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ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography – Earth As a Planet

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ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography – Earth As a Planet

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

Exercises

I. Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
How can you prove that the earth is a sphere by looking at the Pole Star ?
Answer:
The Pole Star can be seen at an angle of 90° at the North Pole, as it lies directly at the line of axis of the earth, while its angle decreases towards the Equator i.e. it is 0° at the equator. It is only possible in an quarter arc of a circle. It proves that the earth is a sphere with circular surface.

Question 2.
Briefly describe the shape of the earth.
Answer:
The earth has got a spherical shape, slightly bulging at the equator and flattened at the poles. The spherical shape is confirmed by the arrival of a ship seen first by its mast and later on the ship. The satellite picture of the earth, shadow of the earth on the moon as circular, and the views of circular horizons from the height etc. all these prove the spherical shape of the earth.

Question 3.
What is the earth’s mean temperature ? State its one advantage.
Answer:
The earth’s mean temperature is 17° C, which is ideal to support the survival of the life-system.

Question 4.
Why is the earth called a watery planet ?
Answer:
The earth is called a watery planet, as its major part i.e. 70% is covered by water or hydrosphere. The earth is seen blue in the satellite pictures due to the majority of water.

Question 5.
What is ‘biosphere’ ?
Answer:
Biosphere is the narrow zone of contact amidst lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

Question 6.
Name the conditions necessary for life on earth.
Answer:
The conditions necessary for life on earth, are ideal temperature range with an average between 10°C and 35°C, solar radiation, humidity, wind, water, land etc.

Question 7.
Give any two features of the earth that make it a ‘Unique Planet’.
Answer:
The earth is so for the only planet which consists of life- system. It is due to its ideal average temperature of 17°C to support the life and provide with atmosphere and hydrosphere to impart air and water essential for life.

Question 8.
Why is the planet Venus hotter than the planet Mercury?
Answer:
Venus is hotter than Mercury because the atmosphere around Venus is mainly composed of carbon dioxide. The carbon dioxide produces Greenhouse effect on the surface of Venus. Thus, the tempreature on its surface remain very high.

Question 9.
Name the two sources of heat in the interior of the earth.
Answer:
Two sources of heat in the interior of the earth are the radioactive elements trapped inside and the immense temperature and pressure in the deep interior.

Question 10.
What is meant by Terrestrial Life ?
Answer:
On the surface of the earth, there are continents and oceans. The life on the continents or on land is called ‘Terrestrial Life’.

Question 11.
Name the members of the Solar System.
Answer:
Members of the solar system includes the Sun and everything that orbits it like planets (Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn,.Uranus and Neptune), their satellites, asteroids, comets, interplanetary gas and dust.

Question 12.
What is a planet ?
Answer:
A planet is a rocky or gaseous mass that revolves around a star.

Question 13.
What is meant by Inner Planets ? Name them.
Answer:
The planets that lie within the asteroid belt that is Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called the inner planets.

Question 14.
Why are the inner planets called the terrestrial planets?
Answer:
The inner planets are called the terrestrial planets because their structure is similar to that of the earth.

Question 15.
What are Jovian planets ? Name them.
Answer:
The planets whose structure is similar to that of Jupiter are – called Jovian planets. They have ring systems around and have a large number of moons. They are of gaseous origin. Saturn, Uranus and Neptune are Jovian planets.

Question 16.
How big is the sun ? Describe its size with respect to the earth.
Answer:
The sun is a star or a ball of hot gases. Its diameter is 1,392,000 km. i.e. 110 times larger than that of earth and its volume is 1.3 million times larger than the earth.

Question 17.
Distinguish the earth from the other planets in one important aspect.
Answer:
Our earth is also called a Tonely-planet’ because of its one important aspect having extensive life system.

Question 18.
How did the earth get its atmospheric blanket ?
Answer:
In the beginning, at the time of evolution of the planets, the earth was also a body of burning clouds of gases and dust. After cooling process, the heavy elements subsided downwards and the gases floated upwards and formed the atmosphere around the earth as a blanket.

II. Fill in the blanks

  1. The Pole Star can be seen at an angle of 90° at the North Pole.
  2. The earth rotates from west to east.
  3. Biosphere is the narrow zone of contact between lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.
  4. The earth has an average temperature of 17° C.
  5. Atmosphere is the major reservoir of carbon on the earth.
  6. In terms of size, the earth is fifth planet in the Solar System.
  7. Eratosthenes worked out the circumference of the earth to be 46,250 km.
  8. A typical galaxy may contain large cluster of stars.

III. Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Study the picture and answer the questions that follow.

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Earth As a Planet 1

(a) What does the picture show you about the earth ?
(b) State briefly the Bedford Level Experiment.
(c) The sun rises and sets at different times in different places. What does the statement show about the shape of the earth.
(d) In what way is the earth’s atmosphere beneficial to mankind ?

Answer:

(a) The picture shows the spherical shape of the earth.

(b) Three pillars of equal height were put along the Bedford Level canal area in England each at 5 kms. interval. After observation it came to know that the middle pole was higher than the sideward poles. This proved that the earth’s surface was curved and the earth is a spherical body.

(c) The times of sunset and sunrise are different in the different part of the earth, because the earth moves from west to east and the places situated in the east get sunrise first. Japan is called the land of rising sun, as it is in the eastern-most part of the Eastern Hemisphere and the date starts from the Eastern Hemisphere. It proves that the earth is spherical.

(d) The atmosphere is indispensable for life on earth, as it provides air to inhale ; rainfall and fresh waterbodies after the hydro logical cycle. Moreover, it absorbs the extremely hot ultraviolet rays of the sun and makes the temperature ideal on earth. Other planets are either very hot or very cold due to the absence of atmosphere.

Question 2.
Provide reliable evidence to prove that the earth is spherical in shape.
Answer:
The earth can be clearly seen spherical in the photographs from the satellite. Other proofs are the sight of the mast of a ship first before the ship appears, varying heights of the poles fired at different places at an interval of 5 km, through the Bedford Level Experiment and the sight of Pole Star at 90° from North Pole and the view of the earth’s horizon as circular from higher attitudes.

Question 3.
Give the distinctive features of the earth as a unique planet. Also give three points of comparison with respect to other planets.
Answer:
The earth possesses all the essential features necessary for maintaining the life-system. It is provided with atmosphere and hydrosphere along with the lithosphere. Moreover the average temperature of 17°C is ideal for survival. Three points of comparison with respect to other planets are as follows.

  1. Other planets are either too hot or too cold that are unfavourable for life.
  2. Other planets are devoid of atmosphere and hydrosphere and some are surrounded by poisonous gases.
  3. Other planets are devoid of fresh water bodies, like rivers and lakes.

Question 4.
Describe the role of each of the following in making earth a habitable planet.

(a) Atmosphere
(b) Water
(c) Temperature

Answer:

(a) Atmosphere — Atmosphere play very important role in making earth a habitant planet. Atmosphere plays following role:

  1. The atmosphere receives heat from the sun by solar radiation and loses heat by earth’s radiation. In this way a balance is maintained.
  2. The earth’s atmosphere is made up of life supporting gases like nitrogen, oxygen and carbon dioxide. Other gases include Helium and Aigon.
  3. Ozone present in the earth’s atmosphere absorbs the harmful ultraviolet rays of the sun.
  4. The atmosphere also prevents loss of heat from the earth’s surface and helps to keep the earth warm.

(b) Water — 70% of the earth’s surface is covered by water. Water plays following role :

  1. It is responsible for moderating the climate and surface condition of the earth.
  2. Water from seas, rivers and lakes evaporates into the atmosphere where it condenses and falls back as precipitation. Most of the water on land flows back to the oceans. Thus, water moves in a continuous cycle — the hydrological cycle. There is proper balance between evaporation, condensation and precipitation without which life would not be possible.
  3. Water can absorb enormous amounts of heat without causing much change in its temperature. During the day, waterbodies rapidly absorb enormous amount of heat : thus, the earth remains fairly cool. At night the waterbodies release vast amounts of heat that they absorbed during the day, which along with other atmospheric effects, keep most of the surface from freezing at night.

