ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Traders to Rulers (I)

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Traders to Rulers (I)

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Elizabeth 1 was the Queen of England.
  2. The French company set up its headquarters at Pondicherry.
  3. A group of English merchants formed the English East India Company.
  4. The first Englishman to meet Emperor Jahangir was Sir Thomas Roe.
  5. In 1668 the English East India Company acquired Bombay due to a marriage.|
  6. The wars between the English and the French companies in India are known as Carnatic Wars.

II. Match the Contents of Column A  Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 2
Answer:
           Column A                                                  Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 3

III. State the following Statements are True or False:

  1. Calcutta (now Kolkata) was the centre of the English East India Company’s power in India for many years.
    True.
  2. A Charter is a formal deed by the ruler of a country guaranteeing certain rights to the subjects or a company.
    True.
  3. The English prestige rose after the First Carnatic War.
    Ans.Mir Qasim from the very beginning had very cordial relations with the English.
    False.
  4. Mir Jafar hatched a conspiracy with the English against Siraj-ud-daulah.
    True.
  5. Clive rose to fame after his success in the Second Carnatic War.
    True.
  6. The Battle of Buxar led to the foundation of British empire in India.
    True.

IV. Answer the following questions:
Question 1.
What were ‘factories’ and who were called factors?
Answer:
Factories meant trading centres. The staff or officials of the company were called factors.

Question 2.
When and how was the English East India Company formed?
Answer:
It was formed by a group of English merchants. The company received a charter from queen Elizabeth I of England on December 31, 1600. Sir Thomas Roe got a farman from Jahangir in 1615 to establish a factory at Surat. The English traders from the very beginning tried to combine trade with diplomacy. The English set up factories at Surat, Agra Ahmedabad, Broach, Hooghly, Mqsulipatnam and Madras.

Question 3.
What were the main reasons for Anglo-French rivalry in India?
Answer:
The French cherished the ambition of French Empire in India. But this ambition was challenged by the English. This led to Anglo-French rivalry and the three Carnatic Wars.The French were defeated and the English became Supreme in the South. From this base the English conquered the rest of India.

Question 4.
What were the causes of Conflict between Siraj-ud-daulah and the English?
Answer:
The English built factories at Kassimbazar, Patna and in Bengal. In 1756 Siraj-ud-daulah came to power. The company had started to fortify their settlements in Bengal. Siraj did not like it. Siraj attacked and occupied the Fort William in Calcutta in 1756. The British defended under Clive and Nawab was forced to come to terms. Nawab had to vacate Calcutta and also pay indemnity to the British. Clive hatched a Conspiracy against the Nawab. The forces of the Nawab and the British East India Company fought on the field of Plassey in 1757. The Nawab was defeated, captured and killed.

Question 5.
Why did Mir Jafar enter into a conflict with English East India Company?
Answer:
After the Battle of Plassey the English East India Company became the real power. The company made demands which Mir Jaffar was unable to meet. Gradually, the Nawab’s treasury became empty. The company also started interfering in the day to day administration. Mir Jaffar was not happy with the company. The company deposed Mir Jaffar and made Mir Qasim, his son-in-law, the new Nawab of Bengal.

Question 6.
How did Mir Qasim become the Nawab of Bengal?
Answer:
The company deposed Mir Jaffar and made his son-in-law, Mir Qasim, the new Nawab of Bengal. From the beginning the relations between the two were not cordial. Qasim objected to the misuese of trade regulations.

Question 7.
Describe the circumstances that led to the Battle of Buxar.
Answer:
Mir Qasim objected to the misuse cf trade regulations. The abuse of duty free inland trade adversely affected the revenue which was the only income of the Nawab. Mir Qasim took other measures for consolidation of his administration,

(a) training his army on European lines

(b) transfer of treasury from Murshidabad to Munghyr. The British did not like these administrative steps. Under these circumstances, Nawab Mir Qasim challenged the company and a war broke out between them. The Nawab was defeated and fled to Awadh. He formed an alliance with Shuja-ud-daulah, the Nawab of Awadh and Shah Alam, the Mughal Emperor. The three forces met the British at Buxar on October 22, 1764. This battle is known as Battle of Buxar. The British emerged victorious. They made Mir Jaffar the Nawab of Bengal, the second time. The defeat in the battle of Buxar finally sealed the fate of Indian rulers and made the English the supreme power in India.

Question 8.
What were the results and significance of the Battle of Buxar?
Answer:
The Treaty of Allahabad was signed in 1765. According to its term the Nawab surrendered the districts of Allahabad and Kara to the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam. The Nawab agreed to pay 50 lakh rupees to the company. The Mughal Emperor granted the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar and Orissa to the British. In return the company agreed to pay T 26 lakhs annually to him. The company for the first time got involved in the direct administration of Bengal.

V.  Picture Study –
This is a picture of a fort built by the British.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 4
Question 1.
Identify the building.
Answer:
The picture is of Fort William, Calcutta.

Question 2.
When did the British purchase the three villages to develop into a city? Also name the villages and the city.
Answer:
In AD 1680 the British purchased three villages of Sutanati, Govindpur and Calicata. These villages were developed to form the city of Calcutta (now Kolkata).

Question 3.
Write a short note on establishment of British factories in India.
Answer:
Sir Thomas Roe in 1615 got a farman from Jahangir which allowed the British to set up a factor} at Surat. The English set up factories at Surat, Agra, Ahmedabad Broach, Hooghly, Masulipatam and Madras. They opened their first factory in the South at Masulipatam in A.D. 1639. In AD 1640 they established a factory at Hooghly.

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Balaji Vishwanath laid the foundation of the Hereditary Dynastic rule of the Peshwas.
  2. Lucknow was the cultural capital of Awadh.
  3. Mysore, under the leadership of Hyder Ali became the most formidable adversary of the English East India Company in the south.
  4. Guru Govind Singh ji, the tenth Sikh guru, organized a military brotherhood of Sikhs called Khalsa.
  5. The Sikhs were organized into a loose confederacy of 12 misls or groups.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. The Marathas/Sikhs/Rajputs had the power and potential to establish an all-India empire after the collapse of the Mughal empire.
    Ans. The Marathas had the power and potential to establish an all- India empire after the collapse of the Mughal empire.
  2. Shahu was ease-loving and a weak Maratha/Sikh/Rajput
    Ans. Shahu was ease-loving and a weak Maratha ruler.
  3. The Maratha empire reached the heights of its power am glory during the reign of Balaji Vishwanath/Baji Rao I/Balaj Baji Rao.
    Ans. The Maratha empire reached the heights of its power and glor during the reign of Balaji Vishwanath.
  4. Shuja-ud-Daulah was the nawab of Hyderabad/Awadh/Bengal.
    Ans. Shuja-ud-Daulah was the nawab of Awadh.
  5. The state of Hyderabad/Awadh/Mysore was founded by the Mughal viceroy of the Deccan, Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah.
    Ans. The state of Hyderabad was founded by the Mughal viceroy ol the Deccan, Nizam-ul-Mulk Asaf Jah.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. 1.Bengal was one of the poorest provinces of the Mughal empire.
    False.
    Correct:- Bengal was the richest povinces of the Mughal empire.
  2. The most capable among the successors of Murshid Quli Khan was Alivardi Khan.
    True.
  3. Lucknow was the cultural centre of Bengal. .
    False.
    Correct : Lucknow was the cultural centre of Awadh.
  4. The most powerful kingdom in the south was Mysore.
    True
  5. Ranjit Singh became the master of Punjab by the end of the 18th century.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What followed the disintegration of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
The disintegration of the Mughal empire led to the rise of number of independent and semi-independent regional powers such as Bengal, Awadh, Hyderabad, Maratha, Mysore and Sikh kingdoms.

Question 2.
What is the significance of the Third Battle of Panipat?
Answer:
The Maratha army was decisively defeated by Ahmad Shah Abdali at the Third Battle of Panipat in 1761. The Maratha ambition of replacing the Mughal empire lay scattered on the ^ plains of Panipat. The Afghans, too, failed to capitalize on their victory. The conditions were ideal for the entry of another powerful contender for superemacy – the English East India Company.

Question 3.
What advantage did Murshid Quli Khan take of the decline in the power of the Mughal empire?
Answer:
The Governor of Bengal, Murshid Quli Khan, took advantage of the situation to free himself from imperial control. Although he continued to pay annual tribute to the Mughal empire, he began to rule Bengal independently.

Question 4.
How did political and economic stability in Awadh impact cultural development in Lucknow?
Answer:
The Nawabs of Awadh were intelligent, efficient and order, introduced revenue reforms and strengthened their army. The prolonged period of peace and economic prosperity stimulated the growth of a refined and distinct Lucknavi culture. Lucknow, the capital city, blossomed into a centre for creative and performing arts, literature and architecture.

Question 5.
How did political instability in the Carnatic benefit the , European trading companies?
Answer:
Carnatic, however, freed himself from the Nizam’s control and established hereditary rule in his state. This led to wars of succession and political instability in the Carnatic, providing the European trading companies opportunities to interfere in its internal affairs and make territorial, commercial and financial gains.

Question 6.
Name any two principal Rajupt states that took advantage of the declining power of the Mughals and asserted their independence.
Answer:
The principal Rajput states like Jaipur (Amber), Jodhpur (Marwar) and Udaipur (Mewar) took advantage of the declining power of the Mughals and asserted their independence.

Question 7.
What made the Rajputs vulnerable to the selfish designs of the English East India Company?
Answer:
The court intrigues, conspiracies, treachery and corruption of the Mughal courts were replayed in the courts of the Rajput rulers. This sapped their energies and made them vulnerable to the selfish designs of the English East India Company.

Question 8.
Name the signatories of the Treaty of Amritsar.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh signed a treaty of ‘perpetual friendship’ with Lord Minto.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
The second phase of Maratha history was a period of the dominance of the peshwas. In this context answer the following questions:
(a)State the circumstances that led of the growth of peshwa dominance in the Maratha kingdom.(b)Discuss the achievements of

  1.  Baji Rao I and
  2. Balaji Baji Rao.

(c) was the Maratha confederacy established?
Answer:
(a)
The Maratha kingdom was captured by Shahu the grandson of Shivaji with the help of Balaji Vishwanath. Shahu appointed Balaji Vishwanath as Pesha for his services and loyalty. Shahu himself was a ease loving and weak ruler which resulted in reducing his position as only ceremonial head of the Maratha kingdom. While real power and authority was exercised by the Peshwa, which led to the growth of Peshwa dominance in the Maratha kingdom.
(b)

  1.  Baji Rao I was a military genius. Under his bold and dynamic leadership, the Maratha kingdom was transformed into the Maratha empire after a series of brilliant campaigns against the Mughals and other rivals.
  2. Balaji Baji Rao followed the policy of expansion. During his reign the Maratha empire reached the heights of its power and glory. In the north, the Marathas became the power behind the Mughal throne.

