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Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Nervous System

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Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Nervous System

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Biology Chapter 6 Nervous System

Synopsis —

  • The interaction of these activities of a living being as per the needs of the body internally or externally is called coordination.
  • Nervous coordination is brought about by the nervous system which is made up of the brain, spinal cord, nerves and the sense organs.
  • Chemical coordination is brought about through chemical messengers called hormones.
  • The nervous system is made up of special cells called nerve cells or neurons.
  • The end of the axon terminates in a number of branches called terminal branches.
  • The terminal branches of the axon of one neuron lie very close to the dendrites of another neuron. This point of contact is called a synapse.
  • A nerve is formed of a bundle of axons (nerve fibres) enclosed in a tubular medullary sheath. There are three kind of nerves as describe
    1. sensory nerve
    2. motor nerve
    3. mixed nerve.
  • The nervous sytem of human beings consists of the following three systems:
    1. The central nervous system
    2. The peripheral nervous system
    3. The autonomic nervous system
  • The brain has three main parts:
    1. The cerebrum
    2. The cerebellum, and
    3. The medulla oblongata
  • The main functions of the spinal cord are:
    1. To control reflexes below the neck.
    2. To conduct messages from the skin and muscles to the brain.
    3. To conduct commands from the brain to muscles of the trunk and limbs.
  • The autonomic nervous system consists of a pair of chain of nerves and ganglia found on either side of the backbone.  This system controls the involuntary activities of the internal organs.
  • Stimulus: Any change in the environment that usually results in change in the activity of the body.
  • Response: The activity of the body in response to a received stimulus.
  • Impulse: A wave of electrical disturbance that runs through the nerves.
  • Receptors : These are sense organs which receives the stimulus.
  • Effector: Any muscle or gland where the response occurs.

Review Questions

Multiple Choice Questions:

1. Put a tick mark (✓) against the correct alternative in the following statements:

(a) Medulla oblongata controls
(i) Smelling
(ii) Beating of heart and respiratory movement
(iii) Intelligence and will power
(iv) Balancing the body

(b) Spinal cord is an extention of:
(i) Cerebellum
(ii) Cerebrum
(iii) Vertebral column
(iv) Medulla oblongata

(c) Body posture is mantained by:
(i) Cerebellum
(ii) Cerebrum
(iii) Medulla oblongata
(iv) Spinal cord

Short Answer Questions:

1. Write one word in the space provided to complete the second pair of the related words pertaining to nervous system.
Memory: cerebrum:: breathing:
Balance: cerebellum:: reasoning:
Answer:
Memory: cerebrum: beathing: medulla oblongata
Balance: cerebellum:: reasoning: cerebrum

2. (a) Name three major divisions of the human nervous system.
Answer:

  1. The central nervous system (brain and spinal cord)
  2. The peripheral nervous system
  3. The autonomic nervous system

(b) Name the three main parts of human brain.
Answer:

  1. Cerebrum
  2. Cerebellum
  3. Medulla oblongata

3. Given here is the diagram of a neuron. Name the parts numbered 1-6.
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 1

Answer:

  1. dendrite
  2. dendrite (Terminal Arborization)
  3. nucleus
  4. axon (Nerve fibre)
  5. cell Body (cyton)
  6. node of ranvier
  7. sheath

Long answer questions

Question 1.
With the help of a suitable diagram describe the structure of a neuron.
Answer:
Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 2

Nervous system consists of special cells called nerve cells or neurons. It has a main cell body called cyton. It gives out many processes called dendrites. From it a very long process is given out. It is called axon or nerve fibre.

The cell body has a nucleus. The dendrites get the message from the organs and send this message to the axon through the cell body. Then the axon sends the message to muscles to contrast or to the gland for secretion.

The neurons make contact with one another through their processes. The axon at its end branches and meets the dendrites of another neuron. The meeting point is called synapse. The message is passed on from one axon to the dendrites of another neuron. How the message goes ? It is like this:
Organ → Message goes to dendrites →Cell body → Axon → Muscles or  glands

Question 2.
Briefly describe the structure of the cerebrum in human brain, and mention its functions.
Answer:
Brain consists of main three parts and lies in the cranial cavity of skull.

  1. The cerebrum
  2. The cerebellum
  3. The medulla oblongata

Cerebrum — It is very large and form two third of the whole brain. The two hemispheres are separated from each other by a deep longitudinal groove, the median fissure. The outer surface is folded with ridges and grooves. The hemispheres are hollow from inside and their walls have outer and inner portions. The outer portion has cell bodies of the neurons and it is called grey matter.
The wavery edges of the folded layer has large number of neurons to the extent of nine billion. The inner portion of the cerebrum has axons and it is called white matter.
Functions:

  1. It controls all the voluntary activities.
  2. It is the seat of intelligence, consciousness and will power.

Question 3.
Mention the three functions of spinal cord.
Answer:
Spinal cord has the following functions.

  1. It is the centre of reflex actions below the neck.
  2. It carries messages from the skin and muscles to the brain.
  3. All the stimuli and responses are passed from and to the brain through the spinal cord.

Question 4.
Describe three kinds of nerves, giving example of each.
Answer:
A nerve is formed by a group of nerve fibres (axons) encased
by tubular medullary sheath. The medullary sheath acts as insulation and do not allow mixing up of impulses of the neighbouring axons (nerve fibres) We have three kinds of nerves:

  1. Sensory nerve — It brings impulses from sense organs as these have sensory fibres. These nerve carry the impulses from the sense organs to the brain or to the spinal cord as optic nerve of the eye.
  2. Motor nerves—These carry impulses to muscles or glands from the brain or spinal cord. These nerves have only motor fibres as nerves to the muscles of the eye ball.
  3. Mixed nerve — It has both sensory and motors fibres as nerve going to the tongue.

Question 5.
What are voluntary and involuntary actions ? Which part of the nervous system controls them ?
Answer:
Voluntary action: When an action is produced with the involvement of thoughts, they are called the voluntary action. For example, writing an article jumping from heights. These actions are produced consciously by our body.
Involuntary action: Actions which take place without consciousness or willingness of an individual are called the involuntary action. Digestion, heart beating, sneezing, etc are few examples of involuntary actions.

  1. The cerebral cortex controls our voluntary actions like running and walking etc.
  2. Medulla helps in involuntary actions like hearbeat, breathing etc.

Additional Questions

I. Multiple choice questions. Tick (✓) the correct choice:

I. Nervous system in humans consists of
(a) brain and nerves
(b) brain and spinal cord
(c) brain, spinal cord and nerves
(d) none of the above.

II. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Basic structural unit of the nervous system is the neuron.
  2. Central nervous system consists of brain and spinal cord.
  3. A neuron consists of cell body, dendrite and axon.
  4. The neurons carrying impulses from the brain to the muscles are called motor or efferent neurons.
  5. Peripheral nervous system consists of nerves.
  6. The three main parts of the brain are cerebrum, cerebellum and medulla oblongata (brain stem).

III. State whether the following statements are true (T) or false (F):

1. Each neuron consists of three parts called cell body, cyton and axon.
 False. Each neuron consists of three parts called cell body, dendrite and axon.

2. The largest part of the brain is the cerebrum.
 True.

3. Cerebellum maintains balance of the body.
True.

4. There are 31 pairs of cranial nerves.
 False. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.

IV. Find the odd-one out, giving reasons:
Axon, cell body, dendrite, cerebellum
Ans. Cerebellum is the odd one out as it is a part of brain while rest three are parts of a neuron.

V. Define the following:
1. Reflex arc
2. Sensory neuron
3. Motor neuron
4. Neuron
Answer:

  1. Reflex arc: The path that an impulse takes in a reflex action is called a reflex arc.
  2. Sensory neuron: The neurons which carry impulses
    from the body parts to the spinal cord or the brain are called sensory or afferent neurons. For example, optic nerve of the eye.
  3. Motor neuron: The neurons which carry impulses from the brain or spinal cord to the body parts are called motor or efferent neurons.
  4. Neuron: A neuron or a nerve cell is the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system.

VI. Answer the following:

Question 1.
 Describe the two parts of the nervous system.
Answer:
The nervous system of human has two parts:

  1. Central Nervous System (CNS): It consists of the brain and the spinal cord. The brain lies protected inside the skull while the spinal cord is protected within the vertebral column.
  2. Peripheral Nervous System (PNS): It consists of nerves arising from the spinal cord (spinal nerves) and the brain (cranial nerves). These nerves link the central nervous system with the various body organs.

Question 2.
What are nerves? Mention the types of nerves found in humans.
Answer:
A bundle of nerve fibres joined together as a tubular sheath that transmits impulses between brain or spinal cord and other body parts is called a nerve. The nerves constitute the peripheral nervous system.
Nerves are of two types in humans:

  1. Cranial nerves: They emerge from the brain. There are 12 pairs of cranial nerves.
  2. Spinal nerves: They emerge from the spinal cord. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

Question 3.
Explain the structure of brain.
Answer:
The brain is the main control centre of the nervous system.
It is enclosed within the bony shell of cranium.
It consists ofthree main part:

    1. Cerebrum: It is the uppermost and largest part with many ridges and grooves. It is divided into right and left halves called cerebral hemispheres. It controls our thinking, reasoning, intelligence, memory and perception of pain, sound, touch, taste and smell.
    2. Cerebellum: It is located under the cerebrum at the back of the head. It maintains balance of the body and coordinates muscular activity.
    3. Brain stem (medulla oblongata): It joins the brain to the spinal cord. It controls the activity of internal organs like heartbeat and breathing.
      Selina Concise Biology Class 7 ICSE Solutions - Nervous System 3

Question 4.
Compare the nervous system and the endocrine system.
Answer:
Nervous system

  1. Messages are sent through nerve fibres.
  2. It consists of brain, spinal cord and nerves.
  3. No hormones are secreted. Messages are sent as impulses.
  4. Transmission of impulse is quick.

Endocrine system

  1. Messages are sent through blood in the form of hormones.
  2. It consists of endocrine glands.
  3. Hormones secreted by glands regulate the body activities. .
  4. Transmission takes time.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Population

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Population

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. China has the largest population in the world.
  2. Death rate is number of deaths per year per 1,000 of the population.
  3. Life expectancy is the number of years that a person is likely to live.
  4. Urban areas generally have a higher population density.
  5. A population pyramid is a diagram that shows the age and sex composition of a population.

B. Choose the correct answer 

1. Which continent has the highest population ?

  1. Asia
  2. Europe
  3. North America
  4. South America

2. Which of these is an adverse effect of over population ?

  1. Environmental degradation
  2. Poverty
  3. Unemployment
  4. All of these.

3. Which of these is not a positive effect of under population?

  1. Adequate employment
  2. fewer taxpayers
  3. Lesser environmental degradation
  4. Lower levels of poverty

4. Which of these is a part of the demographic structure of a population ?

  1. Age composition
  2. Sex ratio
  3. Rural and urban populations
  4. All of these

5. Which type of population is shown in a bell-shaped population pyramid ?

  1. Expanding population
  2. Declining population
  3. Constant population
  4. None of these

C. State whether the following are true or false 

1. In 2016 alone, the population of the world increased by more than 80 million.
Answer. True.

2. Immigration is a factor that can cause overpopulation.
Answer. True.

3. In rural areas, people are typically engaged in secondary activities.
Answer. False. In rural areas, people are typically engaged in primary activities.

4. An adverse sex ratio shows the high position given to women in society.
Answer. False.
An adverse sex ratio shows the low position given to women in society.

5. In a population pyramid, the youngest age group is shown at the bottom.
Answer. True.

D. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Define the term ‘population’.
Answer:
The term ‘population’ refers to all the people who live in a particular area, city or country.

Question 2.
Define population density.
Answer:
Population density refers to the number of people living in a unit area of space, such as a square kilometre.

Question 3.
Distinguish between immigration and emigration.
Answer:
Immigration is the process of coming to live permanently in another country that is not one’s own.
Emigration is the process of leaving one country to go and live permanently in another country.

Question 4.
Write any two causes of overpopulation ?
Answer:
Causes of overpopulation are :

  1. Immigration – When people come from another country.
  2. Increased birth rate – due to better medical facilities
  3. Decreased death rate – due to better medical facilities.
  4. Better medical facilities
  5. Lack of family planning.

Question 5.
Mention any two factors that cause population growth in a developed country.
Answer:
In the developed countries of the world, the population increased earlier due to :

  1. Economic growth and prosperity as a result of industrialization.
  2. Improved medical techniques and health care facilities.
  3. Immigration because of better job opportunities and better living conditions.

Question 6.
Mention any two factors that cause population growth in a developing country.
Answer:
In developing countries of the world, rapid increase in population was due to :

  1. Modern medical techniques which increased the lifespan of the people.
  2. Ignorance of the masses.
  3. Traditional beliefs, customs and outlook of people.

Question 7.
What do the rural and urban population consist of ?
Answer:
The rural population consists of the people residing in villages.
The urban population consists of the people living in towns and cities.

Question 8.
What do you understand by the term ‘working population’?
Answer:
The section of the population between 14 – 60 years of age is
considered to be the working population. They are willing and eligible to work and considered an asset for a country as it means high availability of labour for the development of the nation.

 

E. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs:

Question 1.
Write a note on the distribution of population in the world.
Answer:
At present, the population of the world stands at 7.35 billion. China has the largest population in the world with over 1.3 billion people, followed by India, with over 1.2 billion people, the USA with over 321 million people and Indonesia with over 257 million people. Island nations of the Pacific Ocean have populations of just a few thousand.
Continent-wise, Asia has the largest population with over 4.4 billion people, followed by Africa with 1.18 billion people. Europe has over 738 million people, North America has over 573 million people, South America has over 418 million people and Oceania (Australia, New Zealand, Pacific Islands of Fiji, Papua New Guinea, Vanuatu, Samoa, etc) has over 3’9 million people)

Question 2.
Briefly explain any four factors that affect the population of a place.
Answer:
The are various factors that affect the population of a place such as birth rate, death rate, immigration, emigration, influx of refugees, agricultural development, urbanization, education, topography and climate of a place, employment opportunities, etc,
In developed countries, due to improvements in medical facilities, the death rates have reduced and the lifespan of the people have increased resulting in increase in population.

Question 3.
What is the impact of overpopulation ?
Answer:
Impact of Overpopulation :

  1. Adverse effect on the environment : Higher population consumes more natural resources like fresh water, arable land and mineral resources. This leads to deforestation, scarcity of water, extinction of plants and animals, depletion of fossil fuels, pollution, global warming.
  2. Adverse effect on economy : Higher population leads to unemployment, overcrowding, shortage of food, fuel, minerals and other resources. This leads to poor quality of education, low per capita income, inflation, less productivity and slow economic growth of the country.
  3. Poor quality of life : There is not enough affordable food, shelter and education. People live in congested areas with poor sanitary conditions leading to spread of diseases, poverty and rise in crime rate.

Question 4.
Write the positive as well as negative effects of under population.
Answer:
Impace of Under population
Under population has several positive effects :

  1. There are sufficient employment opportunities for everyone.
  2. There are fewer instances of overcrowding.
  3. There are lower levels of poverty.
  4. There are adequate educational, medical and other facilities to meet everyone’s needs.
  5. There are sufficient natural resources to meet the requirements of the population.
  6. There is lesser pressure on the environment, and hence, lower rates of environmental degradation.

However, there are also some negative effects of under population :

  1. The lack of adequate labour leads to low productivity.
  2. In some instances, a higher proportion of the population is either too young or too old to work.
  3. There are lesser taxpayers, leading to low income for the government.
  4. There are not enough people to develop the natural resources of the country.

Question 5.
Write the main differences between rural and urban populations.
Answer:
Rural Population

  1. It refers to people living in villages.
  2. The population density in rural areas is low.
  3. The people do primary activities like farming, fishing, mining etc.
  4. The educational and medical facilities are not very highly developed.
  5. Poor standards of transport and communication there.
  6. Village communities are usually closely-knit with strong emphasis on culture and traditions.

Urban Population

  1. It refers to people living in towns and cities.
  2. The population density in urban areas is generally high.
  3. The people do secondary and tertiary activities like trade, transport, services, etc.
  4. The educational and medical facilities are highly developed.
  5. Better standards of transport and communication.
  6. The socio-cultural ties between people in cities are not as strong as in villages.