(c) Temperature — The earth is the third planet from the sun. It has an average temperature of 17°C which is suitable for life to exist. If the average temperature on the earth’s surface changes by only a few degrees, many species would perish due to extreme heat or cold.

Question 5.
Name the different realms of the earth.
Answer:
The different realms of the earth are lithosphere, hydrosphere and atmosphere.

Question 6.
Study the picture and answer the questions that follow.

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Earth As a Planet 2

(a) What is meant by the Solar System ?
(b) Give two differences between a planet and a star.
(c) Name the planets known as terrestrial planets.
(d) Give two advantages the earth has over other planets.
(e) What are satellites ?

Answer:
(a) The sun along with eight planets and asteroids forms the Solar System.

(b)

  1. The stars like the sun radiate heat and light. Planets have no light of their own. They reflect the light of their stars.
  2. The stars are large burning masses very far from us while the planets are solid bodies nearer to us.

(c) The planets within the asteroids belt i.e. Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars, are called the Terrestrial planets.

(d)

  1. The earth enjoys an ideal average temperature of 17°C
  2. The earth consists of the life-system.

(e) The satellites are the celestial bodies that revolve around the planets.

Question 7.
Write a short note on the planets of the Solar System. Name the planets in order of their distance from the sun.
Answer:
There are total eight planets included in the solar system which revolve around the sun in their particular elliptical tracks. According to their distance from the sun from near to far, these are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus and Neptune.

Question 8.
Distinguish between a planet and a star.
Answer:
A Planet :

  1. A planet revolves around a star
  2. A planet has not got its own light.
  3. A planet is a solid body.

A Star :

  1. A star remains still on its position.
  2. A star has got its own light.
  3. A star is a burning gaseous body.

Practice Questions (Solved)

Question 1.
In which unit the distances of universe are measured ?
Answer:
Light year.

Question 2.
How much time does a ray of sunlight take to reach the Earth ?
Answer:
8 minutes approximately.

Question 3.
How much time does a ray of moonlight take to reach the Earth ?
Answer:
One second approximately.

Question 4.
How many planets are there in the Solar System ?
Answer:
Eight

Question 5.
Name the largest planet of the Solar System.
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 6.
Name the planet closest to the Sun.
Answer:
Mercury

Question 7.
Name the planet farthest from the Sun.
Answer:
Neptune.

Question 8.
What is position of the Earth from the Sun ?
Answer:
Third

Question 9.
Name the planets between the Sun and the earth.
Answer:
Mercury and Venus.

Question 10.
Which planet is known as ‘blue planet’ ?
Answer:
Earth

Question 11.
Which planet is known as ‘red planet’ ?
Answer:
Mars

Question 12.
Which is the brightest planet ?
Answer:
Venus

Question 13.
Which planet has the largest number of satellites ?
Answer:
Jupiter.

Question 14.
Which planet has only one satellite ?
Answer:
Earth

Question 15.
Which planet has three rings round it ?
Answer:
Saturn.

Question 16.
Which star is known as ‘Evening Star or “Morning Star” ?
Answer:
Venus

Question 17.
How many satellites are there in Solar System ?
Answer:
100 approximately.

Question 18.
Which is the centre of the Solar System-Sun or Earth?
Answer:
Sun

Question 19.
What is the period of rotation of Moon ?
Answer:
27 days 7 hours 43 minutes.

Question 20.
‘Although the Moon has no light of its own, yet it shines’. Why ?
Answer:
Sun’s light is reflected from the surface of the moon.

Question 21.
Mention two important features of Earth that make it a planet suitable for life.
Answer:

(a) Presence of atmosphere
(b) Presence of water

Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
State three unique features of the Earth.
Answer:
There unique features of earth are as follows :

  1. It is neither too hot nor too cold.
  2. It had atmosphere surrounding it.
  3. There is plenty of water on it.

Question 2.
State three factors which have made life possible on the Earth and on no other planet.
Answer:
The factors which have made life possible on earth and on no other planet are as follows :

  1. Earth is the only planet in the Solar System which is neither too hot nor too cold.
  2. The atmospheric blanket around the earth protects it from ultra-violet and other deadly sun rays.
  3. The mixture of gases in the atmosphere is suited to growth and survival of life.
  4. Plants, through the process of photosynthesis take away carbon dioxide from atmosphere and make oxygen available for animals to breathe.
  5. Oceans play a great supportive role. They cover three-fourths of earths surface and are responsible for operation of hydrological cycle which makes water on land surface available.
  6. Circulation of many life cycles not make energy and food available but also process the wastes which otherwise would harm life.

Question 3.
Give reasons for the following :

(a) Earth is called a “Watery Planet”.
(b) Earth has the most ideal temperature conditions.
(c) Earth and its Moon are called a double planet.

Answer:

(a) Because the Earth is the only planet which has water and 70% if its surface is covered by water.
(b) Earth has the most ideal temperature conditions because it is neither too close nor too distant from the sun. This position in the Solar System makes it possible to receive neither excessive nor totally deficient heat from the Sun. Its average temperature surface temperature is 17 degrees Celsius far more favourable for living conditions than about 500°C on the nearest planets and about 150° to 200° Celsius below freezing point on the sunlit sides of distant planets. Earth is, thus, neither a burning furnace nor an extremely cold planet.
(c) Earth and its Moon are called a double planet because they revolve round the sun nearly in one and the same orbit.

Question 4.
Draw a fully labelled diagram of water cycle and explain its working and significance with reference to the diagram.
Answer:
The water is evaporated from the surfaces of open oceans, seas, rivers, lakes and from the surface of living organisms. The evaporated water gets condensed, precipitated and form the water droplets. These water droplets are returned to the earth in the form of rain and snow or it may drop directly into the oceans. If it falls on land, it again flows back into the oceans through rivers and streams. The evaporation rainfall cycle repeats several times to get the average rainfall.
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 Geography Chapter 1 Earth As a Planet 3
Question 5.

(a) What makes our Sun as an ordinary star in the universe?
(b) What heavenly bodies are the members of the Solar System?
(c) Arrange the nine planet of the solar system in order of their sizes.
(d) Why do planets, being opaque bodies, shine in the sky?

Answer:
(a) There are several galaxies in the limitless universe. Each galaxy consists of millions of stare like the Sun. Thus, the Sun is an ordinary star in no way different from many of the other stars.
(b) Components of the Solar System : Our Solar System . consists of the Sun and its nine planets, major and minor, 63 satellites, a large number of very small planets called asteroids, millions of other heavenly bodies called meteors or shooting stars and the scores of comets. All these components are held together by the Sun’s great gravitational pull.
(c) The largest planet is Jupiter and the smallest is Mercury. According to their size the planets are :

  1. Jupiter
  2. Saturn
  3. Neptune
  4. Uranus
  5. Earth
  6. Venus
  7. Pluto
  8. Mars
  9. Mercury

(d) Planryd are opaque heavenly bodies. They radiate no light of their own but shine with the light that is reflected from the Sun.

Question 6.
Distinguish between the following pairs.

(a) Superior and Inferior planets.
(b) Planet and Planetiods
(c) Periodical and Non-periodical comets
(d) Meteors and Meteorties
(e) Planet and Satellite.
(f) Inner and Outer planets.

Answer:
(a)
Superior Planets :

  1. The six planets outside the Earth’s Orbit are known as the superior planets.
  2. Mars, Jupiter, Saturn and Uranus Neptune and Pluto are superior planets.