(c)
major development at this time was the rise of the prominent Maratha families-the Sindhias, the Bhonsles, the Holkars and the Gaekwards. The peshwa divided the erstwhile Mughal provinces into ‘spheres of influence’ and placed them under the chiefs of these Maratha families. These chiefs enjoyed maximum autonomy within their respective regions. The peshwa was the official head of this loose union of Maratha chiefs which is referred to as the Maratha confederacy.

Question 2.
With reference to the rise and growth of Bengal as a regional power, discuss the following:
(a) achievements of Murshid Quli Khan
(b) The rule of Alivardi Khan
(c) The failures of the nawabs of Bengal
Answer:
(a)
Murshid Quli Khan was an excellent administrator and a man of exceptional abilities. He freed Bengal from external and internal dangers and established stability, peace and prosperity in the state.
(b)
Alivardi Khan recognized the importance of promoting trade and encouraged merchants-Indian as well as foreign-to carry on trde in Bengal. He, however, did not allow the French and British merchants to fortify their factories in Chandemagore (now Chandannagar) and Culcutta (now Kolkata), respectively.
(c)
The nawabs of Bengal, however, failed to understand the true nature and ulterior motives of the British trading company. They believed that a trading company could never challenge their authority. No efforts were made to reorganize and strengthen the army. Corruption was rampant and even high-ranking officials were susceptible to bribes. These weaknesses made Bengal a happy hunting ground for the aggressive and imperialistic ambitions of the British.

Question 3.
The collapse of the Vijayanagar kingdom was followed by the emergence of the powerful kingdom of Mysore. In this context discuss the following:
(a) The collapse of the Vijayanagar empire
(b)The achievements of Hyder Ali
(c)The contribution of Tipu Sultan
Answer:
(a)
The collapse of the powerful Vijayanagar empire in the 17th century gave rise to a number of independent kingdoms, constantly at war with one another. The most important of these was the kingdom of Mysore which had somehow managed to preserve its independence despite repeated attacks by neighboring kingdoms. In the middle of the 18th century, Mysore, under the leadership of Hyder Ali, emerged as one of the most powerful kingdoms in the south.
(b)
In 1761 Hyder Ali overthrew the government and established his authority over the Mysore state. Under his rule, Mysore became a prosperous and powerful state and a formidable adversary of the English East India Company in the south.
(c)
Tipu Sultan proved to be a worthy successor. He introduced many reforms to overhaul and reorganize the administrative machinery. He modernized the army and strengthened the economy by encouraging agriculture and modem trade and industry.

Question 4.
With reference to the rise of independent Rajput states and the establishment of the Sikh kingdom, answer the following questions:
(a) Why did the resurgent Rajputs fail to establish an empire in India?
(b) To what extent was Guru Gobind Singh responsible for the transformation of the peace-loving Sikhs into a martial race?
(c) Discuss the achievements of Ranjit Singh.
Answer:
(a)
The Rajputs fail to establish an empire in India because they were busy in looking for their individual goals and interests which were often divergent and conflicting. They made no efforts to establish a Rajput empire, instead they were busy in finishing their energies in petty quarrels. The Rajput courts like the Mughal one’s were busy in conspiracies and corruption, which led to their failure.
(b)
Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth and last Sikh guru, organized a military brotherhood of Sikhs called the Khalsa. He instilled in the peace-loving Sikhs a martial spirit that would help them to carry on their struggle against the persecution of the Mughals.
(c)
Ranjit Singh, chief of one of the misls, was a bom leader. He brought all the Sikh chiefs to the west of the Satluj under his control and made himself master of Punjab by the end of the 18th century.

G. Picture study:

This is picture of the founder of the kingdom that extended from the Khyber Pass in the north to Sindh in the south.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Traders to Rulers (I) 7
Question 1.
Identify the person in the picture.
Answer:
Ranjit Singh.

Question 2.
Name the kingdom founded by him.
Answer:
Punjab.

Question 3.
What did he do to expand his kingdom?
Answer:
He brought all the Sikh chiefs, west of the Sutlej, under his control and made himself master of Punjab by the end of 18th century.

Question 4.
Name the treaty signed between him and the English East India Company.
Answer:
Treaty of Amritsar.

Question 5.
What effect did this treaty have on his policy of expansion?
Answer:
Due to his expansionist policy, he became master of a powerful kingdom which extended from the Khyber Pass in the North to Sind in the South.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Growth of Nationalism

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Growth of Nationalism

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

TIME TO LEARN

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Congress of Vienna was hosted by The Austrian Chancellor Duke Metternich.
  2. The American Revolution began in 1776.
  3. The first clear expression of nationalism came up with the French Revolution.
  4. The French Revolution began in 1789.
  5. England had Thirteen colonies in North America.
  6. American thinker Thomas Jefferson, asked the people to rebel against the tyrannical rule of England.
  7. A new country called The United States of America was bom after the American Revolution.

II.Match the contents of Column A and Column B:

    Column A                                Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 2
Answer:
    Column  A                                  Column   B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 3

III. State whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. The 13 colonies of North America were dissatisfied with the rule of the master country, England.
    True.
  2. The French society was divided into three classes, each enjoying similar rights and privileges.
    False.
  3. The French Revolution began with the storming of Bastille in 1789.
    True.
  4. A new constitution was framed by the French Assembly in 1785.
    False.
  5. The French Revolution led to rise of nationalism in Europe.
    True.
  6. India was greatly inspired by both the American and French Revolutions.
    True.

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
What do you know about the Congress of Vienna?
Answer:
With the final defeat of Napoleon in the battle of Waterloo (1815) the European rulers met at Vienna to draw up a settlement for Europe. The Congress was hosted by the Austrian Chancellor, Duke Mettemich. The Congress of Vienna (1815) drew up the Treaty of Vienna in 1815 with the aim of undoing the changes ushered during the Napoleonic wars. All the kings that were ousted by Napoleon were given back their kingdoms. Austria, Russia, Prussia received many territories, so did Great Britain, Sweden and Holland. The Congress of Vienna redrew the map of Europe

Question 2.
What is nationalism? Discuss.
Answer:
Nationalism can be described as a strong feeling of love and loyalty which people have towards their own country. Nationalism arises when people share feelings and experiences. It may include common language, culture, religion, social order, historical tradition and physical descent. Patriotism is also a part of Nationalism.

Question 3.
What were the causes for the American War of Independence?
Answer:
The causes for the American War of Independence were:

  1. The Americans were not allowed to start any industry.They were not allowed to trade with any country except England. They did not have the same rights as the English enjoyed in England. The Americans did not have any representation in the British Parliament. They had to pay more taxes than the English paid in England.
  2. The English settlers in America were inspired by the European philosophers like John Locke, Voltaire, Rousseau and Montesquieu who believed in freedom, equality and rights of people.
  3. In 1765, the English Parliament passed the Stamp Act which imposed stamp taxes on all business transactions. This Act aroused violent resentement among colonists.
  4. American thinkers like Jefferson asked people to rebel against the tyrannical rule of England.
  5. The most prominent protest against the British is known as ‘Boston Tea Party’. A group of people raided British ships in Boston Harbour and threw 340 crates of tea into the sea to protest against the new taxes. The 13 colonies in America revolted against the British. This is known as American War of Independence.

Question 4.
Explain the significance of the American Revolution.
Answer:
The American Revolution is an important landmark in the History
of the World. It inspired the people of other colonies, including India, to overthrow their colonial masters and showed the path of democracy.

Question 5.
Why did the French Revolution take place?
Answer:
The French Society at that time was divided into three distinct classes or estates.The First Estate was made of the Clergy. The Second Estate was made up of the Nobility. The nobles were absolute landlords.The Third Estate consisted of the common people. They were the middle class members (merchants, lawyers, teachers, doctors, etc.) and the peasants and artisans. The first two Estates enjoyed all the luxury and privileges, owned all the land between them and paid no taxes. The Third Estate was heavily taxed and lived a life of hardship and misery. King Louis XVI was indifferent to the plight of the common people and lived a life of luxury himself.The common people of France were inspired by the revolutionary writings of famous french philosophers like Rousseau, Montesquieu and Voltaire. They attacked the church and the nobility in their writings. Rousseau wrote that subjects have the right to overthrow a king who does not rule according to the general will. The Philosophers propagated the ideas of liberty, fraternity and equality. The French people were also inspired by the American War of Independence. It made them ready to fight for their rights and justice.

Question 6.
Discuss the significance of the French Revolution.
Answer:
The French Revolution was an event of great importance in the history of the world. It introduced democratic ideas and ended the supreme rule of the kings.The nobles and the church lost their property and their lands were distributed to the peasants. Slaves in French colonies were set free. The watchwords of the French Revolution such as liberty, equality and fraternity led to the rise of a new democratic social order in Europe.The most patent effect of the French Revolution was that it roused national feelings. The common people were prepared to die for the sake of protecting the rights and privileges they had got due to the French Revolution. It also inspired other European people to overthrow their oppressive governments.

Question 7.
Write a short note on Napoleon.
Answer:
In 1799 Napoleon overthrew the Directorate and framed a Consulate in France, which consisted of three Consuls (1799­1801). He himself was the First Consul and later he became Consul for life in 1802.
Napoleon defeated Austrians in Italy, defeated Britain in 1802. He established numerous small republics in Italy, Germany and Belgium. After these victories he became the Emperor of France and the Pope attended his Coronation Ceremony in 1804. He was at the height of his political and military glory between 1808-1810. He was finally defeated in 1815 in the Battle of Waterloo. He was exiled to St. Helena Island where he died in 1821.

V.Write short notes on:

Question 1.
The role of philosophers and thinkers of the 18th century.
Answer:
The common people of France were greatly inspired by the revolutionary writings of the famous French Philosophers like Rousseau, Montesquieu and Voltaire. They attacked the church and the nobility in their writings. Rousseau wrote that subjects have the right to overthrow a king who does not rule according to the general will. They propagated the ideas of liberty, fraternity and equality.

Question 2.
Storming of the Bastille
Answer:
On July 14, 1789, the people of Paris stormed the prison of Bastille. They freed all the prisoners.
Monarchy was overthrown. King Louis XVI and his queen Marie Antoinette were first imprisoned and later guillotined (Put to death) in 1793. There was chaos for some time and a reign of terror began which lasted from 1793-1794.Thousand of nobles, clergy and even innocent men were executed.In 1795 the National Assembly of France adopted a Declaration of the Rights of Man which declared that men are bom free and equal. A new Constitution was framed.