Question 6.
What is sex ratio ? What is the meaning of favourable and unfavourable sex ratios ?
Answer:
Sex-ratio means the number of females per 1000 males in a given population. In India, sex ratio is calculated in terms of females per 1000 males. The formula to calculate the sex
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 1
The sex ratio is an important characteristic that helps us to study the population of a given area. For example, when we say that the sex ratio in India is 940, it means that there are 940 girls for every 1000 boys.
Favourable sex ratio: The sex ratio is considered favourable if there is an equal or higher number of females per 1000 males in the population. For example, Latvia in Europe has the highest sex ratio with 1179 females for every 1000 males.
Unfavourable sex ratio : An unfavourable sex ratio means that there is a lower number of females per 1000 males in the population. Practices like female foeticide (killing of girls in the womb), female infanticide (killing of girls when they are babies) and domestic violence towards women due to gender discrimination lead to unfavourable sex ratio. For examples, countries like India, Pakistan, Afghanistan, China and Saudi Arabia have low sex ratio.

G Picture study.

Question 1.
What does the picture tell us?
Answer:
A crowded street in Mumbai, India’s most populous city.

Question 2.
Mention any three impacts of such a condition.
Answer:
Overpopulation usually has an adverse effect on the environment, the economy and the quality of life that people lead. A larger population consumes more natural resources
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 2
such as fresh water, arable land and mineral resources. As more land is brought under cultivation, the amount of land under forests keeps reducing, impacting the diverse animal and plant populations in these forests. Increases mining for minerals causes further environmental damage. As more factories are set up to meet the needs of the people, more fossil fuels are used and more pollutants are released into the environment.

G Map work. On an outline map of the world mark the top five populous countries of the world.
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 3

Extra questions

Question 1.
Define the following —

  1. Birth rate
  2. Death rate
  3. Life expectancy
  4. Family planning
  5. Demography
  6. Overpopulation

Answer:

  1. Birth rate — It is the number of live births per year per 1000 of the population. The formula for calculating birth rate is
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 4
  2. Death rate — It is the number of deaths per year per 1000 of the population. It is calculated as :
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 5
  3. Life expectancy — It is the number of years that a person is likely to live. It is calculated as the average life span of a population.
  4. Family planning — It is the process of controlling the number of children that a person has and the intervals between their births.
  5. Demography — It refers to the study of population of a place especially of humans, based on physical, socio-cultural and economic factors such as age and sex, language, religion, economic status, literacy, marital status, etc.
  6. Overpopulation — It is an undesirable condition where the number of people in a given area exceeds the availability of resources to meet the needs of all the people. In an over-populated environment, the number of people might be more than the available essential materials for survival like food, clothes, water, shelter, transport, etc.
  7. Under population — It is a condition where the number of people living in a given area is less in relation to the available resources of a country. This happens when there are not enough people to make full use of resources such as land, water, forests and the available technology.
  8. Population pyramid — It is specially designed diagram that shows the age and sex composition of a population. It is also called as age-sex pyramid.

Question 2.
List few countries with high population density (over population) and few with low population density (under population) ?
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 6

Question 3.
Mention the causes of underpopulation ?
Answer:
Causes of underpopulation are :

  1. Increase in the death rate due to natural disaster like earthquake, Tsunami, flood or man-made disasters such as war.
  2. Decrease in birth rate due to genetic reasons.
  3. Infertility in the people
  4. Emigration – people moving out of a country.

Question 4.
What do you mean by composition of population or demographic structure? What is its significance? Name any two characteristics of a population.
Answer:
Population composition or demographic structure: Refers to the physical, sociocultural and economic attributes of the population such as age and sex, place of residence, language, religion, martial status, literacy, etc.
Significance: The characteristics of population composition are measurable and help in distinguishing one group from another.
Two Characteristics of a population are :

  1. Rural and Urban Composition: This is on the basis of where a person resides. Rural refers to villages and urban refers to cities and towns.
  2. Age and sex Composition : It refers to the percentage of people in different age groups in a given population and sex ratio (number of females per 1000 males in a population).

Question 5.
What do you understand by age composition of a population ?
Answer:
Age composition refers to the percentage of people in different age groups in a given population. It differs from country to country. It can be working population (people between 14-60 years of age) or dependent population (below 14 and above 60 years of age).

Question 6.
What is the working population of India ?
Answer:
62.5 per cent of the population of India is working population. 29.5 % is in the age group of 0-14 years while 8 % is above 60 years of age.

Question 7.
What leads to unfavourable sex ratio at some places ? Name few social practices leading to it ?
Answer:
Gender discrimination is the major cause of unfavourable sex ratio which gives women a lower status in society. Few social practices leading to unfavourable sex ratio are :

  1. Female Foeticide
  2. Female infanticide
  3. Domestic violence.

Question 8.
Name one scheme launched by the government of India that works towards generating awareness and improving the efficiency of welfare services meant for women in the country.
Answer:
Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (Save girl child, educate girl child).

Question 9.
What is the most effective way to show the age and sex structure of a population ?
Answer:
Population pyramid or Age-sex Pyramid.

Question 10.
Explain the diagram of a population pyramid. Also show the three types of pyramids.
Answer:
The diagram of a population pyramid consists of bars arranged in the form of a pyramid. The bars show different age groups, with the males on the left and females on the right. The base represents the youngest age group and the top represents the oldest. The shape of the population pyramid shows the characteristics of the population. The three types of pyramid are :

  1. Expanding population : In this case, the age-sex pyramid is more or less triangular with a broad base and a narrow top. The broad base shows large population of young people which indicates high birth rate. The narrow top shows high death rate in the older age group. Such a pyramid indicates rapid population growth. For example, countries like Bangladesh, India, Mexico, Nigeria have such a population pyramid.
  2. Constant Population : The shape of the pyramid is like a bell, with the narrow top and a broad middle for several bars. This shows that the birth rate is almost equal to the death rate, leading to a constant population with the percentage of males and females remaining almost the same. Usually, developed countries such as the USA have this kind of a pyramid.
  3. Declining Population : Such a pyramid has a narrow base, a bulging middle that indicates low birth rate and death rates and a slightly narrow apex. Countries like Japan, Germany and Italy have this kind of a pyramid.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 2 Population 7

Question 11.
Why is it important to study the population ?
Answer:
Studying the population helps us to understand how it shapes the world in different ways. Controlling the population correctly is an important task for the government. It plays a big role in the development of a country.

12. Fill in the blanks

  1. Population refers to all the people who live in a particular area.
  2. At present, the population of the world stand at 7.35 billion.
  3. Second most populated country in the world is India.
  4. Continent-wise, Asia has the largest population, followed by Africa
  5. India’s most populous city is Mumbai.
  6. Population Density refers to the number of people living in a unit area of space.
  7. In Overpopulation condition, the number of people in a particular area is more than the available resources.
  8. Under population puts less pressure on the environment.
  9. Sex ratio of 940 means there are 940 girls for every 1000 boys.
  10. The sex ratio is usually unfavourable in those countries where gender discrimination is widespread.
  11. The average sex ratio in the world is 982 females to every 1000 males.
  12. Latvia in Europe has the highest sex ratio with 1179 females for every 1000 males.
  13. Triangular shaped population pyramid indicates rapid population growth.
  14. Not being able to have babies or produce young ones is called infertility.
  15. In India 69 % population is rural and 31 % urban.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Recording of Weather

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Recording of Weather

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Discuss

How are dew drops beneficial for plants ?
Answer:
In the early morning dew surrounds the leaves of plant with moisture and plant does not close its stomata.

EXERCISES

A. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What is relative humidity? How does it differ from absolute humidity ?
Answer:
Relative humidity is the ratio of the actual amount of water vapour present in the air and the total amount the air can hold at a given temperature. It is expressed in percentage.
While absolute humidity is measured in grams per cubic metre.

Question 2.
What does a large difference between the temperatures of a dry bulb thermometer and a wet bulb thermometer of a hygrometer indicate?
Answer:
A large difference between the readings of the two thermometers means low relative humidity and a small difference between them means high relative humidity.

Question 3.
Differentiate between precipitation and condensation. Give one example of each.
Answer:
Condensation – Dew is a form of condensation. Condensation is the process by which water vapour in the air gets converted into tiny droplets of water or ice. Dew formsin winters when the temperature is very low but not below 0°C. Moist air comes in contact with the cold surfaces near the ground. The water vapour in the air changes to water and we see it as dew drops on grass or on plants. Dew drops are beneficial for plants. Precipitation – Precipitation is the falling of atmospheric moisture as a result of condensation. It has many forms such as rainfall, snowfall, and hail.

Question 4.
What are nimbus clouds?
Answer:
Nimbus are real rain clouds-thick, dark and black and spread out in layers. They cause continuous rain or snow.

Question 5.
What is the Beaufort scale?
Answer:
Beaufort scale is the scale that is used to estimate wind speed. The scale is based on the effect of the wind at different speeds.

B. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
What is a hygrometer ?
Answer:
The instrument used for measuring relative humidity is called hygrometer. The hygrometer consists of wet and dry bulb thermometer. The dry bulb thermometer is an ordinary thermometer while the wet bulb thermometer is kept wet by a wick that dips into a container of distilled water. The wet bulb thermometer shows the lower temperature than the actual temperature as evaporation from the moist wick has a cooling effect. A larger difference between readings of two thermometers means low relative humidity and small difference means high relative humidity.

Question 2.
Describe the various types of clouds.
Answer:
The four types of clouds are :

(a) Cirrus clouds — These are feathery, fibrous clouds which form at very high levels of 5 to 10 km. They consist of tiny crystals of ice and look like wisps of cotton floating in the sky.
(b) Cumulus clouds — These are cauliflower-shaped clouds that have great vertical height and a flat base; they cause rainfall with lightning and thunder, and are usually white or grey in colour.
(c) Stratus clouds — These are sheet-like clouds that spread out 42 Arundeep’s Self-Help to Voyage-7 over the whole sky. They usually form at low levels, less than 2 km. They are uniformly grey and dull.
(d) Nimbus clouds — These are the real rain clouds – thick, dark and black, and spread out in layers. They cause continuous rain or snow.

Question 3.
What is wind? What precautions must be taken while placing a wind vane?
Answer:
Wind is air in motion. A wind vane indicates the direction of the wind and consists of a rotating arm pivoted on a vertical rod. The arrow of the wind vane always points in the direction from which the wind blows and the wind is named accordingly. For example, if the pointer is pointing to the East, the wind is blowing from East to West and, therefore, this wind is called an easterly wind. Wind vanes are usually placed away from obstacles such as high buildings, trees, etc.

Question 4.
What are isohyets and isotherms ?
Answer:
Isohytes : A weather map, which shows, by the help of lines, the amount of rainfall a place receives. Each of these lines is made by joining points that show the same amount of rainfall received in a given period. These lines are known as isohyets.
Isotherm : On the map, places experiencing the same temperature at a given time are connected with a line. This line is known as an isotherm. Each of these points on the line reflects one temperature reading, or an average of several readings, over a period of time.

Question 5.
What is a weather report ? How is weather forecast made? Why is weather forecast necessary ?
Answer:
When the weather conditions of the previous day are published, it is called a weather report. Weather forecasting is the application of science and technology to predict the state of the atmosphere for a given location. Nowadays it is made with the help of data gathered from weather satellites and radar systems. Forecasts help to plan what to wear, when to travel or which products to stock in super markets. It’s specially important for farmers, builders, sailors or anyone else who works out doors.

C. For a week, gather information on the weather conditions of your city using simple instruments or from weather reports published in newspapers. Present this information in a table. One has been done for you here. My observation of the weather at for a week.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 1

D. This could be a classroom activity. If your school laboratory has an anemometer, use it to record your city’s wind speed for a week. Use the Beaufort Scale to find out the character of wind during these days. Record your observations carefully in your notebook. You could even draw small neat sketches to show the effect of the wind.
Answer:
Do it Yourself

E. From the weather report published in your local newspaper, record the time of sunrise and sunset for a month in your notebook, as shown on the next page : My observation of the time of sunrise and sunset for the month of ______ 20, ______
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 2

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 3

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 4

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 5

F. Picture Study
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Recording of Weather 6

  1. Identify the four types of clouds shown in the photographs.
  2. Which of these causes heavy rainfall?

Answer:

1.(a) Cirrus clouds
(b) Cumulus clouds
(c) Stratus clouds
(d) Nimbus clouds

2. Nimbus clouds causes heavy rainfalls.

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – A Period of Transition

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – A Period of Transition

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

I.Fill in the blanks :

  1. The Renaissance thinkers believed in life in this World.
  2. The term Reformation refers to two major developments, the Protestant Reformation and the Catholic Reformation.
  3. Vasco-da-Gama reached Calicut on the West Coast of India.
  4. The Industrial Revolution began in England in about 1750.
  5. In 1793, Eli Whitney invented a Cotton gin

II.Match the contents of Column A and Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 1

Answer:
Column A                                             Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 3

III.State whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. The Renaissance and the Reformation alongwith new voyages ushered in the Modern Age.
    True.
  2. The Industrial Revolution began in Germany.
    False.
  3. Me Adam devised railway tracks.
    False.
  4. The Rise of capitalism and imperialism can be attributed to the industrial Revolution.
     True.
  5. The East India Company gradually became rulers from being traders.
    True.

IV.Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How did the Renaissance, Reformation and the new geographical discoveries lead to the Modern Age?
Answer:
The Renaissance, Reformation and the new geographical discoveries gradually ushered in the modern age. The Renaissance developed rationalism, humanism, scientific spirit and a spirit of inquiry in people at large. The Reformation led to establishment of Protestant church and Catholic Reformation which rid the churches of many evils and corruption. Religious dogmas and superstitions gave way to a scientific temper and spirit of inquiry among people. The new geographical knowledge led to discovery of new lands which opened new opportunities for trade, travel and further voyages and discoveries.
All these factors gradually ushered in the modern age. These were logically followed by the Industrial Revolution.

Question 2.
Give reasons why did the Industrial Revolution first begin in England?
Answer:
During the later part of the 18th century, England was in the most favourable position for an industrial revolution.

  1. Through her overseas trade, England had accumulated vast profits which could provide the necessary capital.
  2. She had acquired colonies which ensured a regular supply of raw material and markets for finished goods.
  3. England had plenty of natural resources, such as iron and coal existing in vicinity and essential for industries. This provided the basis for new industries.
  4. Due to the enclosure movement, a large army of landless unemployed people was created. Thus, there was abundance of labour force to work in the factories.
  5. England had developed a large shipping industry and had no problem of transportation of raw materials and finished goods abroad.

Question 3.
Discuss the impact of the Industrial Revolution on society, economy and polity.
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution had profound effect on society, economy and polity.

  1. The Industrial Revolution resulted in mass production of a variety of goods which had to be exported overseas. This led to acquisition of colonies in Asia and Africa.
  2. Industrialisation resulted in urbanisation. A large part of rural population shifted to cities which became very crowded. This led to problems of housing, rise of slums and problems of health and sanitation.
  3. The Industrial Revolution brought countries and people together.
  4. This led to socio-economic polarisation of people. Two classes of people emerged – the capitalists and workers.This led to hunger for more and more wealth among capitalists, exploitation of workers and shocking social inequalities.

Question 4.
The rise of socialism and communism can be attributed to the reaction against the evils of capitalism
What is the imperialism? Discuss the factors which give rise to imperialism.
Answer:
The practice of establishing a country’s rule and dominance over the economic and political life of people of another country is called imperialism.

The factors which give rise to imperialism were:

  1. Surplus Production: The capitalists asserted influence on their governments to capture colonies so that surplus goods could be sold profitably in colonies of Asia and Africa.
  2. Need for Raw Materials: Growing demand for huge quantities of raw materials to feed the new industries in Europe led to imperialism.
  3. Development of Modern means of Transportation & Communication: Invention of steamships, railways, telephone, telegraph and posts enabled man to conquer space and time. Modern means of transport and communication enabled and facilitated acquisition of colonies.
  4. Pressure of Population: The extra and surplus population in Europe had to be provided basic facilities and new regions to settle down. This led to the establishment of colonies.
  5. Rise of Industrial Capitalism: The surplus capital of industrialists needed to be invested safely. Owners of shipping companies and bankers always looked for new and better opportunities to earn more and more. This obviously led to imperialism.
  6. Ardent Nationalism: Goaded by the spirit of chauvinistic nationalism, the countries of Europe were eager to acquire colonies. Colonies added to the power and prestige of imperialist countries.
  7. Contribution of Christian Missionaries: The zeal to spread Christianity in distant lands of Asia and Africa played a crucial role in the spread of imperialism.
  8. Pretence of ‘Divine task’ to Spread Advance Civilisation: Europeans considered it their divine task to spread the ‘modernised’ European culture in backward areas of Asia and Africa. It was considered a ‘white man’s burden’ to teach civilised customs and manners to the coloured people.

