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ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics – Coordinate Geometry

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Get ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Mathematics Chapter 11 Coordinate Geometry for ICSE Board Examinations on APlusTopper.com. We provide step by step Solutions for ICSE Mathematics Class 10 Solutions Pdf. You can download the Class 10 Maths ICSE Textbook Solutions with Free PDF download option.

Download Formulae Handbook For ICSE Class 9 and 10

Formulae

Formulae Based Questions

Question 1. Find the distance of the following points from origin.
(i) (5, 6)   (ii) (a+b, a-b)    (iii) (a cos θ, a sin θ).

Question 2. Calculate the distance between A (7, 3) and B on the x-axis, whose abscissa is 11.
Solution: Here B is (11, 0)

Question 3. KM is a straight line of 13 units If K has the coordinate (2, 5) and M has the coordinates (x, – 7) find the possible value of x.

Question 4. The midpoint of the line segment joining (2a, 4) and (-2, 2b) is (1, 2a+1). Find the value of a and b.
show that the points A(- 1, 2), B(2, 5) and C(- 5, – 2) are collinear.

Question 5. Use distance formula to show that the points A(-1, 2), B(2, 5) and C(-5, -2) are collinear.

Determine the Following

Question 1. PQ is straight line of 13 units. If P has coordinate (2, 5) and Q has coordinate (x, – 7) find the possible values of x.

Question 2. Give the relation that must exist between x and y so that (x, y) is equidistant from (6, -1) and (2, 3).

Question 3. The line segment joining A (2, 3) and B (6, – 5) is intersected by the X axis at the point K. Write the ordinate of the point K. Hence find the ratio in which K divides AB.
Solution: A (2, 3) and B (6,- 5)

Question 4. Find the value of x so that the line passing through (3, 4) and (x, 5) makes an angle 135° with positive direction of X-axis.

Question 5. Find the value, of k, if the line represented by kx – 5y + 4 = 0 and 4x – 2y + 5 = 0 are perpendicular to each other.

Question 6. Find the equation of a line which is inclined to x axis at an angle of 60° and its y – intercept = 2.

Question 7. Find the equation of a line with slope 1 and cutting off an intercept of 5 units on Y-axis.
Solution: We have
Slope of the line m = 1

Question 8. Find the equations of a line passing through the point (2, 3) and having the x – interecpt of 4 units.

Question 9. The line through A (- 2, 3) and B (4, b) is perpendicular to the line 2a – 4y = 5. Find the value of b.

Question 11. Find the equation of a straight line which cuts an intercept of 5 units on Y-axis and is parallel to the line joining the points (3, – 2) and (1, 4).

Question 12. Find the equation of a line that has Y-intercept 3 units and is perpendicular to the line joining (2, – 3) and (4, 2).

Question 13. Find a general equation of a line which passes through:
(i) (0, -5) and (3, 0) (ii) (2, 3) and (-1, 2).

Question 14. Find the equation of the line passing through (0, 4) and parallel to the line 3x + 5y + 15 = 0.

Question 15. Find the equation of a line passing through (3, – 2) and perpendicular to the line.

Question 16. Find the equation of the straight line which has Y-intercept equal to 4/3 and is perpendicular to 3x – 4y + 11 = 0.

Question 17. Find the equation of the straight line perpendicular to 5x – 2y = 8 and which passes through the mid-point of the line segment joining (2, 3) and (4, 5).

Question 18. A line passing through the points (a, 2a) and (- 2, 3) is perpendicular to the line 4a + 3y + 5 = 0. Find the value of a.

Prove the Following 

Question 1. A line is of length 10 units and one end is at the point (2, – 3). If the abscissa of the other end be 10, prove that its ordinate must be 3 or – 9.

Question 2. Show that the line joining (2, – 3) and (- 5, 1) is:
(i) Parallel to line joining (7, -1) and (0, 3).
(ii) Perpendicular to the line joining (4, 5) and (0, -2).

Question 3. With out Pythagoras theorem, show that A(4, 4), B(3, 5) and C(-1, -1) are the vertices of a right angled.

Question 4. Show that the points A(- 2, 5), B(2, – 3) and C(0, 1) are collinear.

Question 5. By using the distance formula prove that each of the following sets of points are the vertices of a right angled triangle.
(i) (6, 2), (3, -1) and (- 2, 4)
(ii) (-2, 2), (8, -2) and (-4, -3).

Question 6. Show that each of the triangles whose vertices are given below are isosceles :
(i) (8, 2), (5,-3) and (0,0)
(ii) (0,6), (-5, 3) and (3,1).

Question 7. Show that the quadrilateral with vertices (3, 2), (0, 5), (- 3, 2) and (0, -1) is a square.

Question 9. If the point (x, y) is at equidistant from the point (a + b, b – a) and (a-b, a + b). Prove that ay = bx.

Question 10. Prove that A(4, 3), B(6, 4), C(5, 6) and D(3, 5) are the angular points of a square.

Question 14. Show that the points A(1, 3), B(2, 6), C(5, 7) and D(4, 4) are the vertices of a rhombus.

Figure Based Questions

Question 2. Determine the ratio in which the line 3x + y – 9 = 0 divides the line joining (1, 3) and (2, 7).

Question 3. The midpoint of the line segment AB shown in the diagram is (4, – 3). Write down the coordinates of A and B.
Solution: Let the coordinates of A and Bare (x, 0) and (0, y).

Question 4. The centre ‘O’ of a circle has the coordinates (4, 5) and one point on the circumference is (8, 10). Find the coordinates of the other end of the diameter of the circle through this point.

Hence (0, 0) be the coordinates of the other end.

Question 5. In the following figure line APB meets the X-axis at A, Y-axis at B. P is the point (4, -2) and AP : PB = 1 : 2. Write down the coordinates of A and B.

Question 6. The three vertices of a parallelogram taken in order are (-1, 0), (3, 1) and (2, 2) respectively. Find the coordinates of the fourth vertex.

Question 7. Find the equation of a straight line which cuts an intercept – 2 units from Y-axis and being equally inclined to the axis.

Question 8. In ΔABC, A (3, 5), B (7, 8) and C (1, – 10). Find the equation of the median through A.

Question 10. In the adjoining figure, write

Question 11. In the figure given below, the line segment AB meets X-axis at A and Y-axis at B. The point P (- 3, 4) on AB divides it in the ratio 2 : 3. Find the coordinates of A and B.

Question 12. Determine the centre of the circle on which the points (1, 7), (7 – 1), and (8, 6) lie. What is the radius of the circle ?

Question 13. Find the image of a point (-1, 2) in the line joining (2, 1) and (- 3, 2).

Question 14. The line through P (5, 3) intersects Y axis at Q.
(i) Write the slope of the line.
(ii) Write the equation of the line.
(iii) Find the coordinates of Q.

Question 15. Find the value of ‘a’ for which the following points A (a, 3), B (2, 1) and C (5, a) are collinear. Hence find the equation of the line.

Question 16. If the image of the point (2,1) with respect to the line mirror be (5, 2). Find the equation of the mirror.

