ICSE

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) is a only a nominal executive in a parliamentary system of government. [1]
(a) Vice President
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(b) President
Explanation:
All the executive power is vested by President and executive actions are taken in his name.

(ii) Disputes, if any, about the election of president heard and decided by: [1]
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court
Explanation:
All doubt and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President shall be inquired zinto and decided by Supreme Court.

(iii) To be elected as President of India, a person must be at least years of age. [1]
(a) 35
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 35
Explanation:
According to Article 58 of the Constitution, no person shall be eligible unless he has completed 35 years of age.
(b) Second
Explanation:
Vice President is accorded second rank next to the President of India in the official warrant of precedence.

(iv) The Vice President occupies the _______ highest office in the country. [1]
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) 65
Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years.

(v) The Chief Justice and any other judges of the Supreme Court shall hold office till they attain the age of _______ years. [1]
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 65
Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years.

(vi) The first world war caused an _______ crisis in various nations of the world. [1]
(a) cultural
(b) political
(c) social
(d) economic
Answer:
(d) Economic
Explanation:
The war was a devastating experience for many countries which led to economic crisis in various nations of the world.

(vi) Fascism served as a model of dictatorial regime to the nazi movement in _______. [1]
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Italy
Answer:
(b) Germany
Explanation:
The rise of extreme nationalism in Germany in the form of Fascism and Nazism, contributed to the causes which led to the second world war.

(viii) The Treaty of Versailles based on which motive _______. [1]
(a) Cooperation
(b) Maintaining world peace
(c) Division of Italy
(d) Ideology conflicts
Answer:
(b) Maintaining world peace
Explanation:
The treaty included a covenant creating the league of nation, and international organization aimed at preserving peace.

(ix) The UN flag was adopted on _______. [1]
(a) 22 October, 1943
(b) 23 October, 1945
(c) 20 October, 1947
(d) 25 October, 1945
Answer:
(c) 20 October, 1947
Explanation:
On 20 October 1947 the General Assembly adopted resolution 167(11) on the united nation flag.

(x) Which country surrendered to Germany in Second World War? [1]
(a) Britain
(b) Italy
(c) Japan
(d) Poland
Answer:
(d) Poland
Explanation:
On September 27, 1939, 140,000 Polish troops were taken as prisoner by the German invaders as Warsaw surrenders to Hitler’s army.

Part – II
Section – A[50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention the formation of council of minister. [2]
(ii) How prime minister appointed? [2]
(iii) Mention any three function and powers of the Prime Minister. [3]
(iv) Give any three distinction between council of ministers and cabinet. [3]
Answer:
(i) The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as Prime Minister. The Prime Minister chooses his minister. On the advice of Prime Minister, the President appoints the Council of Ministers. The Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister.

(ii) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime minister.

(iii)
1. He recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president.
2. He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
3. He is the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers.

(iv)

Question 3.
The High Court occupies the top position in the Judicial Administration of the state. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the Judge of the High Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) State the difference between Court of the District Judge and the Sessions Court? [3]
(iv) What do you understand by Lok Adalat’s and give any two advantages of Lok Adalat? [3]
Answer:
(i)
1. A person must be citizen of India.
2. He/she should have held a judicial office in India for 10 years or he/she should have been an advocate of High Court for 10 years.

(ii) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state. A judge of High Court holds the office until he completes the age of 62 years.

(iii)

(iv) Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.
Three advantages of Lok Adalat’s are as follow:
1. The Lok Adalat’s work in the spirit of compromise and understanding, as a result both the parties feel satisfied.
2. It save time and money and unnecessary harassment.
3. The Lok Adalat’s can relieve the Laws Courts of the heavy backlog of the cases.

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the Second World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two countries which declared the war against Germany. [2]
(ii) Write down two factor that led to the failure of league of nation. [2]
(iii) How did the rise of Fascism and Nazism lead to World War II? [3]
(iv) Mention any three causes that led to Second World War? [3]
Answer:
(i) Britain and France both the countries declared the war against Germany.

(ii) Two factors that led to failure of the league of nation are:
1. All the great powers were not its members. The United State was not a member. In 1925, Germany joined the organisation while Russia was allowed entry in 1934. Later, both Germany and Japan left the league. The league, therefore, lacked universal representation

2. The rise of dictatorship in Italy and Germany lead to the weakening of the League of Nations.

(iii) The rise of extreme Nationalism in Italy Germany in the form of Fascism and Nazism respectively contributed to the causes which led to the second world war. Italy wanted to receive the glory of old Roman Empire. Thus, Mussolini and Hitler drove the countries of the world towards another World War. Nazism considered to be one form of fascism, both rejected the ideologies of liberalism, Marxism and Democracy. Fascism was in vogue between 1919 to 1945, Nazism became popular between 1933 to 1945.

(iv) Three causes that led to second world war are as follow:
1. Discontentment with The Treaty of Versailles: The treaty of Versailles, though aimed at maintaining world peace, was undoubtedly un biased and vindictive. Its demand disintegration of Germany and creation of many states.

2. Rise of Fascism and Nazism: The rise of fascism ideologies in Italy and the Nazi spirit in Germany gave an impetus to the already discontented countries. Subsequently, Italy and German employed aggressive policies of annexation that propelled all nation toward the second world war.

3. Aggressive Nationalism and Expansionism: To satisfy their nationalistic urges and to further economic interest, the rulers of Germany ,Italy and Russia followed a policy of aggressive nationalism.

Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What the above picture depicts? [2]
(ii) In November 1950,The General Assembly increased its power through a resolution called? [2]
(iii) Mention any three objectives of United Nation. [3]
(iv) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining peace. [3]
Answer:
(i) The United Nation General Assembly.

(ii) The General Assembly increased its power through a resolution called ‘Uniting for Peace’.

(iii) 1. By preventing and removing all threats to peace.

2. To develop friendly relation among nation based on respect for the principle of equal right and self-determination of people.

3. By setting all international disputes by peaceful means on the principle of justice and international laws.

(iv) The functions of the Security Council related to maintaining world peace are:
1. At the time of war: The Security Council may call for cease fire to stop aggression or for cutting off communication links with the aggressor nation or severing diplomatic relations with it.

2. Investigatory role: It may investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction. It can also recommend methods for adjusting such disputes.

3. Military action: Security Council may resort to military action. Such action may include operations by air, sea or land forces supplied by Member Nations.

4. Admission of new members: New members are admitted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of WHO and where it headquarters. [2]
(ii) How did the UNICEF come into existence and to what purpose? [2]
(iii) What efforts has the UNICEF made for education and improvement of sanitation? [3]
(iv) Explain how non-Alignment is neither neutrality, nor neutralisation, nor non-commitment. [3]
Answer:
(i) WHO- World Health Organisation. It’s headquartered is at Geneva.

(ii) The UNICEF was created through a resolution of the UN General Assembly in 1946, to meet the emergency needs of children in Europe and China immediately after Second World War.

(iii) The UNICEF provides funds for programmes advocating education for development, training and orientation of national personnel including health, sanitation workers, teachers, nutritionists and child welfare specialists. It supports AIDS education and families of AIDS victims. It helps the community to cope up with this problem. For education, it provides paper, textbooks and equipment like pumps and pipes for bringing clean water to villages.

(iv) (a) It does not remain aloof from international problems. It actively participates in the politics among
nations. So, Non-Alignment stands for action rather than passivity.

(b) The newly independent nations realised that although they do not have the military and economic powers to influence international affairs, they had great moral force and with their collective reason they could maintain or promote world peace on their own.