Question 5.
Describe the general impact of imperialism with special reference to South Asia.
Answer:
Imperialism led to acquisition of colonies and colonial rivalries. It eventually led to the First World War (1914-1918) and the Second World War (1939-1945). Imperialism led to political and economic subjugation of Asian and African countries. They became sources of raw materials and dumping grounds for finished goods for European industries. On the postitive side, imperialism led to development of modern infrastructure in colonies. Imperialism also led to national unity as people fought against the colonial power to free their country, so evident in India and Vietnam. India, Sri Lanka and Burma became colonies of England. China was divided into several ‘spheres of influence’ by European powers

V.Tell me why
Question 1.
Most of the countries in South Asia became colonies of Europe.
Answer:
Countries in South Asia had huge population, were backward and could not face the colonial powers. They had huge raw materials and vast markets for goods produced in European countries.The glory of nationalism and national pride was yet to take roots in South Asia. People were disunited.

Question 2.
New inventions and discoveries led to the Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
New inventions and discoveries led to rapid industrialisation and urbanisation. Mass production of goods whetted the appetite for profit of industrialists. Development of modem infrastructure led to establishment of industries. Invention of flying shuttle, spinning jenny, water frame, mule, power loom, cotton gin, blast furnace and overall steam engine led to the Industrial Revolution

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Modem Age in India began with the conquest of India by the British.
  2. India was ruled by the British for nearly 200 years.
  3. The two kinds of source material for the Modem period are primary sources and secondary sources.
  4. The Renaissance ushered in revolutionary changes in Europe and marked the transition from the Medieval Age to the Modern Age.
  5. The four characteristic features of the Renaissance period are advent of new and powerful ideas of Humanism, rationalism, scientific spirit and spirit of inquiry.

B.Match the Following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 5

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

I. In India the Modern Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid-i 5th/mid-l8th/mid-i6th century.
Ans. In India the Modern Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid-l8th century.

2. The primary sources for the study of the Modern Period are preserved in archives/banks? factories.
Ans. The primary sources for the study of the Modern Period are preserved in archives.

3. The wealthy merchants and the professional class consisting of doctors, lawyers, teachers etc., formed the upper class? middle class/lower class.
Ans. The wealthy merchants and the professional class consisting of doctors, layers. teachers etc.,formed the middle class.

4. The invention of the printing press/telegraph/telephone helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers far and wide.
Ans. The invention of the printing, press helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers far and wide.

5. Martin Luther was an Italian/a German/a French Christian monk.
Ans. Martin Luther was a German Christian monk.

D.State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The source material of the Modern period is of two kinds— primary and secondary
    True
  2. Primary sources of history includes books, reviews, reports and articles
    False. Secondary sources of history includes books, reviews, reports and articles.
  3. Renaissance scholars shifted the focus from divine affairs to human affairs.
    True.
  4. The voyages of discoveries led to a decline of trade and commerce.
     False.
  5. The Reformation was also known as the Protestant Movement.
    True

E.Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
The history of most nations can be divided into a number of periods. Name them.
Answer:
History in most countries is classified into three periods—ancient, medieval and modem. Each period has some characteristics— political, economic, religious and social — that sets it apart from other period.

Question 2.
What distinguishes one historical period from another ?
Answer:
Historical periods differ from country to country depending on the stage of development of that region.

Question 3.
In what way is the classification of historical periods useful to us ?
Answer:
The classification of historical periods helps to bring a sense of order and continuity to the bewildering array of historical processes that have taken place over centuries of evolution.

Question 4.
When did the Modern Period begin in
(a) Europe
(b) India?
Answer:
Europe the Modern Age started in 15th century. In India the Modem Period is generally regarded as having begun in the mid- 18th century.

Question 5.
Mention any four characteristic features of the Modern Period?
Answer:
The characteristic features of the Modern Period are: urbanization, technological advancement, democratic institutions, fundamental civil liberties, rationalism and humanism and industrialization.

Question 6.
Mention any two (a) primary and (b) secondary source materials of the Modern Period.
Answer:
(a) Many of these primary sources have been preserved in archives and museums.
They include :

  1. Original documents like British official records
  2. Literary works like accounts of European residents, visitors and Indian officials, novels, plays, short stories and poems by British and Indian authors of this period
  3. Historical works by contemporary historians
  4. Artistic works like paintings, sketches engravings and drawings
  5. Photographs, audio cassettes, films and videotapes of incidents and interviews of important personalities
  6. Newspapers in both English and in Indian languages
  7. Archaeological remains like monuments and artifacts
  8. Oral history

(b) Secondary Sources include books, reviews, reports and articles written by historians and scholars who study and research primary source material, interpret evidence and arrive at conclusions.

Question 7.
Why is it important to study developments in Europe to understand the history of modern India ?
Answer:
Since the Modem Age in India began with the advent of the British rule, the roots of the transition from the Medieval Period must be traced to Europe. To understand the impact of British rule on Indian history, it is imperative to understand the changes that were taking place in Europe.

Question 8.
What is the meaning of Renaissance ?
Answer:
A great movement of change and discovery spread across Europe which radically altered the pattern of peoples lives and thinking.This movement, representing a new spirit in every field of life, is referred to as the Renaissance. It is a French word that means ‘rebirth’ or ‘revival’.

F.Answer the following questions briefly:

1.The capture of Constantinople by the Ottoman Ttirks led to the beginnings of Renaissance in Europe. With reference to this statement answer the following questions:

(a) How did it lead to the revival of classical Greek and Roman learning in Europe ?
Answer:
A large number of Greek scholars fled from Constantinople, (a great centre of classical Greek and Roman learning) to Italy with rare manuscripts. These scholars were patronized and encouraged by the rulers, scholars and the rich Italian merchants of Rome, Florence, Milan and Venice. Libraries were set up and universities were established to promote classical and modem learning.

(b) What effect did it have on the outlook and attitudes of the people of Europe ?
Answer:
The Renaissance, or the revival of classical Graeco-Roman learning, inspired and encouraged people to question and challenge long established ideas and institutions that had been imposed on them by the church and their- kings. They refused to blindly accept the dictates of their rulers and the Church. They demanded to know the truth based on logic and reason and rejected everything that did not satisfy the yardstick of reason. This new spirit of rationalism led to the rise of scientific temper and the spirit of inquiry. This scientific temper and the desire to inquire or seek the truth led to new and varied developments in the fields of art, architecture, sculpture, painting, literature, science and technology.

(c) What effect did it have on trade ?
Answer:
The Renaissance fostered a spirit of exploration and discovery which led to a steady growth of trade and commerce. A new- class of rich merchants emerged in society. These merchants accumulated enormous wealth and helped their rulers to build prosperous, strong and stable states. The king’s dependence on feudal lands gradually declined.

2.With reference to the causes of the Reformation, how did the following contribute to the movement
(a) Renaissance
(b) Evil practices of the Roman catholic Church
(c) Rise of strong and powerful rulers
Answer:
(a)
The Renaissance had radically altered the pattern of thinking and outlook of the people. It had set in motion the advent of new and powerful ideas of humanism, rationalism, scientific spirit and the spirit of Inquiry. These revolutionary ideas unleashed unstoppable forces that completely charged the way people thought and behaved. It was like the awakening of a sleeping giant.People had finally found truthful and rational answers to their questions and discovered the real truth about themselves and their environment. Everything based on blind faith was questioned. The teachings of the Church were rejected and its authority challenged.Even, the invention of the printing press helped to spread the ideas of the Renaissance thinkers quickly and far and wide,
(b)
With the passage of time the clergy, with some exceptions, began to lead immoral lives of luxury, wealth and comfort. The monasteries owned nearly one-third of the landed property in Europe. Religious duties and services to mankind were largely ignored or forgotten.The Roman Church levied various taxes such as ‘tithe’ and ‘Peter’s Pence’ on all European Christians under their control. High fees were charged for conducting religious services.Bribery and corruption became common. Church offices were sold, bringing many unworthy people into the Church.The Church also started the practice of selling ‘Indulgences’ to those who had committed sins. It was like a certificate of pardon by God for their sins and a ‘passport to heaven’ without having to undergo any penance.
(c)
With the decline of feudalism in Europe strong rulers emerged. They defied the authority of the Pope and refused to let him interfere in their administrative affairs. They resented the papal taxes and the drain of their wealth to Rome in the form of papal taxes.

G Picture study:

This is a portrait of the German monk who opposed certain activities of the Catholic Church.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - A Period of Transition 7

  1. Identify the person in the picture.
    Ans. Martin Luther.
  2. With which great religious movement is his name associated?
    Ans. Reformation movement.
  3. Where was he born and in which country did he lead his movement ?
    Ans. Martin Luther was a German Christian monk and preacher at the University town of Wittenburg.
  4. Mention any four effects of the movement started by him.
    Ans.

    • The church was split up permanently.
      Civil wars broke out in many countries between the Catholics and the Protestants.
    • Religious intolerance, hatred and persecution of Protestants in Catholic countries and
    • Catholics in Protestant countries became the order of the day, and led to many wars in Europe.
    • Religious persecution of the Protestants in England was a major reason for their migration to and colonization of North America (New England). By the end of the 18th century the colonists would establish the United States of America.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Union Executive

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Union Executive

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

A PlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. A person to be appointed a minister must be a member of either House of Parliament.
  2. The Prime Minister decides the business to be carried on by the Cabinet.
  3. The Vice President is elected for a period of five years.
  4. The Prime Minister distributes portfolios among the ministers.
  5. The public servants constitute the permanent executives.

II. Match the contents of Column A with that of Column B : Column A
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 3

III. Tick mark (✓) the correct statements and cross mark (X) the wrong ones :

  1. The Prime Minister is the vital link between the President and the Cabinet.
    ✓
  2. The Prime Minister acts on the advice of the President.
     X
  3. A money bill cannot be introduced without the President’s authority.
    ✓
  4. The President can appoint anyone as the Prime Minister.
     X
  5. Most of the Civil Servants at the Centre are selected by the Union Public Service Commission.
    ✓

IV. Answer the following:

Question 1.
Who is the Chief Executive of the Indian Union? Who votes for him?
Answer:
The Chief Executive of the Indian Union is the President. The elected members of both the Houses of Parliament and the elected members of the Legislative Assemblies elect the President.

Question 2.
State two executive and two judicial powers of the President.Under what circumstances can the President proclaim a state of emergency?
Answer:
Two Executive powers of the President are:

  1. He appoints the Prime Minister and Union Minister.
  2. He appoints state Governors, the Judges of the Supreme Court and High Court, the Comptroller and Auditor-General, the Attorney General and members of the Union Public service Commission.

Two Judicial powers of the President are:

  1. He can pardon, remit or suspend a sentence of punishment given by a court martial or death sentence passed by the court.
  2. He is not answerable to any law court for the exercise of his powers, except in case of impeachment in Parliament.

The President can declare emergency if:

  1. Security of India is threatened.
  2. There is a break down of the constitutional machinery in a state.
  3. The financial stability of the country is threatened.

Question 3.
What are the two main functions of the Cabinet?
Answer:
The two main functions of the Cabinet are:

  1. All important decisions are taken by the cabinet ministers.
  2. Cabinet formulates the policies and programmes of the government.

Question 4.
Name the three categories of the union ministers.
Answer:
The three categories of Ministers are:

  1. Cabinet Ministers
  2.  Minister of State
  3. Deputy Ministers

Question 5.
What is the position of the Prime Minister? Mention his powers.
Answer:
Leader of the political party or parties securing absolute majority in the Lok Sabha.

  1. Leader of the Lok Sabha.
  2. Manages the affairs of the country both internal as well as extrenal.
  3. He is the chief spokesperson of the Government.
  4. Selects other ministers.
  5. Distributes portfolios.
  6. Can demand the resignation of any minister.
  7. Advises the President on various appointments to important posts.
  8. Presides over cabinet meetings.

Question 6.
Do you think the President of India should be directly elected by the people? Why/why not?
Answer:
We have a system of government in which the Prime Minister is the most important person in the government of the country, the President is only a nominal Head. If the President was to be elected then he too would be equally important was powerful. Then there would be a clash of powers. So, in my opinion it is preferable that the President should not be directly elected by the people.

V. Explain the following statements:

Question 1.
“The President is a nominal head.”
Answer:
It means that in our system of government, it is the Prime Minister who runs the government under a parliamentary from of government. The President is a constitutional head of the Indian Union. He is only a nominal head. The government is run by the Prime Minister and his council of Ministers. The real executive power vests in the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime Minister.

Question 2.
“All the ministers, including the Prime Minister, swim and sink together.”
Answer:
The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers are directly responsible to the Lok Sabha. If a vote of no confidence is passed against one minister, the whole Council of ministers including the Prime Minister has to resign.

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The President can be removed from office by a procedure known as Impeachment.
  2. The President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
  3. The President can call a joint session of the Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. The Cabinet is the inner core of the Council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold important portfolios.
  5. The Prime Minister is the link between the President, the people and the Parliament.

B. Name the following:

  1. The current Prime Minister of India
    Ans. Narendra Modi
  2. The current Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha –
    Ans. Mohammad Hamid Ansari
  3. The current Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces
    Ans. Pranab Mukherjee
  4. The current ministers in charge of (a) Defence (b) External Affairs (c) Finance (d) Health
    Ans.
    (a) Defence Minister – Manohar Parrikar
    (b) External Affairs – Sushma Swaraj
    (c) Finance Minister – Arun Jaitley
    (d) Health Minister – Jagat Prakash Nadda

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. The President/Prime Minister/Vice President is the nominal head of the government of India.
    Ans. The President is the nominal head of the government of India.
  2. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Administrative Service/Defense Forces/Indian Foreign Service.
    Ans. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defense Forces.
  3. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha/Vidhan Sabha.
    Ans. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.
  4. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Vice President/Speaker/Prime Minister.
    Ans. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Prime Minister.
  5. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister/President/Vice-President. ”
    Ans. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The President is elected for a term of 4 years.
    False.
    Correct : The President is elected for a term of 5 years.
  1. The President can pardon a death sentence.
    True.
  1. The President can declare war or conclude peace.
    True.
  1. The Prime Minister choose the Cabinet Ministers.
    True.
  1. Civil servants belong to the majority party in Parliament.
    False.
    Correct : Civil servants belong to the minority party in Parliament.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Who is the real executive head in a parliamentary form of government?
Answer:
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government.

Question 2.
Name the body that elects the President of India.
Answer:
An Electoral College elects the President.

Question 3.
Name any two officials appointed by the President?
Answer:
The President appoints the State Governors, the Comptroller Auditor General, the Attorney General and Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories.

Question 4.
What is an ordinance?
Answer:
Ordinances are executive orders which are issued when the Parliament is not in session.

Question 5.
What can the President do when the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion?
Answer:
If the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion, National Emergency is declared.

Question 6.
Whose advice is the President bound to follow in carrying out his/her functions?
Answer:
Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers advice the President in the exercise of his/her functions. He/she is bound to follow this advice.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.

Question 8.
When two or more political parties form the government, what is it called?
Answer:
When two or more parties usually agree to work together and form the government. This is known as a Coalition Government.

Question 9.
What is meant by allotment of portfolios?
Answer:
The Prime Minister allots each minister in the Council a separate department or portfolio to handle. This is called allotment of portfolios. Hence, we have a Minister of Communication, Agriculture, Foreign Affairs, etc.

Question 10.
What happens when a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister?
Answer:
If a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
In the context of the President of India, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the qualifications required for the post of the President.
(b) How is the President elected ?
(c) How can the services of the President be terminated ?
Answer:
(a) Qualifications for the post of the President are:

  1. They must be citizens of India.
  2. They must be at least 35 years of age.
  3. They must have all the qualifications necessary to be a member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. They should not hold an office of profit under the Central,the state or the local governament

(b) The President is elected indirectly. An electoral college elects the President. The electoral college consists of the following members:

  1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
  2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

(c) The President can be impeached by the Parliament. Impeachment is a procedure by which the Parliament can remove the President if he/she is found guilty of violating the Constitution, of treason or of corruption.