Inferior Planets :

  1. The two planets inside the Earth’s orbit are known as the inferior planets.
  2. Mercury and Venus are inferior planets.

(b)
Planets :

  1. The planets are bigger bodies and visible as nine planets.
  2. These move in their elliptical orbits around the sun in different spans of time.
  3. These are nine planets with particular names.

Planetoids :

  1. These are smaller bodies planets in the form of debris.
  2. These revolve round the Sun once in about 5 years along their own elliptical orbits between Mars and Jupiter in the gap.
  3. These are about 50,000 planetoids in the gap.

(c) Periodical comets : The comets which have regular orbits round the Sun and occur at fixed intervals are called periodical comets. Halley’s comet is a periodical comet and is one of the most famous comets, which is due next in 2062. It is seen at intervals of 76 years. It was seen in 1910 and in 1986. Non-periodical comets : Such comets are seen very rarely and they are not sighted at regular intervals. There are records of observations of about 1000 comets. Some of these have been named. Comets become visible only when they travel close to the Sun. The ice melts and the gas and dust are swept back to form the tail. The tail always points away from the Sun.

(d)
Meteors :

  1. A meteor is a shooting star like a streak of light across the sky at night. It is composed of pieces of stony or metallic rocks.
  2. These travel round the world in an eccentric orbit.
  3. Big meteors fell down in Siberia in 1980 and 1948.

Meteories :

  1. Meteorites are the scattered pieces of the meteors which are unconcerned after burning.
  2. These are the dust of meteors falling on the earth as meteorites, same of these are also of great size.
  3. About 5000 years back a meteorite fell down in Arizona (USA) and created a hollow, 180 meters deep and of 12,000 meters diameter.

(e)
Planet :

  1. Planets are opaque bodies which revolve around the Sun.
  2. Planets originate from the Sun.
  3. There are nine planets in the Solar System. The earth is a planet.

Satellite :

  1. Satellites are small spherical bodies which revolves round a particular planet.
  2. Satellites originate from the Sun.
  3. There are 33 Satellites in the Solar System. Moon is the Satellite of the Earth.

(f)
Inner Planets :

  1. The Planets similar to the Earth are known as inner planet (small, in size)
  2. Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars are inner planets and are known as terrestrial planets.

Outer Planets :

  1. The planets which are not similar to Earth are known as outer planets, (large in size)
  2. Jupiter, Saturn, Uranus, Neptune and Pluto are outer planets and as known as major planets.

Question 7.

(a) How many satellites are there in the Solar System?
(b) Name the planet having no satellite.
(c) Which planet has the largest number of satellites.

Or
Name the largest known satellite of any planet.
Answer:
(a) There are 57 known satellites in our Solar System.
(b)

  1. Mercury
  2. Venus
  3. Pluto

(c) Titan, one of the 22 satellites of Saturn is the largest known satellite of any planet. Its size is larger than mercury and is surrounded by atmosphere of nitrogen vapours.

Question 8.
Why are the following planets not inhabitable ?

(a) Mercury
(b) Venus
(c) Jupiter
(d) Neptune
(e) Saturn

Answer:
(a) Mercury is not inhabitable due to the following reasons:

  1. A part of it turned towards the Sun is always in sunlight. There it is a continuous long day. The temperature reaches 450°C in this hottest part. It experiences a perpetual summer.
  2. Its other side is always turned away from the Sun. There is a continuous night on this side. It is like perpetual winter, the temperature going 150°C below freezing point. Therefore, the diurnal range of temperature is very high.
  3. There’is very little atmosphere and no .water on this planet. The atmospheric envelope is so thin that Mercury’s world is airless.

(b) Venus is not inhabitable because its atmosphere contains 96% of carbon dioxide and the temperature reaches the maximum of 480°C. It is the hottest planet in the solar-system.
(c) Jupiter is not inhabitable due to the following reason :

  1. Its surface temperature is very low (-148°C)
  2. It has no water and there are tremendous storms on the surface of the Jupiter.
  3. The atmosphere of the Jupiter is unbreathable, because of absence of oxygen and presence of poisonous gases like ammonia, methane and ethane etc.

(d) Neptune is not inhabitable because of very low surface temperature (-216°C) and mgthane clouds surrounding it.
(e) Saturn. Saturn is the second largest planet in solar system. The planet itself is mostly made up of light gases and it is less dense than water. If Saturn were placed in a large ocean, it will float on water Scientists, however believe that the planet may have a solid core.

Question 9.
Name the following

(a) Two planets which are nearer to the sun than the Earth.
(b) Two planets which are farther from the sun than the Earth.
(c) The planet farthest from the Sun.
(d) The planet nearest to the Sun.

Answer:

(a) Mercury and Venus
(b) Jupiter and Saturn
(c) Pluto
(d) Mercury

Question 10.

(a) Which is the unit adopted for measuring the distance in the Universe ? Give a reason for its choice.
(b) Find out the number of years to reach the following celestial bodies from the Earth : Nearest star from the Earth (Distance 150 million km)

Answer:

(a) The unit adopted for measuring the distances in the universe is light year. The reason for the choice of this unit is that a kilometer is too short a unit to measure the distances between one heavenly body and another in space.
(b) 15.8 light year

Question 11.
Which unit is used for measuring distances in the universe?
Answer:
The unit used for measuring distances in the Universe is light year. One light year is defined as the distance traveled by light in vacuum in one year.
One light year = 95 × 1012 km

Question 12.
What makes the Sun so hot ?
Answer:
The Sun is a large hot gaseous body. It is 1.3 million times bigger than Earth. The surface temperature of the Sun is about 6000°C. In the core of the Sun, the temperature is estimated to be about 20,000,000°C. Such extremely high temperature is produced by the conversion of hydrogen into helium by the process of fusion. This process releases tremendous amounts of the energy and the Sim radiates the energy in the form of electro magnetic radiation.

Question 13.
Name the three planets which have rings around them.
Answer:

  1. Saturn
  2. Uranus
  3. Neptune

Question 14.
Give reasons for the following :

  1. Mercury completes its orbit in less time than the Earth.
  2. Venus is considered as the Earth’s twin.
  3. No life is possible on Saturn.
  4. Pluto is the coldest planet.
  5. Comets appear very rarely.

Answer:

  1. Mercury is closer to the Sun than the Earth. Mercury lies at a distance of 59 millions Kms from the Sun, while the distance between the Earth and the Sun is 150 million kms. Therefore, mercury takes less time to complete its orbit because its orbit is much shorter.
  2. Venus is similar to the earth in size, weight and density. Both the planets are very close to each other. Because of its similarity to the Earth, Venus is called ‘Earth’s Twin.
  3. Saturn is the second largest planet in Solar System. The planet itself is mostly made up of light gases and-it is less dense than water. It saturn were placed in a large ocean, it will float on water. Scientists, however believe that the planet may have a solid core.
  4. Pluto is the farthest planet in the Solar System, so it is deadly colder. It is about 40 times farther from the Sun than the Earth.
  5. The Comets appear very rarely because the orbits of the comets are very large and highly eccentric.

Question 15.
What do you understand by ‘Terrestrial Planet’ ?
Answer:
The first four planet in order of their distance from the Sun, Mercury, Venus, Earth and Mars are called terrestrial planets, because of their similarity with the Earth.

Question 16.
Why does the moon appear big in the sky though it is smaller than other heavenly bodies ?
Answer:
The moon appears big in the sky though it is smaller than other heavenly bodies because it is nearest to the earth than other heavenly bodies.

Question 17.
The shape of the earth is not exactly that of a sphere Why?
Answer:
The shape of the earth is not exactly that of a sphere due to centrifugal force created by the rotation of the earth around its own axis.