Question 17. The vertices of a triangle are A(10, 4), B(- 4, 9) and C(- 2, -1). Find the

Question 18. Given equation of line L₁ is y = 4.
(i) Write the slope of line, if L₂ is the bisector of angle O.
(ii) Write the coordinates of point P.
(iii) Find the equation of L₂

Question 19. From the adjacent figure:
(i) Write the coordinates of the points A, B, and

Graphical Depiction

Question 1. Given a line segment AB joining the points A (- 4, 6) and B (8, – 3). Find:
(i) the ratio in which AB is divided by the y- axis.
(ii) find the ordinates of the point of intersection.
(iii) the length of AB.

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ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Chemistry – Practical Chemistry

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APlusTopper.com provides ICSE Solutions for Class 10 Chemistry Chapter 12 Practical Chemistry for ICSE Board Examinations. We provide step by step Solutions for ICSE Chemistry Class 10 Solutions Pdf. You can download the Class 10 Chemistry ICSE Textbook Solutions with Free PDF download option.

Download Formulae Handbook For ICSE Class 9 and 10

Short Questions

Question 1: Name the three ions which can be identified by K₄[Fe(CN)₆] solution.
Answer: Fe³⁺, Z²⁺, Cu²⁺

Question 2: State the colour of the following :
(i) Lead monoxide (h) Hat zinc oxide
(iii) Copper carbonate (iv) Copper nitrate crystals
Answer: (i) Lime yellow (ii) Yellow
(iii) Emerald green (iv) Deep blue

Question 3: Mention the colour changes observed when the following indicators are added to acids :
(i) Alkaline phenolphthalein solution (ii) Methyl orange solution
(iii) Neutral litmus solution
Answer: (i) From pink to colourless (ii) From orange to pink (red)
(iii) From colourless to red

Question 4: Identify the anion present in the following compounds :
(i) Compound X on heating, with copper turnings and concents sulphuric acid liberates a reddish brown gas.
(ii) When a solution of compound Y is treated with silver nitrate solution a white precipitate is obtained which is soluble in excess of ammonium hydroxide solution.
(iii) Compound Z which on reacting with dilute sulphuric acid liberates a gas which lime lune water milky, but the gas has no effect on acidified potassium dichromate solution.
(iv) Compound L on reacting with barium chloride solution gives a white precipitate insoluble in dilute hydrochloric acid or dilute nitric acid.
Answer: (i) Nitrate ion, NO₃^– (ii) Chloride ion, Cl^–
(iii) Carbonate ion, CO₃^– (iv) Sulphate ion, SO₄^2-

Question 5: Identify the substances P, Q, R, S and T in each case based on the information given below:
(i) The deliquescent salt P, turns yellow on dissolving in water, and gives a reddish brown precipitate with sodium hydroxide solution.
(ii) The white crystalline solid Q is soluble in water. It liberates a pungent smelling gas when heated with sodium hydroxide solution.
(iii) The pale green solid R turns reddish brown on heating. Its aqueous solution gives a white precipitate with barium chloride solution. The precipitate is insoluble in mineral acids.
(iv) The reddish brown liquid S is dissolved in water. When Ethyne gas is passed through it, turns colourless.
Answer: (i) Hydrogen chloride gas (ii) Nitric oxide (iii) Oxygen (iv) Ammonia

Question 6: Select from the list given (A to E) one substance in each case which matches the description given in parts (i) to (v). (Note: Each substance is used only once in the answer.)
(A) Nitroso Iron(II) sulphate (B) Iron(III) Chloride (C) Chromium sulphate (D) Lead(II) Chloride (E) Sodium chloride.
(i) A compound which is deliquescent.
(ii) A compound which is insoluble in cold water, but soluble in hot water.
(iii) The compound responsible for the brown ring during the brown ring test of nitrate ion.
(iv) A compound whose aqueous solution is neutral in nature.
(v) The compound which is responsible for the green colouration when sulphur dioxide is passed through acidified potassium dichromate solution.
Answer: (i) B, Iron (III) chloride
(ii) D, Lead (II) chloride
(iii) A, Nitroso Iron (II) sulphate
(iv) E, Sodium chloride
(v) C, Chromium sulphate

Question 7: The questions (i) to (v) refer to the following salt solutions listed A to F:
A. Copper nitrate B. Iron (II) sulphate.
C. Iron (III) chloride D. Lead nitrate
E. Magnesium sulphate F. Zinc chloride.
(i) Which two solutions will give a white precipitate when treated with dilute Hydrochloric acid followed by Barium chloride solution ?
(ii) Which two solutions will give a white precipitate when treated with dilute Nitric acid followed by Silver nitrate solution ?
(iii) Which solution will give a white precipitate when either dilute Hydrochloric acid or dilute Sulphuric acid is added to it ?
(iv) Which solution becomes a deep /inky blue colour when excess of Ammonium hydroxide is added to it ?
(v) Which solution gives a white precipitate with excess Ammonium hydroxide solution ?
Answer: (i) B and E (Iron II sulphate and magnesium sulphate).
(ii) C and F (Iron III chloride and zinc chloride)
(iii) D (lead nitrate)
(iv) A (copper nitrate)
(v) F (zinc chloride)

Question 8: A white crystalline solid A on dissolving in water forms a neutral solution. When solid A is heated with calcium hydroxide, it gives off colourless gas B having a sharp biting smell. The gas fumes very strongly in air and turns red litmus blue. The aqueous solution of A on treating with lead acetate solution forms a white precipitate C. The precipitate is insoluble in all acids.
(i) Name the cation present in solid A.
(ii) Name the anion present in solid A.
(iii) Name the solid A and write its chemical formula.
(iv) Name the colourless gas B.
(v) Write one more chemical test for the identification of gas B.
(vi) Name the white precipitate C.
(vii) Write fully balanced chemical equations for:
(a) Solid A and calcium hydroxide.
(b) Solution of solid A and lead acetate solution.
Answer: (i) Cation in A is ammonium (NH₄⁺)
(ii) Anion in A is sulphate (SO₄^2- )
(iii) Solid A is ammonium sulphate [(NH₄)₂SO₄]₂
(iv) The colourless gas B is ammonia gas.
(v) Bring a rod dipped in HCl sol. near the gas. The dense white fumes of ammonium chloride are formed.
(vi) White precipitate C is lead sulphate.
(vii)
(a) (NH₄)₂SO₄ + Ca(OH)₂   ⟶  CaSO₄ + 2NH₃ + 2H₂O
(b) (NH₄)₂SO₄ + (CH₃COO)₂Pb  ⟶  PbSO₄ + 2CH₃COONH₄

Question 9: Identify the following solids.
(i) A silvery white solid which floats on the surface of water and reacts violently to give tiny bubbles of a colourless gas. The gas burns in air with a pop sound. The chloride of solid gives a non-persistent lilac colour to non-luminous bunsen flame.
(ii) A pale yellow compound gives a persistent golden yellow colour in non-luminous bunsen burner flame. When treated with water, it liberates a colourless gas, which burns with a pop sound.
(iii) A white solid on treating with water gives off a colourless gas which has a sharp biting smell and turns red- litmus blue. The white solid formed after the reaction is soluble in cone, sodium hydroxide solution.
Answer: (i) The solid is potassium metal (ii) The solid is sodium hydride
(iii) The solid is aluminium nitride