(c) NAM has supported the cause of international peace, justice and freedom. It has vehemently stood against any injustice, be it the Suez Crisis in 1956, aggressive policies of Israel or the unilateral attack by the USA against Iraq.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)

Question 1.
(i) The procedure to remove the President is called _________. [1]
(a) Impeachment
(b) Interpellation
(c) Resolution
(d) Prorogation
Answer:
(a) Impeachment
Explanation:
The President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term if he violates the Constitution of India. The impeachment procedure can be initiated in either of the two houses of the Legislature: Lok Sabha (The Lower House) or Rajya Sabha (The Upper House).

(ii) The term of office of the Vice President is _________. [1]
(a) Five years
(b) Six years
(c) Two years
(d) Ten years
Answer:
(a) Five year
Explanation:
Normal term of office of the Vice-President is five years provided by constitution.

(iii) The ___________ is considered to be the Leader of the Lok Sabha. [1]
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(d) Prime Minister
Explanation:
The Presiding officer of the lower house of the Parliament is Prime Minister.

(iv) The power of the Supreme Court to review laws passed by Union Legislature is _________. [1]
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction
(c) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(d) Judicial Review
Explanation:
Judicial Review can be defined as the power of the Supreme Court to examine the laws passed by the union legislature and the orders issued by the executive officials to find wether or not they are permitted by the Constitution.

(v) The High Court judges are appointed by the _________. [1]
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(a) President
Explanation:
The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the chief justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of concerned state. The appointment of other judges shall also be made in the same manner except that in their case the Chief Justice of High Court shall also be consulted.

(vi) Which of the following was not a common ideology of the dictators? [1]
(a) Faith in totalitarian rule
(b) One party and One Leader
(c) Faith in Communism
(d) Aggressive Nationalism arid Imperialism
Answer:
(c) Faith in Communism
Explanation:
The ideology of dictatorship faith in totalitarian rule, One party One Leader and Aggressive Nationalism and Imperialism but not in communism.

(vii) The International Court of Justice consists of _________ judges. [1]
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 15
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.

(viii)The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the members of _________. [1]
(a) General Assembly
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Trusteeship Council
(d) The Secretariat
Answer:
(a) General Assembly
Explanation:
The Security Council has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. It has 15 Members, and each Member has one vote.

(ix) The Treaty of Versailles mandated Germany to pay a war reparation of _________. [1]
(a) 35 billion dollars
(b) 40 billion dollars
(c) 33 billion dollars
(d) 50 million pounds
Answer:
(c) 33 billion dollars
Explanation:
Treaty of Versailles, peace document signed at the end of World War I by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany in the Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles, France, on June 28,1919; it took force on January 10, 1920.

(x) Which of these countries was not part of the Berlin-Rome -Tokyo Axis? [1]
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Japan
(d) France
Answer:
(d) France
Explanation:
Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was the alliance between Italy, Germany, and Japan who fought against Allied forces in World War II. Officials from Nazi Germany, Fascist Italy, and Imperial Japan signed the ten-year Tripartite Pact. The pact was the military alliance which asked for cooperation among the three nations (Axis powers) in World War II.

Part – II
Section – A [50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The executive power of the Indian Union is vested in the President of India. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Give any two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [2]
(ii) Mention any two discretionary powers of the President. [2]
(iii) Mention any three legislative powers of the President. [3]
(iv) Name the three kinds of emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. [3]
Answer:
(i) The two reasons for the indirect election of the President are:
The President is only a nominal executive and the real powers are vested in the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister. It would have been anomalous to have the President elected directly by the people and not give him any real power.

The direct election of the President would have been very costly and time and energy-consuming due to the vast size of the electorate. This is unwarranted keeping in view that he is only a symbolic head.

(ii) Two Discretionary powers of the President are:
1. The President has to be informed of all important decision and deliberations of the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister is bound to provide whatever information the President seeks.

2. The President cannot dismiss the Prime Minister in a Parliamentary System, as long as he enjoys a majority. But in case no single party gets a majority, then the President can write to the person who can govern with a majority support to form a Coalition Government which would be stable.

(iii) Legislative powers of the President are:
1. He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2. He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.

3. He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill pending in the Parliament or otherwise. (Any two)

(iv) There are three types of emergencies under the Indian Constitution which are declared by president namely:
1. National Emergency: Article 352 of the Indian Constitution talks about the national emergency. National emergency is imposed whereby there is a grave threat to the security of India or any of its territory due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

2. State Emergency: Article 356 talks about the failure of constitutional machinery in state also known as the President’s rule. If the president on Governor’s report or otherwise is satisfied that the situation has arisen that the government can’t be carried in accordance with the constitutional provisions then, he may issue State emergency.

3. Financial Emergency: The president under Article 360 of the constitution has the power to declare financial emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability or the credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. It has to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless meanwhile approved by the resolution of Houses.

Question 3.
The Supreme Court is the head of the entire system of judiciary. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) Mention any three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3]
(iv) Why is the Supreme Court called the Court of Record? [3]
Answer:
(i) Two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court are He should be a citizen of India. He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years.

(ii) The judges of the Supreme Court are appoint by President.
The term of office of Supreme Court judges are until they attain the age of 65 years.

(iii) The three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are:
1. Any dispute between the Centre and one or more state.
2. Protection of Fundamental Rights.
3. Interpretation of Constitution.

(iv) The Supreme Court called the Court of Record because:
The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references.

Section – B
(Attempt any two question from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War. [2]
(ii) Name the two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War. Name the dictators. [2]
(iii) Explain the Sarajevo Crisis. [3]
(iv) Mention any three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France. [3]
Answer:
(i) The two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War I are:
1. Triple Alliance: It had Germany, Austria Hungary and Italy as its members.
2. Triple Entente: It had France, Britain and Russia as its members.

(ii) The two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War were Germany and Soviet Russia:
1. The dictator of Germany was- Adolf Hitler.
2. The dictator of Soviet Russia was- Joseph Stalin.

(iii) This Sarajevo Crisis refers to the events surrounding the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne, and his wife Archduchess Sophie during a state visit to Sarajevo on 28 June, 1914. It is traditionally regarded as the immediate catalyst for the First World War which also ended Austro-Hungarian rule in Bosnia and resulted in the creation the kingdom of Yugoslavia.

(iv) Three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France were:
1. France gained a lot from the Treaty of Versailles. Alsace-Lorriaine were returned by Germany to them.
2. France was compensated for the destruction of its coal mines by Germany. France was supposed to get 15 years of supply of coal from Germany.
3. Germany paid financial reparations, disarm, overseas colonies, 13% of its territories to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.

Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which organization does this emblem represent? Where is its head quarters ? [2]
(ii) Mention any two objectives of this organisation. [2]
(iii) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3]
(iv) What is the composition of the Security Council? [3]
Answer:
(i) This emblem represents United Nation Organisation. Its headquarter is in New York City.

(ii) The two objectives of United Nation Organisation are:
1. The maintenance of International Peace and security.
2. To encourage international cooperation in the spheres of social, economic and cultural development.

(iii) The three functions of the General Assembly are:
1. Consider and approve the United Nations budget and establish the financial assessments of Member States.

2. Elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and the members of other United Nations councils and organs and, on the recommendation of the Security Council, appoint the Secretary-General.

3. Consider and make recommendations on the general principles of cooperation for maintaining international peace and security, including disarmament.

4. Discuss any question relating to international peace and security and, except where a dispute or situation is currently being discussed by the Security Council, make recommendations on it.

(iv) The Security Council consists of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
The Republic of China, France, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, and the United States of America are the permanent members of the Security Council.

