophs. Those nourishing on others are called heterotrophs.
  •  On the basis of habitat, the plants can be classified as.
    1. mesophytes
    2. xerophytes
    3. hydrophytes.
  •  Mesophytes : The plants which grow on land and need moderate amount of water for their survival.
    Example: Mango,apple.
  • Xerophytes:

    1.  The plants which grow is deserts and need minimum amount of water for their survival.
    2.  These have thin and spiny leaves to minimise water loss.Example: Cactus, Babul etc.
  • Hydrophytes:
    1. The plants need maximum amount of water and hence grow in water.
    2.  They have either very small or no roots at all.
      Example: Lotus, water lily etc.

Activity 1
Visit a garden park with your teacher or parents and take along with you, a notebook and a pencil. In the park, you would see a large variety of plants some very small, some with average height and some very tall. These plants differ in their features like shape, size (small/medium/tall) and life span. Observe these features carefully (you may even take help from the Gardner) and note down in the table given below.
Classify these plants in their respective appearance and categories:
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Classification of Plants 1

Activity 2
Visit a nearby garden or park. Observe the different types of plants small and large, growing there. If permitted by the care-taker collect samples of as many types of plants as you can by plucking. Be sure that you do not damage the plant and collect only one specimen of each type. Take them to your school and record them according to their categories in your notebook
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Classification of Plants 2 

Activity 3

You will see two parts in gram seed. Each part of the seed in called cotyledon. In maize seed, you will see only one cotyledon. Can you tell which seed among them is monocotyledon and which is dicotyledon ?
Monocot : Dicot
Answer:
Monocot: maize seed Dicot: gram seed

Review Questions 

1.Tick (✓) the appropriate answer :

(i) The two main categories of plants recognised on the basis of whether they produce fruits or not:
a) Biennials and annuals
b) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
c) Herbs and shrubs
d) Bryophyta and pteridophyta

(ii) Unicellular organisms with a proper nucleus are known as :
(a) Protista
(b) Monera
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

(iii) Amoeba belongs to :
(a) Monera
b) Protista
(c) Fungi
(d) Algae

Short Answer Questions

1. Name the categories of the following:

  1.  Plants which do not have roots, stems, and leaves: Thallophyta.
  2.  Plants with no roots, but have stems and leaves: Bryophyta  or Mosses.
  3.  Plants with roots, stems, and leaves, and which bear spore- producing bodies: Pteridophyta or Ferns.
  4.  The amphibians of the plant kingdom mosses (Bryophytes)

2. Give two characterists and one example of each of the following:

(i) Algae:
Ans. Example: Spirogyra
(a) these are found in stagnant water of ponds, growing as green scum
(b) they have chlorophyll

(ii) Fungi:
Ans. Example: Mushroom
(a) They cannot prepare their food
(b) Most fungi live on dead and decaying organic matter

(iii) Monocot:
Ans. Example: Maize
(a) They have seeds with one cotyledon
(b) Cotyledon usually becomes the embryonic first leaves of a seedling

(iv) Dicot
Ans. (a) They contain two cotyledons in their seed.
(b) They have network like (reticulate) venation in their leaves.
Examples : gram, rose, mango.

(v) Bryophyta
Ans. (a) They have stems and leaves but no roots.
(b) They are non-flowering plants.
Examples : mosses, liverworts.

(vi) Pteridophyta
Ans. (a) They are non-flowering plants i.e. do not produce flowers are seeds. They reproduce through spores
(b) They have feather like leaves divided into leaflets. Example : ferns

(vii) Thallophytes
Ans. (a) These plants do not have roots, stems or leaves.
(b) They are non-flowering plants.
Examples : Bacteria, fungi, algae

3. Differentiate between

(i) Algae and fungi

Algae

  1.  Usually green having chlorophyll
  2.  Found in stagnant water of ponds.
  3.  Are usually Autotrophs e.g. Spirogyra

Fungi

  1. Do not have chlorophyll
  2. Found on dead and decaying organic matter.
  3. Are usually saprophytes. e.g. Bread mould

(ii) Monocot and dicot plants.

Monocot
The plants which contain only one cotyledon in their seeds.
example: Grass, Maize

Dicot
The plants which contain two cotyledons in their seeds.
example: Brinjal, Mango

(iii) Autotrophs and heterotrophs

Autotrophs

  1. They can make their own food using solar energy.
  2.  These include green plants having chlorophyll.
  3.  They are also called producers.

Heterotrophs

  1. They cannot make their own food and depend on autotrophs or other heterotrophs for food.
  2. These include animals and non-green plants.
  3. They are called consumers.

(iv) bacteria and amoeba

Bacteria

  1. Bacteria are one of the smallest and structurally the simplest organisms.
  2.  Bacteria are unicellular cells
  3.  They are found every-where air, water, soil, the bodies of humans, plants and animals.
  4.  They are visible only under a high powered light microscope

Amoeba 

  1.  Amoeba is one of the simplest animals.
  2. It is made up of just one single cell.
  3. Amoeba is found in ponds, ditches and other places with stagnating water.
  4.  They can be seen under the microscope only

(v) mosses and ferns
mosses

  1.  Mosses grow as green, velvety layers in moist places such as damp soil, on the bark of trees, and on damp walls.
  2. These plants have stems and leaves, but no roots

ferns

  1.  Ferns are grown in most of the gardens for their beautiful leaves.
  2. They bear well-formed leaves, stems and roots.

(vi) Angiosperms and gymnosperms
Angiosperms

  1. These plants bear seeds inside a fruit.
  2.  Leaves are usually broad.
  3. They usually shed their leaves every autumn.
  4. Examples: rose, sunflower, sugarcane.

gymnosperms

  1. These plants bear naked seeds called cones. Fruit is absent.
  2.  Leaves are usually needle like. They usually remain green throughout the year.
    Examples: Pine, cedar, fir.

Long Answer Questions
(Write the answers in your note book)

Question 1.

What name is given to bacteria found in the root nodules of pea plants ? State their importance.
Answer:
Rhizobium bacteria are found living in the root nodules (small swollen structures on roots) of leguminous plants like the pea, bean etc. These bacteria trap the nitrogen from the atmosphere and convert it into nitrates (mineral salts) which can be easily absorbed by the plants from the soil along with the water. It is observed here that the bacteria provide food to the host plant and the host plant in turn provides shelter for the bacteria. This kind of relationship wherein two organisms live in harmony each benefiting from such a relationship is called symbiosis. The organisms are called symbionts.

Question 2.
Briefly explain four types of bacteria on basis of their shape.
Answer:
There are four common forms of bacteria – coccus, bacillus, spirillum and vibrio.

  1. Coccus form: These bacteria are spherical or ovoid in shape.
  2. Bacillus form (bacillus : rod) These are rod-shaped. These may also occur singly or in group of two’s or three’s, joined end to end in long chains.
  3. Spirillum form: These are spiral-shaped.
  4. Vibrio form: These are short, curved, appearing comma- shaped. Chloera bacteria (Vibrio cholerae) are of vibrio type.

 Question 3.
Give reasons for the following:

(i) Bryophytes are called amphibians of plant kingdom.
(ii) Amoeba does not have any regular shape.
Answer:

  1. Since bryophytes grow on land but need water for reproduction (like frogs in animals), they are called the amphibians of plant kingdom.
  2. The body of Amoeba is irregular in shape. The outer covering of the body is the cell membrane. A prominent nucleus lies in the center surrounded by cytoplasm.

Question 4.
What is a contractile vacoule ? State its function in amoeba.
Answer:
Excess of water from the body of the amoeba is collected in the contractile vacuole. Ammonia is soluble in water. Hence, sometimes ammonia is expelled out along with the water from the contractile vacuole.
Function: The contractile vacuole expands when there is water in it and shrinks when the water is released into the surrounding.

Question 5.
List out Jive uses each of bacteria and fungi in our lives.
Answer:
The uses of Bacteria are :

  •  Lactobacilus bacteria is used for curdling of milk (formation of curd from milk). It converts the milk sugar (lactose) into lactic acid, giving the sour taste to the curd.
  •  Certain bacteria like Acetobacter ferment fruit juices into vinegar (acetic acid).
  • Tanning of leather: Certain bacteria are used in curing of animal hides and skin.
  • Retting of fibres: Jute fibres are separated and made softer by the use of bacteria.
  • Formation of compost and manure: Cow dung, horse dung and agricultural wastes are subjected to bacterial action which causes their decay and produce very useful manure.

The uses of Fungi are:

  • Fungi are an important source of food. Some mushrooms such as Morechella and Agaricus are edible.
  • Yeast, a unicellular fungus, is important in bakeries as it is used in the making of bread. It is also important in the breweries for making alcohol.
  • Yeast also produces vitamin B.
  • Fungi, like bacteria, are also good decomposes. They decompose dead organic matter and return the nutrients back into the soil.
  • Penicillin an important antibiotic is obtained from a fungus called Penicillium notatum.

 

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – The Circulatory System

Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions – The Circulatory System

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology. You can download the Selina Concise Biology ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Biology for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 6 Biology ICSE SolutionsChemistryPhysicsMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Biology Chapter 6 The Circulatory System

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) Function of WBCs is to
(i) Transport oxygen
(ii) Help in clotting of blood
(iii) Provide immunity
(iv) Provide storage of food.

(b) Blood Capillary is a
(i) Broad tube
(ii) Artery with thick wall
(iii) Vein with large lumen
(iv) Narrow tube made up of endothelium only.