Question 3.
Boston Tea Party
Answer:
Anti British protests could be seen all over. The most prominent protest was the incident known as the ‘Boston Tea Party’. In 1773, a group of people raided British ships in the Boston harbour and threw 340 crates of tea into the sea. This was to protest against the new taxes which the British Government had imposed upon the colonies, especially the tax imposed on tea.

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
Fill in the blanks:

  1. The American War of Independence was the first Organized political revolution in the history of the world.
  2. The discovery of the American continent was followed by the establishment of Permanent European settlements in the 16th century.
  3. The colonists argued that the British Parliament had no right to tax the colonists because they had no representatives in the parliament
  4. George Washington was chosen as the commander of the American troops in the war against the British.
  5. In 1776, the representatives of the colonists met at Philadelphia and adopted a Declaration of Independence.
  6. In about 200 years, the United States of America transformed itself into the most powerful country of the world.
  7. The Constitution of the United States has served as a model and an inspiration to several countries.
  8. French society was divided into three main classes, namely the first, the second and the Third Estate
  9. The revolutionary writings of political philosophers like Voltaire, Rousseau and Montesquieu greatly influenced the middle-class intellectuals in France.
  10. The French administration was Corrupt and inefficient

B.Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 4
Answer:
                     A                                                                    B
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 5

C.Choose the correct answer:

  1. By the mid-18th century 11/13/19 British colonies had been established on the east coast of North America.
    Ans. By the mid-18th century 13 British colonies had been established on the east coast of North America.
  2. 4 July/14 July/17 June is celebrated as American Independence Day.
    Ans. 4 July is celebrated as American Independence Day.
  3. The Second Estate consisted of the clergy/peasants/nobles.
    Ans. The Second Estate consisted of the nobles.
  4. Marie Antoinette was the queen of England/France/Austria.
    Ans. Marie Antoinette was the queen of England.
  5. 14 July/4 July/20 June is celebrated as a national holiday in France.
    Ans. 14 July is celebrated as a national holiday in France.

D.State whether the following are true or false:

  1. By the middle of the 18th century eleven British colonies had been established along the east coast of North America.
    False.
    Correct : By the middle of the 18th century 13 British colonies had been established along the east coast of North America.
  2. The American colonists were rigid and conservative.
    False.
    Correct: The American colonists were simple and liberal.
  3. The American revolutionaries were greatly impressed by the ideas of European philosophers.
    True.
  4. George Washington was the first elected President of the United States of America.
    True.
  5. The French Revolution laid the foundation of a democratic government.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Which particular incident sparked off the American War of independence? What is the importance of this event?
Answer:
The American War of Independence, was sparked off by an incident known as the Boston Tea Party.
In 1773, a group of colonists, disguised as Red Indians, raided British ships in Boston harbour and threw 340 crates of tea into the sea. This incident was a protest against the new taxes including a tax on tea, imposed on the colonies .The importance of this act was that it was an act of open defiance of the colonists against British authority.

Question 2.
Name any two European philosophers whose ideas inspired and influenced the American revolutionaries.
Answer:
The American revolutionaries were greatly influenced by the ideas of European philosophers Locke, Voltaire and Rousseau who inspired them to fight for liberty.

Question 3.
What is the significance of the 4th of July in American history?
Answer:
The 4th July is celebrated as the American Independence Day.

Question 4.
Mention two characteristic features of the French monarchy.
Answer:
The French king was an autocrat. He enjoyed absolute powers and his will was law. There was no check on his powers by any parliament. He ruled by Divine Right and was answerable to God and not to the people.

Question 5.
In what way did the American Revolution influence the Indian Constitution?
Answer:
The Constitution of the United States of America has served as a model and an inspiration to several countries including India. The framers of the Indian Constitution adopted various features like the federal form of government, the incorporation of Fundamental Rights like the American Bill of Rights and the system of checks and balances.

Question 6.
Why is the French Revolution of 1789 considered a turning point in human history?
Answer:
The French Revolution of 1789 was a milestone and a major turning point in human history. It revolutionized the social, economic and political fabric, not only of France but of all Europe and subsequently of almost the entire world.

Question 7. 
Mention the role of the political philosophers in the overthrow of the French monarchy.
Answer:
The revolutionary writings and ideals of great political philosophers like Voltaire, Rousseau and Montesquieu created an intellectual ferment in France. The middle class was greatly inspired by the revolutionary ideas. Through their writings, the philosophers exposed the evils of French society and government and inspired the people to revolt and fight for their rights.

Question 8.
What effect did the American Revolution have on the French people?
Answer:
The French generals and soldiers, who had fought in the American Revolution, returned to France with revolutionary ideas and inspired the people to fight against their unjust, despotic government. The American Revolution enthused the French people and encouraged them to rebel.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
The American War of Independence was the first organized political revolution in the history of the world. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) How was an American colony governed? Why were the colonists resentful?
(b) How did the American colonists differ from the British?
(c) Why did the American colonists refuse to pay taxes imposed by the British Parliament in London? Give an account of the Boston Tea Party incident.
Answer:
(a) Each American colony had its own Assembly elected by the people of the colony but the governor of the colony was appointed by the British government. The Governor was not responsible to the Assembly. He governed the colony in the interest of England, the mother country, and not the colonists. This cuased great resentment among the American settlers who worked very hard but could not enjoy the fruits of their labour.

(b) 
Socially and culturally, the American colonists were different from the British. The colonist were simple and liberal, unlike the British puritans who were rigid and conservative. The American colonists had a distinct identity i.e an American identity that aspired for freedom to grow and develop as a separate independent nation.

(c) 
The American colonists refused to pay taxes as they argued that the British Parliament had no right to tax the colonists since they had no representatives in the Parliament.In 1773, a group of colonists, disguised as Red Indians, raided British ships in Boston harbour and threw 340 crates of tea into the sea. This incident was a protest against the new taxes including a tax on tea, imposed on the colonies.The importance of this act was that it was an act of open defiance of the colonists against British authority.

Question 2.
The British monarch, King George III, refused to withdraw the unjust and oppressive Acts imposed on the colonists and declared war on them. In this context discuss:
(a) The revolutionary principles and ideas in the Declaration of Independence of 1776
(b) The terms and long-term impact of the Treaty of Paris
(C) The important features of the newly established United States of America
Answer:
(a) The Declaration of Independence, 1776 clearly stated that the American colonists had the right to free themselves from the oppressive and explorative British government and form their own government. This declaration proclaimed that all men are bom equal and are endowed with certain rights such as the right to life and liberty and the pursuit of happiness.

(b) 
According to the Treaty of Paris signed in 1783 between the British government and the colonists, British government recognized the independence of the thirteen colonies which came to be known as the United States of America.

(c) 
Features of the newly established United States of America are as:

  1. A written constitution was framed and a federal, democratic, republican government was set up.
  2. The new government guaranteed to all its citizens the rights to freedom of speech, press, religion and justice under the law.
  3. The country would be ruled by an elected President who would govern according to the laws written down in the Constitution.

Question 3.
The French Revolution of 1789 was a milestone and a major turning point in human history. In this context discuss the.
following causes
(a) An unjust, unequal social order of the Ancien Regime
(b) The growing power of the middle class
(c) An inefficient, corrupt administration
Answer:
(a) An unequal, unjust social order: French society was essentially feudal in nature.
It was divided into three main classes, called Estates:

  1. The First Estate consisted of the clergy (church officials).
  2. The Second Estate consisted of the nobles and their families.
  3. The Third Estate was composed of 95 per cent of the population. It included the peasants, artisans, workers and the middle class (consisting of merchants, manufacturers and professionals such as lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc.)

The First and Second Estates enjoyed numerous privileges. They owned practically all the land in France but did not have to pay any taxes. They were very wealthy and led comfortable and luxurious lives.The Third Estate, on the other hand, shouldered the entire burden of taxation but was not entitled to any of the privileges enjoyed by the clergy and the nobles. Taxes were imposed on everything, including basic necessities like salt. Life was very hard, especially for the poor peasants who had to pay additional taxes to their feudal lords.

(b) 
Middle class had acquired great wealth and become economically powerful in the 18th century. However, they were denied of social equality and political rights. This caused great resentment among them. They used their economic power to overthrow the Ancien Regime.

(c) 
The administration was corrupt and inefficient. The officials were selfish and unconcerned about the welfare of the people.King Louis XVI was pleasure-loving and extravagant. He was completely ignorant of and indifferent to the sufferings of the common people and was greatly influenced by his beautiful and ambitious wife, Marie Antoinette. Together they squandered money on festivities and pleasures and emptied the royal treasury.

Question 4.
With reference to the French Revolution, discuss the following
(a) The Tennis Court Oath
(b) The storming of the Bastille
(c) The adoption of the Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen and its fundamental principles
Answer:
(a)
On 20, June 1789, the members of the Third Estate met at a tennis court and took an oath not to separate until a new constitution was drawn up for France. This is known as the Tennis Court Oath.
(b)
The storming of the Bastille symbolized the victory of the people of France and the fall of monarchy. It marked the beginning of the revolution. 14 July is celebrated as a national holiday in France.
(c)
The newly formed National Assembly, consisting of the representatives of the Third Estate, took over the control of the affairs of France. It adopted the famous Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizen-a landmark in the history of human progress. By 1791, a new Constitution was drawn up for France.

Question 5.
With reference to the consequences of the French
Revolution, answer the following:
(a) Mention any four revolutionary changes that took place in France after the Revolution of 1789.
(b) What effect did the French Revolution have on the rest of Europe?
(c) What impact did the French revolutionary principles have on political developments in India in the middle of the 19th century? –
Answer:
(a)
Revolutionary changes that took place in France after the Revolution of 1789 are:

  1. This Revolution marked the end of absolute monarchy and paved the way for the establishment of a republic.
  2. The revolution laid the foundation of a democratic government.
  3. Feudalism and serfdom were abolished and the power of the Church was brought under the control of the government.
  4. Liberty, Equality, Fraternity become the guiding principle of the French republic.

(b)
The revolutionary ideas of the French Revolution spread to all European countries. The slogans of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity become the guiding principles all over the world. Oppressed people in Europe rose in revolt against their tyrannical, hereditary rulers and established new social and political system. It inspired the spirit of nationalism among people.
(c)
The Revolutionary principles of Liberty, Equality and Fraternity had an impact on India as well. Indian nationalists imbibed these principles and developed a democratic and nationalist outlook. A National movement for freedom was launched, culminating in India’s independence from British rule in 1947.

G Picture Study.