Question 10: Identify the cations and anions in each case and write relevant equations wherever necessary.
(i) A white crystalline solid on heating swells and gives off colourless vapours, which condense to form a colourless liquid X. The X turns anhydrous copper sulphate solution blue. The flame test shows the flame as persistent golden yellow. When the solution of solid is treated with HCl, it gives off a colourless gas Y which turns lime water milky.
(ii) A blue solid gives a non-persistent green flame during the flame test. When the solid is heated strongly, it leaves behind a white residue. The residue on treating with few drops of water changes to blue colour.
(iii) A white solid gives a non-persistent brick red flame. On treating with dilute sulphuric acid, it gives off a colourless gas which turns acidified potassium dichromate solution green.
(iv) A white solid gives a non-persistent black colour. On treating with dilute sulphuric acid, it gives off a highly offensive smell. The gas turns lead acetate paper black.
Answer:

Figure/Table Based Questions

Question 1: Salts A, B, C, D and E undergo reactions (i) to (v) respectively. Identify the anion present in these salts on the basis of these reactions. Tabulate your answers in the format given below :
(i) When silver nitrate solution is added to a solution of A, a white precipitate, insoluble in dilute nitric acid, is formed.
(ii) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to B produces a gas which turns lead acetate paper black.
(iii) When a freshly prepared solution of ferrous sulphate is added to a solution of C and concentrated sulphuric acid is gently poured from the side of the test-tube, a brown ring is formed.
(iv) When dilute sulphuric acid is added to D, a gas is produced which turns acidified potassium dichromate solution from orange to green.
(v) Addition of dilute hydrochloric acid to E produces an effervescence. The gas produced turns lime water milky but does not affect acidified potassium dichromate solution.

Salt	Anion
A
B
C
D
E

Answer:
(i) A—Chloride,
(ii) B—Sulphide,
(iii) C—Nitrate,
(iv) D—Sulphite,
(v) E—Carbonate.

Question 2: Sodium hydroxide solution is added first in a small quantity, then in excess to the aqueous salt solutions of copper (II) sulphate, zinc nitrate, lead nitrate, calcium chloride and iron (III) sulphate. Copy the following table and write the colour of the precipitate in (i) to (v) and the nature of the precipitate (soluble or insoluble) in (vi) to (x).

Aqueous salt solution	Colour of precipitate when NaOH is added in a small quantity	Nature of precipitate (soluble or insoluble) when NaOH is added in excess
Copper (II) sulphate	(i)	(vi)
Zinc nitrate	(ii)	(vii)
Lead nitrate	(iii)	(viii)
Calcium chloride	(iv)	(ix)
Iron (III) sulphate	(v)	(x)

Answer:

Aqueous salt solution	Colour of precipitate when NaOH is added in a small quantity.	Nature of precipitate (soluble or insoluble) when NaOH is added in excess.
Copper (II) sulphate	Blue	Insoluble
Zinc nitrate	White	Soluble
Lead nitrate	White	Soluble
Calcium chloride	White	Insoluble
Iron (El) sulphate	Reddish Brown	Insoluble

Chemical Tests

Question 1:

1. Zinc sulphate solution and Zinc chloride solution.
2. Iron (II) chloride solution and Iron (III) chloride solution.
3. Calcium nitrate solution and Calcium chloride solution.
4. Sodium carbonate and sodium sulphite.
5. Ferrous nitrate and Lead nitrate
6. Manganese dioxide and Copper (II) oxide.
7. Sodium chloride and sodium nitrate.
8. Calcium nitrate and lead nitrate.
9. Lead nitrate and zinc nitrate.
10. Sodium sulphite anti sodium sulphate
11. Ammonium chloride and ammonium nitrae.
12. Zinc carbonate and lead carbQnate.
13. Potassium chloride and sodium chloride.
14. Powdered coke and manganese dioxide.
15. Copper oxide and manganese dioxide.
16. Washing soda and baking soda..
17. Potassium nitrate and potassium nitrite.
18. Mercuric oxide and red lead.
19. Ferrous ions and ferric ions.

Answer:

1. When BaCl₂ solution is added to the given solution, ZnSO₄ gives a white ppt while no ppt. is obtained with ZnCl₂ solution.
2. When NaOH solution is added to the given solution, Iron (II) chloride gives dirty green ppt. while reddish brown ppt. is obtained with Iron (III) chloride.
3. When AgNO₃ solution is added to the given solution, CaCl₂ solution will give a white ppt. while no change is observed with calcium nitrate solution.
4. Sodium carbonate when treated with dil H₂SO₄ will liberate colourless odourless gas with brisk effervescence. The gas will turn lime water milky and will have no effect on acidified potassium permanganate solution.
   Sodium sulphite when treated with dil H₂SO₄ will liberate a colourless gas having suffocating – smell of burning sulphur. The gas will turn acidified potassium permanganate solution from pink to colourless.
5. Aqueous ferrous nitrate when treated with NaOH solution gives a dirty green ppt. Aqueous lead nitrate when treated with NaOH solution gives a white ppt. which dissolves in excess of NaOH.
6. When manganese dioxide is heated with cone. HCl a pungent smelling greenish yellow chlorine gas is evolved. When copper oxide is heated with cone. HCl no such gas is evolved.
7. On heating with cone. H₂SO₄ sodium chloride gives pungent colourless gas which turns silver nitrate solution curdy white, whereas sodium nitrate gives a brown gas which shows no effect on silver nitrate solution.
8. Aqueous solution of calcium nitrate gives a white precipitate with sodium hydroxide which is insoluble in excess of sodium hydroxide solution. The aqueous solution of lead nitrate gives a white precipitate with caustic soda solution which dissolves in excess of canstic soda solution.
9. Aqueous solution of lead nitrate gives white precipitate with ammounium hydroxide which is insoluble in excess ammonium hydroxide white the sodium of zinc nitrate gives a white precipitate which is soluble in excess ammonium hydroxide.
10. Solution of both gives white precipitate with barium chloride solution. The precipitate of barium Sulphite is soluble in dil hydrochloric acid, white the precipitate of barium sulphite is insoluble in dil. hydrochloric acid.
11. Heat each of salt strongly in a hard glass test tube. In case of ammonium chloride, sublimation takes place and white powdery deposits settles near the mouth of test tube. In case of ammonium nitrate, an explosion takes place and nitrous oxide and stream are given off. No residue is left in the test tube.
12. Heat each of the carbonates strongly in a hard glass test tube. In case of zinc carbonate, residue is yellow when hot and white then cold. In case of lead carbonate, residue is reddish-brown when hot and yellow when cold.
13. Make a thick paste of each salt in HCl. Take a small amount of the paste on clean platinum wire and introduce it in non-luminous bunsen flame. In case of potassium chloride, a non-persistent lilac flame is formed. In case of sodium chloride, a persistent golden yellow Marne is formed.
14. Heat each of the susbtances with cone, hydrochloric add. In case of coke, no visible
    reaction takes place. In case of manganese dioxide, greenish-yellow gas chlorine is evolved.
15. Warm each of the oxides with dilute hydrochloric acid. In case of copper oxide, a greenish-blue solution of copper chloride is formed. In case of manganese dioxide, no reaction takes place.
16. Heat each of the salt strongly in a hard glass test tube and pass the gas evolved through lime-water. In case of washing soda, lime-water does not turn milky. In case of baking soda, lime-water turns milky.
17. Treat each of the salts with dilute sulphuric acid and gently warm. In case of potassium nitrate, no visible reaction takes place. In case of potassium nitrite, reddish-brown gas, nitrogen dioxide is given off.
18. Heat each of the oxides strongly in a hard glass test tube. In case of mercuric oxide, tiny droplets of mercury are seen near the mouth of the test tube and residue is black. In case of red lead, no tiny droplets are seen. The residue is reddish-brown when.hot and yellow when cold.
19. Treat the solution of each ion with sodium hydroxdide solution. In case of ferrous ions, a dirty green ppt. of ferrous hydroxide is formed. In case of ferric ions, a reddish-brown ppt. of ferric hydroxide is formed.