(c) Nucleus is absent in
(i) RBCs
(ii) VBCs
(iii) All blood cells
(iv) Liver cells.

(d) The only artery which carries deoxygenated blood is called,
(i) Hepatic artery
(ii) Pulmonary artery
(iii) Aorta
(iv) Renal artery

(e) Sphygmomanometer ni’sures
(i) Pulse rate
(ii) Heart beat
(iii) Blood pressure
(iv) Brain activity

(f) Pulmonary vein carries
(i) Oxygenated blood
(ii) Deoxygenated blood
(iii) Glucose-rich blood
(iv) C02 laden blood

(g) The blood tastes saltish due to the dissolved:
(i) Sodium chloride
(ii) Potassium chloride
(iii) Ammonium nitrate
(iv) Sodium nitrate

Short Answer Questions:

1. Differentiate between the following pair of terms:
Question 1(a)
Patelets and WBC
Answer:
Platelets

  1. These are colourless, oval or round, cytoplasmic fragments found floating in the blood.
  2. These play a major role in blood clotting.
  3. Their life span is 3-5 days and it is called thrombocytes.

WBC

  1. WBC are colourless and lack haemoglobin, larger in quantity, and have distinct oval and lobed nucleus.
  2. They prevent body from disease causing germs by providing immunity
  3. Their life span is short i.e. 5 to 20 days.

Question 1(b)
Pulmonary artery and pulmonary vein
Answer:
Pulmonary artery

  1. This involves circulation of blood from the heart to the lungs.
  2. It carries deoxygenated blood.

Pulmonary vein

  1. This involves circulation of blood to the heart from the lungs.
  2. It carries oxygenated blood.

Question 1(c)
Vena Cava and Aorta
Answer:
Vena Cava

  1. Vena Cava is a large vein.
  2. It carries deoxygenated blood from the upper and lower parts of the body i.e. head and shoulders.

Aorta

  1. Aorta is the large artery.
  2. It carries oxygenated blood to all parts of the body through its branches.

Question 1(d)
RBC and WBC
Answer:
RBC

  1. They do not have nucleus at maturity.
  2. They possess haemoglobin and are red.
  3. They help in transport of respiratory gases.

WBC

  1. They have a large characteristic nucleus.
  2. They are colourless as they have no pigment.
  3. They help in defence mechanism.

Question 2.
Give any three differences between an artery and a vein:
Answer:
Following are the differences between the artery and a vein:
Artery

  1. Arteries carry blood from the heart to various body parts.
  2. These carry oxygenated blood (except the pulmonary artery).
  3. Blood flows with high speed and under high pressure.

Vein

  1. Veins carry blood from different body parts to the heart.
  2. These carry deoxygenatec blood (except the pulmonary vein).
  3. Blood flows with low speech and under low pressure.

Question 3.
Blood consists of two parts — a liquid part and a cellular part. Name these parts and briefly write about them.
Answer:

  1. Plasma: The plasma is a light-yellow coloured, alkaline liquid which mainly consists of:
    • Water- 90-92%
    • Proteins – 7-8%
    • Inorganic salts – 1%
    • Other substances – traces
  2. Cellular elements : These elements are of three categories:
    • Red blood cells (erythrocytes)
    • White blood cells (leukocytes)
    • Blood platelets (thrombocytes)

Question 4.
What is the role of haemoglobin in the blood ?
Answer:
The haemoglobin is the respiratory pigment which is formed of the iron containing part known as haemin and protein part known as globin. It helps to transport respiratory gases (oxygen).

5. Fill in the blanks with suitable words given below:

  1. The colour of a red blood cell is due to haemoglobin.
  2. The two lower chambers of the heart are called ventricles.
  3. The blood plasma contains a dissolved substance such as nutrient, proteins, waste products and harmones.
  4. The pulmonary artery takes the blood from the ventricles to the lungs.
  5. The instrument used to find out the blood pressure is known as sphygmomanometer.
  6. The blood loaded with carbon dioxide from the body comes into the right auricle of the heart.
  7. The oxygen-rich blood from the lungs comes into the left ventricle of the heart.
  8. The oxygen-rich blood is pumped into different parts of the body through aorta.
  9. The carbon dioxide loaded blood from right ventricle is pumped into the lungs through pulmonary artery.
  10. The liquid part of coagulated blood is known as serum.

Question 6.
In which organ of our body does blood get oxygenated?
Answer:
Blood becomes oxygenated in the lungs. The oxygenated blood is returned to left verticles by the pulmonary vein.

Question 7.
Which side of the heart (left or right) contains oxygenated blood?
Answer:
The left side of the heart contains oxygenated blood.

Question 8.
Name the disease in which the number of platelets reduces to 25,000 – 30,000 per cubic mm of blood. State its major symptoms.
Answer:
Dengue fever is one such disease in which the number of platelets get reduced to as low as 25-30 thousands per cubic mm of blood. The major symptoms of dengue are high fever, rashes or red spots on body, nausea or vomiting, pain in abdomen, back, or back of the eyes and muscles.

Long answer Questions

Question 1.
Name the three kinds of blood vessels found in human beings. With the help of suitable diagrams, differentiate between them.
Answer:
The three kind of blood vessels found in human beings are arteries, veins and capillaries.

  1. Arteries are the blood vessels that carry blood from the heart to the various parts of the body.
  2. Veins are the blood vessels that carry blood from the body parts to the heart.

Capillaries: These are the terminal branches of an artery, which rejoin to form a vein. A capillary is a very narrow tube whose walls have a single layer of cells with no muscles. Although the wall of a capillary is very thin, yet an exchange of nutrients, waste products and gases take place between the blood and the body fluids.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Circulatory System 1

Differences:
Arteries

  1. Carry blood away from the heart.
  2. Have thick and more muscular walls.
  3. Carry oxygenated blood (except pulmonary artery which carries deoxygenated blood).
  4. The blood flows with j erks and under great force.

Veins

  1. Carry blood towards the heart.
  2. Have thin and less muscular walls.
  3. Carry deoxygenated blood (except pulmonary vein which carries oxygenated blood).
  4. The blood flows smoothly and under little pressure.

Capillaries :

  1. Arteries after entering an organ divide into number of smaller branches called arterioles which further divide repeatedly to form a network of fine branches called capillaries.
  2. The walls of the capillaries are very thin and are one cell deep.
  3. The Capillaries after the metabolic exchange unite to form larger vessels called venules, which again unite to form a vein.

PQ. During surgical operations or during accidents, the patient may be given blood from outside to save his life. What is the technical name of this process ? Briefly explain the precautions to be taken in this process.
Answer:
During surgical operation or an accident when excess of bleeding takes place, the patient may be given blood from outside to save his life.
The transfer of blood from the donor to the recipient is called blood transfusion.
The following precautions are taken before the blood is given to the needy person:

  1. Matching of the donor’s blood with that of the recipient should be done.
  2. It should be made sure clinically that blood of donor is free from any infection.
  3. Sterilization of all the instruments to be used during the operation is must.

Question 2.
State briefly, the difference between white blood cells and the red blood cells.
Difference between white blood cells and the red blood cells
Answer:
RBC

  1. They do not have nucleus atmaturity.
  2. They possess haemoglobin and are red.
  3. They help in transport of respiratory gases.
  4. Life span is 120 days.
  5. They are about 5 million/mm3of blood.
  6. In the embryonic stage the RBC are formed in the liver and spleen. But after birth, they are formed in the red bone marrow.

WBC

  1. They have a large characteristic nucleus.
  2. They are colourless as they have no pigment.
  3. They help in defence mechanism.
  4. WBC have a short life.span of 5 to 20 days.
  5. They are about 7000/mm3of blood.
  6. WBC are formed in the red bone marrow.

Question 3.
You can see some blood vessels on the outside of the hands specially in older people. Are those veins or arteries ? How can you confirm your answer ?
Answer:
In older persons the skin becomes loose as the fat below becomes less with age and the vessels passing through these areas especially on the outside of the hands become prominent. These are veins as they flow superficially. The veins are thin and less muscular. These carry the blood to the heart veins are placed superficially so they are easily visible to the eye and are prominent.
The blood in the veins will be carrying COand will have many substances like sugar, amino acids, chemicals and bacteria.

Question 4.
Given alongside is a diagram of human heart showing its internal structures. Label the parts marked 1 to 6, and answer the following questions.
Selina Concise Biology Class 6 ICSE Solutions - The Circulatory System 2
(a) Which types of blood is carried by the blood vessel marked 2?
(b) Name the main artery which takes the blood from heart to different parts of the body?
(c) Which chamber of the heart receives deoxygenated blood from the body?
(d) Which chamber of the heart receives oxygenated blood from the lungs ?