This picture depicts a very important event in world history where in a great mob is shown attacking a state prison.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Growth of Nationalism 6

Question 1.
Name the event.
Answer:
On 14 July 1789, a great mob attacked Bastille the state prison for political prisoners and a much hated symbol of the Ancien Regime. The prisoners were released and they joined the revolutionaries.

Question 2.
In which country did it take place and when?
Answer:
The country was France and it take place on 14 July 1789.

Question 3.
What is the significance of this event?
Answer:
The Prisoners were released and joined the revolutionaries. It also symbolized the Victory of people of France and the fall of monarchy.

Question 4.
Give a brief account of the developments that followed this event.
Answer:
This incident marked the beginning of the revolutions. The newly formed National Assembly consisting of the representatives of the Third Estate, took over the Control of the affairs of France. It adopted the famous Declaration of Rights of Man and Citizens- a landmark in the history of human progress. By 1791, a new constitution was drawn up for France.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Judiciary

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – The Judiciary

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in India.
  2. The Supreme Court of India consists of a Chief Justice and 30 other judges.
  3. The judges of the High Court retire at the age of 62 years.
  4. The courts at the district level and below it are known as the subordinate courts.
  5. The Chief Justice of India is J.S. Khehar.

II. Match the contents of Column A with those of Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Judiciary 1

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Judiciary 2

III. Tick mark (✓) the correct statements and cross mark (X) the wrong ones:

  1. The judges of the Supreme Court retire at the age of 60.
     X
  2. The President of India is free to remove the judges of the Supreme Court.
    X
  3. The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the President of India.

  4. The highest criminal court in the district is the munsif court.
    X

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why is the Judiciary important?
Answer:
Judiciary is important because criminals and law breakers need to be punished. It is important to explain the meaning of laws, to interpret them and to apply them when and where needed. Legal disputes need to be settled. Without judiciary legal disputes cannot be settled.

Question 2.
What is the composition of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Supreme Court Consists of the Chief Justice and not more than thirty other judges. The number of judges in the Supreme Court is fixed by parliament from time to time.

Question 3.
Who appoints the judges? What are the qualifications of a Supreme Court judge?
Answer:
The Chief justice and the other judges are appointed by the President of India. In order to be judge of the Supreme Court, a person must meet the following requirements:

  1. He must be a citizen of India.
  2. He should either be a distinguished jurist.
    OR
  3. He should have been a high court judge for at least five years.
    OR
  4. He should have been an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years.

Question 4.
Describe the powers and functions of the High Court of India. What type of cases come before the High Courts in India?
Answer:
A High Court of India has to perform many functions and duties of judicial and non-judicial nature.

  1. Original Jurisdictions : Cases relating to Fundamental Rights, divorce, wills and laws relating to marriage can be brought directly to a High Court.
  2. Appellate Jurisdiction : Appeals in civil and criminal cases are made to the High Court against the decision of the subordinate courts.

The High Court supervises the functions of all subordinate courts in the state. It can also transfer a case from a subordinate court to itself or to another subordinate court if necessary. It can also examine their records.

Question 5.
What are the functions of a district judge?
Answer:
The courts at district level and below it are known as the subordinate courts. The administration of justice is conducted by two types of courts civil courts and criminal courts.

The civil courts are the one which decide cases pertaining to money, contracts, marriage, etc. A District Judge is the head of judiciary in a district. His decisions are final. When the District Judge deals with criminal cases, he is known as the Sessions Judge.

Question 6.
Distinguish between civil and criminal cases.
Answer:
Civil cases are those which concern property disputes, contracts, marriage, divorce, etc. Criminal case are those where a crime has been committed e.g., murder, theft, etc.

Question 7.
Explain various types of writs. When are they issued?
Answer:
Supreme Court and High Courts protect Fundamental Rights from being eroded.
They issue the following writs to the offending party:

  1. Habeous Corpus: It can get the body of any person released if it has been illegally captured.
  2. Prohibition: This is an order from a superior court to an inferior court to stop proceedings in a case which might be contemplating to do in excess of its jurisdiction.
  3. Certiorari: The writ is issued by a superior court to a judicial or quasi-judicial authorities in order to quash its order or decision. The difference between Prohibition and Certiorari is that while the former is issued when certain proceedings are still going on, the latter is issued only when the order has already been passed.
  4. Mandamus: It literally means ‘we command’. This writ is thus a sort of command from a superior court to a subordinate court or an administrative authority in case they refuse to exercise their jurisdiction and fail to perform their duty.
  5. Quo Warranto: Such a type of writ is issued by a court to a public servant to enquire into the legality of his holding a public office and to oust him if his claim is not well-founded. Then this writ prevents an unlawful claimant from holding a superior public office.

Additional Questions

 EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. In India there is a single unified system of courts for the Indian Union and the states.
  2. The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi.
  3. To qualify for the post of a judge in the Supreme Court, a person must either be an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years or a judge of a High Court for five years’ standing.
  4. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of subordinate courts.
  5. The records of the High Court serve as references for lower courts in future cases.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Judiciary 3
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Judiciary 4

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. Disputes between the union government and the state government fall under the Original/Advisory/Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
    Ans. Disputes between the union government and the state government fail under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  2. The District Court/Nyaya Panchayats/Supreme Court has the power of judicial review.
    Ans. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review.
  3. The High Court is the highest court of justice in a village/ district/state
    Ans. The High Court is the highest court of justice in-a state.
  4. Judges of the High Court can serve till they are 60/62/65 years old.
    Ans. Judges of the High Court can serve till they are 62 years old.
  5. The Nyaya Panchayats/Lok Adalats/District Courts were set up to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services.
    Ans. The Loh Adalats were set up to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
    False.
  2. No cases can be brought directly to the Supreme Court for the first time.
    False.
  3. A High Court is not a court of record.
    False.
  4. A Nyaya Panchayat can impose a fine upto ? 10,000.
    False.
  5. The process of obtaining justice through law courts is a long-drawn-out and expensive process in our country.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
On what grounds can Supreme Court judges be removed from office?
Answer:
Supreme Court judges can only be removed on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, through impeachment.

Question 2.
Mention any two kinds of disputes that can be brought directly before the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Following cases can be directly brought before the Supreme Court:

  1. If there are disputes between the Union Government and a State Government or more than one State Government.
  2. Cases concerning the violation of the Constitution by the Government or an individual.

Question 3.
What is the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Supreme Court can advise the President, on request, on legal and constitutional issues. The President may or may not accept the advice.

Question 4.
Why are the records of the cases and judgement of the Supreme Court important?
Answer:
These records serve as references in future cases.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Justice of the High Courts?
Answer:
The President appoints the Chief Justice of the High Court and the other judges in consultation with the Governor of the state and the Chief Justice of India.

Question 6.
What are writs ?
Answer:
A writ is a form of written command, or legal document giving order or direction to a person to act or not to act in a particular way. Some of the writs are the writs of Habeus Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto, etc.

Question 7.
What is a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat is a small law court at the village level which try petty civil and criminal cases such as trespassing, personal disputes, minor thefts etc.

Question 8.
Why have Lok Adalats been set up?
Answer:
In order to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services, Lok Adalats have been set up.

Question 9.
Why are Lok Adalats becoming popular?
Answer:
Lok Adalats are becoming popular because they provide affordable and speedy justice.

Question 10.
What is the objective of the Legal Aid Scheme?
Answer:
The objective of the Legal Aid Scheme, is to provide free legal aid and legal services to the poorer and weaker sections of the society.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in the country. In this context, explain:

(a) Its original Jurisdiction
(b) Its Appellate Jurisdiction.
(c) Why it is called the guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
(a) Original Jurisdiction: Certain cases are brought before the Supreme Court directly, for the first time. This happens in cases involving:

  1. Disputes between the union government and one or more state governments.
  2. Disputes between two or more states governments.
  3. Violation of the Constitution by the government or an individual.
  4. Violation of the Fundamental Rights of an individual.

(b) Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court hears appeals against judgements of High Courts. The Supreme Court is the final court of appeal and has power to review and change decisions of the High Court.
(c) The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution. It safeguards the Constitution in two ways:

  1. It can cancel a law or an executive order if it is found to violate the Constitution.
  2. It can issue write (orders or directions) for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
With reference to the powers of the High Court, discuss its:
(a) Original Jurisdiction
(b) Appellate Jurisdiction.
(c) Review and Revisory Jurisdiction
Answer:
(a) Original Jurisdiction: A High Court can hear the cases brought for the first time or we can say original cases if they are concerned with disputes regarding Fundamental rights and election petitions.(b) Appellate Jurisdiction: A High Court has Appellate Jurisdiction where it can hear appeals against judgements passed in Subordinate Courts. The High Court can review and change decisions taken in the Subordinate Courts.
(c) The High Court can review and change decisions taken in the subordinate courts. It can also transfer a case from one court to another. A High Court also controls and supervises the functioning of subordinate courts.

Question 3.
In the context of the judicial system in India, answer the following questions:
(a)
What are the main features of a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat try petty civil and criminal cases of the village level. They can impose fines upto 100 Rs. only and appeals can be made against decisions taken in the Nyaya Panchayat, to higher courts.

(b)

Why are Lok Adalats are becoming popular in India?
Answer:
Lok Adalats are becoming popular because they provide affordable and speedy justice.

(c)
Mention the sections of society which receive free legal services under the Legal Aid Scheme.
Answer:
Sections of society who receive free legal services under the Legal Aid Scheme are:

  1.  People belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other backward classes.
    • People who are mentally ill or disabled.
    • Women and children.

G Picture study:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - The Judiciary 5

This is a picture of the apex Indian court.

  1. Identify it.
    Ans. It is Supreme Court of India.
  2. What is the composition of this court?
    Ans. It has one Chief Justice and a number of other Judges. At Present, the number of Judges including the Chief Justice cannot exceed twenty-five.
  3. Who appoints the judges?
    Ans. The Judge of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers and the Chief Justice of India.
  4. Explain its role as the guardian of the Constitution.
    Ans. The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution.
    It safeguards the Constitution in two ways:
  1. It can cancel a law or an executive order if it is found to violate the Constitution.
  2. It can issue write (orders or directions) for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Specialized Agencies of the UN

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Specialized Agencies of the UN

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercise

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The UNESCO was established in 1945 with headquarters at Paris.
  2. UNICEF provides assistance for running child care centres.
  3. When the UN was formed the ILO became its first specialized agency.
  4. The headquarters of FAO are in Rome.
  5. The WHO believes that good health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Specialized Agencies of the UN 1
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Specialized Agencies of the UN 2

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Specialized Agencies of the UN 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The functions of UNESCO/UNICEF/ILO are based on the belief that the best way to prevent war is to educate people’s mind in the pursuit of peace.
Ans. The functions of UNESCO are based on the belief that the best way to prevent war is to educate people’s mind in the pursuit of peace.