The General Assembly elect ten non-permanent members of the United Nations the Security Council. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of two years. In the first election of the non-permanent members after the increase of the membership of the Security Council from eleven to fifteen, two of the four additional members shall be chosen for a term of one year. A retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election. Each member of the Security Council shall have one representative.

Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of UNICEF and UNESCO. [2]
(ii) Mention any two functions of WHO. [2]
(iii) What is meant by the term Non-Alignment? Name any two founders of the Non- Aligned Movement. [3]
(iv) Mention any three objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3]
Answer:
(i) UNICEF: United Nations Children’s Fund.
UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

(ii) The two functions of WHO are:
1. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed.
2. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation and dissemination of valuable knowledge.

(iii) Non-aligned may refer to: Non-Aligned Movement, movement of states considering themselves not formally aligned with or against any major power bloc. Non-belligerent, in a war. Neutrality (international relations), in a war: more restrictive than non-alignment.
The first NAM was held in Belgrade in 1961.
Two founders of Non-aligned Movement were:
1. President Tito (original name Josip Broz) of Yugoslavia.
2. President Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana. President Sukarno of Indonesia.

(iv) The three objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement are:
1. To eliminate all the causes which could lead to war.
2. To strengthen the United Nations as an organ of world peace.
3. To oppose colonialism, imperialism and racial discrimination.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Papers with Answers 2022-2023

• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 1 with Answers
• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 2 with Answers
• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 3 with Answers
• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 4 with Answers
• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 5 with Answers
• ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Paper 6 with Answers

ICSE Sample Papers for Class 10 with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Vindhya Range [1]
(ii) River Brahmaputra [1]
(iii) Allahabad (Prayagraj) [1]
(iv) Chota Nagpur Plateau [1]
(v) Chilka Lake [1]
(vi) Konkan coast line [1]
(vii) Karakoram Pass [1]
(viii) Standard Meridian (82°30’E) [1]
(ix) Direction of North East Monsoons. [1]
(x) State with lowest population density. [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Name the metallic mineral which used in paint pigments. [2]
(b) Write any two industrial uses of copper.
(ii) Why petroleum is called mineral oil? Write its two advantages. [2]
(iii) With reference to Hirakud dam answer the following questions: [3]
(a) On which river it is situated and name the state where it is located?
(b) To which steel plant does Hirakud dam supply electricity?
(iv) (a) Which state is the leading producer of wind energy in India? [3]
(b) Why Indian railways is often called as the lifeline of the nation? Give two reasons.
Answer:
(i) (a) Iron is a metallic mineral, used in pain pigments.
(b) The two industrial uses of copper are as follows:
1. It is used in electronic product manufacturing.
2. It is used in building construction and power generation and transmission.

(ii) Petroleum is called mineral oil because it is obtained from sedimentary rock of the Earth. Advantages of petroleum are as follows:
1. It is used as a fuel to power vehicles, heating units and machines.
2. It is used as an important raw material for various petro-chemical products.

(iii) (a) It is situated on Mahanadi River.
(b) Hirakud dam supplies electricity to the Rourkela Steel Plant.

(iv) (a) Tamil Nadu is the leading producer of wind energy in India.
(b) Indian Railways is often called as the lifeline of the nation because of the following reasons:
1. It provides means of living to lakh of people including not only to its employees but also to many more Further it connects the entire nation into a common thread and transports passengers as well as goods.

Question 3.
(i) Name any two major problems faced by farmers in Indian Agriculture. [2]
(ii) (a) Name any two Rabi Crops of India. [2]
(b) Name any two Kharif Crops of India.
(iii) With reference to Rice cultivation answer the following questions: [3]
(a) What are the conditions required for cultivation of this crop?
(b) Name the state that is the largest producer of this crop in India.
(c) Name any two methods of rice cultivation in India.
(iv) (a) Define the Drilling method of cultivation.
(b) Which soil is more preferred for cotton cultivation in India?
(c) What does 210 frost free days term refers in cotton cultivation? [3]
Answer:
(i) Problems faced by farmers in Indian Agriculture are as follows:
1. Small and fragmented land holdings.
2. Poor Quality of seeds. Inadequate storage facilities
3. Inadequate use of manure and fertilizers. (any two)

(ii) (a) Wheat, peas, gram, sesame, mustard etc. are the main rabi crops. (any two)
(b) The main Kharif crops are rice, cotton groundnut, maize etc. (any two)

(iii) (a) Conditions required for the cultivation of rice are as follows.
1. It is a Kharif crop that requires a high temperature.
2. The average rainfall required is about 150 to 200 cm.
(b) West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.
(c) Methods of rice cultivation in India are as follows:
1. Broadcasting method or scattering
2. Dibbling
3. Drilling method
4. Transplantation (any two)

(iv) (a) In Drilling method seeds are sown in the furrows with the help of a drill normally made of bamboo.
(b) Black soil is most suitable soil for growth of Cotton therefore it is also called black cotton soil.
(c) Cotton is the moderate temperature crop if the temperature drops below zero the plant will die and no harvesting will be there hence cotton requires about 210 frost free days during its growth period.

Question 4.
(i) Why Petro-Chemical Industries are so important and what products are made from the Industries? [2]
(ii) Give two reasons why sugar industries are shifting from northern to southern India. [2]
(iii) With reference to Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) answer the following questions:
(a) Who is the founder of TISCO and when was it established?
(b) Why it is located in Jamshedpur? Give any two reasons.
(c) Why it is more prominent than other private sector of steel industries? [3]
(iv) (a) What are agro- based industries? Name any two importance of agro-based industries.
(b) Name any two products of Electronic industry. [3]
Answer:
(i) Petrochemical industries are important because they produce products which are cost-effective, economically stable and cheaper. Synthetic fibre, synthetic rubber, PVC, polythene, plastic chappals etc. are the products of petrochemical industries.

(ii) The sugar industry of India is gradually shifting from northern India to peninsular India because of the several better conditions prevailing there.
1. The tropical climate of peninsular India results in higher yield per unit hectare of land.
2. Higher sucrose content in peninsular cane.
3. Cooperatives are more successful in these states.
4. Longer crusting season in South prevent drying of cane. (any three)

(iii) (a) Jamshedji Tata is the founder of TISCO and it was established in 1907.
(b) The industry is located in Jamshedpur on the banks of Subarnarekha and Kharkai river because:
1. These rivers help in the industrial uses and water treatment for the industry.
2. Densely populated regions of Jharkhand and Odisha provide cheap labour.
(c) Tata steel is more prominent because it is one of the most geographically diversified steel producers with operations and commercial presence across the world. It operates in 26 countries with key operations in UK, India and Netherlands.

(iv) (a) Industries that uses agricultural products as their raw materials such as cotton, jute, silk, sugarcane
and edible oil are known as agro-based industries.
The importance of agro based industries are as follows:
1. It supports balanced growth between agriculture and industry.
2. It avoids wastage of perishable agricultural products.
3. It provides employment to the landless agricultural labour and tribal population in rural and backward areas and further provides base for the development of these areas. (any two)

(b) These are the products of Electronic industry:
1. Capacitor
2. Computers and monitors
3. Resistor
4. Defence equipment
5. Printed circuit board (any two)

Question 5.
(i) Why water transport is important for the development of country? Give any two reasons. [2]
(ii) Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. [2]
(iii) What is Golden quadrilateral and name the four major cities which are connected by it? [3]
(iv) What do you mean by “North-South and East-West Corridor” (NSEW)? Which Indian state falls in both North-South and East-West corridor project? [3]
Answer:
(i) Water transport is important for the development of a country because:
1. It is more suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
2. It is fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.