Question 18.
Why is Mercury the hottest planet of the Solar System?
Answer:
Mercury is the smallest planet and the closest to the Sun. It takes only 88 days to orbit the Sun. It has a thin atmosphere. Due to its nearness to the Sun, it is the hottest planet.

Question 19.
Why is Neptune the coldest planet of the Solar System?
Answer:
Neptune is the farthest planet from the Sun. It takes 248 years to orbit the Sun. Its distance from the Sun is about 6000 million km. Due to its extreme remoteness, it is the coldest planet of the Solar System.

Question 20.
‘Venus is considered Earth’s Twin’. Why ?
Answer:
Venus is similar to the Earth in size, weight and density. Both the planets are very close to each other because of its similarity to the Earth, Venus is called ‘Earth’s Twin

Question 21.

(a) Describe the position of the Earth in Solar System.
(b) What is the size of the Earth ?
(c) Which is the satellite of the Earth ?

Answer:

(a) The Earth is the third planet of the Solar System. Its position lies between Venus and Mars. It is a spheroid.
(b) Its equatorial diameter is 12,756 km and polar diameter is 12,713 km. It total area is 51.1 crore sq. km. The average distance between the Sun and the Earth is 14,88,00,000 km. No other planet has life. Its circumference is about 40,000 km.
(c) The Moon is the only satellite of the Earth.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Fundamental Rights and Duties

by

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Fundamental Rights and Duties

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • Fundamental Rights are those basic rights which are considered essential to be provided to a person for his all-round development.
  • The different rights guaranteed by the Constitution are the following:
    1. Right to Equality
    2. Right to Freedom
    3. Right to Freedom of Religion
    4. Right against Exploitation
    5. Cultural and Educational Rights
    6. Right to Constitutional Remedies
    7. Right to Education
  • Fundamental Rights are universal in application and justiciable in nature.
  • Fundamental Rights are not absolute. Some reasonable restrictions can be put on them in the interest of society.
  • Fundamental duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976.
  • Fundamental Duties are not enforceable and justiciable.

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The citizens of India can move freely and assemble peacefully in any part of the country.
  2. The citizens of India have right to profess, propagate and practice the religion of their choice.
  3. The Constitution does not allow exploitation of labour or begar.
  4. Rights and duties are two sides of a coin.
  5. We should respect the National Flag and the National Anthem.

II. Match the contents of Column A Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 1

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 2

Answer:
               Column A                                          Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 3

III. Tick mark (✓) the correct statements and cross mark (X) the wrong ones:

  1. Right to property is one of the Fundamental Rights.
    X                                                ‘
  2. India is a secular state.
    ✓
  3. We are not bound to preserve the rich heritage of our country.
     X
  4. Our Constitution provides titles like ‘Rai Sahib’ or ‘Khan Bahadur’.
    ✓
  5. Fundamental rights are not enforceable.
    ✓

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What are Fundamental Rights? Why are Fundamental Rights essential for us?
Answer:
The basic human rights which every human being has a right to enjoy are called Fundamental Rights. They are essential for the balanced growth of a citizen. They are guaranteed by the Constitution. Therefore, all people irrespective of caste, creed or religious belief can go to the court of law for its enforcement.
The Fundamental Rights have great importance:

  1. They play a great part in the all round development of the individual by ensuring all such freedoms which make his life happy and worth living.
  2. A person enjoys these rights irrespective of caste or creed. As such, they provide equality of status and opportunity to every citizen.
  3. They protect him from any exploitation on the part of the state or any individual.

Question 2.
List down the Fundamental rights guaranteed to the citizens of India.
Answer:
Right to Equality is an important fundamental right. It guarantees that all citizens of India will be treated equally irrespective of caste, creed or sex.

  1. It guarantees ‘equality before law’ which means that all citizens will be equally protected by laws of the country.
  2. Articles 16 guarantees that there would be no discrimination against anyone in matters relating to employment or appointment to any government office.
  3. To keep everyone at par, Article 18 abolishes all title except military and academic ones.
  4. Practicing of untouchability in any form has been made a punishable offence by law.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the right to freedom of religion?
Answer:
Freedom is the very essence of democracy. By giving the Right to Freedom of Religion, the Constitution makes it clear that all religions are equal before the state and no religion is superior or inferior.
According to this right, an individual is allowed:

  1.  To follow any religion of his choice.
  2.  To practice it according to his specific ways.
  3. To preach it.

Question 4.
What are Cultural and Educational Rights? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
India is a land of diverse religions, languages and culture.
To maintain unity many cultural and educational rights have been given:

  1. Any community can safeguard its culture, language and script.
  2.  There is no discrimination on the basis of religion at the time of admission to state or state aided institutions.
  3. All sects and minorities in the country have been granted the right to preserve or develop their culture.

Question 5.
How does the Right to Constitutional Remedies help to safeguard our Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
The Right of Constitutional Remedies is a very special right. This gives every citizens a right to move the Supreme Court or High Court if his Fundamental rights are violated by the state, a person or a body of persons. Infact the Right to Constitutional Remedies is so important because it is the only right which guarantees the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.Without this right all other rights would have become meaningless.

Question 6.
List any five Fundamental Duties. How are Fundamental Duties important for us?
Answer:
The eleven Fundamental Duties provided by the Constitution are:

  1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  2. To cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom.
  3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
  4. To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  5. To promote harmony and the spirit of brotherhood amongst all the people of India.
  6. To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture.
  7. To protect and improve the national environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and have compassion for living creatures.
  8. To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.
  9. To safeguard public property and to abjure violence.
  10. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity.
  11. A parent/guardian should provide opportunities for education to his child/ward, between the age of 6-14 years.
    Fundamental Duties are very important for the progress and prosperity of our nation. They are also important for achieving the goal of national integration. These duties are not enforceable by a court of law but as good and responsible citizens we are obliged to perform them with honesty and sincerity.

Question 7.
Why do we say that every right has a corresponding duty? Explain with the help of an example.
Answer:
‘Rights imply duties’ means that rights and duties go hand in hand. If one hopes to enjoy rights, then he must perform certain duties. Rights and Duties are two sides of the same coin. Every right carries with it a duty.
For example, if a person has a right to follow any religion, it is his duty to allow others to follow their own religion. Fundamental duties have been laid down by our Constitution to make every citizen realize that if they are given Fundamental Rights, they must also perform certain duties. To promote harmony and to strengthen our nation it is necessary to realise the importance of these duties which are attached to every right which we enjoy.

Question 8.
Do you think Fundamental Duties should be made enforceable? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No, Fundamental duties should not be made enforceable. Fundamental duties are supposed to be moral duties, expected to be followed by citizens. Since no one can enforce morals, they are not enforceable.They are more like a reminder of Indian culture, traditions, values of freedom struggle etc. However, parliament can make laws to enforce certain duties by making legislation.

V. Mention the Right which is exercised / violated in each of the following cases:

  1. A group of citizens assembles peacefully.
    Ans. Right to Freedom.
  2. A citizen goes to worship to a place of his choice.
    Ans. Right to Freedom of Religion.
  3. A citizen moves a court of law to seek justice. .
    Ans. Right to Constitutional Remedies.
  4. A citizen can join any institution run by the state.
    Ans. Right to Equality.
  5. A citizen cannot be forced to work without payment.
    Ans. Right against exploitation.