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ICSE Geography Previous Year Question Paper 2015 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2015
GEOGRAPHY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt seven questions in all.
Part I is compulsory. All questions from Part I are to be attempted.
A total of five questions are to be attempted from Part II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].
To be supplied with this Paper : Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10
and 20 cm of twine.

Note:
(i) In all Map Work, make wise use of arrows to avoid overcrowding of the map.
(ii) The extract of Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 must not be taken out of the examination hall. It must be handed over to the Supervising Examiner on completion of the Paper.
(iii) The Map given at the end of this question paper must be detached, and after marking must be fastened to your answer booklet.
(iv) All sub-sections of the questions attempted must be answered in the correct serial
order.
(v) All working including rough work should be done on the same answer sheet which is used to answer the rest of the paper.

PART I [30 Marks]

Attempt all questions from this Part.

Question 1:
Study the extract of the Survey of India Map Sheet No. 45D/10 and answer the following questions :
(a) Give the four figure grid reference for a figure similar to the one given below. Identify the figure: [2]
(b) How is the drainage pattern in grid square 1606 different from that in grid square 1608? [2]

(c) Identify the correct six figure grid reference for each of the following:
(i) Gautam Maharishi Mandir
200071; 071200; 201070 ?
(ii) 0.443
172059; 052179; 179052 ? [2]

(d) Name the most prominent settlement other than ABU. Give two reasons to support your answer. [2]

(e) (i) What is the general slope of the land in the north-west comer of the map extract ?
(ii) What is the compass direction of Chandela (1803) from Hanumanji ka Mandir (2208) ? [2]

(f) What do you understand by the following terms as used on the map extract :
(i) Causeway (1702)
(ii) Falls 25m (2307). [2]

(g) (i) If you were to cycle at 10 km an hour, how much time would it take to cover the north-south distance depicted on this map extract ?
(ii) Calculate the area enclosed by Eastings 19 to 22 and Northings 04 to 09. [2]

(h) (i) Identify one natural feature in grid square 1610
(ii) Identify one man made feature in grid square 1903. [2]

(i) Give two probable reasons, other than dry water features, to indicate that the region depicted on the map extract receives seasonal rainfall. [2]

(j) Calculate, in metres, the difference in height between the highest point on the map extract and the contour height given in grid square 2402. [2]

Answer:
(a) The four fig grid reference for the figure is 1903. And the figure is a seasonal tank with an embankment.

(b) Drainage pattern of grid square 1606 is Radial and of grid square 1608 is Trellis.

(c) The correct six figure are
(i) Gautam Maharishi Mandir-200071.
(ii) 0.443-179052.

(d) Vajna settlement is another prominent settlement because
(1) It has a police Chauki.
(2) It is located on the metalled road therefore good transport is available.

(e) (i) General slope of the land in the North west comer is towards North west.
(ii) Compass direction of Chandela from Hanumanji Ka Mandir is South west.

(f) (i) Cause way : It is a raised road or path that enable us to cross a seasonal river. It does not work during rain. It is not a bridge.
(ii) Fall 25 m indicate the presence of a waterfall i.e., 25 metres high.

(g) (i) one hour.
(ii) Area = L × B = 3 × 5 = 15 km²

(h) (i) Natural feature in 1610 is broken ground and seasonal stream.
(ii) One man made feature in grid square 1903 is hut and embankment.

(i) Two reasons to indicate that the region depicted on the map receives seasonal rainfall are :

1. Cart tracks are motorable in the dry season.
2. Presence of causeway and broken ground.

(j) Difference between the highest point on the map and the contour height given in grid square 2402 is 1129 metres.

Question 2:
On the outline map of India provided :
(a) Mark and. name the Nilgiris. [1]
(b) Shade and label the Malwa Plateau. [1]
(c) Shade and label the Malabar Coastal Plains. [1]
(d) Mark and name the river Gomti. [1]
(e) Shade and name the Andaman Sea. [1]
(f) Mark and name Allahabad. [1]
(g) Mark with a single arrow and name the winds that bring winter rain to north-west India. [1]
(h) Mark and name Digboi. [1]
(i) Mark an area with laterite soil below the Tropic of Cancer. [1]
(j) Mark and name the Karakoram Pass. [1]

Answer:

PART II [50 Marks]

Attempt any five questions from this Part.

Question 3:
(a) Explain two factors that affect the climate of India giving a suitable example for each. [2]

(b) State two differences between the rainfalls that occur from June to September and that from December to February in North India. [2]

(c) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Kerala has the longest rainy season.
(ii) The Konkan coast experiences orographic rainfall.
(iii) The city of Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh has a higher range of temperature than that of Chennai in Tamil Nadu. [3]

(d) Study the climatic data given below and answer the questions that follow :

Month	JAN	FEB	MAR	APR	MAY	JUN	JUL	AUG	SEP	OCT	NOV	DEC
Temp °C	21.0	21.9	24.3-	27.2	28.0	26.4	26.1	25.4	25.0	26.0	23.8	21.2
Rainfall Cm	5.1	2.8	1.2	1.7	3.9	4.6	8.4	11.4	11.9	31.6	34.5	14.8

(i) Identify the hottest month.
(ii) Calculate the annual rainfall.
(iii) Name the winds that bring the maximum rainfall to this city. [3]

Answer:
(a) Two factors that affect the climate in India are :

1. Altitude: As the height increases temperature decreases at the rate of 1°C for every 165 m of ascend. Example : Nainital has lower temperature than Agra.
2. Distance from the sea: Places close to the sea have lower range of temperature i.e. moderate climate and places away from the influence of the sea have higher range of temperature i.e. continental climate. Example : Mumbai has lower range of temperature than Delhi as it is close to the sea.

(b) Two differences between the rainfall that occur from June to September and from December to February are :

1. Rainfall in June to September is caused by S.W. monsoon whereas rainfall in December to February is caused by temperate cyclones (western disturbances) originating in Mediterranean sea.
2. Rain in June to September is heavy ranging between 75 to 150 cm. whereas rain in Dec. to February is only 5 to 7 cm but beneficial for wheat and barley.

(c) Geographical Reasons:
(i) Kerala has the longest rainy season because it lies in the extreme south of India and it is the first and last to see the monsoon.
(ii) Konkan coast experiences orographic rainfall because it lies of the wind ward side of western ghats when south west monsoon strikes it.
(iii) Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh has a higher range of temperature than that of Chennai because Kanpur is located away from the sea and the equator.

(d) (i) May is the hottest month.
(ii) Annual rainfall is 131.9 cm.
(iii) Maximum rainfall is received by North-East monsoon winds.