(ii)

(iii) The Golden Quadrilateral is a national highway network connecting the major industrial, agricultural and cultural centers of India. The project is being implemented by “National Highways Authority of India” (NHAI). It forms a quadrilateral connecting the four major metro cities of India that are Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai.

(iv) The North-South, East-West (NSEW) is the largest ongoing highway project in India. It consists of 7300 km of 4/6 lane expressways associating Srinagar, Kanyakumari, Kocchi, Porbandar and Silchar. Jhansi is the junction of North-South and East-West corridors.

Question 6.
(i) What is the importance of waste segregation? [2]
(ii) What is dumping method of waste disposal? Explain. [2]
(iii) What is composting? Mention any two significance of compositing. [3]
(iv) What is the 3R principles in Solid Waste Management? [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. It decreases the amount of waste that reaches to landfills.
2. It makes wastes much easier to recycle.
3. Pollution of air and water can be controlled when hazardous waste is separated and located separately.

(ii) Dumping or landfilling is an old way of disposing of wastes. It is an easy method for disposal of dry refuse. In this process solid waster are dumped in a low lying area and as a result of bacterial action they are converted gradually into humus.

(iii) Composting is a natural process of recycling organic matter such as leaves and food scraps into a valuable fertilizer that can enrich soil and plants. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost.
Significance of composting are as follows:
1. Reduction of the quantity of wastes to be disposed by householder.
2. It is a natural waste disposal system.
3. The compost improves the texture of the soil. (any two)

(iv) The principle of reducing reusing and recycling wastes are often called as the 3R principles in Solid Waste Management.
Reducing means choosing to use things with care to reduce the amount of waste generated.
Reusing involves the repeated use of items or parts of items which still have usable aspects.
Recycling means the use of wastes itself as resources.
Waste minimization can be achieved in an efficient way by focusing primarily on these 3R principles of Solid Waste Management.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Satpura Range [1]
(ii) River Narmada [1]
(iii) Kolkata [1]
(iv) Nilgiris [1]
(v) Andaman Sea [1]
(vi) Gangetic Plains [1]
(vii) Deccan Plateau [1]
(viii) Thar (The Great Indian Desert) [1]
(ix) South West Monsoon [1]
(x) State with Highest population density. [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) In waste management three R’s stands for what? Name any two of them. [2]
(b) What do you mean by Recycling?
(ii) Define waste segregation and name the two most popular categories of waste segregation based on decomposition. [2]
(iii) With reference to Waste Management answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Why is waste management needed today? Give two reasons.
(b) In order to segregate the waste how many types of dustbins are used in domestic areas?
(iv) (a) What do you mean by Composting? Give its one importance.
(b) Name any two sources form which Municipal solid waste is generated. [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) The three R’s stand for Reducing the waste, Reusing the waste and Recycling the waste.
(b) The process of changing the waste and non-usable materials into potentially useful materials is called Recycling.

(ii) Separation of wastes into different categories of waste is called waste segregation. It depends upon the disposal technique. The two most popular classification of waste segregation based on decomposition are biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste categories.

(iii) (a) Waste management is needed today because:
1. Waste causes air and water pollution.
2. The rotting garbage produces harmful gases and mixes with the air causing breathing problems to the people.

(b) Types of dustbin used in domestic areas:
1. Green coloured dustbins are used for wet and biodegradable wastes coloured dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.
2. Blue coloured dustbins are use for non-biodegradable wastes.

(iv) (a) Composting is a form of waste disposal where organic waste decomposes naturally under oxygen- rich conditions. This mixture of decayed or decaying organic matter used to make soil fertile.
(b) Municipal solid waste is generated from:
1. Households
2. Parks
3. Street Wastes

Question 3.
(i) Name any two important ores of iron. [2]
(ii) (a) Name the two states who are leading producer of manganese in India. [2]
(b) Why is Copper used to prepare utensils?
(iii) With reference to Mineral and Energy Resources answer the following questions: [3]
(a) What do you mean by Metallic Mineral?
(b) Name the state where the two copper mines Singhbhoom and Hazaribagh are located.
(c) Name the clean energy resource which is associated with petroleum.
(iv) (a) How is biogas produced?
(b) Why is the use of alternative sources of energy becoming essential in modern time?
(c) Mention one agricultural and one industrial problem solved by the Bhakra Nangal Dam. [3]
Answer:
(i) Haematite and Magnetite

(ii) (a) The leading producers of manganese as per the data of 2018-19 in India are Madhya Pradesh followed by Maharashtra.
(b) Copper is used to prepare utensils because it is a good conductor of heat.

(iii) (a) A mineral from which we get metals is known as Metallic Mineral. Examples: Iron, copper, aluminium, gold, lead, tin etc.
(b) Singhbhoom and Hazaribagh are two copper mines of Jharkhand.
(c) Natural gas is the clean energy resource which is found in association with petroleum.

(iv) (a) Biogas is produced by the use of cattle dung. The technique is based on decomposition of organic matter in the absence of air to yield gas.
(b) Alternative sources of energy are needed because the ever-growing demand for energy cannot be met by conventional sources of energy.
(c) Bhakra Nangal Dam solved the agricultural problem of flooding and soil erosion.

Question 4.
(i) Name any two environmental factors contributing to low agricultural development in India. [2]
(ii) Is wheat a rabi or kharif crop ? In which state of India is the largest amount of wheat grown? [3]
(iii) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following questions:
(a) Which method of cultivation in India is being popularized to increase the productivity of rice?
(b) Which is the ideal soil for the growth of rice?
(c) What are the methods of cultivation of rice? Which one is known for its better yields? [3]
(iv) (a) What is’Hybrid’? [3]
(b) What is ‘Rust’?
Answer:
(i) The environmental factors contributing to low agricultural development in India are as follows:
1. Erratic and unreliable rainfall.
2. Lack of adequate irrigation facilities and dependence on monsoon.
3. Soil degradation from erosion and salinization destroys productivity.

(ii) Wheat is a rabi crop. Uttar Pradesh produces the largest amount of the total production of wheat.

(iii) (a) Japanese method of rice cultivation is being popularized in India in order to increase the productivity of rice.
(b) Alluvial, friable loamy with clay-like impervious sub-soil is ideal for the growth of rice.
(c) Drilling, dibbling, broadcasting and transplanting are the methods of cultivation of rice. Transplantation is known for its better yields.

(iv) (a) Crossing of two varieties of seeds of the same family to give a new seed is known as hybrid.
(b) A fungus called ‘rust’ which affects the wheat crop in India. It is a kind of wheat crop diseases.

Question 5.
(i) Give any two reasons as to why Mumbai has developed into an important cotton textile centre. [2]
(ii) Give any two reasons why the sugar industry is migrating to the South. [2]
(iii) Name the three types of sugar made from sugarcane juice. [3]
(iv) Name some important centres of the cotton industry in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Mumbai’s location as an international port helps in import and export.
2. Humid climate of Mumbai is ideal for this industry.

(ii) 1. Maritime climate which is free from loo and frost.
2. Availability of black soil which is well drained and more fertile.
3. Sugarcane of the South is of superior quality. (any two)

(iii) 1. Gur or jaggery
2. Khandsari
3. White sugar.

(iv) Maharashtra: Mumbai, Sholapur, Pune, Nagpur, Akola
Uttar Pradesh: Kanpur
Punjab: Phagwara

Question 6.
(i) Name the two extreme stations which are connected by the North-South Corridor. [2]
(ii) Name the four cities which are connected by Golden Quadrilateral. [2]
(iii) Why is the air transport preferred in North-Eastern states of India? Give any three reasons. [3]
(iv) Why is inland waterways declining in its importance ? Give three reasons for your answer. [3]
Answer:
(i) Srinagar-Kanyakumari are extreme points connected by the North-South Corridor.