Answer:

  1. Left pulmonary artery
  2. superior vena cava
  3. Left pulmonary vein
  4. Right auricle
  5. Left auricle
  6. Left ventricle

(a) Deoxygentated blood.
(b) Aortic arch (Aorta).
(c) Right Atrium.
(d) Left Atrium

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Language of Chemistry

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Language of Chemistry

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 5 Language of Chemistry. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 5 Language of Chemistry

Points to Remember:

  • The valency of an element is the number of electrons donated or accepted by its ‘atom’ during chemical combination.
  • There are some elements with more than one valency e.g., iron, copper, tin, lead.
  • Two or more different non-metals that collectively accept or donate one or more electrons and become negatively or positively charged in the process are called radicals.
  • A chemical reaction involves the transformation of original substance into an altogether new substance(s).
  • A chemical reaction can be represented with the help of the symbols or the formulae of the elements and the compounds taking part in that reaction. This gives a chemical equation.
  • Certain necessary conditions for a chemical reaction to happen are — close contact, solution form, heat, light and catalyst.
  • Characteristics of chemical reactions are — change of colour, evolution of a gas, formation of a precipitate, change of state, change of smell and evolution/absorption of heat.
  • A complete chemical equation symbolically represents the reactants, products and their physical states.
  • The substances that react with each other are called reactants and they are represented on the left hand side of the equation. The substances that are formed as a result of the reaction are called products. They are represented on the right hand side of the equation.
  • A chemical equation needs to be balanced to make it follow the law of the conservation of mass.
  • The law of conservation of mass states that mass can be neither created nor destroyed, it can only be transformed from one form to another.
  • A chemical equation gives both qualitative and quantitative information about the reactants and products.

ACTIVITY 1
Write the names and symbols of the first twenty elements that you have studied in class VI & VII.
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-1

ACTIVITY 2
Write the molecular formulae of:

  1. Copper oxide
  2. Iron (III) chloride
  3. Sodium hydroxide
  4. Iron (II) sulphide
  5. Lead (II) oxide
  6. Hydrogen nitrate (nitric acid)
  7. Hydrogen sulphate (sulphuric acid)
  8. Calcium hydroxide
  9. Magnesium carbonate
  10. Ammonium carbonate

Answer:

  1. Copper oxide – CuO
  2. Iron (III) chloride – FeCl3
  3. Sodium hydroxide – NaOH
  4. Iron (II) sulphide – FeS
  5. Lead (II) oxide – PbO
  6. Hydrogen nitrate (nitric acid) – HNO3
  7. Hydrogen sulphate (sulphuric acid) – H2SO4
  8. Calcium hydroxide – Ca(OH)2
  9. Magnesium carbonate – MgCO3
  10. Ammonium carbonate – (NH4)2CO3

ACTIVITY 3
Write the molecular formula for each of the following compounds:

  1. Sulphur trioxide
  2. Iron (II) sulphide and
  3. Ammonia

Find the number and names of elements present in them and calculate their molecular masses.
Answer:
1. Sulphur trioxide

  1. A molecule of sulphur trioxide is represented by the formula SO3.
  2. The elements present in it are sulphur dioxide and oxygen.
  3. One molecule of sulphur trioxide has one atom of sulphur and three atoms of oxygen.
  4. Molecular mass of sulphur trioxide (SO3)
    = 32 + 3 x 16
    = 32 + 48 = 80 amu.

2. Iron (II) sulphide

  1. A molecule of iron (II) sulphide is represented by the formula FeS.
  2. The elements present in it are iron and sulphur.
  3. One molecule of iron (II) sulphide has one atom of iron and one atom of sulphur.
  4. Molecular mass of iron (II) sulphide (FeS)
    = 55.5 + 32
    = 87.5 amu.

3. Ammonia

  1. A molecule of ammonia is represented by the formula NH3.
  2. The elements present in it are nitrogen and hydrogen.
  3. One molecule of ammonia has one atom of nitrogen and three atoms of hydrogen.
  4. Molecular mass of ammonia (NH3)
    = 14 + 3 x 1
    = 14 + 3
    = 17 amu.

Exercise

Question 1.
Define:
(a) Radical
(b) Valency
(c) Molecular formula
Answer:
(a) Radical: A radical is an atom of an element or a group of atoms of different elements that behaves as a single unit with a positive or negative charge on it.
(b) Valency: It is the number of electrons donated or accepted by the valence shell of an atom during chemical combination.
(c) Molecular formula: It is a symbolic representation of a molecule. It shows the number of atoms of each element present in it. These atoms combine in whole number to form the molecule.

Question 2.
Give the symbols and valencies of following radicals:
(a) Hydroxide (b) Chloride
(c) Carbonate (d) ammonium
(e) Nitrate
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-2

Question 3.
Write the molecular formula for the oxide and sulphide of following elements.
(a) Sodium (b) Calcium
(c) Hydrogen
Answer:
(a) Sodium oxide Na2O
Sodium sulphide Na2S
(b) Calcium oxide CaO
Calcium sulphide CaS
(c) Hydrogen oxide H2O
Hydrogen sulphide H2S

Question 4.
Write the molecular formulae for the following compounds and name the elements present.
(a) Baking soda (b) Common salt
(c) Sulphuric acid (d) Nitric acid
Answer:
(a) Baking soda — NaHCO3
Elements present in Baking soda are sodium, hydrogen, oxygen and carbon.
(b) Common salt — NaCl
Element present are: Sodium and chlorine.
(c) Sulphuric acid — H2SO4
Element present are: Hydrogen, sulphur and oxygen.
(d) Nitric acid — HNO3
Elements present are: Hydrogen, nitrogen and oxygen.

Question 5.
The valency of aluminium is 3. Write the valency of other radicals present in the following compounds.
(a) Aluminium chloride
(b) Aluminium oxide
(c) Aluminium nitride
(d) Aluminium sulphate
Answer:
(a) Aluminium chloride — (AlCl3) here valency of Al is 3.
Other radical – Chloride (Cl)
Valency of chloride = 1
(b) Aluminium oxide — (Al2O3)
Here valency of Al is 3
Other radical present = oxide (O2-)
Valency of O2- = 2
(c) Aluminium nitride — (Al N)
Here valency of aluminium = 3
Another radical = Nitride (N3-)
Valency of nitride (N3-) = 3
(d) Aluminium sulphate — Al2(SO4)3
Here valency of aluminium is 3
Another radical = Sulphate (SO42-)
Valency of (SO42-) = 2

Question 6.
What is variable valency ? Give two examples of elements showing variable valency.
Answer:
Certain elements exhibit more than one valency, that means they show variable valency.
Ferrous is written as Iron (II) and Ferric is written as Iron (III).

Metal Radicals Valency
Iron Ferrous [Iron (II)]
Ferric [Iron (III)]
2
3
Copper Cuprous [Copper (I)]
Cupric [Copper (II)]
1
2

Question 7.
(a) What is a chemical equation ?
(b) Why it is necessary to balance a chemical equation ?
(c) What are the limitations of a chemical equation ?
Answer:
(a) Chemical Equation— A chemical equation is the symbolic representation of a chemical reaction using the symbols and the formulae of the substances involved in the reaction.
(b) A chemical equation needs to be balanced so as to make the number of the atoms of the reactants equal to the number of the atoms of the products.
(c)

  1. It does not inform about the physical states of the reactants and the product i.e. whether they are solids, liquids and gases.
  2. It does not inform about the concentration of reactants and products.
  3. It does not inform about the time taken for the completion of the reaction.
  4. It does not inform about the rate at which a reaction proceeds.
  5. It does not inform about the heat changes during the reaction i. e. whether the heat is given out or absorbed.
  6. It does not inform about the conditions such as temperature, pressure, catalyst etc. which affect the reaction.
  7. It does not inform about the nature of the reaction i.e. whether it is reversible or irreversible.

Question 8.
What are the ways by which a chemical equation can be made more informative ?
Answer:
A chemical equation can give more informations in the following ways:

  1. The physical state of the reactants and products can be indicated by putting (s) for solid, (l) for liquid, (g) for gas and (aq) for aqueous state.
  2. Evolution or absorption of heat during the reaction can be denoted by adding or subtracting a heat term on the product side.
  3. Temperature, pressure and catalyst can be indicated above the arrow (→ or =) separating the reactants and products.
  4. Concentration of reactants and products are indicated by adding word (dil) for dilute and (cone) for concentrated before their formulae.
  5. By the sign → or \(\rightleftharpoons \) information about irreversible and reversible reactions can be obtained.

Question 9.
State the law of conservation of mass.
Answer:
Law of conservation of mass: It states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. During any change (physical or chemical), matter is neither created nor destroyed. However it may change from one form to another.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-3
Experimental Verification of Law of Conservation of Mass

Requirements: H-shaped tube called Landolt’s tube, Sodium chloride solution, silver nitrate solution, etc.
Procedure: A specially designed H-shaped tube is taken. Sodium chloride solution is taken in one limb of the tube and silver nitrate solution in the other limb as shown in figure.
Both the limbs are now sealed and weighed. Now the tubes is averted so that the solutions can mix up together and react chemically. The reaction takes place and a white precipitate of silver chloride is obtained.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-4
The tube is weighed again. The mass of the tube is found to be exactly the same as the mass obtained before inverting the tube.
Thus, this experiment clearly verifies the law of conservation of mass.

Question 10.
Differentiate between:
(a) Reactants and products
(b) A balanced and an unbalanced chemical equation
Answer:
(a) Reactants and products

Reactants

  1. The substances that react with one another are called reactants.
  2. Reactants are written on the left hand side of equation.