Question 2.
With reference to the powers of the President, discuss:
(a) Any four executive powers
(b) Military powers
(c) Any four legislative powers
Answer:
(a) Executive powers: The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the Majority party or coalition parties or single largest party in the Lok Sabha. The President appoints the Union Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(b) Military powers: The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces. He or she can declare war or conclude peace. All important treaties and contracts are made in the President’s name.

(c) Legislative powers:

  1. The President can summon or prorogue the Parliament. He/she addresses the opening session of the Parliament every year. The President’s address is a statement of the government’s policy.
  2. The President can also dissolve the Lok Sabha and order fresh elections.
  3. He/she can call a joint session of both Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. Each bill passed by the Parliament has to receive the President’s assent in order to become a law. The President may send the bill back to the Parliament if he/she does not approve, but if it is passed a second time, he/she is obliged to sign it and give his/her assent.
  5. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
  6. When the Parliament is not in session, the President can issue ordinances. Ordinances are like laws and are valid for only 6 weeks after the Parliament meets again.

Question 3.
The President is an integral part of the Parliament. In this context explain the following:
(a) The financial powers of the President
(b) The judicial powers of the President
(C) The emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
(a) The financial powers of the President:

  1. The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.

(b) The judicial powers of the President:

  1. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  2. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

(c) The emergency powers of the President:

  1.  The President can declare Emergency if the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion.
  2. If the administrative machinery of a state breaks down, Presidential Rule is imposed in that state.
  3. If the financial stability of the country is threatened, a Financial Emergency can be declared by him.

Question 4.
With reference to the functions of the Parliament, explain the following:
(a) Law-making functions
(b) Control over the executive
(c) Judicial functions
Answer
(a) Law making functions of the Parliament:

  1. The Parliament can frame new laws or modify existing ones on any subject in the Union or Concurrent List.
  2. In some cases the Parliament can also pass laws on subjects under the State List.
  3. Only the Parliament can initiate a Bill to amend the Constitution.

(b) Control over the Council of Ministers:

  1. The Parliament keeps a watch over the government. The Council of Ministers is directly responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for its policies and actions.
  2. The Council of Ministers has to resign immediately if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it by the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Members of Parliament can discuss government policies and question the ministers. Hence, they can exercise a check on the working of the government.
  4. The Parliament can move an adjournment motion to discuss and focus on any matter of public importance which requires immediate and urgent attention from the government, for instance, natural disasters such as earthquakes and unforeseen situations such as police firing or terrorist attacks, etc.

(c) Judicial functions of the Parliament: The Parliament can impeach or remove the President, the Vice-President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts if any of them violate the Constitution or misuse their authority.

Question 5.
Discuss the powers and position of the Prime Minister with reference to his relationship with the following:
(a) Parliament
(b) the President
(c) the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
(a)
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government. It is the Prime Minister who actually exercises all the powers vested in the President. This is because of the following reasons:
The Prime Minister is the elected head of the country.The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party or the largest coalition in the Parliament.
(b)
The Prime Minister advises the President in the discharge of his/her functions and informs him/her about the decisions taken by the Cabinet. The advice of the Prime Minister is binding on the President.
The Council of Ministers:

  1. The Prime Minister selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
  2. He/she distributes portfolios among the ministers and presides over Cabinet meetings.
  3. He/she coordinates the working of the different departments and is the vital link between the President and the Cabinet.
  4. He/she can expand the Cabinet and also demand the resignation of any minister.

Question 6.
In the context of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, explain the following:
(a) Appointment of the Prime Minister
(b) Formation of the Council of Ministers
(c) The Cabinet
Answer:
(a)
According to the constitution, The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. In actual practice, however, the choice of the President in the appointment of Prime Minister is limited. He appoints only that person as Prime Minister who is the leader of the party or coalition of parties having an absolute majority in House of the people.
In case no party has an absolute majority in house of the people, the president can appoint any person as Prime Minister who, is his opinion, is able to form a stable government.The person to be apointed as Prime Minister must be member of either house of parliament.
(b)
The Prime Minister selects a number of ministers according to his/her preference and submits a list to the President. When the President approves and appoints the Ministers on the list, the Council of Ministers is formed.The Council of Ministers has three ranks within if

  1. Cabinet Ministers,
  2. Ministers of State and
  3. Deputy Ministers.

(c)
All ministers of the Council have to be members of either House of Parliament. In case a non-member is selected, he/ she has to be elected to either House within 6 months from the date of appointment.The Cabinet is the inner core of the council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold the most important portfolios and make the most important decision and policies. The Cabinet Ministers hold the highest ranks and have the greatest responsibility. They holds the real executive power of the Indian government and is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. The Cabinet can remain in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of a majority in the Lok Sabha. If a vote of no­confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately. The entire Council has to answer for the shortcomings or failure on the part of any one minister.

G Picture study:

Until 1950, the building in the picture was known as ‘Viceroy’s House’, and served as the residence of the Governor General of India.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Union Executive 4

  1. Identify the building. Whose official residence is it now?
    Ans. Rashtrapati Bhavan, President of India.
  2. How is he or she elected?
    Ans. The President is elected indirectly by the elected members of the Legislature as he or she is a nominal (de jure) and not the de facto head. An Electoral college elects the President. The Electoral College elects the President. The Electoral College consists of the following members:

    1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
    2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies
  3. What is his/her term of office?
    Ans. The President is elected for a period of 5 years. He or she can be re-elected after his or her term.
  4. Mention two powers each held by this person of with reference to the following:
    (a) Financial power (b) Judicial Power
    Answer:
    (a) Financial power:
  1. The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.
    (b) Judicial Power:
  3. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  4. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Impact of British Rule on India

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Impact of British Rule on India

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Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The British domination of India brought many changes in the cultural, educational and social life of India.
  2. The Indian villages were self sufficient village communities before the coming of the British.
  3. The British charged revenue in cash instead of kind.
  4. The three kinds of land settlements made by the British were Permanent settlement (b) Ryotwari settlement and (c) Mahalwari settlement
  5. A new class of landholders called Zamindars came into existence during this time.
  6. Lord Macaulay, is known as the founder of British system of education in India.

II. Match the contents of Column A and Column B:
Column A                                                                    Column B

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 3
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 4

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. The British rule resulted in the destruction of Indian industry, trade and handicrafts.
    True.
  2. The important centres for Indian goods were Dhaka, Benaras, Lucknow, Multan, Ahmadabad, etc.
    True.
  3. The British greatly developed Indian agriculture.
    False.
  4. Lord Cornwallis intoduced the Permanent Land Settlement in India.
    True.
  5. The first railway line was built during Lord Dalhousie’s time.
    True.
  6. The British took interest in building up transport and communication system to help them in trade and military affairs.
    True.
  7. The English took great interest in Indian culture and promoted it
    False.
  8. The English took interest in education of Indians only because they needed low paid, English speaking clerks.
    True.
  9. The new education policy benefitted only the upper and th middle class.
    True.
  10. The Company promoted education of girls and technical education.
    False.

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Mention the social evils prevalent in India during British rule.
Answer:
Inhuman practice of Sati was prevalent in many parts of the country. Female infanticide prevailed in some parts of the country. The practice of sacrificing little children to please gods and goddesses was another major evil. Widows were not allowed to remarry. Child marriage and polygamy were other social evils prevalent in society.

Question 2.
Why did India’s foreign trade decline during the British rule?
Answer:
India traded in wool, silk, textiles, metal craft like vessels and ornaments, objects in gold, silver, copper, steel and iron. British trade policies led to the drain of wealth from India. Indian trade, industries and handicrafts declined. Indian artisans lost support of kings and nobles. The British wanted India to become a supplier of raw materials and an importer of finished goods.

Question 3.
During the British rule, “India was a loser both ways – as a buyer and also a seller.” Explain.
Answer:
The British exploited India’s resources, bought raw materials from India at nominal rates to be exported to England, and dumped their machine made goods in the Indian markets. Thus, India was a loser both ways as a buyer and also as a seller.

Question 4.
Why did the English East India Company feel the need for educational; reforms?
Answer:
The first objective of education in India was to form a class of interpreters between the British rulers and the millions of Indians they governed. The second objective was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour but British in taste, opinion, morals and intellect. The third objective was to obtain a cheap supply of clerks for holding subordinate posts in administration and British business concerns.                     ‘

Question 5.
Who was Lord Macaulay? Why did he recommend the system of British education in India?
Answer:
Lord Macaualy is considered the founder of the British system of education in India. He was the law member of the council of Lord William Bentinck, the Governor General of India.Macaulay recommended

  1. English shoud be the medium of instruction in schools
  2. Indians should be taught sciences and western literature. He had a very poor opinion of traditional Indian learning which he thought was inferior to European learning.

According to him, “single shelf of a good European library was worth native literature of India and Arabia.”

Question 6.
What were the main objectives of British education in India? Mention the steps recommended to implement the policy.
Answer:
There were three main objectives of education in India according to Lord Macaulay. The first objective was to form a class of interpreters between the British rulers and the millions of Indians they governed.
The second objective was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour but British in taste, opinion, morals and intellect.
The third objective was to obtain a cheap supply of clerks for holding subordinate posts in administration and British business concerns.
In 1835, Bentinck agreed to Macaulay’s view and made English the medium of instruction. In 1844 the government declared their intention to employ only English educated Indians. In 1854, Wood’s Despatch was accepted and implemented. New Universities were set up in Mumbai, Kolkata and Chennai.

Question 7.
Describe the recommendations in Wood’s Despatch and their effects.
Answer:
(a)
It declared that the aim to Government’s educational policy was the teaching of Western education “The education which we desire to see extended in India”, wrote Wood in the Despatch, “is that which has for its object the diffusion of the improved arts, science, philosophy and literature of Europe, in short of European knowledge.”

  1. As to the medium of instruction, it declared that for higher education. English language was the most perfect medium of education. It also emphasised the importance of vernacular languages.
  2. It proposed setting up of vernacular primary schools in villages Anglo-Vernacular high schools and an affiliated college at district level.
  3. It recommended a grants-in-aid to encourage private enterprise.
  4. A department of public instruction under the charge of a Director in each of the five provinces to review progress of education.
  5. Universities on the model of London University were set up in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
  6. The Despatch emphasised the importance of vocational Instruction and need for establishing technical schools and colleges.
  7. Teachers Training institutions on the model then prevalent in England were recommended.
  8. The Despatch gave frank and cordial support for fostering the education of women.

Question 8.
Discuss various aspects of the drain of wealth.
Answer:
The British exported to Britain part of India’s wealth and resources for which India got no adequate economic or material return. This ‘Economic Drain’was peculiar to British rule. Previously the rulers had spent the revenue they extracted from the people inside the country. But the British spent part of the taxes and income they derived from the Indian people not in India but in Britain, their home country.
The drain of wealth from Bengal began in 1757 when company’s servants began to carry home immense fortunes extorted from Indian rulers, zamindars, merchants and the common people. They sent home nearly £ 6 million between 1758 and 1765. This was more than four times than total land revenue collection of the Nawab of Bengal in 1765.
In 1765 the company acquired the Diwani of Bengal and thus gained control over its revenues. The company began to purchase Indian goods out of the revenue of Bengal and to export them.
From 1765 to 1770 the company sent out nearly £4 million worth of goods or about 33 percent of the net revenue of the net revenue of Bengal. The drain took the form of an excess of India’s exports over its imports for which India got no return. The drain went on increasing after 1858.

V. Picture Study –
(A) Look at the picture.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 5

1.Which important development does the picture depict?
Ans. In 1853 the first Railway line was opened between Bombay and Thane.

Write a short note on its development in India.
Ans. Railway lines were developed to transport raw’ material to factories and finished goods from factories to markets. The Indians benefitted from railways. Travel and transportation became quicker, easier and cheaper.

How did it prove to be a boon for the Indians?
Ans. The railways brought Indians of all castes and religions together. They later united against the English and joined hands to fight against them.

(B) This is the picture of a Governor-General.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 6

1.Identify him.
Ans. Lord William Bentinck.

2.What do you understand by ‘Sati’? Who put an end to this practice and why?
Ans. Sati was an inhuman practice of widow immolation at the funeral pyre of her husband. It was prevalent in many parts of India specially in Bengal. Lord William Bentinck abolished Sati in 1829.

3.Mention four social reforms introduced by the British.
Ans.

  1. Abolition of Sati.
  2. Abolition of female infanticide.
  3. Abolition of sacrificing little children to please gods and goddesses.

A strong movement in support of widow remarriage. Lord Dalhousie passed a law which allowed widows to remarry

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Bengal famine of 1770 was one of the most terrible famines in human history.
  2. A large share of revenue collected by the Company in India had to be paid to the British government as home charges.
  3. Under the Mahalwari system the revenue settlement was made with the village as a whole.
  4. To eliminate competition from India’s traditional industries the British transfonned India into a supplier of raw material and a market for british products.
  5. Before the advent of the British the Indian craftspeople operated at two levels—the rural and the urban levels.
  6. Before the advent of the British the Indian textile industry was the finest and the largest in the world.
  7. After the Battle of Plassey the Company used its political power to destroy the Indian handicraft industry and promote British industries.
  8. With the spread of the Industrial Revolution in England, Indian markets were flooded with cheap, machine made textiles of British mills.
  9. By 1850, India became a major importer of english textiles.
  10. Lord Dalhousie introduced the railway system in India in 1853.
  11. The Grand Trunk Road from Calcutta to Peshawar was reconstructed by the British in the 19th century.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 7
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 10

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The Treaty of Allahabad/Madras/Benaras granted the English East India Company the right to collect revenue from Bihar, Bengal and Orissa.
Ans. The Treaty of Allahabad granted the English East India Company the right to collect revenue from Eihar, Bengal and Orissa.

2. To remove the defect of the revenue system Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent settlement/Ryotwari system/ Mahalwari system in 1793.
Ans. To remove the defect of the revenue system Lord Cornwallis introduced the Permanent settlement in 1793.

3. The Ryotwari system of revenue collection was introduced in Madras/Calcutta/Bombay presidency.
Ans. The Ryotwari system of revenue collection was introduced in Madras presidency.

4. The Charter Act of 1813, directed the Company to spend 1/ 10/15 lakh rupees on the education of Indians.
Ans. The Charter Act of 1813, directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians.

5.The first railway line was from Bombay to Poona/Thana/ Calcutta.
Ans. The first railway line was from Bombay to Thana.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Before the advent of the British more than 95 per cent of Indians lived in villages.
    True.
  2. The Indian peasants were satisfied with the Company’s revenue collection methods.
     False.
  3. The Permanent Settlement assured the Company a fixed revenue at a fixed time even during natural calamities.
    True.
  4. Lord Macaulay insisted that Western education should be imparted through the medium of the vernacular languages.
    False.
    Correct : Lord Macaulay insisted that Western education should be imparted through the medium of the English.
  5. The development of transport and communication systems did not benefit Indians in any way.
    False.
    Correct : The development of transport and communication systems benefit Indians in unexpected ways.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Why did the Indian peasants begin to grow cash crops ?
Answer:
Since revenue payments had to be paid in cash, the peasants began to grow cash crops like jute, cotton, sugarcane etc., which could be sold for ready cash in the markets.

Question 2.
How did the Company utilize the revenues from Bengal ?
Answer:
The revenue from Bengal was used to cover as salaries of officials and to finance the trading activities of the company. Raw materials for England’s growing industries were bought with the revenues collected from Bengal.

Question 3.
What were the drawbacks of Warren Hastings’s five-year revenue settlement ?
Answer:
The new zamindars, unsure of retaining the contract at the next auction, had no permanent interest in the land and did nothing to improve it. The peasants were fleeced to meet the revenue targets.

Question 4.
What was the significance of the Charter Act of 1813 in the context of British educational policy in India?
Answer:
The Charter Act of 1813 directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians. This was the first step taken by the British rulers towards the encouragement of the study of literature and science in India. The Charter Act, however, did not lay down any specific guidelines.

Question 5.
In what way would westernized Indians help to promote the interests of British manufacturers?
Answer:

  1. The British system of education produced English-speaking Indian graduates who helped their British masters to run the empire.
  2. It also created a class of Indians who were Westernized to the extent that they rejected Indian culture and patronized anything and everything that was British including British goods.

Question 6.
How did knowledge of contemporary nationalist movements in Europe inspire the Indians?
Answer:
Knowledge of contemporary nationalist movements in Europe fired the Indians with an intense desire to build a new India progressive, strong, prosperous and united.