(ii) Golden Quadrilateral is a network of roads that connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

(iii) The air transport is preferred in North-Eastern states of India:
1. Due to the hilly terrains, the region is unfavourable for the construction of railway lines.
2. The region has big rivers, dissected relief, dense forest and frequent floods and international frontiers so it is also difficult to construct roads.
3. Airways can cover difficult terrains, deserts, dense forests and long distances with ease.
4. It is a safe mode of transportation.

(iv) 1. It is slower means of transport.
2. Water transport provides access to limited areas.
3. Diversion of water from the river for the purpose of irrigation and silting of the river beds have reduced the importance of inland water transport.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 4 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Western and Eastern Ghats [1]
(ii) Aravali [1]
(iii) Malabar Coast [1]
(iv) Jhelum [1]
(v) Gulf of Kutch [1]
(vi) Mount Kanchanjunga [1]
(vii) Coal Jharia [1]
(viii) Black soil [1]
(ix) Chennai [1]
(x) Tapti [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Why is manganese used as an important raw material in iron and steel industry? [2]
(b) Mention cone use of iron ore.
(ii) Why are coal and petroleum known as fossil fuels? [2]
(iii) With reference to the Bhakra Nangal project: [3]
(a) State the location of the project.
(b) Mention two factors that favoured the location of the project.
(iv) (a) State two advantages of biogas.
(b) Why is solar energy considered as a flow resource? [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) Manganese is used in iron and steel industry to make steel more durable, rust proof and strong, (b) Iron ore is used as a basic raw material for manufacturing steel.

(ii) Coal and petroleum are considered as fossil fuels as they are burnt to produce energy. They are farmed by the decomposition of dead plants and animals. Hence, they are considered as fossil fuel.

(iii) (a) The Bhakra Nangal project is located in Himachal Pradesh. It is built on River Sutlej.
(b) 1. The steps mountainous terrain helps in the generation of hydel power.
2. The swift flow of river Sutlej helps in hydel power generation.

(iv) (a) 1. Biogas is produced by the decomposition of organic wastes like food wastes water, crop residue etc. Hence it helps in waste management.
2. Biogas can be used as an alternative for electricity and cooking in rural areas.

(b) Solar energy is produced by harnessing the sun’s energy. Solar energy is available freely in Nature and does not get exhausted due to large scale use of the sun’s energy. Hence it is considered as a flow resource.

Question 3.
(i) What is green Revolution? [2]
(ii) Write two differences between Kharif crops and Rabi crops. [2]
(iii) With reference to pulses answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Name some important pulses grown in India.
(b) State the suitable climatic conditions required for pulse cultivation.
(c) Why are pulses used for crop rotation?
(iv) (a) What are cash crops?
(b) Give an example of a cash crop grown in India and state its leading producer.
(c) What is fine plucking? [3]
Answer:
(i) The period between 1972-77 that observed a huge increase in the production of cereals in India a referred to as Green Revolution. This was mainly possible due to the use of HYV seeds, improved irrigation facilities and large scale use of fertilizers and pesticides.

(ii)

(iii) (a) Some important pulses are:
gram, arhar, moong, masur etc.
(b) Pulses require an average annual temperature between 20°C-25°C and an average annual rainfall between 50-75 cm.
(c) Pulses are leguminous crops. It helps in nitrogen fixation that increases soil fertility. Hence, they are used for crop rotation.

(iv) (a) Cash crops are those crops which are used mainly for their commercial value e.g. tea, coffee.
(b) Tea is an important cash crop grown in India. Assam is the leading producer of tea.
(c) The process of plucking two leaves and a bud is called fine plucking.

Question 4.
(i) Write two differences between heavy industries and light industries with suitable examples. [2]
(ii) State two factors for the concentration of cotton textile industry in Southern India.
(iii) With reference to Rourkela steel plant answer the following:
(a) State the location of the plant.
(b) Name the coalfields associated with this plant.
(c) Name two important products of this steel plant. [3]
(iv) (a) Name two important petrochemical producing centres of India and state their location. [3]
(b) Which region of India is known as the ‘Silicon Valley of India’?
Answer:
(i)

(ii) 1. The humid climate in Southern India provides ideal conditions for cotton cultivation.
2. The beach soil of the Deccan Plateau region is ideal for cotton cultivation.

(iii) (a) It is located in the north western tip of Odisha in Sundargarh at the confluence of rivers Sankh and Brahmani.
(b) Coalfields: Jharia and Talcher.
(c) Products: Galvanised sheets and hot rolled sheets.

(iv) (a) Haldia petrochemicals Ltd. located at Haldia in West Bengal. Indian Petrochemical corporation Ltd. located at Jawaharnagar near Vadodara.
(b) Bangalore is known as the Silicon Valley of India.

Question 5.
(i) Mention two advantages of National Highways. [2]
(ii) State two reasons for the concentration of dense railway network in the Northern Plains of India. [2]
(iii) State three importance of transport networks. [3]
(iv) What are the disadvantages of using waterways? Name any three. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. National highways helps to reduce travel time and makes movement from one place to the other faster.
2. It helps to provide a greater connectivity across the whole country.

(ii) 1. The flat level land of the Northern plains helps to construct the railway lines easily.
2. The Northern plains of India are densely populated. Thus the railway networks help in the movement of people from one place to the other.

(iii) 1. A well developed transport system helps in the establishment of industries.
2. A good networks of transport system helps to increase the production of raw materials, fuels, machineries etc. by providing a market to them.
3. It helps to increase the mobility of labour force.

(iv) Disadvantages of waterways:
1. Water transport is only possible in areas with navigable rivers and ocean sea.
2. Travelling time is highly increased in case of water transport.
3. Rough sea conditions may hamper harvesting through water transport.

Question 6.
(i) Why are recycled plastic bags considered harmful for the environment? [2]
(ii) What does the term three R’s stand for? [2]
(iii) State any three problems or hindrances towards effective waste management. [3]
(iv) Mention three disadvantages of open dumping. [3]
Answer:
(i) Recycling of plastics involves the melting down of plastics at very high temperature that produces volatile organic compounds and toxic fumes that are harmful for the earth.

(ii) The three R’s stands for Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.

(iii) Problems of Waste Management:
1. The collection and disposal of waste are often met with various challenges.
2. Waste management is often delayed due to lack of waste collection vehicles.
3. Waste management often takes along due to lack of segregation of wastes.

(iv) Disadvantages of Dumping:
1. The burning of wastes in open pits results in air pollution.
2. The open pits are often the breeding grounds for mosquitoes.
3. Open dumping results in foul smell and also spoils the sight of the area.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Satpura Range [1]
(ii) Konkan coast [1]
(iii) River Narmada [1]
(iv) Gulf of Khambhat [1]
(v) Mumbai High [1]
(vi) The Region of Alluvial soil in Northern India [1]
(vii) Direction of North East Monsoons [1]
(viii) Delhi [1]
(ix) An Area of dense population in Southern India [1]
(x) Yamuna [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Why is iron ore called the back bone of our modem industry? [2]
(b) Name the largest copper producing state of India.
(ii) Give two advantages of nonconventional resources over conventional resources. [2]
(iii) With reference to the Hirakud project answer the following questions : [3]
(a) On which river is it located?
(b) Name any two states benefitted by Hirakud project.
(iv) (a) State two advantages of using solar power.
(b) Why are conventional sources of energy considered as fund resources? [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) Iron Ore is called the back bone of our modern industry because it provides raw material to run many other industries.
(b) Madhya Pradesh is the largest copper producing state of India.