Products

  1. The new substances formed are called products.
  2. Products are written on the right hand side of equation.

(b) A balanced and an unbalanced chemical equation

Balanced chemical

  1. A balanced chemical reaction is the one in which the number of atoms of each element on the reactant side is equal to the number of atoms of that element on the product side.
  2. Ex- H2 + Cl2 → HCl

Unbalanced chemical

  1. Number of elements on reactant side are not equal to the number of elements on product side.
  2. Ex- H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

Question 11.
Balance the following equations:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-5
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-language-of-chemistry-6

Question 12.
12. Write balanced chemical equations for the following word equations:
(a) Iron + Chlorine → Iron (III) chloride
(b) Magnesium + dil sulphuric acid → Magnesium sulphate + water
(c) Magnesium + oxygen → Magnesium oxide
(d) Calcium oxide + water → Calcium hydroxide
(e) Sodium + chlorine → Sodium chloride
Answer:
(a) Iron + Chlorine → Iron (III) chloride
4Fe + 3Cl2 → 2F2Cl3
(b) Magnesium + dil sulphuric acid → Magnesium sulphate + water
2Mg + 2H2SO4 → 2MgSO4 + 2H2
(c) Magnesium + oxygen → Magnesium oxide
2Mg + O2 → 2MgO
(d) Calcium oxide + water → Calcium hydroxide
CaO + H2O → Ca(OH)2
(e) Sodium + chlorine → Sodium chloride
2Na + Cl2 → 2NaCl

Question 13.
What information do you get from the following chemical equation:
Zn(s) + 2HCl (dil) → ZnCl2 (aq) + H2(g)
Answer:
This gives zinc chloride and hydrogen. The word equation is:
Zinc + Hydrochloric acid → Zinc chloride + Hydrogen
Formulae for the products are ZnCl2 and H2

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Matter and Its Composition

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Matter and Its Composition

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Chemistry. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Chemistry Chapter 1 Matter and Its Composition

Points to Remember :

  1. Matter has mass and occupies space.
  2. Matter is made up of atoms and molecules.
  3. Atoms are the smallest particles of matter which may or may not have independent existence.
  4. Molecules are capable of independent existence. They are made up of atoms of same kind or different kinds.
  5. The atoms and molecules are in random motion.
  6. There are gaps between the molecules of matter called as intermolecular space.
  7. There exists a force of attraction between the molecules known as intermolecular force of attraction.
  8. Matter exists in three states : solids, liquid and gas.
  9. Matter can change from one state to another on changing temperature and pressure.
  10. The change of state of a matter from one form into another is called interconversion of states of matter.

EXERCISE

Question 1.
Define matter.
Answer:
Anything that has mass and occupies space is called matter.

Question 2.
What is the difference between mass and weight.
Answer:
Mass is the “quantity of matter” and weight is “the force with which the earth pulls a body towards itself’. The mass of a body does not change but its weight changes from place to place.

Question 3.
If an object weighs 6 N on earth what will be its weight on moon. What will be the change in its mass?
Answer:
Weight of body on moon = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\)th of its weight on earth.
∴ Body will weigh \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\) of 6 = \(\frac { 1 }{ 6 }\) x 6 = 1 N on moon
Mass of a body does not change with change in gravity. So mass of a body will remain the same on moon.

Question 4.
Write your observation and conclusion for the following:
(a) When few marbles are put in a glass half filled with water.
(b) Ice is kept at room temperature.
Answer:
(a) Take some marbles and put them into the water of glass tumbler one by one. After some time you will notice that water level crosses the mark and rises. This is because the marbles occupy space. Again weigh the glass with the marbles. You will find that the second mass is greater than the first one. This proves that, marbles have mass.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Matter and Its Composition-img 4
This proves that, matter has mass and occupies space.
(b) Ice when kept at room temperature again changes back into liquid water.

Question 5.
State three main characteristics of the particles of matter.
Answer:
Characteristics of Matter

  1. It can neither be created nor destroyed.
  2. It is composed of a particular material which can either be Homogeneous or Heterogeneous.
  3. Matter has, volume, mass and weight as per their state.

Question 6.
Differentiate between an atom and a molecule.
Answer:

Atom Molecule
  1. It is the smallest part of an element.
  2. It does not have independent existence.
  1. It is the smallest part of a compound.
  2. It has an independent existence.

 Question 7.
Define :
(a) Solid
(b) Liquid
(c) Gas

Answer:
Giving two examples of each type.
(a) Solid : A solid is that state of matter which has a fixed shape, mass and volume. It suffers very small changes in volume by changing the temperature. It can not be compressed,
e.g. – Sand, Wood, Copper, Ice, etc.
(b) Liquid : It has a definite mass and volume but lacks a shape of its own. It takes up the shape of the containing vessels. It can be compressed to an extents,
e.g. – Milk, water, ink, etc.
(c) Gas : It is a state of matter which has only definite mass but no definite shape and volume. It takes up the shape of the container
e.g. – Carbon dioxide, oxygen, etc.

Question 8.
Why are liquids and gases called as fluids.
Answer:
The particles are free to move in any direction i.e. they can
flow because all substances that can flow are called fluids.
Liquids and gases are fluids.

Question 9.
(a) Define interconversion of states of matter.
(b) Why do solids, liquids and gases differ in their physical state?
(c) Under what conditions do solids, liquids and gases change their state.
Answer:
(a) The process by which matter changes from one state to another and back to original state, without any change in its chemical composition.
(b)Intermolecular force of attraction.
Intermolecular spaces are two important properties of matter that account for the different states of matter.
(c) Matter can change from one state to another on changing temperature and pressure.

Question 10.
Give reasons :
(a) When a stone is dipped in a glass containning some water the level of water rises but when a spoon of sugar is added to it and stired, the water level does not rise?
(b) A drop of ink added to water in a glass turns whole water blue.
Answer:
(a) Take half a glass of water. Dip a spoon in it. What do you observe? The water level rises, indicating that spoon occupies space.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Matter and Its Composition-img 10
Now remove the spoon, water comes down to its original level. Now add a spoon of sugar to it and stir well. The sugar disappears but the level of water in the glass does not rise, that means the volume of water has not increased. But where did the sugar particles disappear?
The sugar particles being smaller get adjusted between the water molecules. This shows that there are intermolecular space in water.
(b) This is because tfie water as well as ink particles (molecules) are in continuous random motion. Due to motion, the blue coloured particles of the ink spreads all over and give blue colour to the water.

Question 11.
Fill in the blanks :

(a) Air is a matter because it has weight, mass and space and it can be compressed.
(b) The molecules are made up of atoms.
(c) The quantity of matter in an object is called its mass.
(d) The state of matter with definite volume and definite shape is called solid.
(e) The substances which can flow are called fluids.

Question 12.
Name the terms for the following :
(a) The change of a solid into liquid.
(b) The force of attraction between the molecules of matter.
(c) The particles of matter which may or may not have independent existence.
(d) The process due to which a solid directly changes into its vapours.
(e) The change of vapour into a liquid.
Answer:
(a) Melting.
(b) Intermolecular force of attraction.
(c) Solid.
(d) Sublimation.
(e) Condensation.

Question 13.
Classify the following into solid, liquid and gas :
Coal, kerosene, wood, oxygen, sugar, blood, water vapour, milk, wax.
Answer:
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Matter and Its Composition-img 13

 

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Light Energy

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Light Energy

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 4 Light Energy

  • Points to Remember
  •  Light is a form of energy which helps us to see objects.
  •  Light always travels in a straight line in the form of rays.
  •  Light sources are either natural or artificial.
  •  The sun and stars are natural sources of light.
  •  A bulb, a candle etc. are artificial sources of light.
  •  The bodies which emit light themsleves are called Luminous Bodies, e.g. sun, star.
  •  The bodies which do not emit light are called non-luminous bodies, e.g. wood, brick etc.
  •  Objects are of three types, transparent, translucent or opaque.
  •  The pinhole camera is a simple application of the rectilinear propagation of light.
  •  When an object blocks light, it casts a shadow.
  •  Eclipses are formed due to formation of shadows.
  •  Solar and lunar eclipses are the examples of formation of shadow in nature.
  •  An eclipse is the partial or complete hiding of one heavenly body by shadow of another.
  •  When light strikes a polished surface it comes back in the same medium, is called reflection of light.
  •  A straight highly polished, smooth and reflecting surface is known as a plane mirror.
  •  Mirrors are of two types (a) plane mirrors (b) spherical mirrors.
  •  Smooth and polished surface like a mirror causes reflection and is called a regular reflection.
  •  Rough or diffused surface causes an irregular reflection.
  •  According to first law of reflection. The incident ray, the normal and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
  •  According to the second law of reflection, the angle of incidence is always equal to the angle of reflection.
  •  The phenomenon due to which the left side of an object appears to be the right side of the object and right side appears left. This is known as lateral inversion.
  •  Image is of two types (a) Real image (b) Virtual image.

Test Yourself

A. Objective Questions 

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) The image formed by a plane mirror is real.
Answer. False.
The image formed by a plane mirror is virtual.

(b) When a light ray is reflected from a wall, the angle of incidence is not equal to the angle of reflection.
Answer. False.
When a light ray is reflected from a wall, the angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

(c) The image of the right hand in a plane mirror looks like that of a left hand.
Answer. True.

(d) The image formed by a plane mirror is upright.
Answer. True.

(c) The image formed by a plane mirror can be obtained on a screen.
Answer. False.
The image formed by a plane mirror cannot be obtained on a screen.

(f) The objects are seen around us due to irregular reflection of light.
Answer. True.

(g) The speed of light in vacuum is 3 × 108 ms-1.
Answer. True.

(h) A rose appears red in light of all the colours.
Answer. False. A rose appears red in white light.

(i) A black paper absorbs light of all the colours and reflects none.
Answer. True.

(j) The primary colours are red, blue and green.
Answer. True.