Question 4:
(a) State the characteristic of each of the soils named below that makes them most suitable for crop cultivation :
(i) Black soil.
(ii) Red soil. [2]

(b) State the geographic term for each of the following processes :
(i) The process by which soluble minerals dissolve in rain water and percolate to the bottom, leaving the top soil infertile.
(ii) The process by which rain water, flowing in definite paths, removes the top soil, thus causing deep cuts to the surface of the land. [2]

(c) Define the following :
(i) Pedogenesis.
(ii) Humus.
(iii) Bhangar. [3]

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile.
(ii) Need for soil conservation.
(iii) Reafforestation should be practised extensively. [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Characteristic of black soil : It is able to retain moisture.
(ii) Characteristic of red soil : It is rich in potash and become fertile with proper use of fertilizers and irrigation.

(b) Geographic terms are :
(i) Leaching
(ii) Gully erosion.

(c) Definition:
(i) Pedogenesis: Process of soil formation is called pedogenesis.
(ii) Humus: Decayed remains of plants, animal manures and dead animals is called Humus. It is an essential element in determining the fertility of soil.
(iii) Bhangar: Older alluvium soil found about 30 m above sea level in river terraces, light grey in colour and calcareous clay is called humus.

(d) Geographical reasons:
(i) Alluvial soil is extremely fertile because it is found to a depth of 500 m and rich in humus, lime and potash.
(ii) There is a need for soil conservation because top soil that is eroded is the main feeding zone. With the increase in population the demand of crops is also increasing.
(iii) Reafforestation should be practised extensively because the area under forest cover is shrinking day by day due to urbanization etc.

Question 5:
(a) State two characteristics of Tropical Deciduous forests. [2]

(b) State two reasons why Tropical Evergreen forests are difficult to exploit. [2]

(c) Identify the tree as per its characteristics mentioned below :
(i) It yields wood that is hard and scented and is usually found in high altitudes.
(ii) It is generally found in deltaic regions and is used to make boats.
(iii) The furniture made from the wood of this tree is generally the most expensive. [3]

(d) Differentiate between afforestation and deforestation. State a disadvantage of deforestation. [3]

Answer:
(a) Characteristics of Tropical deciduous forests are :
(i) They shed their leaves before the summer season.
(ii) These trees are found in pure stands.

(b) Tropical evergreen forests are difficult to exploit because they are found in mixed stands and found in dense growth.

(c) Trees as per its characteristics are :
(i) Deodar
(ii) Sundri
(iii) Teak.

(d) Afforestation means growing of trees where there are no trees. It increases the forested area.
Deforestation means cutting of trees for various purposes.
Disadvantage : It increases soil erosion.

Question 6:
(a) State two reasons why’irrigation is important to a country like India. [2]

(b) Name two modern methods of irrigation. State one important reason for their growing popularity. [2]

(c) (i) Why is well irrigation still a popular means of irrigation ? Give two reasons to support your answer.
(ii) State the significance of rainwater harvesting. [3]

(d) (i) Why is the world in danger of facing a severe water shortage in the coming future ? Give two reasons to support your answer.
(ii) State one measure the Government should adopt to handle the present water crisis. [3]

Answer:
(a) Irrigation is important to a country like India because rainfall here is seasonal in nature. It is limited to four months of a year. It is also important because some crops require more water than what it is provided by the rainfall therefore we have to depend on irrigation.

(b) Two modern methods of irrigation are :

1. Perennial canals.
2. Drip irrigation system.

They are becoming popular because there is minimum loss of water and can irrigate fields throughout the year.

(c) (i) Well irrigation is still a popular means of irrigation because :

1. It can supply water whenever and where ever required.
2. It is also a cheap source of irrigation.

(ii) Significance of rain water harvesting are :
(i) Reduce surface run off therefore no flooding of roads.
(ii) It raises ground water table by adding to ground water reserves.
(iii) It solve the problem of water scarcity.

(d) (i) The world is in danger of facing a severe water shortage in coming future because :

1. Most of our surface waters are polluted by industrial waste, sewage etc.
2. The indiscriminate use of chemicals, fertilizers, pesticides, insecticides, to increase farm productions had led to increasing ground water pollution.

(ii) One measure the Government should adopt to handle present water crisis is rain water harvesting and recycle and reuse of water.

Question 7:
(a) State two reasons why limestone is a valuable mineral. [2]

(b) State the most important use of the following :
(i) Iron ore
(ii) Bauxite [2]

(c) Name the :
(i) Largest oil refinery in the Public sector.
(ii) State that is the largest producer of coal.
(iii) Best variety of iron ore. [3]

(d) Give a geographic reason for each of the following :
(i) Many port cities have their own oil refineries.
(ii) Petroleum is called a ‘fossil fuel’.
(iii) Coal is called a versatile mineral. [3]

Answer:
(a) Limestone is a valuable mineral because it is used in various industries like chemicals, iron and steel, cement, fertilizers etc.

(b) Most important use of:
(i) Iron ore : In the production of steel.
(ii) Bauxite: In the production of aluminium.

(c) (i) Largest oil refinery in the public sector — Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(ii) Jharkhand is the largest coal producing state.
(iii) Hematite is the best variety of iron ore.

(d) Geographical reasons for the following are :
(i) Port cities have their own oil refineries because two thirds of the petroleum is imported. The crude oil is imported from Gulf countries and Malaysia.
(ii) Petroleum is called fossil fuel because it is derived from plant and animal . life buried in sedimentary rocks millions of years ago.
(iii) Coal is called a versatile mineral because it forms a basic raw material for the production of chemicals, dyes, fertilizers, paints, synthetics, explosive apart from source of energy.

Question 8:
(a) Differentiate between a Rabi crop and a Kharif crop. [2]

(b) State an important difference between the climatic requirements for growing cotton and jute. [2]

(c) Give the geographic term for each of the following :
(i) Cultivation of sugarcane from the root stock of the cane which has been cut.
(ii) The residue left behind after the crushing of oilseeds.
(iii) The process by which latex is converted into a thick, spongy mass by adding acetic acid or formic acid. [3]

(d) Give a geographical reason for each of the following :
(i) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes.
(ii) The yield per hectare of sugarcane is higher in the Southern states.
(iii) Pulses are important food crops. [3]

Answer:
(a) Rabi crop is sown during late November and harvested in March e.g. : wheat, mustard etc.
Kharif crop is sown in June and harvested in early November e.g. : rice, cotton etc.

(b) Climatic requirements for growing cotton :
Temperature: 20°C to 32°C and atleast 200 frost free days.
Rainfall: Ranging between 50 cm to 120 cm abundant sunshine is required during ripening period.
Climatic requirement for Jute :
Temperature: 21°C to 35°C a hot climate with high atmospheric humidity. Rainfall : Ranging between 150 cm to 200 cm.

(c) Geographical terms are :
(i) Ratoon crop
(ii) Oil cake
(iii) Coagulate.

(d) Geographical reasons are :
(i) Tea is cultivated on hill slopes because tea plant can not tolerate standing water on its roots.
(ii) Yield per hectare of sugarcane is higher in southern states because of the use of modem scientific agricultural methods and the factories are located close to the fields.
(iii) Pulses are important food crops because they are rich source of protein for vegetarian people.

Question 9:
(a) (i) Why is the cotton textile industry called an agro-based industry ?
(ii) Give an important reason for it being more widespread than the jute industry. [2]

(b) (i) State one important point of similarity between the woollen industry and the silk industry.
(ii) Name the state that produces the most woollen and silk products respectively. [2]

(c) (i) State two major problems faced by the sugar industry.
(ii) Name two by-products of the sugar industry. [3]

(d) (i) State one of the main problems of the silk industry.
(ii) Name two products of the jute industry, other than rope and gunny bags.
(iii) Why are synthetic fibres popular ? [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Cotton textile is called an agro-based industry because for its raw material it depends on cotton which is an agricultural product.
(ii) It is more widespread than the jute industry because India has tropical climate where cotton is mainly used for clothing.