(ii) Advantages of Non conventional resources: Non conventional resources such as wind energy, solar energy etc. are environment friendly. Conventional sources like coal produce harmful gases that results in air pollution.
Non conventional resources are renewable and available freely in the nature.

(iii) Hirakud project
(a) River Mahanadi.
(b) Two states that are benefitted from the Hirakud project are Orissa and Chhattisgarh.

(iv) (a) Advantages of solar power are:
It is a flow resource.
It is a non polluting source of energy.

(b) Conventional sources of energy are considered as fund resources because they are limited in supply. Such resources like coal crude oil etc. will get exhausted if used indiscriminately.

Question 3.
(i) State two problems of Indian agriculture. [2]
(ii) (a) Name two crops grown during the Kharif season in India. [2]
(b) What are zayad crops?
(iii) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following questions : [3]
(a) State the temperature and rainfall condition required for rice cultivation?
(b) Name the soil found suitable for its growth.
(c) Why is transplantation considered as a popular method of rice cultivation?
(iv) (a) Name the largest producer of cotton in India.
(b) What is ratooning?
(c) Why are rolling hill slopes preferred for tea cultivation? [3]
Answer:
(i) Problems of Indian agriculture
1. Agriculture in India is dependent on the monsoons. As a result crop cultivation is often affected by uncertain and unequal distribution of monsoon rainfall.
2. The traditional farming techniques used in Indian agriculture are inefficient and results in low production.

(ii) (a) Rice and Jute
(b) Zayad crops are grown between Kharif and Rabi seasons i.e. between March to June. e.g. cucumber, Pumpkin, Watermelon.

(iii) (a) Rice grows best in warm and humid areas with an average temperature ranging between 18°C-32°C and average annual rainfall between 150-300 cm.
(b) Rice grows best in clayey or loamy soil which has adequate moisture retaining capacity.
(c) The transplantation method produces higher yield. Thus it is considered as a popular method of rice cultivation

(iv) (a) The largest cotton producing state in India is Gujarat.
(b) Ratooning is a popular method used in sugarcane cultivation. In this method during the first harvest sugarcane is wet leaving a part of the stalk in the soil with roots. The successive crops obtained from the roots of the leftover crop is called Ratton.
(c) Hill sops are preferred for tea cultivation as it provides the suitable climatic conditions and does

Question 4.
(i) Write two differences between large scale and small scale industries giving suitable examples for each from India. [2]
(ii) State two importance of agro based industries in India with suitable examples. [2]
(iii) With reference to the ‘Tata Iron and Steel Plant’ answer the following questions:
(a) State the location of the plant.
(b) Name the coal fields associated with this plant.
(c) Name two important products of this steel plant. [3]
(iv) (a) State two importance of the electronic industry in India. [3]
(b) Why is the petrochemical industries considered as ‘sunrise’ industry?
Answer:
(i) Large scale industries are those which are involved in large scale production that involves large infrastructure and large number of workers, e.g. the Iron and Steel industries of India.

Small scale industries are involved in small scale production that does not involve large capital investment and employ less number of labours e.g. cottage industries of India.

(ii) Importance of Agro based Industries:
1. Agro based industries like cotton textiles depend on the agricultural sector for the supply of raw materials which helps to increase the demand for agricultural raw materials like cotton, jute sugarcane etc.

2. It helps in the development and stability of the rural economy e.g. The development of jute and tea industries in West Bengal along the Hugli basin played a great role in the upliftment of the economy.

(iii) (a) The Tata Iron and Steel plant is located in Jamshedpur, Jharkhand.
(b) Coal is obtained from Jharia and Bokaro coal fields.
(c) It produces high grade carbon steel and special alloy steel.

(iv) (a) The development of the electronic industries in recent times has helped in the modernisation and diversification in various fields like space technology, defence equipment, communication etc.
It provides employment to a large number of skilled labour.

(b) The various products and byproducts of the petrochemical industries such as plastics, synthetics, rubber etc. has huge demand in the domestic as well as international market due to its bright future prospect the industry is often referred to as the sunrise industry.

Question 5.
(i) State two advantages of railways. [2]
(ii) Name the four metropolitan cities connected by the golden quadrilateral. [2]
(iii) Mention three benefits of the North-South and the East-West corridor. [3]
(iv) State any three disadvantages of roadways. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Railways help in the movement of bulky commodities over long distance.
2. Railways help to carry raw materials like coal, iron ore etc to the production units. It also helps in the distribution of the finished products to the market.

(ii) Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata are connected by the Golden Quadrilateral.

(iii) The North-South and East-West corridor has helped to connect many rural areas to the urban centres. Development of infrastructural facility helped to increase employment opportunities.

(iv) Disadvantages of Roadways:
1. Roads are often poorly maintained which may result in the wear and tear of vehicles.
2. The traffic condition on Indian roads are poorly managed traffic congestion often results in pollution.
3. Movement by roads often results in long duration.

Question 6.
(i) What is meant by the term waste management? [2]
(ii) Why is composting considered as a safe method of waste disposal? [2]
(iii) State three suitable examples of how waste is reused in India. [3]
(iv) State three advantages of segregation. [3]
Answer:
(i) Waste Management: Waste Management refers to a series of process that involves the collection transportation, treatment and disposal of garbage, sewage etc. It is done in three steps-source reduction of waste, reusing the waste recycling of waste.

(ii) Composting involves the decomposition of organic wastes. The organic wastes are broken down by microorganism into an environment friendly soil like substance called compost. Thus it does not allow soil pollution.

(iii) Three examples of Reuse of wastes in India are as follows :
1. Waste types are reused to make shoes.
2. Waste cans or tin containers are often used for making artifacts.
3. Waste agricultural products like parts of crops, grasses etc. are reused to make different types of paper.

(iv) Advantages of Segregation
1. Segregation wastes helps to identify hazardous and non-hazardous wastes and thus the proper disposal of wastes and waste treatment becomes easier.
2. If segregation of waste is not done properly it may result in the missing up of hazardous wastes with general house hold wastes in the environment. This may result in contamination and long term health hazard. Thus segregation helps to protect the environment and human health.
3. It makes Recycling easier.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) The Himalayas [1]
(ii) Coromandel [1]
(iii) Kosi [1]
(iv) Karakoram Pass [1]
(v) Standard Meridian (82° 30’E) [1]
(vi) Allahabad (Prayagraj) [1]
(vii) State with highest density of population [1]
(viii) Tungabhadra [1]
(ix) Andaman Sea [1]
(x) Godavari [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Why is Copper used to make electric wires? [2]
(b) Why is India’s location advantageous for the generation of solar power?
(ii) Name two leading states producing Manganese. [2]
(iii) With reference to Iron Ore answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Name two varieties of iron ore used in industry.
(b) How is the low grade iron ore utilised?
(iv) (a) Name two industries that use a high quantity of coal.
(b) Name one important area that has large coal deposits in the states of Jharkhand and West Bengal. [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) Copper is a good electrical conductor so, it is used in the electrical industry mainly to make copper wires.
(b) India lies between 8°N and 37°N with the Tropic of Cancer running through it and so receives a lot of sunlight with 300 clear days in a year. Thus, India’s location is advantageous for the generation of solar power.

(ii) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra as per the date of 2018-19 are the two leading states producing Manganese in India.