Additional Questions
(The Fundamental Rights and Duties)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. There are six Fundamental Rights provided to the Indian citizens.
  2. Children below the age of fourteen cannot be employed for any dangerous work or in factories and mines.
  3. Fundamental Rights are universal, which means that they are granted to all the citizens of India.
  4. Some Fundamental Rights can be suspended during an Emergency.
  5. It is the Fundamental Duty of every citizen to respect the Constitution, its ideals and the symbols of India.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. All democratic nations guarantee certain basic rights/ special privileges/powers.
    Ans. All democratic nations guarantee certain basic rights.
  2. Under the Right to Equality, the practice of conferring titles such as Raja or Rai Bahadur has been approved/ abolish ed/legalized.
    Ans. Under the Right to Equality, the practice of conferring titles such as Raja or Rai Bahadur has been abolished.
  3. There are five/six/seven fundamental freedoms guaranteed to all Indian citizens.
    Ans. There are six fundamental freedoms guaranteed to all Indian citizens.
  4. The Right to Education/Right against Exploitation/ Right to Equality makes education a Fundamental Right of every Indian child between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
    Ans. The Right to Education makes education a Fundamental Right of every Indian child between the ages of 6 and 14 years.
  5. The Fundamental Rights can be enforced by the police/ army/courts.
    Ans. The Fundamental Rights can be enforced by the courts.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Rights enable everyone to maintain a dignified existence in society.
    True.
  2. We can use our freedoms to do anything we want, even if it harms other people.
    False.
  3. The Fundamental Rights are absolute.
    False.
  4. The Fundamental Rights cannot be suspended during an emergency.
    False.
  5. The Indian Constitution does not provide safeguards against the violation of Fundamental Duties.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Mention one reason why Fundamental Rights are essential in a democratic country.
Ans. These rights are essential for the smooth functioning of a democratic republic and for the social, economic, political and cultural development of the nation.

2. State one provisions of the Constitution which proves that all citizens are equal in the eyes of law.
Ans. Following are some provisions that shows that all citizens are equal in the eyes of law:

  1. Public places which are maintained by the government are open to all like – roads, parks, markets, wells and places of public entertainment.
  2. In the field of education and employment every citizen is given equal opportunity.

3. What right is guaranteed by the abolition of untouchability?
Ans. Rights to equality.

4. Mention any one Fundamental Right which shows that India is a secular country.
Ans. India is a secular country. All citizens have the right to profess, practise and propagate any religion of their choice. There shall be no discrimination on the grounds of religion.

5. Which Fundamental Right helps to protect our cultural diversity?
Ans. Our country is a mixture of various cultures, languages, religions and communities. According to the Constitution, every community has the right to preserve, protect and develop its own culture, language, script and art and also to run its own institutions.

6. Mention one Fundamental Duty that Indian citizens have towards women.
Ans. Everyone should respect the dignity of women.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
What are Rights? Why are certain basic rights guaranteed to all citizens in a democratic country?
Answer:
Rights are claim to do or have certain things, which are essential for every person to be able to maintain a dignified existence in society.India is a democracy. One of the fundamental principles of a democracy is that the government of the state is formed and carried out with the cooperation and consent of the people. All democratic nations in the world guarantee certain basic or fundamental rights to all their citizens. These rights are essential for the smooth functioning of a democratic republic and for the social, economic, political and cultural development of the nation. These rights act as a safeguard against any abuse or misuse of power by the government, an individual or a group.

Question 2.
Discuss the provisions of the following rights to prove that India is a secular country: (a) Right to Freedom of Religion (b) Cultural and Educational Rights.
Answer:
(a)
India is a secular country. All citizens have the right to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice. There shall be no discrimination on the grounds of religion.
(b)
The Cultural and Educational Rights are included in the Constitution, to make sure that every community gets the right to preserve, protect and develop its own culture, language, script and art and can also attend any educational institution run by the government.

Question 3.
How do the Fundamental Rights protect Indian citizens from exploitation?
Answer:
Rights against exploitation ensures that no citizen is forced to work against his wish. Sometimes women and children of weaker sections are exploited by making them work on low wages. The right against exploitation aims at protecting individuals against exploitation by their employers and it also ensures that children below the age of fourteen should not be employed in any dangerous work or in factories or mines.

Question 4.
Explain the significance and scope of the right to Constitutional Remedies.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are meaningless unless they are enforced and protected by a court of law. Hence, our Constitution provides the right to move the court to safeguard our Fundamental Rights. If the government, a group or an individual violates one or more of the Fundamental Rights, any citizen can file a case against the offender in the state High Court or in the Supreme Court.
Scope of the Fundamental Rights:

  1. The Fundamental Rights are universal, e., they are guaranteed to every citizen of India, irrespective of caste, colour, religion, gender or social status.
  2. The Fundamental Rights cannot be easily altered or removed from the Constitution.
  3. The Fundamental Rights are not absolute. They have certain restrictions imposed on them in the larger interests of the society.
  4. Some of the Fundamental Rights can be suspended during an emergency, such as a war or an economic or political crisis.

Question 5.
Mention the Fundamental Duties laid down in the Constitution with reference to:
(a) India’s struggle for freedom
(b) The Indian Nation
(c) Public property
Answer:
(a) Struggle for freedom: Fundamental Duties tell us to follow the noble ideals which inspired our struggle for freedom.
(b) The Indian Nation: Every citizen of the country must protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of the nation and should render national service when called upon to do so.
(c) Public property: Every citizen should safeguard public property.

G Picture Study:

This picture is a symbolic representation of a Fundamental Right.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Fundamental Rights and Duties 7

Question 1.
Name the Fundamental Right.
Answer:
Right To Equality, Right To Freedom, Right To Freedom Of Religion, Right Against Exploitation, Cultural And Educational Rights, Right To Constitutional Remedies.

Question 2.
How many Fundamental Rights are guaranteed to the people of India? Name them.
Answer:
There are six Fundamental Rights provided to the Indian people.

  1. Right to equality
  2. Right to freedom
  3. Right to freedom of Religion
  4.  Right against Exploitation
  5. Cultural and Educational Rights
  6. Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 3.
Identify the Fundamental Right enjoyed by an Indian citizen under the following circumstances or conditions:

  1. We can reside and settle in any part of India.
    Ans. Right To Freedom
  2. Indians can follow any religion of their choice.
    Ans. India is a secular country. All citizens have the right to profess, practice and propagate any religion of their choice. There shall be no discrimination on the grounds of religion.
  3. Indian children have a right to go to school.
    Ans. The Right to Education Act of 2009 (Article 21A of the Constitution) makes education a Fundamental Right of every Indian child between the ages of 6 and 14 years.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – The Constitution of India

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – The Constitution of India

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • The Constitution is a body of rules and regulations which defines the organization, powers and functions of the government as well as the rights and durties of the citizens.
  • Sovereign means an independent country which is not subject to any outside authority. No external power can control or interfere in the internal affairs of the country or dictate its foreign policies.
  • Amendment means any change in the Constitution of India.
  • Socialism means fair distribution of the country’s wealth among all and providing equal opportunities to all, to bridge the gap between the rich and the poor.
  • Secular state means a state which does not adopt a state religion and does not discriminate against anybody on the basis of religion.
  • Democracy means a government of the people, for the people and by the people.

Time To Learn
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of Drafting committee of the constitution.
  2. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
  3. The Constituent Assembly took about 2 years 11 months and 18 days to complete its work.
  4. The Preamble is an introduction to the Constitution.
  5. The constitution came into force in the year 1950.

B. Match the contents of Column A with those of Column B 

               Column A                                                  Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 1

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 2

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 3

III. Tick mark (✓) the cor (X) the wrong ones.

  1. Constitutiion is the supreme law of the land.
    ✓
  2. Before independence, our country was governed according to our Constitution.
    X
    After independence, our country was governed according to our Constitution.
  3. Our country became a Sovereign Democractic Republic on 15 th August, 1947.
    X
    Our country became a Sovereign Democractic Republic on26th January, 1950.
  4. In India, the son or daughter of the President succeeds him after his death.
    X
  5. In India, all religions are equally respected.
    ✓
  6. Elections to the Parliament and state legislatures are held every five years
    ✓

Answer the following:

Question 1.
What do you mean by the term ‘Constitution’? What does it contains?
Answer:
Constitution is a document which contains details of how to govern our country. It is a framework within which a government has to function. It defines the powers of different organs of the government and also enumerates the rights and duties of citizens.