2. The FAO/WHO/ILO was founded in 1945 and helps countries to raise their levels of nutrition.
Ans. The FAO was founded in 1945 and helps countries to raise their levels of nutrition.

3. The ILO/WHO/UNESCO was set up at the end of the First World War.
Ans. The ILO was set up at the end of the First World War.

4. The objectives of WHO/ILO/FAO is to improve the standard of health all over the world.
Ans. The objectives of WHO is to improve the standard of health all over the world.

5. The WHO has succeeded in eradicating smallpox/measles/ typhoid from the world.
Ans. The WHO has succeeded in eradicating smallpox from the world.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. UNESCO encourages the spread of universal education.
    True
  2. UNICEF helps in solving financial crises and provides loans to nations.
    False.
    Correct: UNICEF helps in solving the problem of exploitation of children and child labour.
  3. The ILO sets guidelines for improving the living and working conditions of workers everywhere.
    True.
  4. The headquarters of ILO are in Rome.
    False.
    Correct: The headquarters of ILO are in Geneva.
  5. The largest specialized agency of the UN is WHO.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/sentences:

Question 1.
Why were the specialized agencies of the UN established?
Answer:
The objectives of the specialized agencies of UN is to solve economic, social, cultural and problem through international cooperation. A number of specialized agencies have been established to achieve these goals.

Question 2.
Name one specialized agency of the UN.
Answer:
WHO (The World Health Organization).

Question 3.
What does the acronym UNESCO stand for?
Answer:
UNESCO: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization.

Question 4.
What does the acronym UNICEF stand for at present?
Answer:
The United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.

Question 5.
Why is it necessary to ensure that workers are content and i happy?
Answer:
A country can progress and prosper if the workers are content and happy.

Question 6.
What important programmer did the FAO launch to eliminate hunger?
Answer:
To eliminate hunger through its most important programmer called ‘Food for AH’.

Question 7.
What does the FAO do in the event of an emergency food situation in any country?
Answer:
Special FAO programmes also help countries to prepare for an provide relief in the event of emergency  food shortages

Question 8.
Why is World Health Day observed on 7 th April every year?
Answer:
Its main purpose is to improve the standard of health all over the world. World Health Day is observed on 7 April every year to mark the founding of the WHO.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
A number of specialized agencies of the UN have been set up in the interest of human affairs. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the functions and activities of the UNESCO.
(b) Why was UNICEF originally established? What are its long-term goals at present?
(c) Mention any four endeavours of UNICEF to achieve its goals.
Answer:
(a)
UNESCO implements its activities through the five programmer areas of Education, Natural Science, Social and Human Sciences Culture Communication and Information.
Main functions of UNESCO:

  1. It provides international leadership in creating learning societies with educational opportunities for all, it supports research in comparative Education and provides experts and foster partnerships & strengthen national educational leadership and capacity of the countries to offer quality education for all.
  2.  It encourages free flow of ideas by images and words by promoting freedom of expression press freedom and access to information, through the International  Programmer for the Development of communication and the communication and Information Programmer.
  3. It promotes events such as International literacy Day International year for the culture of Peace.
  4. It also promotes founding and funding of projects such as FRESH (Focusing Resources on Effective School Health) International Council of Science etc.

(b)
UNICEF was known as United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund when it was established in 1946 originally to provide emergency aid to children and their mothers in countries devastated by the Second World War. The goal of UNICEF is the realization for every child, of the opportunity to enjoy the basic rights and privileges. It tries to solve the problem of exploitation of children and child labour. UNICEF provides assistance to nations for running childcare centers.. It provides assistance to young mothers and also provides medicines to newborn babies and mothers. UNICEF continues to work for the welfare of children (in backward countries) in the fields of education, health and sanitation, nutrition, water, environment, women, welfare, social justice, etc.
(c)
Endeavours of UNICEF to achieve its goals are:

  1.  Its tries to solve the problem of exploitation of children and child labour.
  2. It provides assistance to nations for running childcare centers.
  3.  It provides assistance to young mothers and also provides medicines to newborn babies and mothers.
  4. UNICEF continues to work for the welfare of children (in developing countries) in the fields of education, health and sanitation, nutrition, water, environment, women’s welfare, social justice, etc.

Question 2.
With reference to the ILO and the FAO discuss:
(a) The aims and activities of the ILO
(b) The aims of the FAO
(c) The activities of the FAO
Answer:
(a)
The ILO was set up in 1919 at the end of the First World War, with its headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland. Later, when the UN was formed it became its first specialized agency. The ILO seeks to promote peace and prosperity in the world by ensuring social and economic justice to workers all over the world. A country can progress and prosper if the workers are content and happy. It sets guidelines for improving the living and working conditions of workers everywhere.

(b) Main aims of FAO:

  1. To raise the standard of living of the people.
  2. To raise the levels of nutrition.
  3. To eliminate hunger through its most important programmer called ‘Food for All’
  4. To increase agricultural production and distribution of food and promote rural development.

(c)

  1. FAO promotes investment in agriculture, better soil and water management, improved yields of crops and livestock.
  2. It also provides technical assistance in the fields of nutrition, agricultural engineering, development of communications and prevention of food losses.
  3. Special FAO programmes also help countries to prepare for an provide relief in the event of emergency food shortage.

Question 3.
With reference to the WHO discuss the following:
(a) The establishment of the WHO
(b) The activities of the WHO
(c) The projects supported by the WHO
Answer:
(a)
The WHO was established in 1948. Its headquarters are in Geneva. The World Health Organization is the largest specialized agency of the UN. It is guided by the belief that good health is one of the fundamental rights of every human being.
(b)
The activities of the WHO are as follows:

  1. It carries out worldwide campaigns to combat diseases like AIDS, cholera, malaria, plague, polio, etc.
  2. It encourages medical research, provides information on diseases, organizes health services and spreads health awareness.

(c)
The WHO supports projects related to:

  1. Education concerning health problems.
  2. Proper food supply and nutrition.
  3. Safe water and sanitation.
  4. Maternal and child health, including family planning,
    Immunization against major infectious diseases.
  5.  Prevention and control of local diseases.
  6.  Proper treatment of common diseases and injuries.
  7. Provision of essential drugs.

G Picture Study:
This is the logo of the headquarters of a specialized agency of the UN which was established in 1948.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Specialized Agencies of the UN 4

1. Name the agency.
Ans: WHO.

2. What is the main purpose of this agency?
Ans: To improve the standard of health all over the world.

3.What does it do to achieves its objectives?
Ans. It carries out worldwide campaigns to combat diseases like AIDS, cholera, malaria, plague, polio, etc. It encourages medical research, provides information on diseases, organizes health services and spreads health awareness.

4. Mention one important achievement of this agency.
Ans: WHO has succeeded in eradicating smallpox from the world.

5. Name any two other specialized agencies of the UN.  State one important objective of each agency.
Answer:
The two specialized agencies of the UN are as below:

  1. UNICEF (THE UNITED NATIONS CHILDREN’S FUND)
    It provides assistance to nations for running child care centers and emphasizes giving nutritional food to children.
  2. WHO (The World Health Organization)It provides education concerning health problems and proper food supply, safe water, sanitation and maternal and child health,, including family planning. It also provides immunization against major infectious diseases.

OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Name the specialized agencies of What is the purpose?
Answer:
World Health Organization (WHO) is largest specialized agency of the UN. WHO is the directing and coordinating authority of health within the United Nations System. It is responsible for providing leadership on global health matters, shaping the health research agenda setting norms and standards, providing technical support to countries and monitoring and assessing health trends.

Its Main Purposes:

  1.  Providing leadership on matters critical health and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed
  2. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation and dissemination of valuable knowledge.
  3. Setting norms and standards and promoting and monitoring their implementation
  4. Articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
  5. Providing technical support and building sustainable institutional capacity
  6. Monitoring the health situations and assessing health trends.

Question 2.
What is the purpose of WHO? To what extent has it been successful in its mission?
Answer:
Its Main Purposes:

  1. Providing leadership on matters critical health and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed
  2.  Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation and dissemination of valuable knowledge.
  3. Setting norms and standards and promoting and monitoring their implementation
  4. Articulating ethical and evidence-based policy options
  5. Providing technical support and building sustainable institutional capacity
  6.  Monitoring the health situations and assessing health trends. The WHO has helped in the improvement of public health. It has helped in fighting and eradicating several diseases like smallpox, malaria, tuberculosis etc. It has helped to set up childcare centers and also trained a large facilitates students to go for higher education in medicine by providing scholarships.

Question 3.
What do the following acronyms stand for? State one important function of each agency.
(1) UNESCO
(2) UNICEF
(3) ILO
(4) FAO
Answer:

  1. UNESCO: The United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization .
    Function: It encourages international cooperation between artists, scientist and scholars in all fields.
  2. UNICEF: The United Nations International Children’s Emergency Fund.
    Function: To solve the problem of exploitation of children and child labour.
  3. ILO: The International Labour Oraganization
    Function: It seeks to promote peace and security in the world by ensuring social and economic justice all over the world.
  4. FAO: Food and Agricultural Organization
    Function: To eliminate hunger through its most important programmer called ‘Food For All’

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The United Nations

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The United Nations

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The League of Nations was formed in 1920 after the end of the First World War.
  2. Each member state of the UN can send up to Five representatives to the General Assembly.
  3. The Security council is often referred to as the ‘Enforcement Wing’ of the UN.
  4. The five permament members of the Security Council are USA, UK, France, People’s Republic of China and the Russian Federation.
  5. The objective of the ECOSOC is to free the world from want.
  6. The WHO is a specialized agency of the UN.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The United Nations 1
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The United Nations 2
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The United Nations 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. 24 October/22 March/21 June is celebrated as United Nations Day.
Ans. 24 October is celebrated as United Nations Day.

2. The olive branches on the UN flag symbolize peace/wealth/ truth.
Ans. The olive branches on the UN flag symbolize peace.

3. The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 members elected by the General Assembly for a 3/4/5-year term.
Ans. The Economic and Social Council consists of 54 members elected by the General Assembly for a 5-year term.

4. The International Court of Justice is located in New York City in USA/The Hague in Netherlands/Paris in France.
Ans. The International Court of Justice is located in The Hague in Netherlands.

5.The Secretariat/General Assembly/International Court of Justice is the chief administrative organ of the UN.
Ans. The Secretariat is the chief administrative organ of the UN.