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) Angle of incidence = angle of reflection
(b) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in one plane
(c) The image formed by a plane mirror is at a distance behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.
(d) The image formed by a plane mirror is erect and virtual.
(e) We are able to see the objects around us due to irregular reflection.
(f) A virtual image cannot be obtained on a screen.
(g) One surface of mirror is made opaque by silvering it followed by a thin coating of paint of lead oxide. .
(h) A plane mirror does not reflect 100 percent light falling on it.
(i) The colour of an opaque object is the colour of light which it reflects.
(j) Magenta, cyan and yellow are the secondary colours.

3. Match the following
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 1

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) A man standing in front of a plane mirror finds his image to be at a distance of 6 metre from himself. The distance of man from the mirror is

  1. 6 m
  2. 3 m
  3. 2 m
  4. 12 m

(b) The angle between the incident ray and the ray reflected from the plane mirror is 70°. The angle of incidence will be :

  1. 70°
  2. 30°
  3. 35°
  4. 90°

(c) The image formed by a plane mirror is

  1. virtual and inverted
  2. virtual and of same size
  3. real and inverted
  4. real and of same size

(d) The angle of incidence on a plane mirror is 30°.The angle of reflection will be:

  1. 30°
  2. 60°
  3. 15°

(e) The angle of incidence on a plane mirror is 30°. The angle between the incident ray and the reflected ray is

  1. 30°
  2. 15°
  3. 60°
  4. 90°

(f) The property due to which a light ray striking a surface is returned back into the same medium is called

  1. refraction
  2. reflex action
  3. reflection
  4. regression

(g) A ray of light after reflection from a mirror is known as

  1. reflected ray
  2. normal
  3. incident ray
  4. refracted ray

(h) The speed of light is maximum in

  1. glass
  2. water
  3. air
  4. wood

(i) A red rose is seen in green light. It will appear.

  1. red
  2. blue
  3. yellow
  4. black

(j) The primary colours are

  1. Red, Blue and Yellow
  2. Magenta, Yellow and Cyan
  3. Red, Blue and Cyan
  4. Blue, Green and Red

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term reflection of light ?
Answer:
Reflection of light— When light strikes a polished surface it comes back in the same medium, is called reflection of light.

Question 2.
How is a plane mirror made ?
Answer:
To make a plane mirror, a thin piece of glass is taken. One surface of the mirror is made opaque by silvering it. On the top of that, another thin coating of red lead oxide is given which protects the silvering of the mirror.

Question 3.
Explain the following terms:
Incident ray, Reflected ray, Angle of incidence, Angle of reflection, Normal.
Answer:
Incident ray— The ray of light falling on the surface AB is called the incident ray. In figure PN is the incident ray.
Reflected ray— The incident ray bouncing back in the same medium after striking the reflecting ourface is called reflected ray. In figure NQ is the reflected ray.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 2
Angle of incidence— The angle formed between the incident ray and the normal is the angle of incidence. (PNM is the angle of incidence.)
Angle of reflection— The angle formed between the normal and the reflected ray is called angle of reflection (MNQ is the angle of reflection)
Normal— It is the line drawn perpendicular to the reflecting surface at the point of incidence. MN is the normal.

Question 4.
Draw a diagram showing the reflection of a light ray from a plane mirror. Label on it the incident ray, the reflected ray, the normal, the angle of incidence i and the angle of reflection r.
Answer:
AO is the incident ray
OB is the reflected ray

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 3
ON is the normal
∠AON is the angle of incidence
∠NOB is the angle of reflection.

Question 5.
State the two laws of reflection of light.
Answer:
Laws of reflection—
(i) The incident ray, normal and the reflected ray all lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.

Question 6.
Describe an experiment to verify the laws of reflection of light. Ans. Laws of reflection.
Answer:
(i) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, lie in the same plane.
(ii) The angle of incidence and angle of reflection are equal i.e. ∠i = ∠r.
Verification
Take a wooden drawing board and fix a white sheet of paper on it. In the middle of paper draw a straight line KK\ Mark a point B on it. Draw a perpendicular BN. Place a mirror XX’ on line KK’ such that polished side of mirror is along the line. Hold-the mirror in the mirror holder.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 4
Fix two steel pins P and Q on the straight line AB atleast 10 cm apart. Look for the images of the pins P and Q and fix two pins P Q’ such that P’, Q’ and images of P and Q are all in the same straight line. Remove the pins and draw small circles around the pin pricks.
Remove the mirror also. Join P’Q’ and produce the straight line to meet at B.
Measure ∠ABN = i and ∠CBN = r.
It is found that ∠i = ∠r. This proves that Angle of Incidence is equal to Angle of Reflection.
As the incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal lie in the plane of paper, therefore, they lie in the same plane.

Question 7.
A ray of light falls normally on a plane mirror. What is the angle of incidence ?
Answer:
Angle of incidence is 0°. Since angle of incidence is’the angle between incident ray and normal. Direction of reflected ray is along BA opposite to the direction of incident ray.

Question 8.
Draw a diagram to show the reflection of a light ray incident normally on a plane mirror.
Answer:
AO is the incident ray
OB is the reflected ray

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 5
ON is the normal
∠AON is the angle of incidence
∠NOB is the angle of reflection.

Question 9.
The diagram in Fig. shows an incident ray AO and the reflected ray OB from a plane mirror. The angle AOB is 30°. Draw normal on the plane mirror at the point O and find :
Answer:
(i) the angle of incidence
(ii) the angle of reflection

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 6
ON is normal on the plane mirror at point O
ON is perpendicular on a plane mirror
Angle of incidence ∠i = ∠AON
and angle of reflection ∠r = ∠BON
Since, ∠i – ∠r
∠AOB = 30°
⇒ ∠AON + ∠BON = 30°
⇒∠i + ∠i – 30°
⇒ 2 ∠i =30°
⇒ ∠i = 30 / 2 = 15°
∴Angle of incidence = ∠i = 15°
and Angle of reflection ∠i = 15°

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 7

Question 10.
In the following diagrams, measure and write the angle of incidence and draw the reflected ray in each case.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 8

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 9

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 10

Question 11.
The diagram in fig. shows an incident ray AO and the normal ON on a plane mirror. Draw the reflected ray. State the law you use to draw the direction of the reflected ray.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 11
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 12
Law of reflection of light is used to draw the direction of the reflected ray.
This law states that angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection.
∠i = ∠r

Question 12.
The following diagram shows an incident ray AO and the normal ON on a plane mirror. Find the angle of incidence and angle of reflection.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 13
Answer:
ON is perpendicular on a plane mirror
Angle of incidence ∠i (∠AON) i.e.
Angle between incident ray and normal ray = 90° – 30° = 60°
Angle of Reflection = 60°
∴ ∠i = ∠r
∴ Angle between incident and reflected ray i.e. ∠AOB
= 60 + 60 = 120°

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 14

Question 13.
State in words, how do you find the location of image of an object formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:
The location of image of a point object is as far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

Question 14.
Draw a ray diagram showing the formation of image of a point object by a plane mirror.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 15

Question 15.
The following diagram shows a point object O placed in front of a plane mirror. Take two rays from the point O and show how the image of O is formed and seen by the eye.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 16
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 17

Question 16.
State four characteristics of the image formed by a plane mirror.
Answer:
(i) The image formed is erect.
(ii) The image is of the same size as that of the object.
(iii) The image is laterally inverted. Right side appears to be left and left side appeared to be right.

Question 17.
How is the position of image formed by a plane mirror related to the position of the object ?
Answer:
The image formed by a plane mirror is laterally inverted, upright, of the same size and is formed far behind the mirror as the object is in front of it.

Question 18.
You are standing at a distance 2 metre from a plane mirror.
(a) What is the distance of your image from the mirror ?
(b) What is the distance between you and your image ?
Answer:
(a) Distance of image from the mirror is also 2 metre.
(b) Distance between me and my image is 4 metre.

Question 19.
What is meant by lateral inversion of an image in a plane mirror ? Explain it with the help of a diagram.
Answer:
Lateral Inversion : Inter change of sides between the object and its image is called Lateral Inversion.
Example :

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 18
It means image formed behind the mirror is as far behind the mirror as object is in front of it.
i.e. distance of M = dist of M in distance of O in front of mirror = distance of O image, and so on.

Question 20.
Wirte down the letter C and I as seen in a plane mirror.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 19

Question 21.
What is irregular reflection ? Give an example.
Answer:
Irregular reflection – When a beam of light falls on such a surface which is not perfectly smooth and polished such as wall, wood, paper etc. the different portions of the surface reflect light in different directions. Such a reflection of light in different directions. Such a reflection of light from an uneven surface is called the irregular or diffused reflection.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 4 Light Energy 20

Question 22.
How do we see objects around us ?
Answer:
Objects are seen when light after striking them, returns in the same medium and reach our eyes.

Question 23.
State two uses of a plane mirror.
Answer:
It is used as :
(i) Looking glass
(ii) In periscopes.

Question 24.
Can light travel in vacuum ?
Answer:
Yes, light can travels in vacuum or air, a distance of nearly 299, 792, 458 metre (or nearly 3 x 108 metre) in one second. Thus, the speed of light in vacuum (or air) is 3 x 108 m s’1 nearly.