Question 2.
Why is it necessary to have a Constitution for a country?
Answer:
Our Constitution explains our national goals like democracy, socialism, secularism, liberty, equality, fraternity etc. Thus our Constitution has an importance of its own and we must show our respect to it.

Question 3.
Name the body that framed the Constitution of India. Who was its chairman?
Answer:
Our constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly! Dr Rajendra Prasad was its chairman.

Question 4.
Who represented the Anglo-Indians and the Parsees in the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Frank Anthony and Dr H. P. Modi represented the Anglo- Indians and Parsees respectively.

Question 5.
What is Preamble? Why is it important?
Answer:
The Preamble is an introduction of the things to come. The Preamble to our Constitution summarises its aims and objectives.The Preamble expresses a great deal of meaning in a few words. The Preamble indicates the nature and ideals of the state and also the ultimate source of our Constitution.

Question 6.
What are the main ideals contained in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
Answer:
We, the people of India, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens.

JUSTICE, social, economic and political.

LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship.

EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all.

FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation.

In our constituent assembly this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do hereby adopt, enact and give to ourselves this constitution.”

Question 7.
Define the following: (a) Sovereign State (b) Secular State (c) A Republic
Answer:
(a) Sovereign State: The Preamble declares India a Sovereign State. This means that India is completely free from external control and is the master of her destiny. No outside power can interfere in the internal affairs of the country.
(b) Secular State: The word ‘Secular’ in the Preamble implies that India does not have a state religion or official.
(c) A Republic: A ‘Republic’ is a state where the head of the state is an elected person and is elected for a definite period of time.

Question 8.
State the difference between a democracy and a republic.
Answer:
Democracy: Democracy is defined as a ‘Government of the people, by the people and for the people.’
Republic: A ‘Republic’ is a state where the head of the state is an elected person and is elected for a definite period of time.

Question 9.
Do you think Indian government is ‘of the people, by the people and for the people’?
Answer:
The Indian government is ‘of the people, by the people and for the people.’ The statement mentioned above is true as in India, after every five years, general elections are held and the people eleet their government.

Additional Questions
(The Constitution of India)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Constitution of India was framed by the constituent Assembly.
  2. The Preambles tells us about the source of the Constitution, the nature of the state and its main objectives of the Constitution.
  3. Socialism involves fair distribution of the country’s wealth among all sections of the people.
  4. The people of India eleet their own government because India is a Democratic country.
  5. The President of India has a fixed term of 5 years.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. India won freedom from British/French/Portuguese rule on 15 August 1947.
Ans. India won freedom from British rule on 15 August 1947.

2. The chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India was Dr Rajendra Prasad/B. R.Ambedkar/Maulana Azad.
Ans. The chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India was Dr Rajendra Prasad.

3. The source of the Indian Constitution is the President/the Prime Minister/the people of India.
Ans. The source of the Indian Constitution is the people of India.

4. A democractic/socialist/secular state does not have an official religion.
Ans. A secular state does not have’bn official religion.

5. A democracy can work only if there is a spirit of jealousy/ brotherhood/competition among the different sections of society.
Ans. A democracy can work only if there is a spirit of brotherhood among the different sections of society.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Constitution of India was framed by the British government.
    False. Correct: The Constitution of India was framed by the Constituent Assembly.
  2. Sarojini Naidu was a member of the Constituent Assembly.
    True.
  3. The Preamble is the conclusion to the Constitution.
    False. Correct: The Preamble is the introduction to the Constitution.
  4. When the President of India dies, his/her son becomes the next President.
    False.
  5. All Indian citizens are equal in the eyes of the law.
    True

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Define the term ‘constitution’.
Answer:
A Constitution is a statement which defines the powers and functions of the government as well as the rights and duties of the citizens. It is the fundamental law of that nation.

Question 2.
How do we know that the Constitution of India was not imposed on us by the British?
Answer:
Constitution of India was not imposed on us by the British. After we got independence in 1947, a constituent Assembly under the chairmanship of Dr. Rajendra Prasad was appointed to frame the constitution.

Question 3.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
The Constitution of India came into force on 26 January

Question 4.
What is a preamble.
Answer:
The Preamble is a kind of introductory statement which comes before the Constitution. It is not a law but it explains the hue spirit of the Indian Constitution.

Question 5.
Who gives the government of India the authority to govern the country?
Answer:
Our Constitution gives the government of India the authority to govern the country

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the following terms:
(a) Sovereign (b) Democratic (c) Republic
Answer:
(a) Sovereign: Means that India is an independent country.
No external power can control or interfere in its internal affairs.
(b) Democratic: A democratic government is a government of the people, for the people, by the people.
(c) Republic: A country where head of the state is elected by the people.

Question 2.
State the basic features of the following: (a) a socialist state (b) a secular state|
Answer:
(a) Socialist state: Is one where there is fair distribution of the country’s wealth among all sections of the people. It means providing equal opportunities to all in order to bridge the gap between the rich and the poor.
(b) Secular state: A secular state is one which:

  1. Does not have an official or state religion.
  2. Does not discriminate against anybody on grounds of religion.
  3. Does not favour or promote any particular religion.
  4. guarantees the freedom of every individual to profess, practise and propagate his or her own religion.

Question 3.
State the objectives of the Constitution with reference to: (a) Justice (b) Liberty (c) Equality
Answer:
(a) Justice: All citizens are equal in the eyes of law. Justice shall not be denied to anybody on the basis of place of birth, race, caste, creed, sex, status or religion. Every individual will get what is his or her due.
(b) Liberty: Every Indian citizen shall enjoy certain fundamental rights such as the freedom to think and express oneself and the freedom to follow the religion of our choice.
(c) Equality: All citizens are equal before law and will be protected equally by the laws of the land. The state shall not discriminate between people on the basis of place of birth, sex, caste, creed, race, religion or wealth.

Question 4.
Why did the farmers of the Constitution decide to promote fraternity among the people of India?
Answer:
A democracy can work only if there is a spirit of brotherhood and oneness among the different sections of society. When this feeling of being ‘one people’ is promoted and firmly established, social evils such as untouchability and communalism can be removed. Elarmony will prevail and the country can progress unitedly towards its goal of securing justice, liberty and equality for all its citizens.

G Picture study:     

This is a picture of the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly of India which drafted the Indian Constitution.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - The Constitution of India 7

Question 1.
Identify the person in the picture.
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad.

Question 2.
Name two other prominent members of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:

  1. B.R Ambedkar
  2. MaulanaAzad

Question 3.
When was the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly held?
Answer:
9 Dec 1946.

Question 4.
When did the Constitution come into force?
Answer:
26 January 1950

Question 5.
What is the introduction to the Constitution called? What does it tell us about the source of the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble is an introduction to the Constitution. It helps us to understand the vision and the aspirations of the farmers of our Constitution. The Preamble tells us about the source of the Constitution, the nature of the state and its main objectives.

Question 6.
Mention the objectives stated in the introduction.
Answer:
Justice: All citizens are equal in the eyes of law. Justice shall not be denied to any body.
Liberty: Every Indian citizen shall enjoy certain fundamental rights such as the freedom to think and express oneself and the freedom to follow the religion of our choice.
Equality: All citizens are equal before law and will be protected equally by the laws of the land.|
Fraternity: A democracy can work only if there is a spirit of brotherhood and oneness among the different sections of society.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Model Test Paper 2

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Model Test Paper 2

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. The tropical rain forests of Asia are dense and impenetrable.
  2. A few regions of South-west Asia receive winter rainfall from the temperate cyclones that originate over the Mediterranean Sea.
    (tropical cyclones, temperate cyclones, north-east winds, south-east winds)
  3. Depression that causes winter rainfall in north-west India: Western disturbance
  4. Scientists and doctors are example of skilled human resources.
  5. The working population of a country includes both skilled and unskilled human resources.