(iii) (a) Haematite and Magnetite are two important iron ores.
(b) The inferior variety of iron is often used in manufacturing sponge iron and converted into pellets and then exported.

(iv) (a) Two industries that use high quantity of coal are:
Iron and Steel Industry and the cement industries.
(b) Coal Centre in Jharkhand – Jharia, in West Bengal – Raniganj.

Question 3.
(i) Why is agriculture important in India? Name the two main agricultural seasons of India. [2]
(ii) (a) What is Shifting cultivation? [2]
(b) Define the term Oil cake.
(iii) With reference to the cultivation of tea, answer the following: [3]
(a) Why is tea grown on hill slopes?
(b) Why tea bushes have to be pruned at regular intervals?
(c) Why are women mostly employed in the tea plantation?
(iv) (a) How has farm fragmentation become a major problem of agriculture of India?
(b) Mention any two features of plantation farming by stating two examples.
(c) Mention any one difference in the geographical condition and cultivation of rice and wheat. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Agriculture is important in India as it provides food for our ever expanding population and fodder for our livestock. It provides employment to millions of people.
2. Rabi and Kharif seasons are the two main agricultural seasons of India.

(ii) (a) Shifting cultivation or slash and burn or jhumming : It is mostly practiced in North-East India. In this method of cultivation patch of forest land is cleared and crops are grown. After 2-3 years when the fertility of the soil is exhausted , land is abandoned and the farmers moved to a fresh piece of land and the process continues.

(b) Oil cake: After extraction of oil from the oil seeds, the left over residue is known as oil cake which can be used as an important cattle feed and organic manure.

(iii) (a) Tea is grown on hill slopes as the roots of tea bushes cannot tolerate stagnant water and the hill slopes drain away the water helping the tea bushes to grow properly.

(b) Tea bushes have to be pruned at regular intervals to encourage the growth of new leaves and to keep the height of the bushes low for the women who do the plucking of the tea leaves.

(c) The women are mostly employed in the tea plantations as they are the source of cheap and skilled labour to facilitate plucking of tea leaves.

(iv) (a) Farm fragmentation reduces the size of farm on which it is not possible to use harvesters or other farm machinery. This results in the large scale wastage of fertile land and labour, thus it is one of the main problem of agriculture of India.

(b) In Plantation Farming a single crop is grown on a large estate with modern and scientific techniques mainly for trade.

It is a labour intensive method of farming and requires excellent managerial skills, technical knowledge of how the huge capital investment should be done. Example : Tea, Coffee, Coconut, Rubber, etc.

(c)

Question 4.
(i) Differentiate between Mineral-based industry and Agro-based industry giving one example for each. [2]
(ii) State two conditions necessary for the setting up of a heavy engineering industry. [2]
(iii) With which large scale industry would you identify the following manufacturing centres?
(a) Kanpur
(b) Rourkela
(c) Pune [3]
(iv) (a) Why is Kolkata an important cotton manufacturing centre even though West Bengal is not a leading producer of cotton. [3]
(b) Name one integrated iron and steel plant in the private sector. Where does it obtain its iron and coal from?
Answer:
(i) Mineral-based industry depends on the minerals for their raw material, e.g,, iron and steel industry. Agro-based industry depends on the agricultural products for their raw material, e.g., jute industry, sugar industry etc.

(ii) Two conditions required for setting up of a heavy engineering industry are as follows :
(a) Availability of heavy and bulky raw materials like iron ore.
(b) Large capital investment.

(iii) (a) Kanpur – Sugar industry
(b) Rourkela – Iron and steel plant
(c) Pune – Cotton textile industry

(iv) (a) The hot and humid climate of Kolkata facilitates the spinning of yarn of finer cotton. It has soft water from river Ganga for bleaching and dying, sufficient power supply, cheap labour and excellent means of transportation.

(b) Tata Iron and Steel Company: It obtains iron ore from Singhbhum in Jharkhand and Mayurbhanj, and Bonai in Odisha. Coal is secured from Jharia in Jharkhand.

Question 5.
(i) Roadways are always considered more important than any other means of transportation. Give two reasons to support the statement. [2]
(ii) Differentiate between an expressway and a highway. [2]
(iii) What is the Golden Quadrilateral? Mention any two ways in which it will help in the economic development of the country? [3]
(iv) Mention two advantages and one disadvantage of waterways. [3]
Answer:
(i) Roadways are considered more important because roads can be constructed in remote areas, difficult terrain, high altitudes and steep slopes where no other means of transport can reach. Roads provide door to door service. They are quicker and safe means of transport, thus the cost of transportation is reduced considerably.

(ii) One major difference between a highway and an Expressway is that a highway is a high speed road connecting two or more cities, while an Expressway is a very high speed highway that has limited or controlled access for two wheelers and three wheelers, but has features like lane dividers and access ramps to provide a pleasing motoring experience at high speed to motorists.

(iii) The Golden Quadrilateral is a highway network connecting India’s four largest metropolises: Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. The project will help industrial development by easing the process of supply of raw materials. It will also help to connect many remote areas with the main cities.

(iv) The two advantages of water transport are :
1. It is suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.

2. It is fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.
Disadvantages: The seasonal rivers of peninsular India are not navigable. It is the slow means of transport.
Due to silting of river beds and diversion of water for irrigation canals the river beds have become shallow so, navigation is not possible in all rivers.

Question 6.
(i) How can waste be reused? Explain with the help of an example. [2]
(ii) How does Waste accumulation affect the environment? Give any two examples. [2]
(iii) What are Biodegradable Waste? Mention any two sources of waste. [3]
(iv) Explain briefly the meaning of the following terms : Composting, Incineration and Segregation. [3]
Answer:
(i) Waste can be reused by recycling it and making new products from it e.g., shoes from old tyres, water bags from leather etc.

(ii) Waste accumulation pollutes air, water and soil.
It degenerates the landscape, and chokes the drainage system.
It creates health problems like cholera, dysentery, typhoid, etc., due to growth of bacteria in the water.

(iii) It is a waste which decomposes through the actions of bacteria, fungi and other living organisms. Various sources of waste are :
1. Domestic waste
2. Industrial waste
3. Agricultural waste
4. Municipal waste (Any two)

(iv) Composting : It is a process where biodegradable organic wastes like tree leaves, vegetable peel and discarded food items are converted into useful manure.

Incineration: It involves burning of waste at a very high temperature and are fed into an incineration chamber and combustion destroys the organic compound.

Segregation: The waste from residential areas, hotels, restaurants, office complexes and commercial areas must be segregated at source into different categories of biodegradable, non-biodegradable, biomedical, toxic and non-toxic wastes. The process of doing so is called segregation.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Himalayas [1]
(ii) River Ganga [1]
(iii) Chennai [1]
(iv) Western Ghats [1]
(v) Gulf of Kutch [1]
(vi) Malabar coastal plain [1]
(vii) Karakoram Pass [1]
(viii) Black soil area in peninsular region [1]
(ix) Standard Meridian of India [1]
(x) Jharia coal field [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Give any one use of Manganese. [2]
(b) Why is copper used in electrical appliances?
(ii) Give two advantages of using Natural gas over coal. [2]
(iii) With reference to Bhakra Nangal dam answer the following: [3]
(a) On which river is it situated?
(b) Name any two states benefitted by Bhakra Nangal.
(iv) (a) Mention two advantages of using biogas.
(b) How has the nuclear power contributed in reducing the pressure on Conventional sources of India. [2]
(ii) Give two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for India. [2]
(iii) With reference to Rourkela steel plant answer the following:
(a) Where is it located?
(b) Which country helped India to establish this steel plant?
(c) From where does it get its iron ore requirement? [3]
(iv) (a) What are the benefits of using petrochemical products? (Any two) [3]
(b) How has the electronic industry revolutionised the entertainment sector?
Answer:
(i) (a) Manganese is used in the manufacturing of steel. Manganese gives the steel strength and
hardness.
(b) Copper is used in electrical appliances due to its low resistance and excellent conductivity. It is ductile and relatively less resistant to corrosion.