Question 25.
State the speed of light in (a) air, (b) glass.
Answer:
(a) Air — 3 × 108
(b) Glass — 2 × 108

Question 26.
State whether light slows down or speeds up in the following cases :
(a) Light going from air to glass.
(b) Light going from glass to water.
(c) Light going from water to air.
Answer:
(a) Slows down
(b) Speeds up
(c) Speeds up

Question 27.
What are the primary colours ? Name the three primary colours.
Answer:
Primary colours are the colours of light by mixing which white light is obtained. They are : (i) red (ii) green and (iii) blue.
Red + Green + Blue = White

Question 28.
What are the secondary colours ? Name the three secondary colours.
Answer:
Secondary colours are the colours of light which are obtained by mixing the two primary colours. They are (i) yellow, (ii) cyan, and (iii) magenta.

Question 29.
Fill in the blanks with the appropriate colour
(a) Blue + ………… = Cyan
(b) Red + Blue + …………. = Vhite
(c) Red + Blue = …………
(d) Green + Red = …………
Answer:
(a) Blue + Green = Cyan
(b) Red + Blue + Green = White
(e) Red + Blue = Magenta
(d) Green + Red = Yellow

Question 30.
The leaves appear green when seen in white light. Give a reason.
Answer:
Leaves appear green in white light because they reflect only the green light and absorb the light of all the other colours.

Question 31.
A rose appears red in white light. How will it appear in
(i) green light, (ii) red light ? Give a reason for your answer for each.
Answer:
(i) If a red rose is seen in green light, it appears black. The reason is that the rose absorbs the green light falling on it and reflect none.
(ii) If a red rose is seen in red light, it appears bright red. This is because the rose reflects the red light falling on it and absorbs none of it.

Question 32.
Why does a piece of paper appear white in sunlight ? How would you expect it to appear when viewed in red light?
Answer:
A piece of paper appears white in sunlight because it reflects light of all the colours. It would appear red when viewed in red light.

Question 33.
A piece of paper appears black in sunlight. What will be it£ colour when seen in red light ?
Answer:
A piece of paper appear black in sunlight. It would appear black when seen in red light because it absorbs light of all the colours.

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Atomic Structure

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Atomic Structure

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Chemistry Chapter 4 Atomic Structure. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 8 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Exercise

1. Fill in the blanks.

(a) Dalton said that atoms could not be divided
(b) An ion which has a positive charge is called a cation.
(c) The outermost shell of an atom is known as valence shell.
(d) The nucleus of an atom is very hard and dense.
(e) Neutrons are neutral particles having mass equal to that of protons.
(f) Isotopes are the atoms of an element having the same atomic number but a different mass number.

2. Write ‘true’ or ‘false’ for the following statements:

(a) An atom on the whole has a positive charge.
false
(b) The maximum number of electrons in the first shell can be 8.
false
(c) The central pad of the atom is called nucleus.
True.

3. Give the following a suitable word/phrase.

(a) The sub-atomic particle with negative charge and negligible mass.
(b) Protons and neutrons present in the nucleus.
(c) The electrons present in the outermost shell.
(d) Arrangement of electrons in the shells of an atom.
(e) The number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom.
(f) The sum of the number of protons and neutrons of an atom.
(g) Atoms of same element with same atomic number but a different mass number.
(h) The smallest unit of an element which takes part in a chemical reaction.

Answer:

(a) Neutron
(b) Mass number
(c) Valency
(d) Orbits or Valence shells
(e) Atomic number
(f) Mass number
(g) Isotopes
(h) Atom

4. Multiple Choice Questions

(a) The outermost shell of an atom is known as

  1. valency
  2. valence electrons
  3. nucleus
  4. valence shell

(b) The number of valence electrons present in magnesium is

  1. two
  2. three
  3. four
  4. five

(c) The sub atomic particle with negative charge is

  1. proton
  2. neutron
  3. electron
  4. nucleon

(d) If the atomic number of an atom is 17 and mass number is 35 then number of neutron will be

  1. 35
  2. 17
  3. 18
  4. 52

(e) The number of electrons in an atom is equal to number of

  1. protons in a neutral atom
  2. neutrons in a neutral atom
  3. nucleons in a neutral atom
  4. none of the above

(f) The sum of number of protons and number of neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom is called its

  1. mass number
  2. atomic number
  3. number of electrons
  4. all of the above

Question 5.
Name three fundamental particles of the atom. Give the symbol with charge, on each particle.
Answer:
The fundamental particles of the atom are: electrons, protons and neutrons.

Particle Symbol Charge
electron e -1 or 1.602 x 10-19 C. Where -1 represent its one unit negative electrical charge
proton p+ + 1 or 1.602 x 10-19 C. Where +1 represents one unit +ve electrical charge.
neutron no 0

Question 6.
Define the following terms:
(a) Atomic number
(b) Mass number
(c) Nucleons
(d) Valence shell
Answer:
(a) Atomic number: Atomic number refers to the number of protons present in an atom. It is denoted by Z. Example: An atom of oxygen contains 8 proton Therefore its atomic number is 8.
(b) Mass number: Mass number refers to the sum of the number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom and denoted by A Mass number = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
(c) Nucleons: The protons and neutrons collectively are known as nucleons.
(d) Valence Shell: The outermost shell of an atom is known as its valence shell.

Question 7.
Mention briefly the salient features of Dalton’s atomic theory (five points).
Answer:
Salient features of Dalton’s atomic theory:

  1. Matter consists of very small and indivisible particles called atoms, which can neither be created nor can be destroyed.
  2. The atoms of an element are alike in all respects i.e. size, mass, density, chemical properties but they differ from the atoms of other elements.
  3. Atoms of an element combine in small numbers to form molecules of the element.
  4. Atoms of one element combine with atoms of another element in simple whole number ratio to form molecules of compounds.
  5. Atoms are the smallest units of matter that can take part in a chemical reaction during which only rearrangement of atoms takes place.

Question 8.
(a) What are the two main features of Rutherford’s atomic model?
(b) State its one drawback.
Answer:
(a) According to Rutherford’s model an atom consists of:

  1. The centrally located nucleus: The nucleus is a centrally located positively charged mass. The entire mass of the atom is concentrated in it. It is the densest part of the atom. Its size is very small as compare to the atom as a whole.
  2. The outer circular orbits: Electrons revolve in circular orbits (shell) in the space available around the nucleus. An atom is electrically neutral i.e., number of protons and electrons present in an atom are equal.

(b) Rutherford’s atomic model could not explain the stability of the atom as it is like a solar system, the sun is at the centre and the planets revolve around it, in an atom the electrons revolve around the centrally located nucleus containing protons.

Question 9.
What are the observations of the experiment done by Rutherford in order to determine the structure of an atom?
Answer:
Following were the observations made by Rutherford:

  1. Most of the alpha particle passed straight through the foil without any deflection from their path.
  2. A small fraction of them were deflected from their original path by small angles.
  3. Only a few particles bounced back.

Question 10.
State the mass number, the atomic number, number of neutrons and electronic configuration of the following atoms.
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-1
Also, draw atomic diagrams for them.
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-2
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-3

Question 11.
What is variable valency? Name two elements having variable valency and state their valencies.
Answer:
Variable valency: Some elements exhibit more than one valency. They are said to have variable valency, e.g. Iron, copper, tin, lead.
Iron         Fe       Fe2+ or Fe3+
Copper   cu        cu+ or cu2+

Question 12.
The atomic number and the mass number of sodium are 11 and 23 respectively. What information is conveyed by this statement.
Answer:
Atomic number = 11; No of protons = 11
Mass number = 23 = Number of protons + Number of neutrons.
No of neutrons = 23-11 = 12.

Question 13.
Draw the diagrams representing the atomic structures of the following:
(a) Nitrogen (b) Neon
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-4

Question 14.
Explain the rule with example according to which electrons are filled in various energy levels,
Answer:
The maximum number of electrons that can be present in any shell or orbit of an atom is given by the formula 2n2, where n is the serial number of the shell.
Therefore:
K shell, n = 1, no. of electrons = 2 x 12 = 2
L shell, n = 2, no. of electrons = 2 x 22 = 8
M shell, n = 3, no. of electrons = 2 x 32 = 18
N shell, n = 4, no. of electrons = 2 x 42= 32
Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled.
That is, the shells are filled in a stepwise manner.
Example:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-5

Question 15.
The atom of an element is made up of 4 protons, 5 neutrons and 4 electrons. What is its atomic number and mass number?
Answer:
Protons = 4, neutrons = 5, electrons = 4
Atomic number = 4,
Mass number = 4 + 5 = 9

Question 16.
(a) What are the two main parts of which an atom is made of?
(b) Where is the nucleus of an atom situated ?
(c) What are orbits or shells of an atom ?
Answer:
(a)

  1. The centrally located nucleus
  2. The outer circular orbits.

(b) The nucleus is a centrally located positively charged mass.
(c) The circular orbits (shell present) in the space available around the nucleus on which electrons revolve are called orbits or shells of an atom.

Question 17.
What are isotopes? How does the existence of isotopes contradict Dalton’s atomic theory?
Answer:
Atoms of an element must have the same atomic number, but their mass number can be different due to the presence of different number of neutrons. These atoms of an element having different number of neutrons are called groups.
According to Dalton’s theory, all atoms of an element are similar to all respects, for example, they have the same shape, size etc. and have similar physical and chemical properties like mass, density and reactivity. Whereas isotopes of an element have atoms that are similar as they have same number of protons and electrons but differ in the number of neutrons. So, the isotopes have atoms that are not similar in all aspects.