D.State whether the following are true or false:

  1. All the members of the UN are members of the General Assembly.
    True.
  2. French is one of the official languages of the UN.
    True.
  3. The Trusteeship Council is the most important organ of the UN.
    False
    Correct: The Security Council is the most important organ of the UN.
  4. UNESCO and UNICEF are specialized agencies of the UN.
    True.
  5. Most of the world’s problems have disappeared with the end of the Cold War.
    False.
    Correct: Most of the world’s problems have disappeared with the end of the Cold War. This, however, did not happen.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Mention one important organ of the UN.
Answer:
The Security Council is the most important organ of the UN.

Question 2.
Who are the members of the General Assembly?
Answer:
All the members of the UN are members of the General Assembly.

Question 3.
What is a negative vote by one of the permanent members of the Security Council known as?
Answer:
Veto is the negative vote by any one of the permanent members of the UN Security Council which leads to the cancellation of the resolution.

Question 4.
Why was the Trusteeship Council established?
Answer:
When the UN was first formed, a large number of countries were not free. Many were affected by the war. The Trusteeship Council was established to look after the territories that were under foreign rule and to help them attain self-government.

Question 5.
Why did the UN impose economic sanctions against the South African government?
Answer:
By imposing economic sanctions against the South African government, it played a significant role in challenging the apartheid policy and liberating the South African people from apartheid.

Question 6.
What is the relevance of the UN in today’s world?
Answer:
The need of the hour is to reform and strengthen the UN and to make it strong and effective, capable of healing the wounds of our times and restoring sanity, balance and harmony to our strife-tom world.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
The magnitude and scale of destruction during the Second World War created a great revulsion for war and a passionate yearning for peace. In this context
(a) The signing of the Atlantic Charter
(b) The basic rights or the four freedoms guaranteed by the charter
(c) The San Francisco Conference and establishment of the United Nations
Answer:
(a)
Winston Churchill, the prime minister of Great Britain, and Franklin D. Roosevelt, the president of the United States of America, met aboard a battleship off Newfoundland in the Atlantic Ocean. They signed a document called the Atlantic Charter on 14 August 1941.
(b)
It was agreed that when the war ended, humans must be guaranteed the basic rights or the four freedoms. The basic rights included:

  1. freedom from want
  2. freedom of speech
  3.  freedom of religious belief
  4.  freedom from fear

(c)
In June 1945, 50 nations met in San Francisco to sign the Atlantic Charter. Poland, which was not represented at the conference, signed it later and became one of the original 51 member states. On 24 October 1945, the United Nations was established to save succeeding generations from the scourge of war and to reaffirm faith in fundamental human rights. 24 October is celebrated as United Nations Day.

Question 2.
With reference to the United Nations discuss:
(a) The UN flag
(b) Any four objectives of the UN outlined in the Preamble of the UN Charter
(c) The obligations of all nations that follow from these objectives
Answer:
(a)

The UN flag depicts two bent olive branches which are open at the top with a world map between them. The white olive branches and the world map are on a light blue background. The branches symbolize peace.
(b)
The objectives of the UN have been outlined in the Preamble of the UN charter. They are:

  1. To maintain international peace and security.
  2. To develop friendly relations among nations on the basis of equality.
  3. To achieve international cooperation in solving, economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.
  4. To promote human rights and fundamental freedom for the people of the world.
  5. To act as a common platform for harmonizing the activities of various nations for the attainment of the objectives of the UN.
  6. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, which has twice brought suffering to humans.

(c)
This implies that:

  1. All nations, big or small, are equal.
  2. They must all obey the Charter.
  3. All disputes must be settled peacefully.
  4. No force should be used.

Question 3.
With reference to the General Assembly and Security Council of the UN, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention any four functions of the General Assembly.
(b)Explain the veto power of the permanent members of the Security Council. What happens when the Security Council cannot take any action because of the veto?
(c) State three important functions of the Security Council.
Answer:
(a) Important functions of the General Assembly:

  1. To discuss international problems and make recommendations for their solution.
  2. To make recommendations for the peaceful settlement of disputes.
  3. To consider and approve the UN budget.
  4. To elect non-permanent members of the security council members of the economic and social council (ECOSOC) and the trusteeship council.
  5. To supervise the work of the other organs of the UN.including the use of armed forces’ during a crises (Uniting for Peace Resolution)
  6. To make recommendations for ‘collective measures.

(b) A negative vote by any one of the permanent members would lead to a cancellation of the resolution. This right to prevent action from being taken is known as the right to veto.When no action can be taken by the Security Council because of the     veto, the General Assembly  can deal  with the crisis. It can take whatever action may seem appropriate to restore and maintain world peace.

(c) Functions of the Security Council:

  1. To investigate international disputes and recommend ways of settling such disputes peacefully.
  2. To call on member states to apply economic sanctions against the aggressor.
  3. To take military action against the aggressor, if necessary.

Question 4.
With reference to the organs of the UN, discuss:

(a) Any three functions of the Economic and Social Coucil (ECOSOC)
(b) The composition and functions of the Internatinal Court of Justice
(c) Any four significant achievements of the UN
Answer:
(a) Functions of the ECOSOC:

  1. To promote economic growth and social progress
  2. To create a spirit of respect for human rights .
  3. To solve problems related to health, illiteracy, drugs, employment, status of women etc.
  4. To supervise the work of various specialized agencies such as World Health Organization (WHO), United Nations Educational Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO) United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF), International Labour Organization (ILO) Food and Agricultural organization (FAO), etc.

(b) The International Court of Justice (ICJ) consists of 15 judges from different countries, elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council. Each judge has a 9-year term. Two judges cannot be from the same country.
Functions of International Court of Justice:

  1.  To settle disputes brought to it by member nations.
  2. To give legal advice to the other organs of the UN, on request.

(c) Achievement of the UN

  1. Although it has not been able to prevent war, in many cases, it has taken effective action to restore peace, e.g., the Korean War, the Suez Canal crisis, the Gulf War, etc.
  2. Many countries like Indonesia, Algeria, Morocco, have achieved their independence with support from the UN.
  3. By imposing economic sanctions against the South African government, it played a significant role in challenging the aparthied policy and liberating the South African people from aparthied rule.
  4. It has worked consistently for the protection and preservation of human rights around the world.
  5. It has worked actively to end the nuclear arms race and encouraged the use of nuclear energy for peaceful purposes.
  6. It has achieved great success in the fields of labour, health, welfare of children and education by fighting poverty, ignorance, malnutrition, hunger and disease through its specialized agencies.

G picture Study:

This buliding is the headquarters of an international organization which was established in October 1945 to maintain international peace and security.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The United Nations 4

Question 1.
Name the organization.
Answer:
United Nation (UN)

Question 2.
Where are the headquarters of this organization located?
Answer:
New York City

Question 3.
Mention four important objectives of this organization.
Answer:
The objectives of the UN have been outlined in the Preamble of the UN charter. They are:

  1.  To maintain international peace and security.
  2. To develop friendly relations among nations on the basis of equality.
  3. To achieve international cooperation in solving, economic, social, cultural and humanitarian problems.
  4. To promote human rights and fundamental freedom for the people of the world.
  5. To act as a common platform for harmonizing’ the activities of various nations for the attainment of the objectives of the UN.
  6. To save succeeding generations from the scourge of war, which has twice brought suffering to humans.

Question 4.
Name three major organs of this organization.
Answer:
Organs of the UN:

  1. The General Assembly
  2. The Security Council
  3. The Economic and Social Council

OTHER IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘veto’?
Answer:
A negative vote by any one of the permanent members would lead to a cancellation of the Resolution. This right to prevent action being taken is known as the right to veto. This means that any resolution becomes ineffective even if one of the permanent members votes against it. This means that all decisions have to be taken with the consent of all the permanent members.

Question 2.
The Cold War has ended. What is the relevance of the UN in today’s world?
Answer:
There were deep rooted ideological, economic and political differences between the United States ans Soviet Union before the Second World War. These differences were intensified as a result of their mutual suspicions immediately after the Second World War. After 1953 , The Cold War was waning. There were two reasons which could explain the easing of the tension. The first reason was that since 1953, both the United States and Soviet Union possessed by hydrogen bombs. Both sides realized that the use of these destructive weapons in war would destroy each other. Thus they were determined to improve their relations in order to avoid direct military clash. The Second reason was that since 1954, the bonds between The ‘Super Power’ and their satellites began to slacken. As their satellites did not fully support their leaders, it made political sense for the two super power to improve their relations.

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Judiciary

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Judiciary

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. In India there is a single unified system of courts for the Indian Union and the states.
  2. The Supreme Court of India is located in New Delhi.
  3. To quality for the post of a judge in the Supreme Court, a person must either be an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years or a judge of a High Court for five years’ standing.
  4. The High Court controls and supervises the functioning of subordinate courts.
  5. The records of the High Court serve as references for lower courts in future cases.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Judiciary 1
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Judiciary 2

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. Disputes between the union government and the state government fall under the Original/Advisory/Appellate Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court
Ans. Disputes between the union government and the state government fall under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.

2. The District Court/Nyaya Panchayats/Supreme Court has the power of judicial review.
Ans. The Supreme Court has the power of judicial review.

3. The High Court is the highest court of justice in a village/ district/state.
Ans. The High Court is the highest court of justice in a state.

4. Judges of the High Court can serve till they are 60/62/65 years old.
Ans. Judges of the High Court can serve till they are 62 years old.

5. The Nyaya Panchayats/Lok Adalats/District Courts were set up to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services.
Ans. The Lok Adalats were set up to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court is appointed by the Prime Minister of India.
    False.
  2. No cases can be brought directly to the Supreme Court for the first time.
    False.
  3. A High Court is not a court of record.
    False.
  4. A Nyaya Panchayat can impose a fine of up to ? 10,000.
    False.
  5. The process of obtaining justice through law courts is a long-drawn-out and expensive process in our country.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
On what grounds can Supreme Court judges be removed from office?
Answer:
Supreme Court judges can only be removed on grounds of proven misbehaviour or incapacity, through impeachment.

Question 2.
Mention any two kinds of disputes that can be brought directly before the Supreme Court.
Answer:
Following cases can be directly brought before the Supreme Court:

  1. If there are disputes between the Union Government and a State Government or more than one State Government.
  2. Cases concerning the violation of the Constitution by the Government or an individual.

Question 3.
What is the Advisory Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court?
Answer:
The Supreme Court can advise the President, on request, on legal and constitutional issues. The President may or may not accept the advice.

Question 4.
Why are the records of the cases and judgement of the Supreme Court important?
Answer:
These records serve as references in future cases.