B. Identify who I am

  1. I am a mountain range in South-west Asia that separates Asia from Europe : Caucasus mountains
  2. I am a small zone from which several mountain ranges appear to radiate out: Pamir Knot.
  3. I am a physical feature that divides India into two halves: Tropic of Cancer
  4. I am a vast sandy low-lying plain in north-west Rajasthan: The Thar Desert.
  5. I am the state that first receives the monsoon rains : Kerala.

C. Choose the correct answer.

1. Which of the following is nto a north-flowing river?

  1. Ob
  2. Yenisei
  3. Lena
  4. Huang

2. Ankara is the capital of which country?

  1. Turkey
  2. Syria
  3. Cyprus
  4. Tajikistan

3. This is the deepest sea in Asia.

  1. South China Sea
  2. Sea of Japan
  3. Arabian Sea
  4. Caspian Sea

4. This is the largest country in Asia.

  1. Russia
  2. Turkey
  3. India
  4. China

5. Which of these is not a country in West Asia?

  1. Turkey
  2. Qatar
  3. Georgia
  4. Tajikistan

D. State whether the following are true or false

1. Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War I.
Answer. False.
Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War II.

2. Babool and kikar trees are mainly found in Rajasthan, Gujarat, and on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Answer. False.
Babool and kikar trees are mainly found in Rajasthan, Punjab, and on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.

3. Increase in height is responsible for the changing vegetation in the Himalayas.
Answer. True.

4. Thorn forests occupy the largest area in India.
Answer. False.
Tropical Monsoon deciduous forests occupy the largest area in India.

5. IT professionals are unskilled resources.
Answer. False.
IT professionals are skilled resources.

E. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
Name the rivers of the Great Siberian Plain.
Answer:
Rivers Ob, Yenisey and Lena have together built the Great Siberian Plain.

Question 2.
Name some wildlife species found in the taiga region, the tundra region, and the tropical deciduous forests of Asia.
Answer:
Wildlife species found in the taiga region are fox, sable, bear, mink, lynx and squirrel. Wildlife species found in the tundra region of Asia are polar bears, reindeer, foxes, seals and walruses.
Weldlife species found in the tropical deciduous forests of Asia are rhinoceros, elephants, bears, deer, apes, lions, tigers, leopards, etc.

Question 3.
What do you know about the Purvanchal ranges ?
Answer:
The hills of the north-east India are collectively called the Purvanchal ranges. They lie along the eastern borders of India. Their average elevation is less than 3,000 m. They consist of several hill ranges such as Patkai Bum, Naga, Mizo, Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills.

Question 4.
Mention any five biosphere reserves in India.
Answer:
Some important biosphere reserves in India are :

  1. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve located in Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills in South India.
  2. Gulf of Mannar Bisophere Reserve located between India and Sri Lanka, forming part of the Laccadive Sea.
  3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal.
  4. Nanda Devi Biosphere in north-eastern Uttarakhand.
  5. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve in the West Garo Hills in Meghalaya.
  6. Pachmari Biosphere Reserve in the Satpura Range in Madhya Pradesh.
  7. Similipal Biosphere Reserve in north-eastern Odisha.
  8. Achanakmar-Amarkantak Biosphere Reserve located in Chhattisgarh and Madhya Pradesh.
  9. Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve located in Nicobar Islands.

Question 5.
Define sex ratio.
Answer:
Sex ratio is defined as the number of females per thousand males.

F. Answer the following questions in detail.

Question 1.
Describe the Northern Lowlands of Asia.
Answer:
The Northern Lowlands of Asia extend from the Ural Mountains in the west up to the Bering Strait in the north-east. These lowlands are triangular in shape and widest in the west. Lying between the Arctic Ocean in the north and the Central Mountains in the south,they form the world’s greatest continuous plains. Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean — Ob, Yenisei and Lena, have together built this plain. These marshy and swampy lowlands are also called as the Great Siberian plain. The lower courses and mouths of the rivers freeze in winter. So, water coming from the upper courses in warmer latitudes spreads out over large part of the plains. Another low lying land exists south of the Siberian Plains in Central Asia called as the Turan Plain. This plain is an area of inland drainage and is drained by rivers Amu Darya and Syr Darya.

Question 2.
Write about the Mediterranean climate experienced in Asia.
Answer:
The Mediterranean Climate in Asia is characterized by warm, dry summers and cool, wet winters.
Since these areas experience drought-like conditions in summer, the natural vegetation has adapted to the climate by developing long roots and spongy barks. The evergreen vegetation of oak, acacia, laurel, chestnut, walnut and olive trees is common. Orchards of citrus fruits such as lemons, and oranges, vineyards and farm grains have replaced the natural vegetation. In the absence of natural habitat, not much wildlife is found. Mostly domesticated animals such as donkeys, cattle and sheep are found.

Question 3.
Explain how the Himalayas have greatly influenced the life of the people of India.
Answer:
The Himalayas exert a significant influence on the life of the people of India in several ways.

  • They form a natural boundary between India and China.
  • They serve as a climatic barrier by preventing the entry of the cold winds from Central Asia and preventing the rain-bearing monsoon winds from leaving India.
  • They are a source of perennial rivers such as the Indus, the Ganga, and the Brahmaputra and their tributaries.
  • Their rugged terrain is ideal for hydroelectric power generation.
  • The mountain slopes are forested. These forests provide different types of timber and forest products.
  • The Himalayas have beautiful hill Stations Shimla, Daijeeling, Mussorie, etc.

Question 4.
Why is south India warmer than north India?
Answer:
Because it is nearer to the equator.

Question 5.
Explain the importance of monsoon.
Answer:
A good monsoon is important for the entire country for these reasons :

  1. A good monsoon brings economic prosperity for the whole country and boosts the Indian economy as agriculture contributes around 16 per cent of its total Gross domestic product (GDP).
  2. High temperature and heavy rainfall in the summer months are important for different types fo kharif crops. The winter rain supplemented by irrigation is important for rabi crops.
  3. A normal rainfall is important for adequate agricultural production in order to maintain food prices. Food prices depend upon the agricultural output. In the absence of a good monsoon, the entire nation may be destabilized because of food inflation.
  4. Several dams, reservoirs, rivers and canals in India are rain- fed and depend upon the monsoon rains.
  5. Other economic activities like forestry and fishing are also influenced directly by the amount of rainfall.
  6. Monsoon rain gives us respite from the high and intolerable summer heat and brings back life to the living earth.
  7. Monsoon also has a role to play in the social-cultural unity of India. People of India, particularly the farmers, eagerly wait for the monsoon rains. We know that the monsoon winds provide water for the various agricultural activities. The agricultural calendar, and the social-cultural life of the people including their festivities, revolve around the monsoon phenomena and in a way binds the people of India together. Different harvest festivals in our country such as Bihu in Assam, Pongal in Tamil Nadu, Onam in Kerala and Lohri in Punjab are celebrated to mark a good harvest. If the rainfall is good, the entire country celebrates and if the monsoon fails, it brings famines and a year of sorrow for everyone.

G Picture study
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage - Model Test Paper II 1

Question 1.
Identify the type of forest shown in the photograph.
Answer:
Tropical Evergreen Rainforests.