Question 18.
Complete the table below by identifying A, B, C, D, E andF.
Answer:
selina-concise-chemistry-class-8-icse-solutions-atomic-structure-6

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Electricity and Magnetism

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Electricity and Magnetism

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism

  • Points to Remember
  •  Some materials behave in a particular manner showing magnetic properties.
  •  A freely suspended bar magnet always point in North-South direction.
  •  Like poles repel each other while unlike poles attract each other.
  •  Magnet is neutral at its centre and has maximum magnetic effects at its ends called the poles.
  •  Poles always exist in pairs with opposite polarities and can never be isolated.
  •  Examples of magnetic substances are:- iron, cobalt, nickel.
  •  Examples of non-magnetic substances are:- wood, plastic, aluminium, copper.
  •  The poles are not exactly the ends of the magnet but thev are slightly inside.
  •  For a given magnet, both the poles are of equal strength.
  •  Earth’s magnet has its south pole situated near the geographic north.
  •  Electromagnets are the temporary magnets which are made up of soft iron core with a winding of insulated copper wire.
  •  Freely suspended current carrying solenoid always rests in north- south direction.
  •  A direct current source has the fixed positive and negative terminals, e.g. a battery.
  •  Hans Christian Oersted discovered that if an electric current is passed through a conductor, a magnetic field is developed around it.
  •  The study of magnetic effects produced due to electric current is known as electromagnetism.
  •  The direction of magnetic field due to a straight current carrying conductor is obtained by any of the following rules:
    (a) Right Hand Thumb Rule.
    (b) Right Hand Cork Screw Rule.
  •  The property due to which a changing magnetic field within a closed conducting coil induces electric current in the coil is called electromagnetic induction.
  •  The current produced in a closed coil when magnetic lines of force rapidly change within it is called the induced current.
  •  The symbol for alternating current is 0.
  •  The strength of induced current can be increased by increasing the
    (a) the number of turns in the coil
    (b) strength of the magnet used
    (c) relative speed between the magnet and closed coil.
  •  We cannot think of modem life without electricity. We light our homes and other places of work with electricity.
  •  It is used to run electric fans, televisions, geyser, electric irons, room heaters, refrigerators, music system etc.
  •  Cell is a primary source of electricity. A combination of two or more cells is a battery.
  •  Some other sources of electricity are generator and solar cells.
  •  The path along which an electric current flows is called a circuit.
  •  Electricity has the following effects
    (a) Heating effect
    (b) Magnetic effect
    (c) Chemical effect
    (d) Mechanical effect
  •  When an electric path is complete is called closed circuit and the path with a break is called open circuit.
  •  The substances which allow the electricity to flow through them are called conductors, e.g. metals, human body etc.
  •  The substances which do not allow electricity to flow through them are called insulators, e.g. wood, paper, glass etc.
  •  The consumption of electricity is calculated from the meter in kWh.
  •  Electric fuse is a device which limits the current in an electric circuit.
  •  All electrical appliances are connected in parallel in household circuits.
  •  We should be cautious in using electricity. Certain precautions should be taken before working on an electrical gadget or circuit.

Activity 6

List five such electrical gadgets in your house in which electromagnet is used.

  1. ……………………
  2. ……………………
  3. ……………………
  4. ……………………
  5. ……………………

Answer.

  1. Computer
  2. Electric motor
  3. Fan, Toaster
  4. Refrigerator
  5. Television
  6. Electric Bell

Activity 9

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 1

Answer.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 2

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 3

 

Test Yourself

A. Objective Questions 

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) A current carrying coil when suspended freely can rest in any direction.
Answer. False.

(b) A coil carrying current behaves like a magnet.
Answer. True.

(c) In an electromagnet, the core is made up of copper.
Answer. False.

(d) An electric bell uses an electromagnet.
Answer. True.

(e) An electromagnet with soft iron core is a temporary magnet.
Answer. True.

(f) We use cell as the source of electricity to run an electric immersion rod.
Answer. False.

(g) A torch bulb glows if the terminals of the bulb are connected to the terminals of a cell by the metallic wire.
Answer. True.

(h) Wool is a conductor of electricity.
Answer. False.
Wool is a insulator of electricity.

(i) Silver is an insulator of electricity.
Answer. False.
Silver is good conductor of electricity.

(j) Our body is a conductor of electricity.
Answer. True.

(k) For a circuit to be complete, every part of it must be made up of conductors.
Answer. True.

(l) All metals are conductors of electricity.
Answer. True.

(m) The switch should not be touched with wet hands.
Answer. True.

(n) A switch is an on-off device in an electric circuit.
Answer. True.

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) A magnet has two poles.
(b) Like poles repel each other and unlike poles attract.
(c) An electromagnet is used to separate large mass of iron scrap.
(d) The strength of magnetic field of an electromagnet is increased by inserting a core of soft iron.
(e) In a torch we use dry cell as the source of electricity.
(f) To light a table lamp and to run a refrigerator, we use mains as the source of electricity.
(g) A group of two or more cells is called a battery.
(h) Conductors pass electricity through them.
(i) Insulators do not pass electricity through them.

3. Match the following

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 4

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) A freely suspended magnet rests in

  1.  east-west direction
  2.  north-south direction
  3.  north-east direction
  4.  north-west direction.

(b) Electromagnets are made up of

  1.  steel
  2.  copper
  3.  brass
  4.  soft iron.

(c) An electromagnet is used in

  1.  electric oven
  2.  ammeter
  3.  electric bell
  4.  radio set.

(d) The purpose of armature in an electric bell is

  1.  to make and break the circuit
  2.  to produce sound
  3.  to produce magnetic field
  4.  to provide spring action.

(e) In a torch, the source of electricity is

  1.  the bulb
  2.  the switch
  3.  the cell
  4.  the mains.

(f) Electricity can flow through

  1. wood
  2.  rubber
  3.  plastic
  4.  copper wire.

(g) Electricity does not flow through

  1.  human body
  2.  animals body
  3.  rubber
  4.  silver.

(h) We should not touch the switch with wet hands otherwise

  1.  electricity may pass through our body
  2.  electricity may not pass through the appliance
  3.  circuit may break
  4.  the switch may get off.

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
State two properties of a bar magnet.
Answer:
Properties of a bar magnet

  1.  Attractive property: A magnet attracts small pieces of iron, cobalt or nickel.
  2.  Directive property: A magnet when suspended freely, always point towards North and South direction.
  3.  Like poles, i.e. North and North or South and South poles repel each other.
  4.  Unlike poles i.e. North and South attract each other.
  5.  Poles always exist in pairs, i.e. poles of a magnet cannot be separated.

Question 2.
How will you test whether a given rod is a magnet or not?
Answer:
Aim— To test whether a given rod is a magnet or not.
Apparatus

  1.  rod to be tested
  2.  a bar magnet
  3.  a stand
  4.  a thread

Procedure 

  1.  Suspend the rod to be tested with a thread on the stand.
  2.  Bring the bar magnet near the rod with its north pole towards the rod’s end.
  3.  Observe.

Inference — In every case, the magnet comes to rest in a north- south direction which shows its directive property.
Observation and Inference
— If the rod is attracted towards the bar magnet, the rod may be magnet or not.
— But if the rod remains in the same direction of rest as in the start of the experiment, it show it is not a magnet.

Question 3.
How will you test whether a given rod is made of iron or not?
Answer:
Bring a magnet near the rod if the rod is attracted by the magnet then it will be made of iron else not.

Question 4.
You are given two similar bars. One is a magnet and the other is of soft iron. How will you distinguish and identify them ?
Answer:
Take first bar and suspend it in a stand with the help of a thread. So that it is free to rotate in horizontal plane. Note the direction in which it sets itself. If the direction is North and South it may be magnet. Again rotate it, if this time again it sets itself in north and south direction, it is a magnet, otherwise, it is iron.
Now repeat above experiment with second bar and in the same way find it if it sets always in north and south direction then it will be a magnet.

Question 5.
You are given a magnet. How will you use it to find north-south direction at a place?
Answer:
The earth is a huge magnet in itself with its North and South poles. The North and South of the place can easily be detected with the help of a bar magnet. A freely suspended bar magnet always rest in the geographic N-S direction. Since the South pole of the earth’s magnet is closer to the geographic North, the North pole of the suspended magnet will always rest in the geographic North, and the South pole of the freely suspended magnet will point towards geographic South.

Question 6.
Describe a simple experiment to illustrate that like poles of two magnets repel each other while the unlike poles attract.
Answer:
Like poles repel and unlike poles attract.
Two like poles (both North poles or both South poles) repel each other. Two unlike poles (one North pole and the other South pole) attract each other. This can be demonstrated by the following simple experiment.
Take two bar magnets A and B. Suspend one magnet A with a silk thread from a support so that it is free to swing. The magnet A will come to rest in the North-South direction. The North pole of the magnet A is in the North direction and its South pole is in the South direction. Now holding the other magnet B in your hand if you bring its North pole near the North pole of the suspended magnet A as shown in figure you will observe that the two poles repel each other. Care is taken that the two magnets do not touch each other.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 5
Now if you bring the South pole of the magnet B near the north pole of the suspended magnet A as shown in figure without touching it, you will observe that the two poles attract each other.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 6
The above experiment shows that the like poles repels each other while the unlike poles attract each other.

Question 7.
“Poles exist in pair”. Comment on this statement.
Answer:
The magnetic poles always exist in pairs. It is not possible to separate the two poles of a magnet.
If a bar magnet is broken at the middle in two parts each part is found to be a magnet. Each part has the property to attract the small iron pieces. Each part rests in the North-South direction when suspended such as to swing freely. This shows that the new poles are formed at the broken ends.
If these pieces are broken again and again, each part will still found to be a complete magnet. Each part contains both the poles (N-pole and S-pole). Thus, the two poles of a magnet exist simultaneously.