Question 5.
Who appoints the Chief Justice of the High Courts?
Answer:
The President appoints the Chief Justice of the High Court and the other judges in consultation with the Governor of the state and the Chief Justice of India.

Question 6.
What are writs ?
Answer:
A writ is a form of written command, or legal document giving order or direction to a person to act or not to act in a particular way. Some of the writs are the writs of Habeus Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto, etc.

Question 7.
What is a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat is a small law court at the village level which try petty civil and criminal cases such as trespassing, personal disputes, minor thefts etc.

Question 8.
Why have Lok Adalats been set up?
Answer:
In order to provide quicker and cheaper judicial services, Lok Adalats have been set up.

Question 9.
Why are Lok Adalats becoming popular?
Answer:
Lok Adalats are becoming popular because they provide affordable  and speedy justice.

Question 10.
What is the objective of the Legal Aid Scheme?
Answer:
The objective of the Legal Aid Scheme, is to provide free legal aid and legal services to the poorer and weaker sections of the society.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
The Supreme Court is the highest judicial body in the country. In this context, explain:
(a) Its original Jurisdiction
(b) Its Appellate Jurisdiction.
(c) Why it is called the guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
(a)
Original Jurisdiction: Certain cases are brought before the Supreme Court directly, for the first time. This happens in cases involving:

  1. Disputes between the union government and one or more state governments.
  2. Disputes between two or more states governments.
  3. Violation of the Constitution by the government or an individual.
  4. Violation of the Fundamental Rights of an individual.

(b)
Appellate Jurisdiction: The Supreme Court hears appeals against judgements of High Courts. The Supreme Court is the final court of appeal and has power to review and change decisions of the High Court.
(c)
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution. It safeguards the Constitution in two ways:

  1. It can cancel a law or an executive order if it is found to violate the Constitution.
  2. It can issue write (orders or directions) for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

Question 2.
With reference to the powers of the High Court, discuss its:
(a) Original Jurisdiction (b) Appellate Jurisdiction. (c) Review and Revisory Jurisdiction
Answer:
(a)
Original Jurisdiction:
A High Court can hear the cases brought for the first time or we can say original cases if they are concerned with disputes regarding Fundamental rights and election petitions.
(b)
Appellate Jurisdiction:
A High Court has Appellate Jurisdiction where it can hear appeals against judgements passed in Subordinate Courts. The High Court can review and change decisions taken in the Subordinate Courts.
(c)
The High Court can review and change decisions taken in the subordinate courts. It can also transfer a case from one court to another.
A High Court also controls and supervises the functioning of subordinate courts.

3. In the context of the judicial system in India, answer the following questions:
Question 3(a).
What are the main features of a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat try petty civil and criminal cases of the village level. They can impose fines upto 100 Rs. only and appeals can be made against decisions taken in the Nyaya Panchayat, to higher courts.

Question 3(b).
Why are Lok Adalats becoming popular in India?
Answer:
Lok Adalats are becoming popular because they provide affordable and speedy justice.

Question 3(c).
Mention the sections of society which receive free legal services under the Legal Aid Scheme.
Answer:
Sections of society who receive free legal services under the Legal Aid Scheme are:      ‘

  1. People belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other backward classes.
  2. People who are mentally ill or disabled.
  3. Women and children.

G Picture study:
This is a picture of the apex indian count.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Judiciary 3

1. Identify it
Ans. It is Supreme Court of India.

2. What is the composition of this court?
Ans. It has one Chief Justice and a number of other Judges. At Present, the number of Judges including the Chief Justice cannot exceed twenty-five.

3. Who appoints the judges?
Ans. The Judge of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President on the advice of the Council of Ministers and the Chief Justice of India.

4. Explain its role as the guardian of the Constitution.
Answer:
The Supreme Court is the guardian of the Constitution. It safeguards the Constitution in two ways:

  1.  It can cancel a law or an executive order if it is found to violate the Constitution.
  2.  It can issue write (orders or directions) for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Union Executive

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Union Executive

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The President can be removed from office by a procedure known as Impeachment.
  2. The President appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and the High Court.
  3. The President can call a joint session of the Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. The Cabinet is the inner core of the Council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold important portfolios.
  5. The Prime Minister is the link between the President, the people and the Parliament.

B. Name the following:

1. The current Prime Minister of India
Ans. Narendra Modi

2. The current Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha
Ans. Mohammad Hamid Ansari

3. The current Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces
Ans. Pranab Mukheijee

4. The current ministers in charge of (a) Defence (b) External Affairs (c) Finance (d) Health
Ans.
(a) Defence Minister – Manohar Parrikar
(b) External Affairs – Sushma Swaraj
(c) Finance Minister – Arun Jaitley
(d) Health Minister – Jagat Prakash Nadda

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The President/Prime Minister/Vice President is the nominal head of the government of India.
Ans. The President is the nominal head of the government of India.

2. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Indian Administrative Service/Defence Forces/Indian Foreign Service.
Ans. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces.

3. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Lok Sabha/ Rajya Sabha/Vidhan Sabha.
Ans. The Vice-President is the Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha.

4. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Vice President/Speaker/Prime Minister.
Ans. After the elections, the President appoints the leader of the majority party as the Prime Minister.

5. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister/President/Vice-President.
Ans. The Council of Ministers is the real executive but the administration is carried on in the name of the Prime Minister.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The President is elected for a term of 4 years.
     False.
    Correct: The President is elected for a term of 5 years.
  2. The President can pardon a death sentence.
    True.
  3. The President can declare war or conclude peace.
    True.
  4. The Prime Minister choose the Cabinet Ministers.
    True.
  5. Civil servants belong to the majority party in the Parliament.
    False.
    Correct: Civil servants belong to the minority party in the Parliament.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Who is the real executive head in a parliamentary form of government?
Answer:
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government.

Question 2.
Name the body that elects the President of India.
Answer:
An Electoral College elects the President.

Question 3.
Name any two officials appointed by the President?
Answer:
The President appoints the State Governors, the Comptroller Auditor General, the Attorney General and Chief Commissioners of the Union Territories.

Question 4.
What is an ordinance?
Answer:
Ordinances are executive orders which are issued when the Parliament is not in session.

Question 5.
What can the President do when the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion?
Answer:
If the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion, National Emergency is declared.

Question 6.
Whose advice is the President bound to follow in carrying out his/her functions?
Answer:
Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers advice the President in the exercise of his/her functions. He/she is bound to follow this advice.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Council of Ministers?
Answer:
The Prime Minister is the head of the Council of Ministers.

Question 8.
When two or more political parties form the government, what is it called?
Answer:
When two or more parties usually agree to work together and form the government. This is known as a Coalition Government.

Question 9.
What is meant by allotment of portfolios?
Answer:
The Prime Minister allots each minister in the Council a separate department or portfolio to handle. This is called allotment of portfolios. Hence, we have a Minister of Communication, Agriculture, Foreign Affairs, etc.

Question 10.
What happens when a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister?
Answer:
If a vote of no-confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
In the context of the President of India, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention the qualifications required for the post of the President.
(b) How is the President elected ?
(c) How can the services of the President be terminated ?
Answer:
(a) Qualifications for the post of the President are:

  1. They must be citizens of India.
  2. They must be at least 35 years of age.
  3. They must have all the qualifications necessary to be a  member of the Lok Sabha.
  4. They should not hold an office of profit under the Central,the State or the Local Government.

(b) The President is elected indirectly. An electoral college elects the President. The electoral college consists of the following members:

  1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
  2. The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.

(c) The President can be impeached by the Parliament. Impeachment is a procedure by which the Parliament can remove the President if he/she is found guilty of violating the Constitution, of treason or of corruption.

Question 2.
With reference to the powers of the President, discuss: (a) Any four executive powers (b) Military powers (c) Any four legislative powers
Answer:
(a)
Executive powers:
The President appoints the Prime Minister who is the leader of the Majority party or coalition parties or single largest party in the Lok Sabha.
The President appoints the Union Ministers on the advice of the Prime Minister.
(b)
Military powers:
The President is the Supreme Commander of the Defence Forces. He or she can declare war or conclude peace. All important treaties and contracts are made in the President’s name.
(c)
Legislative powers:

  1. The President can summon or prorogue the Parliament. He/she addresses the opening session of the Parliament every year. The President’s address is a statement of the government’s policy.
  2. The President can also dissolve the Lok Sabha and order fresh elections.
  3. He/she can call a joint session of both Houses of Parliament if there is a deadlock regarding a bill.
  4. Each bill passed by the Parliament has to receive the President’s assent in order to become a law. The President may send the bill back to the Parliament if he/she does not approve, but if it is passed a second time, he/she is obliged to sign it and give his/her assent.
  5. The President nominates 12 members to the Rajya Sabha and two Anglo-Indian members to the Lok Sabha.
  6. When the Parliament is not in session, the President can issue ordinances. Ordinances are like laws and are valid for only 6 weeks after the Parliament meets again.

Question 3.
The President is an integral part of the Parliament. In this context explain the following:
(a) The financial powers of the President
(b) The judicial powers of the President
(c) The emergency powers of the President.
Answer:
(a) The financial powers of the President:

  1.  The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.

(b) The judicial powers of the President:

  1. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  2. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

(c) The emergency powers of the President:

  1.  The President can declare Emergency if the security of the country is threatened by external aggression or armed rebellion.
  2. If the administrative machinery of a state breaks down, Presidential Rule is imposed in that state.
  3. If the financial stability of the country is threatened, a Financial Emergency can be declared by him.

Question 4.
With reference to the functions of the Parliament, explain the following:
(a) Law-making functions
(b) Control over the executive
(c) Judicial functions
Answer:
(a) Law making functions of the Parliament:

  1. The Parliament can frame new laws or modify existing ones on any subject in the Union or Concurrent List.
  2. In some cases the Parliament can also pass laws on subjects under the State List.
  3. Only the Parliament can initiate a Bill to amend the Constitution.

(b) Control over the Council of Ministers:

  1. The Parliament keeps a watch over the government. The Council of Ministers is directly responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for its policies and actions.
  2. The Council of Ministers has to resign immediately if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it by the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Members of Parliament can discuss government policies and question the ministers. Hence, they can exercise a check on the working of the government.
  4. The Parliament can move an adjournment motion to discuss and focus on any matter of public importance which requires immediate and urgent attention from the government, for instance, natural disasters such as earthquakes and unforeseen situations such as police firing or terrorist attacks, etc.

(c) Judicial functions of the Parliament :
The Parliament can impeach or remove the President, the Vice-President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts if any of them violate the Constitution or misuse their authority.