Question 7.
Mention any two positive effects of the introduction of English in the Indian educational system.
Answer:
Western education, however, impacted Indian society in a way the British could never have imagined.

  1. It aroused in them an awareness of the evil effects of foreign rule.
  2. The teachings of modem European philosophers instilled in them an admiration for democratic institutions.

Question 8.
Which section of Indians gained from the British commercial policies ?
Answer:
Indian Steel, Urban Centres specialized in gold and silver ornaments, cooper, brassware, and crafts people.

Question 9.
How would the improved transport and communication system benefit the Indian later ?
Answer:
The transport and communication system, however, would ultimately benefit Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it would bring the people of India closer to one another and infuse in them a sense of unity and nationalism—a development that would have far-reaching effects on India’s future.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
In the context of Permanent Settlement of Bengal answer the following:
(a) Explain the special features of the Permanent Settlement.
(b) What are its advantages ?
(c) Briefly describe its disavantages
Answer:
(a) The system had two special features:
Permanent ownership of land

  1. The zamindars, collectors of land revenue, were made permanent legal owners of the land from which they collected the land tax. The tax collector became the landlord.
  2. The zamindar’s ownership rights became hereditary and he was given the freedom to sell or mortgage his land.
  3. The cultivators of the land became the tenants of the zamindar and lost their ancestral rights. They had to pay a rent to the zamindar who could increase the rent as and when they wanted to.

Fixed Revenue

  1. The land revenue was fixed on a permanent basis. The Company could not make any further demands on the zamindars.
  2. The zamindar had to pay the land revenue once a year on a spe ­cific date. If he failed to pay on time, his lands were confiscated and sold.

(b) Advantages

  1. The Company was assured of a fixed revenue at a fixed time even during natural calamities.
  2. The collection of revenue was simpler and cheaper. The zamindars replaced hundreds of paid tax officials.
  3. The British won the support and loyalty of the powerful and priviledged class of zamindars that they had created.
  4. As permanent owners of the lands, the zamindars took several steps to increase agricultural production whose benefits they would enjoy.

(c) Disadvantages

  1. The cultivators were left at the mercy of the zamindar, who ex­ploited and oppressed them, increased their rents and evicted them from the land when they unable to pay the high rents. This led to widespread poverty and misery of the cultivators.
  2. Since the revenue was fixed, the government would not get a share of increasing returns form the land.
  3. This system gave rise to a class of absentee landlords. These zamindars preferred to live in cities and towns and sublet their land to tenants at high rates. These tenants in turn sublet it to other tenants. As this process continued, the rent rates increased with each successive layer. The entire burden of paying the enhanced rates had to be borne by the actual cultivator—the last tenant.

Question 2.
With reference to Ryotwari and Mahalwari systems answer the following:
(a) Explain the features of the Ryotwari system.
(b) What were the features of the Ryotwari system.
(c) What were the fundamental changes introduced by these systems in the traditional land system of the country ?
Answer:
(a)
The features of Ryotwari system were:

  1. The cultivator (ryot) was recognized as the owner of his land as long as he paid the land revenue.
  2. The revenue was paid directly by the cultivator to the rev­enue officials.
  3. The revenue was fixed for 30 years after which it could be revised.
  4. Collection of revenue was rigid. There was no remission of revenue even when the crops failed.

(b)
‘Mahal’ means a group of villages. Under this system land was collectively owned by the villagers. The revenue settle­ment was made with the village as a whole. The talukdar or head of the mahal collected the revenue and handed it over to the British collectors.

(c)
The Zamindari and Ryotwari systems introduced fundamen­tal changes in the traditional land systems of the country. Land became a commodity — a new form of property — which could be bought, sold and mortgaged as and when the need arose. The stability and continuity of the Indian villages were shaken and the traditional structure of rural society began to disintegrate.

Question 3.
The first century of British rule resulted in the decay and destruction of traditional India trade and industry. Explain this statement with reference to the following:
(a) Political powers of the Company
(b) Collapse of ruling dynasties and ruling courts
(c) Decline of modern India industries.
Answer:
(a) After the Battle of Plassey in 1757, the company used its political power to destroy the Indian handicraft industry and promote British industries. The Indian weavers were forced to sell their products to the Company at very low prices. To add to their miseries, they were compelled to buy interior raw cotton at high prices from the Company officials who bought it from the Indian farmers at low rates.

(b) With the establishment and expansion of the British empire in India, the royal courts and the nobility of the ruling dynas­ties, (including the Mughals) collapsed one by one. The craftspersons and artisans were deprived of royal patronage and Indian handicrafts suffered a severe setback.

(c) The British government also obstructed the growth of mod­ern Indian industries to keep the country underdeveloped and economically backward. Almost everything of daily use like needles, pins, sewing machines, thread, soaps, biscuits, cycles, medicines, paper, etc. were imported from England.

Question 4.
The Charter Act of 1813 passed by the British Parliament was the first major step to introduce changes in the Indian system of education. In this context discuss:
(a) The general directives issued to the Company in the Charter Act of 1813 and its inherent weakness
(b) The Great Debate over the content and medium of education
(c) The introduction and spread of Western education
Answer:
(a) The Charter Act of 1813 directed the Company to spend 1 lakh rupees on the education of Indians. This was the first step taken by the British rulers towards the encouragement of the study of literature and science in India. The Charter Act, however.- did not lay down any specific guidelines. The money sanctioned for the education project lay untouched for 2 decades while a great controversy raged over the content and medium of education.

(b) One group favoured the promotion of traditional Indian learning through the medium of classical (Sanskrit and Persian) and regional language. This group was known as the Orientalists. The other group led by Lord Macaulay (Law Member of the Governor General’s Council) insisted that Western education should be introduced and imparted.

(c) The government began to set up English medium schools and colleges for the education of a limited number of Indians. In 1844, English became the official language and the government announced that Indians educated in British schools would be given jobs in government services. This helped the spread of English education in India.

Question 5.
The Wood’s Despatch introduced further changes in the Indian educational system. With reference to the above statement, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the purpose behind the introduction of Western education in India?
(b) How did the introduction of Western education benefit the British?
(c) Explain how

  1. Western education and
  2. The English language led to the rise of a spirit of nationalism among the Indians.

Answer:
(a)  The purpose behind the introduction of Western education in India.

  1. The primary motive of the British government was to create a class of persons, Indian in blood and colour, but British in taste, opinions, morals and intellect. The class of Indians could be employed, on low salaries, as clerks in the Civil Service.
  2. This would greatly reduce the heavy expenditure involved in running the administration. Employing theBritish in these posts was very expensive and difficult.
  3. Westernized Indians, it was hoped, would create a demand for British goods and promote the interests of British manufacturers.
  4. Western education would inculcate in the Indians a sense of admiration and respect for British rule. This would strengthen the foundations of the British empire in India.

(b) The introduction and spread of Western education in India benefited the British like:

  1. The British system of education produced English­speaking Indian graduates who helped their British masters to run the empire.
  2. It also created a class of Indians who were Westernized to the extent that they rejected Indian culture and patronized anything and everything that was British including British goods.

(c) Western education, however, impacted Indian society in a way the British could never have imagined.

  1. It aroused in them an awareness of the evil effects of foreign rule.
  2. The teachings of modern European philosophers instilled in them an admiration for democratic institutions.

Question 6.
With reference to the transport and communication system in India, answer the following questions:
(a) Why and how did the British develop proper transport and communication facilities in India?
(b) How did the railways serve the interests of the British?
(c) Explain how the improved transport and communication system proved beneficial for Indians.
Answer:
(a)

  1. The transport and communication system in India in the 18th century was very backward. The British realized the importance of developing proper
    communication facilities to consolidate their position in India and promote their industrial and commercial growth.
  2. Steps were taken to link all the major cities, ports, agricultural centres and markets through an elaborate network of roads, canals and railways. Metalled roads, steamships and trains were introduced.

(b)
The railways ensured quick transfer of troops and ammunition during revolts and other disturbances and the easy tranportation of raw materials and manufactured goods.
(c)
The transport and communication system, however, whould ultimately benefit Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it would bring the people of India closer to one another and infuse in them a sense of unity and nationalism. A development that would have far-reaching effects on India’s independence.The improved communication system established by the British benefited the Indians in unexpected ways. Besides stimulating trade and commerce it brought the people of India closer to one another and infused in them a sense of unity and nationalism which had far-reaching effects on Indian’s future.

G Picture Study:

This is the picture of an Indian nationalist.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Impact of British Rule on India 9

1. Identify the person.
Answer.
DadabhaiNaoroji.

2.What did he think about the British rule in India ?
Answer.
Dadabhai Naoroji one of the early nationalist of India, described British rule as an ‘everlasting….foreign invasion that was utterly though gradually destroying the country’.

3.Explain any three ways in which he felt that the Indian economy was being exploited by the British.
Answer.

  1. A greater part of the salaries of British officials and employees of the Company (paid out of Indian revenues) was deposited in England as savings.
  2. Material resources like cotton, jute, indigo, tea, coffee, etc. were transported to England.
  3. Goods purchased in India with revenues drawn from the country were sent to England.
  4. Huge sums of money which the officials received as bribes and gifts were sent out of the country.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Rise and Spread of Islam

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Rise and Spread of Islam

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • Mecca was the town in Arabia where Prophet Muhammad was bom. It is a holy place for Muslims.
  • Medina was the town to which Prophet Muhammad and his followers shifted in 622 CE.
  • Hijrat marks the departure of Prophet Muhammad from Mecca to Median in 622 CE.
  • Hijri is the Muslim calendar which begins from the year 622 CE.
  • Abu Bakr was the faithful friend and follower of Prophet Muhammad, who was selected as the Prophet’s successor after his death.
  • Khalifa or Caliph means successor of the Prophet. It was the title given to the head of the Muslim community in medieval times.
  • AI Beruni was a Muslim scholar who came to India with Mahmud of Ghazni. His book is a rich source of information about India culture, philosophy and scientific achievements of the period.

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Prophet Muhammad was bom at Mecca in AD 570.
  2. Muslims worship only one God Allah.
  3. Muhammad preached against idol worship.
  4. Prophet Muhammad’s successors were known as Caliphs or Khalifas.
  5. The greatest king of Abbasid dynasty was Harun-Al-Rashid.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 2

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. Muhammad was born at Medina.
     False.Muhammad was born at Mecca.
  2. He shifted from Mecca to Medina in AD 615.
    False. He shifted from Mecca to Medina in AD 622.
  3. A Muslim should not worship an idol.
     True.
  4. Abu Bakr was the last Khalifa.
    False.Ali Bakr was the last Khalifa.
  5. The Ottoman Turks Captured Constantinople in AD 1480.
    False.The Ottoman Turks Captured Constantinople in AD 1453.

IV. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Discuss the early life of Muhammad.
Answer:
Until mid-life, Prophet Muhammad lived the life of a prosperous trader. In AD 610, Muhammad had his spiritual experience and became a prophet. Fie called himself the messenger of the supreme being – Allah, whose message he had to spread. He preached against idol worship. Arabia at that time was ruled by a number of tribes, who worshiped many gods and performed many rites and sacrifices. They did not like Muhammad’s teachings. Muhammad was forced to leave Mecca and moved to Medina in AD 622 with his followers. This year of ‘Emigration’ is known as Hijrat.

Question 2.
Describe the teachings of Muhammad.
Answer:
Some of the main teachings of Prophet Muhammad are the following:

  1. God is one and he is all powerful, all wise and all merciful.
  2. Idol worship is a curse and everybody should shirk doing it.
  3. The Koran is a Divine book and its authority is unquestionable.
  4. Islam believes that sinners will go to hell and the good and faithful will go to heaven.
  5. All men are equal and there is no question of superiority of inferiority.
  6. The Prophet enjoined upon his followers to perform the five duties of ‘Raima’, ‘Namaz’, ‘Zaqaat’, ‘Ramzan’ and ‘Haji’.
  7. One must treat the slaves kindly and leniently.
  8. The women should be given kind treatment but they must observe ‘purdah’.
  9. One must abstain from drinking, gambling etc. and practise justice and respect for elders.

Question 3.
What are the five main religious obligations of Islam.
Answer:
A Muslim has five religious obligation, called the five pillars.They are:

  1. Shahada (Confession of Faith): A Muslim’s most essential obligation is to repeat “There is no God but Allah’ Mohammad is His Prophet.”
  2. Salat (Prayer): He must offer prayers (namaaz) five times everyday and on Friday afternoons in a mosque.
  3. Zakaat (Alms Giving): He must give alms to the poor as an offering to Allah and a religious act.
  4. Sawm or Siyam (Fasting): Muslims must keep fast from dawn to dusk during Ramadan (Ramzan), the ninth month of their lunar year.
  5. Haj (Pilgrimage to Mecca): Once in his lifetime, every Muslim who is financially and physically able, must travel to Mecca. This pilgrimage is called

Question 4.
Discuss the spread of Islamic civilisation after the passing away of Prophet Muhammad.
Answer:
Muhammad’s successors were known as Caliphs or Khalifas and they were both religious and political leaders of Muslims. The caliphs who succeeded Muhammad were Abu Bakr, Umar, Usman and Ali. Within a short period of just one century, the Khalifas and their generals conquered Iran, Syria, Egypt, Central Asia, North Africa and Spain.

Question 5.
Describe the main contributions of the Umayyads and the Abbasids.
Answer:
The main contributions of the Umayyad Dynasty are:

  1. The capital of Islam was moved to Damascus, Syria
  2. Expansion of Islam touched the regions of India, China, North Africa, and Spain
  3. Arabic became the official language.
  4. Arabian currency was used in the Empire
  5. Roads were built
  6. Postal routes were created.

The main contributions of the Abbasids Dynasty are:

  1. The Abbasids established their capital at Baghdad, near the ruins of the ancient Iranian metropolis, Ctesiphon.
  2. The army and bureaucracy were reorganised on a non- tribal basis to ensure greater participation by Iraq and Khurasan.
  3. The Abbasid rulers strengthened the religious status and functions of the caliphate and patronised Islamic institutions and scholars.
  4. They maintained the magnificent imperial architecture and elaborate court ceremonials of the Umayyads.

Additional Questions
(Rise and Spread of Islam)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Prophet Muhammad, the founder of Islam, was bom in Mecca in the year 570 ce.
  2. Muhammad forbade idol worship and stressed the importance of God and kind behaviour.
  3. The two holy places of the Muslims are Mecca and Medina.
  4. Ans. Muhammad was succeeded by Abu Bakr, who was known as Caliph. He transformed the Arabs into an excellent fighting force and inspired them to carry the word of Allah throughout the world.
  5. The first Arab expedition to India took place in 712 ce under the leadership of Muhammad bin Qasim.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 3
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 4

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 5

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. As a young man, Muhammad worked as a trader/farmer/ craftsman.
    Ans. As a young rhan, Muhammad worked as a trader.
  2. During Muhammad’s time, the Arabs were divided into a number of kingdoms/tribes/empires.
    Ans. During Muhammad’s time, the Arabs were divided into a number of tribes.
  3. Muslims must say their prayers four/five/six times a day.
    Ans. Muslims must say their prayers five times a day.
  4. The Abbasid Caliphs shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Medina/Mecca/Baghdad.
    Ans. The Abbasid Caliphs shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Baghdad.
  5. The Arab traders established trade settlements on the eastern/western/southern coast of India.
    Ans. The Arab traders established trade settlements on the western coast of India.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Medieval Period in India stretches from the 8th century CE to the 16th century
    False.
    Correct : The Medieval Period in India stretches from the 8th century CE to the 18th century ce.
  2. Before the rise of Islam, the Arabs practised idol worship.
    True.
  3. The Arab empire under the Abbasid Caliphs was one of the most powerful and enlightened regions in the world.
    True.
  4. The occupation of Sind ended with the death of Muhammad bin Qasim.
    True.
  5. In the 9th century ce, the power of the Caliphs declined.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Where was Prophet Muhammad born?
Ans. Prophet Muhammad was bom in Mecca

2.What important event took place in Muhammad’s life around 610 ce?
Ans. When Muhammad was about forty years old, he had a vision of God, who revealed to him the-divine message, to carry the word of God or Allah to the people of Mecca. He declared that Allah was the one and only God and Muhammad was his Prophet. This gave way to a new religion called Islam.