(b) (i) Main similarity between the woollen and the silk industry : Both of them derive their raw material from animals and both require skilled labour.
(ii) State that produces woollen products is Punjab and state that produces silk products is Karnataka.

(c) (i) Two problems faced by sugar industry are :
(1) It is the most soil exhausting crop therefore cost increases.
(2) Sugar mills are old-fashioned and far from the sugar farms.
(ii) Two by products of the sugar industry are :
(1) Bagasse
(2) Pressmud.

(d) (i) One main problem of the silk industry is that it has a limited market as it is very expensive.
(ii) Two products of the jute industry are upholstry and carpets.
(iii) Synthetic fibres are popular because they are cheap, durable and easy to maintain.

Question 10:
(a) (i) Why is the iron and steel industry called a basic industry ?
(ii) Define a mini steel plant. [2]

(b) With which large scale industry would you identify the following manufacturing centres :
(i) Kanpur
(ii) Rourkela
(iii) Pune
(iv) Mangalore. [2]

(c) (i) State two reasons for the growing importance in the status of petrochemical industries.
(ii) Name two products of the petroleum industry. [3]

(d) (i) State two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry.
(ii) Name a ship building yard on the east coast and a centre for making electric locomotives. [3]

Answer:
(a) (i) Iron and steel industry is called basic industry because it supports fertilizers and cement industry. It is linked with the economic development of a country.
(ii) Mini steel plant is a unit that uses cheaply available scrap iron in the electric arc furnaces to make steel which is futher rolled and shaped into necessary products.

(b) Large scale industry that we identify with :
(i) Kanpur : Woollen industry.
(ii) Rourkela : Iron and Steel plant.
(iii) Pune : Electronics Industry.
(iv) Mangalore : Petrochemical Industry.

(c) (i) Two reasons for the growing importance is the status of petrochemical, industries are :

1. It is durable, cheap, light weight and attractive.
2. It has replaced wood, glass, metal, natural rubber etc.

(ii) Two products of the petroleum industry are :

1. PVC pipes.
2. Synthetic fibre.

(d) (i) Two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry are :

1. Availability of market.
2. Availability of cheap labour.

(ii) Ship building yard on east coast is Vishakhapatnam and Chittaranjan for making electric locomotives.

Question 11:
(a) (i) Why is the Railways an important means of transport as compared to Airways ?
(ii) State one economic benefit of the Golden Quadrilateral Project. [2]

(b) (i) State one important difference between an expressway and a highway.
(ii) Name the first expressway constructed in the country.
(iii) State a reason why the Northern Rivers are more suitable for navigation than the Deccan Rivers. [3]

(c) (i) “Waste segregation is important”. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Why is nuclear waste harmful ?
(iii) Explain briefly how as a student, you can help in the reduction of waste generation. [3]

(d) (i) What is understood by biodegradable waste ?
(ii) State one source of gaseous waste. [2]

Answer:
(a) (i) Railways is an important means of transport as compared to airways as it is cheap and has more carrying capacity of passengers and goods.
(ii) Economic benefit of the Golden Quadrilateral project is that it leads to general improvement of the area with more employment.

(b) (i) Expressway is a six lane highway where two and three wheelers are not allowed. A highway is a two lane road where all vehicles are allowed.
(ii) Mumbai-Pune expressway is the first expressway constructed in the country.
(iii) Northern Rivers are more suitable for navigation than the Deccan Rivers because they are perennial in nature and flow over gentle sloping plains.

(c) (i) Waste segregation is important because the method of treating waste depends on the nature of waste like solid waste, liquid waste, biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste.
(ii) Nuclear waste is more harmful because radioactive wastes remain active for a long time therefore it can enter in human body through food and water and can cause damage of tissues, blood cells and cancer.
(iii) As a student I can segregate the waste into biodegradable and non biodegradable waste of my house, reduce the water by incineration and recycling it.

(d) (i) Biodegradable waste is a type of waste which can be broken down in a reasonable amount of time, into its base compounds by micro organisms and other living things regardless of what those compounds may be.
(ii) Release of smoke, ashes and aerosols from chimneys of factories, increase CO₂. Methane comes out from cattle shed. Swamps, coal mines etc. Volcanic erruptions gives out SO₂.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Previous Years Question Papers

ICSE Biology Previous Year Question Paper 2016 Solved for Class 10

ICSE Paper 2016 BIOLOGY

(Two hours)
Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
You will not be allowed to write during the first 15 minutes.
This time is to be spent in reading the Question Paper.
The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
Attempt all questions from Section I and any four questions from Section II.
The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

SECTION-I (40 Marks)

(Attempt all questiohs from this Section.)

Question 1:
(a) Name the following : [5]
(i) The exchange of chromatid parts between the maternal and the paternal chromatids of a pair of homologous chromosomes during meiosis.
(ii) The number of individuals inhabiting per unit area.
(iii) The immunity acquired by providing readymade antibodies from outside for treating certain infectious diseases.
(iv) The pollutants that cannot be broken down to simple and harmless products.
(v) The part of the bra ip that carries impulses from one hemisphere of the cerebellum to the other.

(b) Choose the correct answer from the four options given below : [5]
(i) A plant cell may burst when :
(A) Turgor pressure equalises wall pressure.
(B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(C) Wall pressure exceeds turgor pressure.
(D) None of the above
(ii) The individual flattened stacks of membranous structures inside the chloroplasts are known as :
(A) Grana (B) Stroma (C) Thylakoids (D) Cristae
(iii) The nephrons discharge their urine at the :
(A) Urinary bladder (B) Urethra (C) Renal pelvis (D) Renal pyramid
(iv) Gigantism and Acromegaly are due to :
(A) Hyposecretion of Thyroxine
(B) Hyposecretion of Growth hormone
(C) Hypersecretion of Thyroxine
(D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) The mineral ion needed for the formation of blood clot is :
(A) Potassium (B) Sodfrym (C) Calcium (D) Iron

(c) In each set of terms given below, there is an odd one and cannot be grouped in the same category to which the other three belong. Identify the odd term in each set and name the category to which the remaining three belong. [5]
Example: Ovary, Fallopian tube, Ureter, Uterus
Odd term: Ureter
Category: Parts of female reproductive system
(i) Sewage, Newspaper, Styrofoam, Hay.
(ii) Thymine, Cytosine, Adenine, Pepsin.
(iii) Malleus, Iris, Stapes, Incus.
(iv) Cortisone, Somatotropin, Adrenocorticotropic hormone. Vasopressin.
(v) Typhoid, Haemophilia, Albinism, Colour blindness.

(d) Complete the following paragraph by filling in the blanks (i) to (ii) with appropriate words : [5]
The amount of urine output is under the regulation of a hormone called (i) ……… secreted by the (ii) ……… lobe of the pituitary gland. If this hormone secretion is reduced, there is an increased production of urine. This disorder is called (iii) ……… Sometimes excess glucose is passed with urine due to hyposecretion of another hormone called (iv) ……… leading to the cause of a disease called (v) ……… .