(ii) The two advantages of using natural gas over coal are:
1. Natural gas burns almost completely up to the mark, leaving no ash pile behind.
2. Natural gas produces about half as much CO₂ as coal to produce the same amount of energy.

(iii) (a) Bhakra Nangal dam is situated on Sutlej river.
(b) States benefitted by Bhakra Nangal dam are : Haryana, Rajasthan, Himachal Pradesh and Punjab.

(iv) (a) The two advantages of using biogas are:
1. Biogas is a renewable and clean source of energy, like solar and wind power, which can help us in reducing our reliance on fossil fuels, such as coal, oil and natural gas.
2. Biogas by products are used as organic fertilizer.

(b) The Nuclear power has contributed in reducing the pressure on Conventional sources of energy as it is more efficient then burning fossil fuels as the amount of energy released from uranium per gram, is much more than that of conventional fuels such as oil or coal approx. 8,000 times more efficient in fact.

Question 3.
(i) Mention two ways in which agriculture sector is important for India. [2]
(ii) (a) Name two agriculture seasons of India. [2]
(b) Name one crop that grows in each of the season mentioned by you.
(iii) With reference to Wheat cultivation answer the following: [3]
(c) Why is this crop not grown in southern parts of India?
(iv) (a) Name the largest producer of tea in India.
(b) What is GINNING?
(c) Why is PRUNING essential for tea crop? [3]
Answer:
(i) The two ways in which agriculture sector is important for India are:
1. It is an important sector of Indian economy as it contributes about 20.19% according to Ministry of Agriculture Sector 2021 to the total GDP.

2. It provides the main source of food, income and employment to about 70% of the rural households.

(ii) (a) The two agriculture seasons of India are:
Rabi (October -November to March-April)
Kharif (June-July to September-October)

(b) The crops that grows in each of the season are :
Rabi – Wheat, oat, mustard, barley gram, linseed, potatoes
Kharif – Rice, maize, cotton, jowar, sugarcane, pulses, jute, bajra, ragi.

(iii) (a) Alluvial soil rich in humus and loamy in texture with good structure and water holding capacity is ideal for wheat cultivation.
(b) Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India.
(c) Wheat is not grown in southern parts of India because the temperature require at the time of sowing wheat is 10-15 degree Celsius which is not possible in these regions. Wheat grows best in well drained loam and clay loam whereas southern India have laterite and red soil.

(iv) (a) Assam is largest producer of tea in India.
(b) Ginning is the process of removing the seeds and debris from cotton. The cotton gin machine separates cotton fibers from the seed bools and dust particles which enable greater productivity than manual cotton separation.
(c) Pruning is the method of cutting branches of tea bush. This method encourages the growth of tea shoots with softer leaves and to keep the plant about 1.2m high so that the leaves can be picked easily.

Question 4.
(i) Differentiate between public sector and private sector industry giving suitable example for each from India. [2]
(ii) Give two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for India. [2]
(iii) With reference to Rourkela steel plant answer the following:
(a) Where is it located?
(b) Which country helped India to establish this steel plant?
(c) From where does it get its iron ore requirement? [3]
(iv) (a) What are the benefits of using petrochemical products? (Any two) [3]
(b) How has the electronic industry revolutionised the entertainment sector?
Answer:
(i) Differentiate between public sector and private sector industry.

(ii) The two ways in which cotton textile industry is important for India are :
The industry is the second largest employer in the country after agriculture providing employment over 150 million people directly.
It contributes significantly to industrial production, 14% of total production of the industry comes from textile.

(iii) (a) Rourkela steel plant is located in North Western tip of Odisha.
(b) Germany helped India to establish this steel plant.
(c) Rourkela steel plant of Odisha gets its iron ore from Sundargarh and Keonjhar district of Odisha.

(iv) (a) The benefits of using petrochemical products are :
Petrochemical products are economical and cost effective as they are produced on a large scale. They are durable as compared to the traditional agricultural product and raw material is easily available.

(b) Electronic industry with mass scale integration process has produced computers, servers, displays, TVs, cameras, telephone exchanges etc. It has enabled to capture and broadcast News advertisements, cinemas etc. to a large section of population over the country and overseas. Thus revolutionizing the entertainment sector over the masses.

Question 5.
(i) Mention two advantages of using waterways. [2]
(ii) Differentiate between national highway and state highway. [2]
(iii) Mention three benefits of Golden quadrilateral. [3]
(iv) What are the three disadvantages of using air transport? [3]
Answer:
(i) The two advantages of using waterways are:
(a) It is beneficial to transport heavy and bulky material on a large scale In this way it is important for foreign trade.
(b) It is the most inexpensive means of transportation.
(c) It is eco-friendly mode of transportation.

(ii) The difference between national highway and state highway is.

(iii) The three benefits of Golden quadrilateral are :
(a) It provides faster transport networks between major cities and ports.
(b) It provides smoother movements of goods and people within the country.
(c) It enables industrial development and job creation in smaller towns through access to varied markets.

(iv) The three disadvantages of using air transport are:
1. Air transport is a costly service. Its operational cost is very high.
2. Air transport is prone to accidents as a small mistake can be very dangerous to passengers.
3. Air transport can carry small tonnage but it has high fright charges.
4. There is a whole variety of materials not suitable for such transport example explosives inflammable gases, batteries, solid and liquid fuels.
5. Air transport runs on petroleum which is a nonrenewable source of energy.

Question 6.
(i) Why is there a need for waste management in India? (Two points) [2]
(ii) Segregation considered a safe method of waste disposal. Explain. [2]
(iii) Mention three ways that may be used in India to reduce waste. [3]
(iv) Mention three reasons as to why the dumping of waste may be harmful. [3]
Answer:
(i) There is a need for waste management in India because:
Waste management reduces the effect of waste on the environment, health and so on.
Waste management helps to reduce the hazardous materials from environment thus preventing from spreading hazardous diseases and improves public and community health conditions.

(ii) Segregation of waste or sorting of wastes into categories like hazardous waste, biodegradable waste and non biodegradable wastes etc., helps in preventing toxic wastes from entering the municipal sewage connected to rivers. This method helps save the life-forms living in the rivers and maintains a healthy ecological balance too. Segregation helps the authorized waste collectors to dispose the hazardous waste quickly and safely.

(iii) The three ways that are used to reduce waste in India are:
1. Contribution of Swachh Bharat Abhiyan towards waste disposal is to adopt the 3Rs that is Reduce, Reuse and Recycle.
2. Composting in the kitchen and yards. Food scraps and yard debris are composted into fertilizers, replenishing the soil too.
3. By avoiding even single use plastic and non-biodegradable material for e.g. Food and drink containers.

(iv) The three reasons why the dumping of waste may be harmful are:
1. The chemicals that are disposed by dumping them into our waterways like streams, rivers and aquifers make it unsafe to use for drinking and agricultural purposes.

2. Dumping makes the waste rot and decompose producing harmful gases like CO₂ and methane both of which are greenhouse gases contributing to global warming.

Open dumping also provides a place for germs, insects and other vectors to grow and spread diseases.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper with Answers 2022-2023

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ICSE Class 10 Question Papers with Answers | ICSE Solved Question Papers for Class 10

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