3.What does the term Hijrat mean?
Ans. Hijrat marks the departure of Prophet Muhammad from Mecca to Medina in 622 ce.

4.What title did Abu Bakr assume after he succeeded Prophet Muhammad?
Ans. Abu Bakr took the title of Khalifa or Caliph.

5.Under whose reign did the Arabs achieve their greatest heights of intellectual and cultural excellence?
Ans. The greatest intellectual and cultural excellence was seen during the reign of the Abbasid Caliphs.

6.Why was the House of Wisdom established?
Ans. The house of Wisdom was set up in Baghdad as it was advised by Prophet Muhammad to pursue learning among Arabs. So Baghdad become the place of wisdom where various ancient civilizations such as Greek, Byzantine, Egyptian, Chinese, Indian and Persian were translated into Arabic.

7.Which Arab city became the preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world?
Ans. Baghdad became the repository and preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world.

8.What were the chief items of export and import in India’s trade relations with the Arabs?
Ans. The chief items of export during India’s trade relations with the Arabs were Pepper. Muslin, Indigo etc. and import were luxury items and fine Arabian horses.

9. Why were the Indians not receptive to Arab learning and civilization during this period?
Ans. The spirit of exclusiveness among the Hindus made them reject foreign cultural influence. The Hindus believed that no other country on earth but theirs had any knowledge of Science. Hence, they were not receptive to the rich treasures of Arabic learning and civilization.

10.Name any one independent state established by the Turks in Central Asia.
Ans. Two independent states established by the Turks in Central Aisa were Ghazni and Ghor.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Why did Muhammad shift from Mecca to Medina? Discuss the events that followed this move.
Answer:
Muhammad forbade idol worship and stressed the importance of good and kind behaviour. His teachings angered the rich Arabs, and Muhammad and his small band of followers were forced to shift to Medina in 622 ce. Muhammad’s move from Mecca to Medina is known as Hijrat.

Question 2.
State the main principles of Islam.
Answer:
The main principles of Islam:

  1. There is only one God and Muhammad is his Prophet, (z’z) Muslims must turn towards Mecca and say their prayers five times a day.
  2. They must fast from dawn to dusk during the holy month of Ramzan.
  3. They must help the poor and needy by giving away a portion of their wealth in charity.
  4. They must make a pilgrimage to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 3.
The greatest intellectual and cultural excellence was seen during the reign of the Abbasid Caliphs. Discuss.
Answer:
The Abbasids shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Baghdad (capital of modem Iraq). For the next 150 years, the Arab empire under the Abbasids emerged as one of the most powerful, prosperous and enlightened regions in the world. The Arabs absorbed and assimilated the best of what other cultures and civilizations had to offer in terms of ideas, skills and scientific knowledge.
Muhammad had advised the Arabs to pursue learning. One of the Abbasid Caliphs established a House of Wisdom at Baghdad to translate into Arabic the collective wisdom of various ancient civilizations such as the Greek, Byzantine, Egyptian, Chinese, Indian and Persian civilizations. Baghdad became the repository and preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world.

Question 4.
What knowledge did the Arabs gather from
(a) Indian and
(b) various other ancient civilizations?
Answer:
(a)
The Arabs, learnt a great deal from the ancient Indian civilization. Knowledge of Indian mathematics, medicine, astronomy, philosophy and the art of administration were assimilated by the Arabs, leading to further enrichment of the Arab civilization and culture.
(b)
Knowledge absorbed and assimilated by Arab scholars from different civilizations

  1. Chinese:
    • Art of paper making,
    • Glass making techniques,
    • Use of mariner’s compass.
  2. Greeks:
    • Geometry.
  3. Persian:
    • Astronomy.
  4. Indians:
    • Mathematical theories
    • medicine
    • Astronomy
    • Philosophy
    • Administration

G Picture study:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 6

This is a picture of a mosque where Muslims go to pray

Question 1.
Name (a) their religion (b) their holy book and (c) the founder of their religion.
Answer:
(a) Islam, (b) Quran Sharif, (c) Prophet Muhammad.

Question 2. Name the two holy places of the Muslim.
Answer:
(a) Mecca (b) Medina

Question 3.
 Why does the Muslim calendar begin from the year 622 ce?
Answer:
Muhammad and his small band of followers were forced to flee to Medina in 622 ce. Muhammad’s departure from Mecca to Medina is known as hijrat. The Muslim calendar, hijri, begins from that year.

Question 4.
Mention any four important principles of the religion.
Answer:
The main four principles of Islam are as follows:

  1. There is only one God and Muhammad is His Prophet.
  2. Muslims must say their prayers five times a day.
  3. They must help the poor and needy by giving away a portion of their wealth in charity.
  4. They must make a pilgrimage to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 5.
Briefly describe the role of Abu Bakr in the spread of the this religion.
Answer:
Abu Bakr mobilized and transformed the Arabs into an excellent fighting force. He and his successors inspired the Arab armies to sweep across countries and continents and carry the word of Allah throughout the world. Inspired by missionary zeal, these invincible and extraordinary Arab armies conquered vast territories. Their empire stretched over Iran, Syria, Central Asia, North Africa and Spain.

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Mineral and Power Resources

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Mineral and Power Resources

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

  1. The northern parts of North America are colder than the southern parts.
  2. The South Westerlies cause rain throughout the year along the north – west coast in the northern part of North America.
  3. The Alaskan Current warms the Alaskan Coast and keeps it frost-free in winter.
  4. The tropical regions mainly experience rainfall in the summer season.
  5. The prairies are a vast stretch of tall grasses.

B. Match the following
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 2

C. Select the appropriate term from the list given below to fill in the blank after each statement

  • the prairies
  • chaparral
  • the taiga
  • the tundra
  • Mediterranean climate
  1. An extremely cold region which is treeless, the tundra.
  2. A vast stretch of coniferous forests in the cool temperate latitudes, the taiga.
  3. The only climate in North America which gets winter rain. Mediterranean climate.
  4. Grasslands where the bison are nearing extinction. The Prairies.
  5. The scrub-like vegetation found in coastal California. Chaparral.

D. Differentiate between each of the following pairs.

Question 1.
Cool temperate east coast and west coast climates
Answer:
Cool temperate east coast:

  1. The cool temperate East coast experiences milder summer and winter due to the influence of the oceans.
  2. The region receives abundant rainfall throughout the year, which is more than that received in the cool temperate climatic region.

West coast climates :

  1. The cool temperate west coast type experiences summer warms and dry while winters are mild and wet.
  2. Receive abundant rainfall throughout the year brought by the Westerly winds.

Question 2.
Warm temperate west coast and east coast climates.
Answer:
Temperate west coast :
This climate type is found just south of the cool temperate west coast climatic region, along a narrow belt on the west coast in California.

  • Here, summers are warm and dry, while winters are mild and wet.
  • The region comes under the influence of the Westerlies in winter.

East coast climates :

  • In this climatic region, summers are warm and winters are mild. Rainfall occurs all year round, but mostly in summer brought by the North-East. Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean. The rainfall gradually decreases westwards. The south-eastern part of the continent and the coastal areas around the Gulf of Mexico in the USA experience this type of climate.

Question 3.
Deciduous and coniferous vegetation.
Answer:
Differences between deciduous and coniferous vegetation
Deciduous :

  1. They have broad leaves.
  2. All trees of one species shed their leaves once a year in the dry season so trees are bare for some time.
  3. They yield hardwood.
  4. They have wide trunks with wide spread branches at the top.

Coniferous :

  1. They have needle – like leaves.
  2. The trees do not shed their leaves in any particular season so the forests appear green at all times.
  3. They yield softwood.
  4. They have tall, slender trunks, wider at the base and tapering at the top.

E. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
How does the latitudinal extent of North America affect its climate ?
Answer:
North America lies within the temperate zone. Some parts in the north of the continent lie in the frigid zone. So the northern part of the continent is colder than the southern part.

Question 2.
Identify the winds that bring summer rainfall and winter rainfall to North America.
Answer:
North-East Trade Winds and South Westerlies bring rainfall in North America. The North-East Trade Winds bring heavy rainfall to the east coast and southern parts of North America during summer. The South Westerlies, coming from the Pacific Ocean, bring rain throughout the year to places in the north-west of North America and winter rain to places in south-west North America.

Question 3.
Why does the Alaskan Coast remain frost-free in the winter season ?
Answer:
The Gulf Stream in the south-east and the Alaskan Current in the north-west are warm currents. The coastal parts of Alaska are frost-free even in winter because of the Alaskan Current.

Question 4.
Which areas of North America experience the cool temperate or mid-latitude continental type of climate ? Name the type of natural vegetation found here.
Answer:
The interior of North America in the middle latitudes. The southern part of central Canada and the northern part of central USA experience this climate which is characterized by warm summers and cool and cold winters. This region receives moderate rainfall in summer and snow in winter.
The natural vegetation of this region is adapted to withstand the drought conditions. The cork oak, olive, Mediterranean pine, laurel, and cedar are the trees found in this region. Fruit trees such as orange, peach, apricot, lemon, and walnut thrive.

Question 5.
Bring out the difference between the wildlife of the tropical and taiga forests of North America.
Answer:
The tropical regions of Central America have hardwood vegetation consisting mainly of mahogany, palms, rubber, and cocoa trees. These forests are dense and large animals are rare. Instead a variety of birds, monkeys, insects, and reptiles thrive in these forests.

Question 6.
Name the areas of important coal deposits in North America.
Answer:
Coal is mainly found in the Appalachians and is of the high grade bituminous and anthracite variety. Northeastern Pennsylvania, Kentucky, Illinois, and West Virginia are some important coal producing centres. Large deposits of coal are also found in the Rockies of Colorado, Wyoming, and Montana.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
How do the mountain ranges affect the climate of North America ?
Answer:
In North America, both the Western Cordilleras and the Eastern Highlands extend in a north-south direction parallel to the coast. Thus, in winter, the cold winds from the tundra region can easily reach the interior of the continent as there is no east-west range to block it.
Likewise, in summer, the warm winds from the torrid zone raise the temperature of places situated in the temperate latitudes. The direction of the mountain ranges also cuts off the interior central plains from the maritime influence of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.

Question 2.
Write about the climatic characteristics of the hot desert type of climate in North America.
Answer:
The desert climate is mainly found in northern Mexico and in the south-west of the USA.
Where the influence of the rain-bearing Westerlies and the North-East Trade Winds is not felt, a dry climate with very hot summers and little or no rainfall is experienced.

Question 3.
The vegetation of North America is closely related to the climatic conditions. Explain this statement and give examples from any two regions.
Answer:
The great variety of climates has resulted in a great variety of vegetation in North America—tropical forests in Central America, desert vegetation in Mexico and southern USA, Mediterranean vegetation along the Californian Coast, coniferous forests in Canada, and tundra vegetation in the areas of Arctic climate.

Question 4.
Where are the prairies situated ? What are the major human activities in this region ?
Answer:
The prairies are the natural vegetation of the interior parts of North America in the cool temperate latitudes. Very little summer rainfall can support only the rich, tall grasses, which occur in vast stretches. Cattle rearing is, therefore, the main occupation here. But at several places, the grass has been replaced by wheat farms, another major occupation of the region.

Question 5.
Describe the climate and vegetation of the Mediterranean climate region of North America.
Answer:
The west coast of North America, especially the Californian Coast, experiences hot dry summers and cool wet winters. So, the natural vegetation of this region is adapted to withstand the drought conditions. The cork oak, olive, Mediterranean pine, laurel, and cedar are the trees found in this region. Fruit trees such as orange, peach, apricot, lemon, and walnut thrive. Fruit orchards have replaced much of the original scrub-like vegetation called chaparral.

Question 6.
What is natural gas ? What are its uses ?
Answer:
Natural gas is a mixture of hydrocarbons such as methane, ethane, and propane. It is usually found together with petroleum in the same region. It is an important fuel and is used for lighting, heating and generating electricity for industrial and domestic use. Nowadays natural gas is transported by pipelines and in special tankers or barges as liquefied natural gas.

Question 7.
North America has vast water power resources. Explain.
Answer:
North America also has vast water power resources. Large dams have been constructed across rivers such as the Columbia, the Tennessee and the Colorado to produce hydroelectric power. Many power projects have also been developed in the Appalachian and the Rocky Mountains. The Niagara Falls provide water power to both Canada and the USA.

G Map work.
On a blank outline map of North America, do as directed

Question 1.
Show with black arrows the North-East Trade Winds and the South Westerlies.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 3

Question 2.
Use red arrows to show the warm ocean currents and blue arrows to show the cold currents that wash the shores of North America in the east and the west.
Answer:
See answer Q.1. above

Question 3.
Make a key and show with different colours the different climates found in North America.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 4

Question 4.
In each of the above climatic regions write the name/ names of the tree species that thrive there.
Answer:

  1. Arctic or tundra – Mosses, lichens grasses and dwarf bushes.
  2. Cold – Continental
  3. Cool temperate mid-latitude
  4. Cool temperate East Coast
  5. Cool temperate West Coast
  6. Warm temperate West Coast
  7. Warm temperate East Coast
  8. Desert : Saguaro (against cactus), coarse grass and creosote brushes.
  9. Tropical : Mahogny, palms, rubber and coca trees.

H. Picture study.
1.This is a photograph of the coniferous forests in North America.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 5

Question 1.
Where in North America is this variety of trees found ?
Answer:
California

Question 2.
How do the animals of this region protect themselves from extreme temperatures ?
Answer:
The animals of the region also have thick fur to protect them from extreme cold. Some animals hibernate or sleep all through winters. The thick layers of fat under their skin proves useful during this period.

2. This is a photograph of a famous waterfall in North America.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 6

Question 1.
Name the waterfall seen in the picture.
Answer:
Niagara falls

Question 2.
Which countries get hydroelectricity from this waterfall?
Answer:
Canada and USA

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Minerals

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Minerals

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

THINK AND ANSWER

The northern and southern parts of Africa have opposite seasons at any time of the year. Why ?
Answer:
A large part of Africa lies between the tropics, and, therefore, most of the continent has a warm or hot climate. However, the amount of rainfall and humidity varies from area to area.
Anoteworthy feature ofthe climate of Africa is that the northern and southern parts of the continent have opposite climates at any time ofthe year. In other words, when the northern part experiences summer, the southern part experiences winter.

Discuss

Discuss how the location of Africa has affected the climate ofthe country.
Answer:
Since most of Africa lies within the tropics, the temperatures are high throughout the year. The variations between summer and winter temperatures are only slight.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Africa rainforests are one of the densest forests on earth. A large number of trees grow in a relatively small area because the region receives a lot of rain and sunshine, both importance for the growth of plants. Human being also fourish when they get the right conditions.
Can you enlist a few factors that affect the growth of human beings ?
What factors adversely affect the growth of people in an area ?
Answer:
The factors that affect the growth of human beings are :

  1. Proper balanced and nutrionational diet.
  2. Proper health and sanitary facilities.
  3. Proper temperature.

The factors that adversely affect the growth of people in an area are :

  1. Poor or unhealthy diet.
  2. Poor sanitation
  3. Poor water facilities
  4. Lack of awareness.

EXERCISES

A. Write True or False. Correct the false statements.

1. Nights are very hot in the Sahara Desert.
Answer. False.
Nights are very cold in the Sahara Desert.

2. The cold Canaries Current washes the north-west coast of Africa ?
Answer. True.

3. Savannah is another name for the Sudan type of climate.
Answer. True.

4. Temperate grasslands have dry, tall grasses.
Answer. False.
Temperate grasslands have green, short grasses.

5. The Kalahari Desert is located in north Africa.
Answer. False.
The Kalahari Desert is located in south-central Africa.

B. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The equatorial region has dense forests.
Answer:
The equatorial region has dense forests as trees grow in this region to different heights, giving an impression of a three-tier formation. The topmost layer is the emergent layer. The giant trees thrust above the dense layer of trees and have huge mushroom shaped crowns. The trees in this layer receive a lot of sunlight and rain. The second layer is the canopy layer. The broad irregular crown of these trees form a tight, continuous canopy 20-30 m above the ground. The branches are often densely covered with other plants and tied together with vines.
The third layer is the understorey, which receives very little sunlight and is very dark. It has young trees, shrubs, ferns, creepers, and orchids. The forest floor usually has a layer of decomposed leaves, branches, and fruits that have fallen from the trees above. As there is very little sunlight here, the growth of plants is poor. Thus, these forests are very dense and gloomy.