Question 2.
Write two characteristics of this type of forest.
Answer:

  • These forest have broad-leaved hardwood trees.
  • These are dense evergreen forests which have trees growing up to 60 m.
  • The trees form distinct layers.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Model Test Paper 1

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Model Test Paper 1

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ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run vertically are called easting
  2. In India, 60 cities have been selected as Smart Cities
  3. The collision of the earth’s plates caused the earthquake in Nepal in April 2015.
  4. Brain drain is also known as human capital flight.
  5. Urban areas generally have a higher population density.

B. Match the following columns

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage - Model Test Paper I 1

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage - Model Test Paper I 2

C. Choose the correct answer

1. The green area in a topo sheet contains

  1. settlement
  2. barren land
  3. cultivated land
  4. vegetation

2. One of the advantages to the migrant’s home country is

  1. loss of skilled labour
  2. increased foreign exchange
  3. fall in demand of certain goods and services
  4. political uncertainly

3. In 1986, an accidental explosion at a nuclear plant at in the former USSR caused radiation to spread across Ukraine and other regions, killing over 12,000 people.

  1. Kiev
  2. Chernobyl
  3. Astana
  4. St Petersburg

4. Which of these is a part of the demographic structure of a population ?

  1. Age composition
  2. Sex ratio
  3. Rural and urban populations
  4. All of these

5. Migrants willing to happily take up unskilled jobs are known as

  1. cheap labour
  2. technical labour
  3. businessmen
  4. agricultural labourer

D. State whether the following are true or false

1. Contour lines are drawn at fixed intervals.
Answer. True.

2. Slums are usually located on land not owned by the slum dwellers.
Answer. True.

3. An adverse sex ratio shows the high position given to women in society.
Answer. False.
An adverse sex ratio shows the low position given to women in society.

4. Immigrants don’t bring rich cultural diversity and traditions to their new country.
Answer. False.
Immigrants bring rich cultural diversity and traditions to their r new country.

5. West Bengal is most vulnerable to floods.
Answer. False.
Bihar is most vulnerable to floods.

E. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What is a saddle? Draw a diagram to show a saddle.
Answer:
A saddle is a shallow depression at a high elevation between two peaks or ridges. The depression is formed by streams or by glaciers flowing close to each other. A saddle need not have a river or stream flowing through it.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage - Model Test Paper I 3

Question 2.
What is primitive migration?
Answer:
Primitive migration is one in which people respond to an unfavourable environment by leaving it for more favourable one.

Question 3.
Briefly mention the aspects of urban life which serve as the basis for the smart cities.
Answer:
The different aspects of urban life which are normally the basis of smart cities are economy, environment, governance, human capital, international outreach, mobility and transportation, public management, social cohesion, technology, and urban planning.

Question 4.
Mention any two factors that cause population growth in a developed country.
Answer:
In the developed countries of the world, the population increased earlier due to :

  1. Economic growth and prosperity as a result of industrialization.
  2. Improved medical techniques and health care facilities.
  3. Immigration because of better job opportunities and better living conditions.

Question 5.
What should people do in the event of a nuclear disaster ?
Answer:
In the event of a nuclear disaster, one should close all the doors and windows of their houses and remain indoors as radiation does not penetrate solid structures. People should not go out until the government makes arrangements for their rescue.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
What are the different factors that determine the location and the type of settlements?
Answer:
Many factors determine the location and the type of settlements:

  1. Settlements grow in areas that are flat and where the land is cultivable. Settlements do not grow on steep hillsides or marshy lands.
  2. Settlements grow in places where water is available in plenty for both agricultural and domestic purposes. Settlements, therefore, also grow on the confluence of rivers or the banks of rivers.
  3. Settlements also thrive on a plateau because of the flat surface of the plateau and the availability of land for cultivation.
  4. They develop and grow in places where the climate is- suitable or pleasant to live in. Extremely hot, cold, wet or dry places are not attractive settlement sites.
  5. Settlements are formed where there are prospects for employment. Mines and industries in the area are potential sources of employment and encourage growth of settlements. Such places are usually near places of abundant raw materials for the growth of industries.
  6. They develop in places that are easily accessible by various kinds of roads, rivers, and railway lines. Easy access to and from the settlements will allow movement of people and goods from one place to another.

Question 2.
What are the causes of brain drain ?
Answer:
Causes of Brain Drain :

  • Push factors — They include economic factors such as the inability to find suitably paying jobs in a person’s own country, poverty or no prospect of improving one’s standard of living, political instability that causes uncertainity, political favouritism, and religious and social discrimination.
  • Pull factors — They include higher income and more comfortable lifestyles in the new country, better economic prospects, better educational opportunities including training and research, greater chances of promotion without partiality or discrimination, a liberal and stable government, better working conditions and medical facilities.

Question 3.
What makes Bihar the most flood-prone state among all north Indian states ?
Answer:
Bihar is the most flood-prone state among all north Indian states because many of the rivers flowing through Bihar, such as the Kosi, Bagmati and Gandak, flow through the high mountainous region of Nepal, before crossing very small distances and rapidly reaching the plains of Bihar, making them far more forceful. When it rains heavily in Nepal, the extra water enters these river channels and rushes into the plains of Bihar. As the rivers break their banks and overflow into the adjoining areas, large area of land and thousands of people and livestock are affected. More than 76% of the population in Northern Bihar live under the threat of floods
every year.

Question 4.
Explain the different types of migrations.
Answer:
There are different types of migration :

  1. Internal migration—People move from one place to another within the country.
  2. External migration — People move to a new country or continent.
  3. Temporary migration — It includes migration which is annual, seasonal or daily. For example, people may move to lower regions from mountains during harsh winter months.
  4. Emigration — When a person leaves his or her own country and moves to another. The person who emigrates is known as an emigrant from his or her own country. For example, when a person leaves India and goes to Canada to settle there, that person is said to have emigrated from India to Canada.
  5. Immigration — When a person arrives in a new country after leaving his or her own country. For example, when a person arrives in Canada from India that person is said to have immigrated to Canada and is known as an immigrant in Canada.

Question 5.
Write the positive as well as negative effects of under population.
Answer:
Impace of Under population

Under population has several positive effects :

  1. There are sufficient employment opportunities for everyone.
  2. There are fewer instances of overcrowding.
  3.  There are lower levels of poverty.
  4. There are adequate educational, medical and other facilities to meet everyone’s needs.
  5. There are sufficient natural resources to meet the requirements of the population.
  6. There is lesser pressure on the environment, and hence, lower rates of environmental degradation.

However, there are also some negative effects of under population :

  1. The lack of adequate labour leads to low productivity.
  2. In some instances, a higher proportion of the population is either too young or too old to work.
  3. There are lesser taxpayers, leading to low income for the government.
  4. There are not enough people to develop the natural resources of the country.

G Picture study 

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage - Model Test Paper I 4
This is the picture of a smart city.

Question 1.
What is shown in the photograph?
Answer:
A smart city is shown in the photograph. It is an urban region which is highly advanced in terms of overall infrastructure, sustainable real estate, communications and market viability.

Question 2.
Mention any three essential infrastructure requirement of a smart city.
Answer:
In a smart city, information technology (IT) is the core infrastructure and the basis of providing essential services to all residents. Other essential infrastructure, apart from IT in a smart city, would include :

  1. Proper sanitation and waste management systems.
  2. Round the clock electricity supply.
  3. Round the clock and adequate water supply.
  4. Efficient urban mobility and public transport with a network of good, well-connected roads.
  5. Well-designed and affordable housing which even people in the low-income brackets can buy.
  6. Good governance, particularly e-governance where everything and everyone is connected digitally.
  7. Sustainable environment with more than adequate green cover.

Question 3.
Mention any five smart cities of India?
Answer:
Smart Cities: Hyderabad, Vadodara, Kochi, Visakhapatnam, Guwahati, Raipur, Bilaspur, Durgapur, Indore, Gwalior, Rourkela, Jabalpur and Bhopal.