Question 8.
What is a magnetic compass ? State its use.
Answer:
Magnetic compass is a device which is used to locate the direction of a place. It always rests in a North-South direction. It is used in the navigators in ships, submarines, aeroplanes etc.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 7

Question 9.
Explain the meaning of the term magnetic field.
Answer:
The space around the magnet where its influence can be experienced is known as magnetic field. This field is formed by the magnetic lines of force which run from the North pole to the South pole. These lines can be found to be maximum crowded at the two ends of the magnet which are the poles i.e. the North pole and the South pole.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 8

Question 10.
What is an electromagnet ?
Answer:
An electromagnet — An electromagnet is a temporary magnet which behaves as a magnet when electric current is passed through the insulated copper wire and loses its magnetism when current is stopped. It has a soft iron piece called the core with an insulated copper wire wound on it.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 9

Question 11.
Name the material of an electromagnet.
Answer:
Iron bar, insulated copper wire, battery.

Question 12.
Draw a labelled diagram to make a soft iron bar as an electromagnet. Describe in steps the procedure.
Answer:
Usually, the electromagnets are made in two shapes :
(1) bar or I shaped magnet and (2) horse shoe or U shaped magnet.

  1.  To make a fiar or I shaped electromagnet: Take a soft iron bar PQ and wind a thin insulated copper wire around the bar. Connect a cell or a battery B, and a key K in series between the ends of the coil. The circuit diagram is shown in figure.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 10
    When key K is closed, current passes through the winding of the coil and the bar becomes a magnet. As the key K is opened, the current stops flowing in the coil and the bar loses its magnetism. Thus, the bar behaves like an electromagnet.
  2.  To make a horse shoe or U shaped electromagnet: Take a U shaped soft iron piece. Wind a thin insulated copper wire on its arms such that the winding in the two arms is in opposite direction. In figure winding in the arm A starts from the front and is in clockwise direction (when seen from the bottom).
    On reaching the upper end of the arm A, winding starts from the back at the top of the arm B and is in anticlockwise direction. Connect a battery B and a key K between the two ends of the wire.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 11

Question 13.
You are given a U shaped soft iron piece, insulated copper wire and a battery. Draw a circuit diagram to make a horse shoe electromagnet.
Answer:
End A becomes S-pole and B becomes N-pole.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 12

Question 14.
Name two factors on which the strength of magnetic field of an electromagnet depends.
Answer:
The magnetic field of an electromagnet (I or U-shaped) can be increased by the following two ways :

  1.  By increasing the number of turns of winding in the solenoid.
  2.  By increasing the current through the solenoid.

Question 15.
State two ways by which the strength of magnetic field of an electromagnet can be increased.
Answer:
The magnetic field of the electromagnet can be increase in the following two ways :

  1.  By inserting a rod of soft iron or steel inside the cylindrical tube. This rod is called the core.
  2.  By increasing the total number of turns of the coil.

Question 16.
State two common uses of electromagnets.
Answer:
Uses of electromagnet

  1.  In electrical appliances such as electric bell, fan etc.
  2.  In lifting heavy loads of iron scrap.
  3.  To remove tiny particles of iron from the wound.
  4.  In loading furnaces with iron.
  5.  In separation of magnetic substances from the non-magnetic substances.

Question 17.
Name a domestic device in which an electromagnet is used.
Answer:
Electromagnet is used in ELECTRICAL APPLIANCES like ELECTRIC BELL, RADIO, T.V., FAN and MOTORS etc.

Question 18.
Draw a neat and labelled diagram of an electric bell and describe its working.
Answer:
Working of the bell— Principle of working of electromagnetism When the switch is pushed on, the circuit gets completed and current stalls flowing through the U-shaped electromagnet which creates magnetic field in the core. This attracts the iron armature. Now when the armature moves towards the electro-magnet, the hammer strikes the gong and the bell rings. But as the armature
moves towards the electromagnet, the contact with the adjustment screw breaks which breaks the closed circuit and stops the current. Now when there is no current there is no electromagnetism and the armature returns to the original position. This making and breaking of the circuit of the electromagnet continues as long as the button remains pressed.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 13

Question 19.
The incomplete diagram of an electric bell is given in fig. Complete the diagram and label its different parts.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 14
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 15

Question 20.
What is declination ? Draw a diagram to show the angle between the declination and true direction of geographic north.
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 16
Magnetic declination is the angle of the horizontal plane between the magnetic North and the geographic North (or true North). This angle is shown in figure by symbol θ.
The angle of declination is different at different places on the earth surface and it also changes at a place with time. The declination is taken positive if the magnetic North is towards the east of the true North as in figure and is negative if the magnetic north if towards the west of the true North.

Question 21.
Define the term current.
Answer:
An electric current is a flow of electric charge. In electric circuits this charge is often carried by moving electrons in a wire.
The S.I. unit of electric current is the ampere.

Question 22.
Name four appliances which work using electricity.
Answer:

  1.  an electric iron
  2.  an electric heater
  3.  an electric kettle
  4.  an immersion rod

Question 23.
Name two sources of electricity.
Answer:

  1.  dry cell and battery
  2.  generator and solar cell

Question 24.
What is a battery?
Answer:
If we use a group of two or more cells, it is called a battery. A battery is used where we require more electricity.

Question 25.
What is an electric circuit?
Answer:
For a smooth flow of electric current, a complete circuit is needed. This is known as electric circuit.

Question 26.
Describe an experiment to show that electricity flows only if the circuit is complete and it does not flow if the circuit is incomplete.
Answer:
Take two torch bulbs A and B. Connect them to a cell through a switch as shown in fig. The bulbs are said to be in series. Close the switch (i.e., the circuit it completed), you will see that both the bulbs glow.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 17
Now take out the connection of the bulb B as shown in fig. Now close the switch, you will observe that the bulb A does not glow because the circuit is now incomplete.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 18
Now replace the bulb B by a fused bulb fig. and close the switch. Again you will see that the bulb A does not glow. This is because the circuit being in series, is still incomplete.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 19

Question 27.
You are provided with a torch bulb, a cell and two plastic coated f metal wires. Draw a diagram to show a complete circuit to light the bulb.
Answer:
Take two bulbs A and B. Connect them through switches S1 and S2 in parallel as shown in fig. Close both the switches. You will see that both the bulbs glow.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 20

Question 28.
In which of the following case the bulb will glow :

  1.  Only one terminal of a cell is joined with a metal wire to one terminal of the bulb.
  2.  Both terminals of the bulb are joined with two metal wires to one terminal of the cell.
  3.  One terminal of the cell is joined to one terminal of the bulb and other terminal of the cell to the other terminal of the bulb.
    Answer:
    The bulb will glow in (3) case i.e.

Question 29.
Distinguish between conductors and insulators of electricity. Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Conductors

  1.  Conductors are those substances which allow electricity to flow through them.
  2.  e.g. all metals, human body.
    Insulators
    Insulators are those which do not allow electricity to pass through them.
    e.g. wood, paper, glass.

Question 30.
Select conductors and insulators from the following :
Glass, silver, copper, wood, paper, pure water, impure water, aluminium, iron, leather, plastic, steel, human body and ebonite.
Answer:
Conductors — Silver, copper, impure water, aluminium, iron, steel, human body.
Insulators — Glass, wood, paper, pure water, leather, plastic and ebonite.

Question 31.
The following diagram shows four circuits A, B, C and D. Each circuit has a cell and a torch bulb. Name the circuits in which the bulb will glow ? Give a reason to your answer
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 21
Answer:
The bulb will glow in circuit (D).
This is because copper is the best conductor of electricity as compared to aluminium. Silk is a non-conductor of electricity.

Question 32.
The diagram given below shows a bulb connected with a cell having terminals A and B. Mark the direction of current in the bulb.
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 22
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 23
Current always flows from +ve terminal to the -ve terminal of a cell.

Question 33.
State the function of each of the following in an electric circuit and draw its symbolic representation: (1) Switch and (2) Cell.
Answer:

  1.  Switch – A switch or key is used to put the circuit on and off. fig. shows the symbol of a switch or key when it is open (to put the circuit off and when it is closed (to put the circuit on)
    Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 24
  2.  Cell – A cell or a group of cells is generally used as a source of electricity. A positive (+) and a negative (-). It is represented by the two vertical lines of unequal lengths. The long vertical line represents the positive terminal and the short line represents the negative terminal as shown in fig.
    Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 25

Question 34.
Draw a circuit diagram for a bulb connected to a cell with a switch. Mark arrow in the diagram to indicate the direction of flow of current.
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 7 Electricity and Magnetism 26

Question 35.
In which arrangement are the appliances connected in the electric circuit of our homes, Series or Parallel ? Give one reason for your answer.
Answer:
Parallel circuit: When the circuit is in parallel, the appliances work independently. This is the reason that in our household wiring system, all the circuits are in parallel. Every appliance when put on, works on its own without the interruption of the other appliance.

Question 36.
State two precautions that you must take when switching on an electric circuit.
Answer:
Precautions to be taken before the circuit is switched on
Before the circuit is switched on, following precautions must be taken :

  1.  See that all the components of the circuit are properly connected.
  2.  See that the connection wire is tightly connected to each appliance or component.
  3.  Do not touch the switch or any component with wet hands.