Question 2.
The grasses of the savannah and the veldt are different.
Answer:
Veldts or temperate grasslands are found in South Africa. The vegetation consists of short grasses, less coarse and green than those in the savannahs. On the hill slopes, poplars and willows are common.

Question 3.
Plants in the Sahara are thorny and dry.
Answer:
Plants in the Sahara are thorny and dry as these plants have thorny leaves, thick waxy stems, and long thin roots which penetrate deep for underground water.

Question 4.
Not much wildlife is found in the Mediterranean region ofAfrica.
Answer:
Not much wildlife is found in the Mediterranean as the forests in the Mediterranean region are not extensive and most of the natural vegetation has been cut down, not much wildlife is found in the this region.

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Most ofAfrica is hot. Why ?
Answer:
A large part of Africa lies between the tropics, and, therefore, most of the continent has a warm or hot climate. However, the amount of rainfall and humidity varies from area to area.

Question 2.
What factors influence the climate of Africa ?
Answer:
The factors that affects the climate of Africa are latitudinal extent, land and sea contrast, ocean currents, and altitude.

Question 3.
Name a cold and a warm current that affect the climate of Africa.
Answer:
The cold Canaries Current washes the north-west coast of Africa, while the cold Benguela Current washes the shores of south-west Africa and has a cooling influence on the adjacent land. Winds blowing over these cold currents become cold and do not pick up moisture.

Question 4.
What are 4 o’clock showers ? In which climatic region of Africa do they occur ?
Answer:
This type of climate is found in the lowlands on either side of the equator in the Congo Basin, the coastal region around the Gulf of Guinea and coastal Kenya. The climate is characterized by a high temperature of 27°C throughout the year and heavy annual rainfall of200-250 cm. Thus, there is high humidity all through the year and there are no clearly marked seasons. There is a daily occurrence of convectional rainfall. This type of rainfall is the result of intense heating of the land surface. During the day, there is a lot of evaporation. By afternoon, when it starts cooling, the water vapour condenses and falls as rain. Since it pours around 4 o’clock every day, it is known as ‘4 o’clock showers’.

Question 5.
Which region is called an open air zoo ? Why ?
Answer:
Savannah or Tropical sub-humid type of region is often referred to as an open air zoo.
The savannah has vast grassy plains with tall, coarse grasses. Many herbivorous animals such as giraffes, elephants, and zebras and carnivorous animals such as lions, cheetahs, and leopards are found here in large numbers and, therefore, this region is referred to as an open air zoo.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
Describe the three-tier forest of the equatorial region.
Answer:
The equatorial region has dense forests. Trees grow in this region to different heights, giving an impression of a three-tier formation. The topmost layer is the emergent layer. The giant trees thrust above the dense layer of trees and have huge mushroom shaped crowns. The trees in this layer receive a lot of sunlight and rain. The second layer is the canopy layer. The broad irregular crown of these trees form a tight, continuous canppy 20-30 m above the ground. The branches are often densely covered with other plants and tied together with vines.
The third layer is the understorey, which receives very little sunlight and is very dark. It has young trees, shrubs, ferns, creepers, and orchids. The forest floor usually has a layer of decomposed leaves, branches, and fruits that have fallen from the trees above. As there is very little sunlight here, the growth of plants is poor. Thus, these forests are very dense and gloomy. The hardwood trees are valuable for making good quality furniture as the wood is heavy, but the trees are difficult to exploit as they do not grow in pure stand.

Question 2.
Give examples of herbivorous and carnivorous animals found in the savannah grasslands.
Answer:
Herbivorous animals such as the elephant, deer, giraffe, and zebra and carnivorous animals such as the lion, cheetah, and leopard are found in large numbers.

Question 3.
Identify the hot deserts of Africa and briefly describe the climatic conditions in terms of temperature and rainfall.
Answer:
Summers are hot and winters are cool in the hot desert regions. The daily as well as annual range of temperature is large-due
to the absence of cloud cover and the sandy nature of the soil. There is hardly any rainfall. These climatic conditions are found both in the northern and the southern hemispheres. In north Africa it is mainly experienced in the Sahara Desert and in south-central Africa in the Kalahari Desert.

Question 4.
Why is the camel called ‘the ship of the desert’ ?
Answer:
The camel is called ‘the ship of the desert’ for the following reasons:

  1. It carries goods and people across the vast sandy deserts.
  2. It stores fat in its hump.
  3. Its padded feet prevent it from sinking in the sea of sand.
  4. It has double eyelids and long eyelashes to protect its eyes from sand during storms.
  5. It can close its nostrils during sandstorms.

Question 5.
Describe the Mediterranean climate.
Answer:
The coastal areas of north-west Africa and a small area in the south-west of South Africa experience the Mediterranean climate. Summers are hot with plentiful sunshine but no rainfall. Winters are mild and wet. Shifting Westerlies bring rain to these regions in their respective winter seasons.

E. In the outline map of Africa give here, mark the features and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Colour dark green the area where equatorial forests are found. What difficulties were faced by the explorers because of rivers and natural vegetation of the region ?
Answer:
The equator passes through the middle of the continent and most of Africa lies within the tropics. It is, therefore, the hottest continent.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa. In the north, the Sahara, the world’s largest desert, was impenetrable due to severe heat and dry conditions. Most of Africa consists of undulating plateaus, so it was difficult to reach the interior from the coastal areas. The rivers of Africa have many rapids and waterfalls, and are not fit for navigation. The extensive equatorial forests and swampy lands teeming with dangerous tsetse flies and poisonous insects discouraged explorers from entering the heart of the continent.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 15 Africa Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Minerals 1

Question 2.
Mark the area that is called an ‘open air zoo’. Name thevegetation of this region.
Answer:
These vast grassy plains with tall, coarse grasses are called the savannahs or tropical grasslands. Several varieties of grass, including elephant grass, grow here. Some acacia and baobab trees are found interspersed between the grasses. Please check Map given on Textbook page 126 (Africa : Climatic and vegetation regions)

Question 3.
Mark the Sahara Desert. Name a plant that best survives in the climate of this region. What are the characteristic features of this plant that help it survive ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

Question 4.
Mark the area north of the Atlas Mountains where the Mediterranean climate is found. Which crops does this climate support ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

F. Picture study

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 15 Africa Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Minerals 2

Question 1.
What kind of climate is experienced in the region shown in the picture ?
Answer:
Summers are hot and winters are cool in the hot desert regions. The daily as well as annual range of temperature is large due to the absence of cloud cover and the sandy nature of the soil. There is hardly any rainfall. These climatic conditions are found both in the northern and the southern hemispheres. In north Africa it is mainly experienced in the Sahara Desert and in south-central Africa in the Kalahari Desert.

Question 2.
What kind of vegetation grows in such a climate ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks : The animal seen in the picture is often referred to as the _____ of the _____
Answer:
Fill in the blanks: The animal seen in the picture is often referred to as the ship of the desert.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Motion

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Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Motion

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 2 Motion

  • Points to Remember
  •  Motion— Motion is the change in position with respect to a set of stationary landmarks.
  •  Types of motion are translatory, rotatory and oscillatory.
  •  A body is said to move in a translatory motion if the whole body moves through the same distance in the same interval of time.
  •  A body is said to be in rotatory motion if it moves about a fixed point without changing the radius of its motion.
  •  A body is said to be in oscillatory motion if it moves to and fro about its mean position.
  •  A body is said to be in vibratory motion if the body moves to and fro in a particular style.
  •  Oscillation of pendulum is one complete to and fro motion.
  •  The maximum displacement on either side of a mean position is called amplitude.
  •  A motion which repeats itself at regular intervals of time is called periodic motion.
  •  A physical quantity which has only magnitude and no direction is called a scalar quantity.
  •  A physical quantity which has magnitude as well as direction is called a vector quantity.
  •  Speed is the distance travelled per unit time. It is a scalar quantity.
  •  The displacement per unit time is known as the velocity of the body. It is a vector quantity.
  •  The rate of change of velocity is called acceleration. It is a vector quantity.
  •  Frequency is the number of complete oscillations in one second.
  •  Unit of frequency is Hertz.
  •  Motion is of two types (a) uniform (b) non-uniform motion.

Test yourself

A. Objective Questions

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) Two trains going in opposite directions with the same speed are at rest relative to each other.
Answer. False.

(b) A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Its motion is uniform throughout.
Answer. False.

(c) The motion of a train starting from one station and reaching at another station is non-uniform.
Answer. True.

(d) A motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time is called periodic motion.
Answer. True.

(e) A ball thrown by a boy from a roof-top has oscillatory motion.
Answer. False.

(f) Mass has both magnitude and direction.
Answer. False.

(g) .Weight always acts vertically downwards.
Answer. True

(h) Mass varies from place to place but weight does not.
Answer. False

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) Two boys cycling on the road with the same speed are at rest relative to each other.
(b) The motion in a straight line is rectilinear motion.
(c) One to and fro motion of a clock pendulum takes time = 2 s
(d) 36 km h-1 = 10 m s-1
(e) Total distance travelled = average speed × total time taken.
(f) The weight of a girl is 36 kgf. Her mass will be 36 kg.
(g) The weight of a body is measured using a spring balance.

Activity

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 1

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 2

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 3

3. Match the following

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 4

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) A book lying on a table is an example of

  1.  a body at rest
  2.  a body in motion
  3.  a body neither at rest nor in motion
  4.  none of these

(b) The motion of a pendulum is

  1.  rotatory
  2. oscillatory
  3.  curvilinear
  4.  rectilinear

(c) A car moving on a straight road is an example of

  1.  rotatory motion
  2.  rectilinear motion
  3.  oscillatory motion
  4.  periodic motion

(d) A ball falls down vertically. Its motion is

  1.  periodic
  2.  linear
  3.  circular
  4.  vibratory

(e) If a body covers equal distance in equal interval of time, the motion is said to be

  1.  uniform
  2.  non-uniform
  3.  oscillatory
  4.   rotatory

(f) A boy goes from his house to school by bus at a speed of 20 km h-1 and returns back through the same route at a speed of 30 km h_1. The average speed of his journey is

  1.  24 km h-1
  2.  25 km h-1
  3.  30 km h-1
  4.  20 km h-1

(g) The earth attracts a body of mass 1 kg with a force of 10 N. The mass of a boy is 50 kg. His weight will be

  1.  50 kg
  2.  500 N
  3.  50 N
  4.  5 N

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the terms rest and motion.
Answer:
Rest— A body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with respect to its immediate surroundings.
Motion— A body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its immediate surroundings.

Question 2.
Comment on the statement ‘rest and motion are relative terms’. Give an example.
Answer:
Imagine you are sitting inside a moving bus. When you look outside you will observe that you are moving. Now look to the roof of the bus. With respect to the roof of bus, you are at rest. Hence it is concluded that rest and motion are relative terms.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks using one of the words : at rest, in motion.
(a) A person walking in a compartment of a stationary train is relative to the compartment and is relative to the platform.
(b) A person sitting in a compartment of a moving train is relative to the other person sitting by his side and is relative to the platform.
Answer:
(a) A person walking in a compartment of a stationary train is in motion relative to the compartment and is in motion relative to the platform.
(b) A person sitting in a compartment of a moving train is at rest . relative to the other person sitting by his side and is in motion relative to the platform.

Question 4.
Name five different types of motion you know.
Answer:
The different types of motion are :
1. Translatory motion
2. Rotatory motion
3. Oscillatory motion
4. Vibratory motion
5. Periodic motion
6. Multiple motion
7. Random motion.

Question 5.
What do you mean by translatory motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
If an object like a vehicle, moves in a line in such a way that every point of the object moves through the same distance in the same time, then the motion of the object is called translatory motion.
Example :
The motion of an apple falling from a tree, the motion of a man walking on a road, the motion of a box when pushed from one comer of a room to the other, are all the translatory motion.

Question 6.
Explain the meanings of (i) rectilinear motion, and (ii) curvilinear motion. Give one example of each.
Answer:
(i) Rectilinear motion — If the motion of a body is along a straight line, it is said to be the rectilinear or linear motion. The motion of bullet fired from a gun.
(ii) Curvilinear motion — If the motion of a body is along a curved path, it is said to be the curvilinear motion. For example, the motion of a cycle while taking a turn on the road, a car moving along a curved path, a ball thrown by an athlete are in curvilinear motion.

Question 7.
What is rotatory motion ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Rotatory motion— A body is said to be in a rotatory motion or a circular motion if it moves about a fixed axis without changing the radius of its motion.
Examples : The blades of a fan, a spinning wheel.

Question 8.
What is meant by circular motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
The motion of a body along a circular path is called circular motion.
Example : A girl is whirling a stone tied at the end of a string in a circular path.

Question 9.
How does a rotatory motion differ from the circular motion?
Answer:
(i) In rotatory motion, the axis of rotation passes from a point
in the body itself whereas in circular motion, the axis of revolution passes through a point outside the body. Thus the motion of earth around the sun is the circular motion whereas the motion of earth about its own axis is the rotational motion.
(ii) In the circular and rotatory motions, the distance of a point of a the body from a fixed point always remains same, whereas it is not same in curvilinear motion.

Question 10.
Explain oscillatory motion by giving one example.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion— The to and fro motion of a simple pendulum is an oscillatory motion.
Example : 1. The motion of a swing, 2. Piston of an engine.

Question 11.
What is vibratory motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
In vibratory motion, a part of the body always remains fixed and the rest part moves to and fro about its mean position. During the vibratory motion, the shape and size of the body changes. Example : When we breath, our chest expands and contracts. This motion is vibratory motion.

Question 12.
Differentiate between periodic and non-periodic motions by giving an example of each.
Answer:
Periodic motion : A motion which gets repeated after regular intervals of time is called a periodic motion.
Examples : The earth moving around the sun takes 365 days to complete one revolution and this motion gets repeated after every 365 days.
Non-periodic motion : The motion which does not repeat itself after regular interval of time is called non-periodic motion.
Examples : A footballer running on a field, application of brakes in a moving vehicle, a ball rolling down the ground gradually slows down and finally stops, motion of tides in the sea, etc.

Question 13.
What is random motion. Give one example.
Answer:
Random motion— When an object in a motion has no specific path and which suddenly changes its motion is said to have a random motion.
Example : A flying kite.

Question 14.
Name the type/types of motion being performed by each of the following:
(a) Vehicle on a straight road
(b) Blades of an electric fan in motion
(c) Pendulum of a wall clock
(d) Smoke particles from chimney
(e) Hands of a clock
(f) Earth around the sun
(g) A spinning top.
Answer:
(a) Rectilinear motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Oscillatory motion, periodic motion
(d) Non-periodic motion
(e) Uniform circular and periodic motion
(f) Rotatory motion, circular motion and periodic motion
(g) Rotatory motion

Question 15.
Give two examples to illustrate that a body can have two or more types of motion simultaneously.
Answer:
Sometime a body can have more than one type of motion. Such a motion is called the mixed motion.
Example :
(i) The wheels of a moving train have both the translatory as well as the rotatory motions as it moves from position A to position B while rotating.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 6
(ii) The earth rotates about its axis (rotatory motion) and at the same time it revolves around the sun in a curved path (curvilinear or circular motion) in a fixed time interval (periodic motion).

Question 16.
State the types of motion of the following :
(a) The needle of a sewing machine
(b) The wheel of a bicycle
(c) The drill machine
(d) The carpenter’s saw
Answer:
(a) Periodic motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Mixed = Translatory and Rotatory motion
(d) Mixed = Translatory and Oscillatory motion

Question 17.
Distinguish between uniform and non-uniform motions, giving an example of each.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 7

Question 18.
How do you determine the average speed of a body in non-uniform motion ?
Answer:
In a non-uniform motion, the average speed of a body is calculated by dividing the total distance travelled by the body, with the total time of its journey. Thus,
Average speed = Total distance travelled by the body / Total time of joumey

Question 19.
Define the term weight and state its S.I. unit.
Answer:
The weight of a body is the force with which earth attracts the body i.e. the weight of a body is the force of gravity on it. The weight of a body is not constant, but it changes from place to place. It is represented by the symbol W. The S.I. unit of weight is newton (N).

Question 20.
How are the units of weight, kgf and newton related ?
Answer:
1 kg F = 10 N

Question 21.
State three differences between mass and weight.
Answer:
Mass

It is the quantity of matter contained in a body.
Its S.J. unit is kilogram (kg)
It is constant for a body and it does not change by changing the place of the body.
It is measured by a beam balance.