(e) State the exact location of the following structures : [5]
(i) Centromere (ii) Chordae tendinae (iii) Thyroid gland (iv) Ciliary body (v) Proximal convoluted tubule.

(f) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye, study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the defect shown in the diagram.
(ii) What are the two possible reasons that cause this defect ?
(iii) Name the type of lens used to correct this defect.
(iv) With the help of a diagram show how the defect shown above is rectified using a suitable lens.

(g) Given in the box below are a set of 14 biological terms. Of these, 12 can be paired into 6 matching pairs. Out of the six pairs, one has been done for you as an example.
Example: endosmosis – Turgid cell.
Identify the remaining five matching pairs:
Cushing’s syndrome, Turgid cell, Iris, Free of rod and cone cells, Colour of eyes, Hypoglycemia, Active transport, Aerosome, Addison’s disease, Blind spot, Hyperglycemia, Spermatozoa, Endosmosis, Clotting of blood.

(h) State the main function of the following: [5]
(i) Lymphocytes of blood
(ii) Leydig cells
(iii) Guard cells
(iv) Eustachian tube
(v) Corpus luteum

Answers:
(a) (i) Crossing over (ii) Population density (iii) Passive immunity (iv) Non biodegradable (v) Pons varoli

(b) (i) (B) Turgor pressure exceeds wall pressure.
(ii) (C) Thylakoids
(iii) (C) Renal pelvis
(iv) (D) Hypersecretion of Growth hormone
(v) (C) Calcium

(c) (i) Odd term: Styrofoam
Category: Biodegradable wastes.
(ii) Odd term: Pepsin
Category: Nitrogen bases of DNA molecule.
(iii) Odd term: Iris
Category: Ear ossicles/Tiny bones present in the middle ear.
(iv) Odd term: Cortisone
Category: Hormones secreted by Pituitary gland.
(v) Odd term: Typhoid
Category: Sex linked inheritence.

(d) (i) Antidiuretic hormone
(ii) Posterior
(iii) Diabetes insipidus
(iv) Insulin
(v) Diabetes mellitus

(e) (i) Centromere: Between two chromatids of a chromosome.
(ii) Chordae tendinae: At the flaps of the bicuspid and tricuspid valves.
(iii) Thyroid gland: In front of the neck/lower part of the neck below the larynx.
(iv) Ciliary body: Extension of choroid layer as a muscular ring around the lens.
(v) Proximal Convoluted Tubule: In the cortex of the kidney.

(f) (i) Myopia.
(ii) 1. The eye ball is too long from front to back.
2. The lens is too curved.
(iii) Concave lens
(iv)

(g) (i) Hyperglycemia: Cushings syndrome
(ii) Hypoglycemia: Addison’s disease.
(iii) Blind Spot: Free of rod cells and cone cells.
(iv) Iris: Colour of eyes.
(v) Acrosome: Spermatozoa.

(h) (i) Lymphocytes of blood: Produce antibodies.
(ii) Leydig cells: Secrete male sex hormone testosterone.
(iii) Guard cells: Regulate the opening and closing of stomata in leaf to facilitate transpiration and exchange of gases.
(iv) Eustachian tube: Balance air pressure on either sides of the ear drum. So that ear drum can vibrate freely.
(v) Corpus luteum: Secretes hormones oesterogen, progesterone and relaxin.

SECTION-II (40 Marks)

(Attempt any Four questions from this Section.)

Question 2:
(a) The figure given below is a diagrammatic representation of a part of the cross section of the root in the root hair zone. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Name the parts indicated by the guidelines 1 to 4.
(ii) Which is the process that enables the passageqf water from the soil into the root hair ?
(iii) Name the pressure that is responsible for the movement of water in the direction indicated by the arrows. Define it.
(iv) Due to an excess of this pressure sometimes drops of water are found along the leaf margins of some plants especially in the early mornings. What is the phenomenon called ?
(v) Draw a well labelled diagram of the root hair cell as it would appear if an excess of fertiliser is added to the soil close to it.

(b) Differentiate between the following pairs on the basis of what is mentioned within brackets : [5]
(i) Human skin cell and. Human ovum (number of chromosomes)
(ii) Sperm duct and fallopian tube (function)
(iii) Red Cross and WHO (one activity)
(iv) Rod cells and cone cells (pigment)
(v) LUBB and DUP (names of the valves whose closure produce the sound)

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Root hair 2. Soil water 3. Xylem Vessels 4. Cortical cells.
(ii) Osmosis Process
(iii) Osmotic pressure: The pressure exerted by a solution to prevent the entry of water molecules, through the semi -permeable membrane is called Osmotic pressure.
(iv) Guttation.
(v)

(b) (i) Human skin cell: 46 Chromosomes
Human ovum: 23 Chromosomes
(ii) Sperm Duct: Transfer mature sperm from testis for release. Fallopian Tube : Site of fertilisation in human female.
(iii) Red Cross: Supply blood to victims of war.
WHO: Set, pharmaceutical standards.
(iv) Rod cells: Rhodopsin
Cone cells: Iodopsin
(v) LUBB: Atrioventricular valves
DUP: Semilunar valves.

Question 3:
(a) Given below is the outline of the human body showing the important glands : [5]
(i) Name the glands marked 1 to 4.
(ii) Name the hormone secreted by part 2. Give one important function of this hormone.
(iii) Name the endocrine part of the part numbered 3.
(iv) Why is the part labelled 1 called, the master gland ? Which part of the forebrain controls the gland labelled 1 ?
(v) Name the gland, that secretes the ’emergency hormone’.

(b) The. diagram of an apparatus given below demonstrates a paniadar process in plants. Study the same and answer the Questions that follow. [5]
(i) Name the apparatus.
(ii) Which phenomenon is demonstrated, by this apparatus
(iii) Explain the phenomenon mentioned in (ii) above.
(iv) State two limitations of using this apparatus.
(v) What is the importance of the air bubble in, the experiment ?
(vi) Name the structures in a plant through which the above process takes place.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Pituitary gland.
2. Thyroid gland
3. Pancreas
4. Adrenal gland
(ii) Thyroxine. It regulates basal metabolism of the body.
(iii) Islets of Langerhans.
(iv) Because it controls the secretions of all the other endocrine gland. Hypothalamus controls it.
(v) Adrenal medulla (part of Adrenal gland.)

(b) (i) Ganong’s potometer
(ii) Transpiration
(iii) The process in which water is given out in the form of vapour through the aerial parts of the plant.
(iv) 1. The small twig can not remain alive for a long time.
2. Introducing a single air bubble is practically very difficult.
(v) The movement of the air bubble shows the amount of water transpired by the twig in a given time.
(vi) 1. Cuticle 2. Stomata 3. Lenticel

Question 4:
(a) (i) Draw a well labelled diagram of the membranous labyrinth found in the inner ear.
(ii) Based on the diagram drawn above in (i) give a suitable term for each of the following descriptions :
1. The sensory cells that helps in hearing.
2. The part that is Responsible for static balance of the body.
3. The membrane covered opening that connects the middle ear to the inner ear.
4. The fluid present in the middle chamber of cochlea.
5. The structure that maintains dynamic equilibrium of the body. [5]

(b) Give the Biological / technical term for the following : [5]
(i) Complete stoppage of menstrual cycle in females.
(ii) Pigment providing colour to urine.
(iii) The vein which drains the blood from the intenstine to the liver.
(iv) The canal through which the testes descend into the scrotum just before the birth of a male baby.
(v) The process causing an undesirable change in the environment.
(vi) The removal of nitrogenous wastes from the body.
(vii) The repeating components of each DNA strand lengthwise.
(viii) An alteration in the genetic material that can be inherited.
(ix) The process of uptake of mineral ions against the concentration gradient using energy from the cell.
(x) Blood vesels carrying blood to the left atrium.