Weight

It is the force with which the earth attracts the body.
Its S.I. unit is newton (N) and other unit is kilogram-force (kgf) where 1 kgf= 10N(nearly).
It is not constant for a body, but it changes from place to place.
It is measured by a spring balance.

Question 22.
Which quantity : mass or weight, does not change by change of place ?
Answer:
The mass of a body is constant and it does not change by changing the position of the body.

Question 23.
State which of the quantities, mass or weight is always directed vertically downwards.
Answer:
Mass is the quantity of matter contained in a body. Weight is the force with which the earth attracts the body. Weight is always directed vertically downwards.

 

C. Numericals

Question 1.
A car covers a distance of 160 km between two cities in 4 h. What is the average speed of the car ?
Answer:
Distance =160 km
Time taken = 4h
Speed = ?
Speed = Distance covered / Time taken
= 160km / 4h = 40 km h-1

Question 2.
A train travels a distance of 300 km with an average speed of 60 km h_1. How much time does it take to cover the distance?
Answer:
Speed = 60 km h-1
Distance covered = 300 km
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 8

Question 3.
A boy travels with an average speed of 10 m s-1 for 20 min. How much distance does he travel ?
Answer:
Average speed of boy = 10 m s-1
Time taken = 20 min
Distance travelled = Speed × Time taken
Convert minutes into seconds
1 minute = 60 sec.
20 minutes = 20 × 60 = 1200 sec.
Distance travelled = 10 m s-1 × 1200 sec.
= 12000 m Or 12 km

Question 4.
A boy walks a distance 30 m in 1 minute and another 30 m in 1.5 minute. Describe the type of motion of the boy and find his average speed in m s-1.
Answer:
As the speed does not remain constant throughout the journey the motion is non-uniform
Total distance travelled in going and coming back
d = 30 m + 30 m = 60 m
Total time taken in going and coming back

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 9

Question 5.
A cyclist travels a distance of 1 km in the first hour, 0.5 km in the second hour and 0.3 km in the third hour. Find the average speed of the cyclist in
(i) km h-1, (ii) m s-1.
Answer:
(a) Distance travelled in first hour = 1 km
Distance travelled in second hour = 0.5 km
Distance travelled in third hour = 0.3 km
Total time taken = 3 hr
Total distance travelled = 1 + 0.5 + 0.3 = 1.8 km
(i) Average speed in km h-1

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 10
Average speed in m s-1
1 km = 1000 m
1.8 km = 1.8 × 1000 m
= 1800 m
1 hour = 3600 seconds
3 hour = 3600 × 3 = 10800 sec.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 11

Question 6.
A car travels with speed 30 km h-1 for 30 minute and then with speed 40 km h-1 for one hour. Find :
(a) the total distance travelled by the car
(b) the total time of travel, and
(c) the average speed of car
Answer:
Speed of car for first 30 minutes = 30 km h-1
Speed of car for next 1 hour = 40 km h-1
(a) Total distance travelled by the car

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 12

Question 7.
On earth the weight of a body of mass 1.0 kg is 10 N. What will be the weight of a boy of mass 37 kg in (a) kgf (b) N ?
Answer:
Weight of a body of mass 1.0 kg body = 10 N
(a) Weight of a boy of mass = 37 kg
(b) Weight of a boy of 37 kg in newton will be 1 kgf = 10N
∴ 37 kgf = 37 × 10 N
= 370 N

Question 8.
The weight of a body of mass 6.0 kg on moon is 10 N. If a boy of mass 30 kg goes from earth to the moon surface, what will be his (a) mass, (b) weight ?
Answer:
(a) Mass remains same it does not change
So mass of boy 30 kg on earth = 30 kg on moon surface
(b) Weight of boy on moon becomes 1 / 6
∴ 30 kg boy will weight 30 x 1/6 = 5kg
1 kg = 10 N ⇒ 5 × 10 N = 50 N
∴ Weight of boy on moon surface = 50 N

 

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Maps and Diagrams

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Maps and Diagrams

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

POINTS TO REMEMBER

  • The various ways of representing the earth are globes, maps, pictures, sketches, plans and diagrams.
  • A globe is the most accurate three-dimensional, spherical representation of the earth. However, not many details of the earth can be shown on a globe.
  • Selected features are shown on a map using different signs, symbols and colours.
  • A sketch is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area. They are not drawn to scale.
  • Plans are drawn to scale and are very similar to maps. While a map shows a large area, a plan is normally drawn for a small area or a building.
  • A scale is the ratio of the distance between two places on a map to the actual distance between the same two places on the ground.
  • Map scales are given in three different ways: verbal or statement scale, graphical or linear scale and representative fraction.
  • Colourful signs and symbols used in a map to show natural and man-made features are called conventional signs and symbols.

IMPORTANT TERMS

Atlas : Acollection of different types of maps in the form of a book.
Cardinal directions : the four principal directions—north, south, east and west.
Conventional signs and symbols : Internationally recognized signs and symbols used to show natural and man-made features on maps.
Fold : A bending of the earth’s crust due to large scale earth movements.
Globe : An object representing the spherical shape of the earth with a map of the world on its surface, usually on a stand so that it can be rotated.
Map : A drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
Plan : A drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or building accurately.
Scale : The ratio of the distance between two places on a map to the actual distance between the same two places on the ground.
Sketch : A rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area Trough : The dip of a fold.

THINK AND ANSWER

Do you think it will be easy to understand a map which does not use conventional signs and symbols ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No, It will be very difficult to understand a map which doesnot use conventional signs and symbols. Maps make use of different signs, symbols and colours to provide distinct information. And it ensures that the information is presented in a clear and concise manner with minimal scope of misinterpretation.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Maps and sketches are great tools. They help us to navigate our way to our destination. Prepare a sketch of the route you take from your house to your school for the new school bus driver. Do not forget to mark the important places in the route.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 1

Exercises

A. Choose the correct answer

1. Which of these is shown by a thematic map ?

  1. mountains
  2. rivers
  3. climate
  4. state capitals

2. These maps are useful to surveyors and civil engineers engaged in building roads, bridges, canals, and other structures.

  1. physical
  2. political
  3. topographic
  4. thematic

3. This is a true model of the earth.

  1. sketch
  2. map
  3. globe
  4. plan

4. This is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few features of an area.

  1. globe
  2. map
  3. sketch
  4. plan

5. This is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area drawn to scale.

  1. sketch
  2. plan
  3. map
  4. globe

6. These are taken from space and show that the earth is spherical in shape.

  1. graphs
  2. plans
  3. aerial photographs
  4. sketches

B. Explain the differences between each of the following pairs.

  1. An aerial photograph and a plan
  2. A globe and an atlas
  3. A sketch and a map

Answer:

  1. An aerial photograph and a plan — A plan is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or a building. It is drawn to scale. It is useful because it tells us where exactly things are on the ground.
    Aerial photographs is a tool for representing the earth or a part of it is aerial photography. Photographs of the earth are taken from a camera mounted on an aircraft, an unmanned drone or an artificial satellite. In fact, such photographs have been used widely in the preparation of accurate maps.
  2. A globe and an atlas — Map : a drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
  3. Asketch and a map — Arough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area.
    A map — A drawing of the who le earth or a part of it on a flat surface.

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Define an atlas.
Answer:
A collection of different types of maps bound together in the form of a book is called an atlas.

Question 2.
What do you understand by topographic maps ?
Answer:
Topographic maps which give detailed information about local features of small areas on the surface of the earth.

Question 3.
Which map would be most useful to army personnel when constructing a bridge during a war ?
Answer:
In addition to these maps, there are topographic maps (topos = place; graphy = to describe) as these give detailed information about local and forms, streams, rivers, canals and other features of areas. These maps are based on an accurate survey of land.

Question 4.
How will you show the location of your house to a friend who is visiting you for the first time ?
Answer:
We can show the location of our house to a friend who is visiting us for the first time with the help of a sketch.

Question 5.
Differentiate between a plan and a sketch.
Answer:

Plan :

  1. A plan is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or building.
  2. It is drawn to the scale.
  3. It tells us exactly things are on the ground.
  4. It is accurate representation of an area.

Sketch :

  1. A sketch is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features of an area.
  2. It is not drawn to the scale.
  3. It does not show the true shape or size of the features.
  4. It is rough representation of an area.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
What is a map ? What are the different types of maps ?
Answer:
A map is a drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
Maps can be divided into following categories based on the scale used to draw them are :

  • Small scale maps — They show a large land area in a small space Eg. 1 cm on small scale map could represent 200 kms on ground. The features of the area are not clearly visible.
  • Large – scale maps — They show smaller area of land in bigger space Eg. 1 cm = 1 km on land. They give detailed information of the area.

Question 2.
Describe a political and a physical map.
Answer:
Political maps: show the boundaries of countries, states, etc. and also the location of capital cities and important towns.
Physical maps: show mountains, valleys, plains, rivers, and other surface features. These maps generally use different colours to represent land of different heights.

Question 3.
Take the help of your atlas to make a list of thematic maps. Describe any two maps from your list.
Answer:
Thematic maps shows the distribution of forests, crops, minerals and industries.

The types of Thematic maps are :

  1. Ranged maps.
  2. Point density maps
  3. Proportional symbol maps
  4. Maps with pie or bar charts.
  5. Grided maps.

The other two maps are :

  1. Political maps shows the boundaries of administrative units such as countries, states and districts. Different types of boundaries are shown with different symbols. They also show the locations of cities, towns and villages.
  2. Physical maps show the landforms and water bodies on the Earth’s surface, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, lakes and seas. The different features are shown with different colours.

Question 4.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a globe ?
Answer:

Advantages :

  • It is the most accurate three dimensional representation of the earth.
  • It shows the distribution of continents and oceans accurately.
  • Lines of latitude and longitude are marked on a globe.

Disadvantages :

  • Only a part of the earth can be seen on a globe, at one glance.
  • All details cannot be marked on a globe.
  • A globe is difficult to carry around.

E. Draw a plan of your house showing clearly the position of each room in relation to the others. On the plan, mark clearly the positions of doors, windows and furniture.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 2

F. Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 3

Question 1.
Do you know how this type of picture is taken ?
Answer:
An aerial photograph of Australia.

Question 2.
What is it used for ?
Answer:
These maps are used widely in the preparation of accurate maps.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Study of Weather

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Study of Weather

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Many people leave their pets in parked cars. They think they will be gone for a few minutes, or it will be alright to leave a window open. The temperature inside a parked car can rise up to more than 50°C in a matter of few minutes, irrespective of it being a hot or a cloudy day.
What would be the right thing to do if you see a pet locked inside a car on a hot day ?
Answer:
Leaving pets locked in cars is never safe. But when the weather gets warmer, it can be deadly. High temperatures can cause irreparable organ damage and even death. Protecting animals from an unnecessary death is a problem we can all agree to prevent.

EXERCISES

A. Write true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. A rise in temperature causes more condensation while a fall in temperature results in evaporation.
Answer. False.
Correct : Arise in temperature causes more evaporation while a fall in temperature results in condensation.

2. ‘4 o’clock showers’ are caused by cyclonic rainfall.
Answer. False.
Correct : ‘4 o’clock showers’ are caused by convection currents.

3. Heavy rainfall occurs on the leeward or rain shadow side of a highland.
Answer. False.
Correct : Little rainfall occurs on the leeward or rain shadow side of a highland.

4. The direction of wind blowing on the surface of the earth is affected by the Coriolis force.
Answer. True.

5. Cyclones and anticyclones are examples of variable winds.
Answer. True.

B. Fill in the blanks.

1. The temperature of a place depends upon its latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, ocean currents, winds, cloud cover and slope and aspect.
2. Pressure difference causes horizontal movement of air called wind and vertical movement of air called current.
3. Humidity refers to the amount of moisture or water vapour present in the air.
4. Planetary winds are also called permanent or prevailing winds.
5. The amount of cloud cover in the sky is expressed in discs (shaded in different proportions).

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
What are the elements that determine weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements that determine climate are the same as those weather, namely temperature, atmospheric pressure, humidity, precipitation, wind direction and speed, cloud cover, and sunshine.

Question 2.
Name the factors that determine the temperature at a place.
Answer:
The factors that affect the temperature of a place are latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, ocean currents, winds, cloud cover, and slope and aspect.

Question 3.
How do the following elements influence the weather of a place :

  1. temperature
  2. pressure?

Answer:

  1. Temperature : When the temperature of a place increases, the air gets heated, expands and rises. This leads to a decrease in air pressure in the area. When the temperature falls, the air gets cold, contracts, and descends downwards. This leads to an increase in air pressure. Thus, air pressure decreases with an increase in temperature. This is the reason why areas close to the equator generally have low air pressure.
  2. Pressure : Atmospheric pressure is the pressure that the atmopshere exerts on the surface of the earth because of its weight. There is a close relationship between pressure and temperature — high temperature means low pressure and vice versa. Pressure difference causes horizontal movement of air called wind and vertical movement of air called current, which together cause circulation of air in the atmosphere.

Question 4.
Name the various forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Rain, drizzle, snow, sleet, and hail are all different forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
How is cloud cover shown on a weather map? Give examples.
Answer:
The cloud cover in the sky is expressed in eighths of the total sky or oktas, which are shown in weather maps as discs shaded in different proportions.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraph’s.

Question 1.
How is weather different from climate?
Answer:
Weather and climate are closely related terms but have different
meanings. Weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of a small area for a short period of time, usually 24 hours or one day, while climate is the average of the atmospheric conditions of a larger area, over a long period of time, usually 35 years.

Question 2.
What is condensation? Explain these different forms of condensation: fog, mist, and dew.
Answer:
Condensation is the process by which water vapour in the air gets converted into tiny droplets of water or ice. It is the opposite of evaporation. Evaporation takes place when air is dry, but condensation occurs only after air is saturated.
Fog and mist are formed at night, when air cools below its dew point near the earth’s surface. Fog is denser than mist and often dangerous because it reduces visibility. Dew forms in winter when the temperature is very low, but not below 0°C.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘4 o’clock showers’?
Answer:
In regions closer to the equator, the rate of evaporation is very high. Air gets heated because of the high temperature and starts rising in the form of convection currents. As it rises, it expands and cools. The cooling causes condensation, which results in heavy downpours. This rain is accompanied by thunder and lightning and since it mostly occurs around 4 p.m., it is often called the 4 o’ clock showers’.

Question 4.
What are planetary winds? Give a brief description of the Westerlies in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
Planetary winds are also called permanent or prevailing winds as they blow the year round in the same areas. Westerlies blow in the middle latitudes between 30° and 60° latitude, and originate from the high pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the poles. Under the effect of the coriolis force, they become the South Westerlies in the north hemisphere and Northern Westerlies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
What are local winds? Give a few examples.
Answer:
Local Winds blow for a short period of time over a very small area. Some local winds like Loo, Simoom, Chinook, and are warm winds. Others such as the Bora, Mistral, Buran, and Pampero are cold winds.

E. With the help of your atlas,encylopaedias, and the Internet, find out about the climate of these places.

  1. Mumbai
  2. Delhi
  3. Kolkata
  4. London
  5. New York
  6. Sydney

F. In your notebook, draw neat, labelled, coloured sketches of the three different types of rainfall. Alongside each diagram, briefly describe in your own words, how each type of rainfall occurs.
Answer:

(a) Convectional Rainfall : In regions closer to the equator, the rate of evaporation is very high. Air gets heated because of the high temperature and starts rising in the form of convection currents. As it rises, it expands and cools. The cooling causes condensation, which results in heavy downpours. This rain is accompanied by thunder and lightning and since it mostly occurs around 4 p.m., it is often called the 4 o’clock showers’.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 1
(b) Relief or Orographic Rainfall : Sometimes moisture-bearing winds are forced to rise because of the presence of a physical
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 3

expands and cools, and the moisture in it condenses to form clouds. These clouds bring rainfall.

G. Picture study

Question 1.
The diagram alongside illustrates one of the factors that affect temperature. What is it ?
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 4
Answer:
Aspect refers to the direction of a slope with respect to the sun’s rays. In the northern hemisphere, all the south-facing slope receive the direct rays of the sun and are, therefore, warmer, while the north-facing slopes are cooler. In the southern hemisphere, all the north-facing slopes receive more sunlight than the south-facing slopes.

Question 2.
Which side of the mountain is likely to have houses and be covered with trees ?
Answer:
Side B.