Answer:
(a) (i)

(ii) 1. Organ of corte 2. Utriculus and sacculus 3. Oval window 4. Endolymph 5. Semicircular canals

(b) (i) Menopause
(ii) Urochrome
(iii) Hepatic portal vein
(iv) Inguinal canal
(v) Pollution
(vi) Excretion
(vii) Nucleotide
(viii) Mutation
(ix) Active absorption
(x) Plumonary veins

Question 5:
(a) The given diagram shows a stage during mitotic division in an animal cell: [5]
(i) Identify the stage. Give a reason to support your answer.
(ii) Draw a neat labelled diagram of the cell as it would appear in the next stage. Name the stage.
(iii) In what two ways is mitotic division in an animal cell different from the mitotic division in a plant cell ?
(iv) Name the type of cell division that occurs during : A. Growth of a shoot B. Formation of pollen grains

(b) Give scientific reasons for the following statements : [5]
(i) Colour blindness is more common in men than in women.
(ii) Injury to medulla oblongata leads to death.
(iii) When an ovum gets fertilized, menstrual cycle stops temporarily in a woman.
(iv) Mature erythrocytes in humans lack nucleus and mitochondria.
(v) Blood flows in arteries in spurts and is under pressure.

Answer:
(a) (i) Prophase
Reason : Chromosomes clearly visible as paired chromatids connected by centromere. Centrosome split into centrioles and are moving to opposite poles. Nuclear membrane and nucleolus disappearing. Chromosomes not arranged in any pattern.
(ii)

(iii)

Mitotic in Plant cell	Mitotic in Animal cell
1. Centrosome and centrioles absent.	1. Centrosome and centriole present
2. Cell plate developing from centre and glowing towards periphery during cytokinesis.	2. Cell furrow developing from periphery grows towards centre during cytokinesis.

(iv) A – Mitosis.
B – Meiosis.

(b) (i) Colour blindness is an X-linked inheritence. Women have two X- chromosomes. so even when one X-chromosome carry colour blindness, the other X-chromosome over comes the abnormal trait Whereas men have only one X-chromosome. So when it is affected the man becomes a colour blindness.
(ii) Medulla oblongata controls the involuntary activities like respiration, heart beats etc. So any injury to this part of brain arrests these movements and cause death.
(iii) Menstrual cycle occurs due to rupture and shedding oi the endometrium lining of the uterus. When an ovum gets fertilised the endometrium gets thickned, and vascularized to house the embryo. So during the whole term when the embryo/foetus is in the uterus, menstrual cycle stops temporarily.
(iv) Presence of nucleus would occupy space and reduce the oxygen carrying capacity. Nucleus is also not required as a mature RBC does not divide. Mitochrondria is absent so that oxygen is not consumed by the RBC and all the oxygen is transported to target areas.
(v) Arteries carry blood from heart. With every pump of heart blood flows with a jerk and pressure through it.

Question 6:
(a) The diagram given below is that of a developing human foetus. Study the diagram and then answer the questions that follow : [5]
(i) Label the parts numbered 1 to 3 in the diagram.
(ii) Mention any two functions of the part labelled 2 in the diagram.
(iii) Explain the significance of the part numbered 3 in the diagram.
(iv) Define the term ‘GestationWhat is the normal gestational period of the developing human embryo ?
(v) Mention the sex chromosomes in a male and female embryo

(b) The following diagram demonstrates a physiological process taking place in green plants. The whole set up was placed in bright sunlight for several hours. Study the diagram and answer the questions that follow :
(i) What aspect of the physiological process is being examined ?
(ii) Explain the physiological process mentioned in (i) above.
(iii) Label the parts numbered 1 and 2 in the diagram.
(iv) Write a well balanced chemical equation for the physiological process explained in (ii) above.
(v) What would happen to the rate of bubbling of the gas if a pinch of sodium bicarbonate is added to the water in the beaker ? Explain your answer.

Answer:
(a) (i) 1. Umbilical cord 2. Placenta 3. Amniotic cavity/Amniotic fluid
(ii) Functions of Placenta:
1. Transfer nutrients and oxygen from mother’s blood to foetus.
2. Releases hormones called oestrogens, progesterone.
(iii) Significance of Amniotic Fluid:
1. Protects the foetus against jerks, mechanical shocks, and injury.
2. Allows foetus movements.
3. Keeps the pressure even, around the foetus.
4. Prevent sticking of foetus to the amnion.
(iv) Gestation : The full term of development of the embryo in the uterus.
In a developing human embryo gestational period is of 280 days.
(v) Male embryo = XY
Female embryo = XX.

(b) (i) Photosynthesis.
(ii) The process in which plant cells having chlorophyll take raw materials like carbondioxide from air & water from soil and manufacture glucose in presence of light. Oxygen is a waste product during this process.
(iii) Part 1 – Oxygen gas.
Part 2 – Hydrilla plant.
(iv)

(v) Rate of bubbling of gas suddenly increases on adding a pinch of sodium bicarbonate.
Sodium bicarbonate releases carbon dioxide into the water which is made available to the plant. This.increases the rate of photosynthesis. So more oxygen is released thus more bubbles released.

Question 7:
(a) A homozygous tall plant (T) bearing red coloured (R) flowers is crossed with a homozygous dwarf (t) plant bearing white (r) flowers : [5]
(i) Give the genotype and phenotype of the plants of F₁ generation.
(ii) Mention the possible combinations of the gametes that can be obtained from the F₁ hybrid plant.
(iii) State the Mendel’s law of Independent Assortment.
(iv) Mention the phenotypes of the offsprings obtained in F₂ generation.
(v) What is the phenotypic ratio obtained in F₂ generation ?

(b) Briefly explain the following terms : [5]
(i) Reflex action
(ii) Power of accommodation
(iii) Photophosphorylation
(iv) Hormone
(v) Synapse

Answer:
(a) (i) Genotype of F₁ generation : Tt Rr
Phenotype of F₁ generation : All heterozygous tall and red.
(ii) TR: Tall and Red
Tr: Tall and White
tR: Dwarf and Red
tr: Dwarf and White
(iii) Mendel’s law of independent Assortment: “In a dihybrid cross, one pair of character is independent of the other pair during gamete formation.”
(iv) Tall & Red
Tall & White
Dwarf & Red
Dwarf & white
(v) 9 : 3 : 3 : 1

(b) (i) Reflex action: A quick and involuntary action built-in-response to a stimulus.
(ii) Power of accomodation: It is the power and adjustment of our eyes to focus objects at different distances.
(iii) Photophosphorylation: The conversion of Adenosine diphosphate (ADP) to Adenosine triphosphate (ATP) with one inorganic phosphate by light.
(iv) Hormone: A chemical messengers secreted by endocrine glands which reaches its destination by the blood stream and which has the power of influencing the activity of other distant target organs.
(v) Synapse: It is the point of contact between the axon endings of one neuron comes in contact with dendrites of the other neuron through a synaptic cleft.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Previous Years Question Papers