Question 5.
Discuss the powers and position of the Prime Minister with reference to his relationship with the following: (a) Parliament (b) the President (c) the Council of Ministers.
Answer:
(a)
The parliamentary system of government makes the Prime Minister the real head of the Indian government. It is the Prime Minister who actually exercises all the powers vested in the President. This is because of the following reasons:

  1. The Prime Minister is the elected head of the country.
  2. The Prime Minister is the leader of the majority party or the largest coalition in the Parliament.

(b)
The Prime Minister advises the President in the discharge of his/her functions and informs him/her about the decisions taken by the Cabinet. The advice of the Prime Minister is binding on the President.

(c)
The Council of Ministers:

  1. The Prime Minister selects the members of the Council of Ministers.
  2. He/she distributes portfolios among the ministers and presides over Cabinet meetings.
  3. He/she coordinates the working of the different departments and is the vital link between the President and the Cabinet.
  4. He/she can expand the Cabinet and also demand the resignation of any minister.

Question 6.
In the context of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers, explain the following:
(a) Appointment of the Prime Minister
(b) Formation of the Council of Ministers
(c) The Cabinet
Answer:
(a)
According to the constitution, The Prime Minister is appointed by the President of India. In actual practice, however, the choice of the President in the appointment of Prime Minister is limited. He appoints only that person as Prime Minister who is the leader of the party or coalition of parties having an absolute majority in House of the people.
In case no party has an absolute majority in house of the people, the president can appoint any person as Prime Minister who, is his opinion, is able to form a stable government.
The person to be appointed as Prime Minister must be member of either house of parliament.
(b)
The Prime Minister selects a number of ministers according to his/her preference and submits a list to the President. When the President approves and appoints the Ministers on the list, the Council of Ministers is formed.
The Council of Ministers has three ranks within if –

  1. Cabinet Ministers
  2. Ministers of State and
  3. Deputy Ministers.

All ministers of the Council have to be members of either House of Parliament. In case a non-member is selected, he/ she has to be elected to either House within 6 months from the date of appointment.
(c)
The Cabinet is the inner core of the council of Ministers. The Cabinet Ministers hold the most important portfolios and make die most important decision and policies. The Cabinet Ministers hold the highest ranks and have the greatest responsibility. They holds the real executive power of the Indian government and is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.

The Cabinet can remain in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of a majority in the Lok Sabha. If a vote of no­confidence is passed against any one Cabinet Minister, the whole Council of Ministers has to resign immediately. The entire Council has to answer for the short comings or failure on the part of any one minister.

G Picture study:

Until 1950, the building in the picture was known as ‘Viceroy’s House’, and served as die residence of the Governor General of India.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Union Executive

1. Identify the building. Whose official residence is it now?
Ans. Rashtrapati Bhavan, President of India.

2. How is he or she elected?
Ans. The President is elected indirectly by the elected members of the Legislature as he or she is a nominal (de jure) and not the de facto head. An Electoral college elects the President. The Electoral College elects the President. The Electoral College consists of the following members:

  1. The elected members of both Houses of Parliament.
  2.  The elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies

3. What is his/her term of office?
Ans. The President is elected for a period of 5 years. He or she can be re-elected after his or her term.

4. Mention two powers each held by this person with reference to the following:
(a) Financial power (b) Judicial Power
Answer:
(a) Financial power:

  1. The Budget is presented to the Parliament in the name of the President.
  2. All money bills are introduced in the Parliament with the President’s permission.

(b) Judicial Power:

  1. The President has the power to grant pardon, to remit, reduce or suspend the sentence of a person convicted of any offence. He can also pardon a death sentence.
  2. He/she is not answerable to any court of law for his/ her actions, except if he/she is impeached by the Parliament.

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Union Legislature

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Union Legislature

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The functions of the government are divided into three branches, namely, the Legislature, the Executive and the Judiciary.
  2. Subjects for legislation are divide into three lists-the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.
  3. The Union Parliament has two Houses-the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
  4. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent house. It cannot be dissolved.
  5. The Parliament is answerable to the legislature.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Union Legislature 1
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Union Legislature 2

 

Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Union Legislature 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The President carries out his/her functions on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Lok Sabha/the Council of Ministers/the Rajya Sabha.
Ans. The President carries out his/her functions on the advice of the Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers.

2. Both the central and the state governments can make laws on the subjects in the Union List/State List/Concurrent List.
Ans. Both the central and the state governments can make laws on the subjects in the Concurrent List.

3. The Lok Sabha/Rajya Sabha/Vidhan Sabha is also known as the Council of States.
Ans. The Rajya Sabha is also known as the Council of States.

4. The President can nominates 2/10/12 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.
Ans. The President can nominates 2 members from the Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha.

5. At present the Lok Sabha consists of 545/645/525
Ans. At present the Lok Sabha consists of 545 members.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The State List includes subjects of national importance.
    False.
  2. A member of the Lok Sabha should be at least 30 years of age.
    True.
  3. The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House and cannot be dissolved by the President
    True.
  4. The money bill has to be introduced in the Rajya Sabha.
    False.
  5. The Vice-President is the presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Who is the nominal executive head of the government of India?
Answer:
The President of India, is only a nominal executive head of the government of India

Question 2.
How do we know that the Parliament has supreme authority in the government?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha exercise control over the Council of Ministers which is responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its policies, decisions and actions. This makes the Parliament the supreme authority in the government because it has the final authority to accept or reject the decisions of the executive.

Question 3.
Which branch of government interprets and defines laws?
Answer:
Judiciary defines and interprets the laws of the land and tries to prevent any person from violating the laws of the Constitution.

Question 4.
What is the minimum age qualification of an Indian voter?
Answer:
All Indian citizens, 18 yeas of age or above, have the right to vote.

Question 5.
Who conducts the meetings of the Lok Sabha?
Answer:
The Speaker conducts the meetings of the Lok Sabha

Question 6.
How are the members of the Rajya Sabha elected?
Answer:
These members are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
Twelve members are nominated by the President from among persons who have distinguished themselves in the fields of art literature, science or social service.

Question 7.
What is meant by the term ‘budget’?
Answer:
The budget is an estimate of the annual income and expenditure of the government of India.

Question 8.
What happens when a vote of no-confidence is passed against the Council of Ministers ?
Answer:
Vote of no-confidence is a move in the Lok Sabha to express a lack of confidence in the Council of Minister. If such a motion is passed, then the Council of Ministers has to resign.

Question 9.
Explain the meaning of the term ‘quorum’.
Answer:
Quorum refers to the minimum number of members required to be present to conduct a meeting.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

In the context of the Parliamentary form of government, answer the following questions:
Question 1(a).
What arc the main features of a parliamentary form of government?
Answer:
Features of the parliamentary form of government:

  1. Under this system there is very close relationship between the executive and legislature.
  2. All the members of the executive are the elected members of the majority party in the legislature.
  3. After the general elections the elected representatives of the people of India form the Lok Sabha.
  4. Subsequently, the council of Ministers is formed out of the elected members of the Lok Sabha.

Question 1(b).
Name the three branches of government and state their respective functions.
Answer:
According to the Constitution, the powers and functions of the government are divided into three branches-the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.
The powers and functions are distributed among these branches in a manner that makes them equally balanced.
India is a parliamentary democracy. The Parliament, which is composed of the elected representatives of the Indian people, is vested with supreme power. The Parliament is the highest law making body and it makes laws for the entire country. Thus the Indian people enjoy supreme power through their representatives in the Parliament.
In a parliamentary form of government, there is a very close relationship between the legislature and the executive.
After the general elections, the elected representatives of the people form the Lok Sabha. The President appoints the leader of the majority party or the single largest party or group of parites within the Lok Sabha as the Prime Minister. Generally, the Prime Minister chooses his/her Council of Ministers from among the elected members of the Lok Sabha. He/she may also choose a Rajya Sabha members as a minister.
The Lok Sabha exercise control over the Council of Ministers which is responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for all its policies, decisions and actions. This makes the Parliament the supreme authority in the government because it has the final authority to accept or reject the decisions of the executive.

Question 1(c).
Why are powers distributed between the central and the  state governments?
Answer:
As India is a vast country, it is not possible for one central government to take care of the specific needs of people living  in different parts of the country. Therefore, the country has been divided into different units, which are called states. Each state has a state government and the processes of the government are shared by the central government and the state governments.

The parliamentary form of government is also present in the states. The pattern is the same-the state executive is formed out of the state legislature, whose members are directly elected by the people.

Question 2.
Give an account of the Lok Sabha with reference to:
(a) Its composition
(b) Basic qualifications of its members
(c) Its term
Answer:
(a) Composition:

  1. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha can be 552 members.
  2. A maximum of 530 members can be elected directly by the people of India from different territorial constituencies.
  3. A maximum of 20 members can be elected from the union territories.
  4. The President can nominate two members from the Anglo-Indian community.
    At present, the Lok Sabha consists of 545 members.

(b) Basic qualifications of its members:

  1. Should be a citizen of India.
  2. Should be at least twenty-five years of age.
  3. Should not be holding an office of profit under the government.
  4. Its term: The Lok Sabha is elected for a 5-year term. However, the President may dissolve it before the expiry of its term if the party in power loses the support of file majority. Its life can be extended for 1 year at a time in case of a national emergency.

Question 3.
Give an account of the Rajya Sabha with reference to:
(a) Its composition
(b) Basic qualifications of its members
(c) Its term
Answer:
(a) Its composition:

  1. The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha can be 250 members.
  2. 238 members’represent the states and the union territories. Seats are allotted to each state according to its population. These members are elected indirectly by the elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies.
  3. Twelve members are nominated by the President from among persons who have distinguished themselves in the fields of art, literature, science or social service.

(b) Basic qualification of the Members of the Rajya Sabha:

  1. Should be citizens of India
  2. Should be at least 30 years of age
  3. Should be registered voters

(c) Its term: The Rajya Sabha is a permanent House. It cannot be dissolved by the President/Each member is elected for a period of 6 years. One third of its members retire every 2 years. Members can be re-elected.

Question 4.
With reference to the functions of the Parliament, explain the following:
(a) Law-making functions
(b) Control over the executive
(c) Judicial functions
Answer:
(a) Law making functions of the Parliament:

  1. The Parliament can frame new laws or modify existing ones on any subject in the Union or Concurrent List.
  2. In some cases the Parliament can also pass laws on subjects under the State List.
  3. Only the Parliament can initiate a Bill to amend the Constitution.

(b) Control over the Council of Ministers:

  1. The Parliament keeps a watch over the government. The Council of Ministers is directly responsible and answerable to the Lok Sabha for its policies and actions.
  2. The Council of Ministers has to resign immediately if a vote of no-confidence is passed against it by the Lok Sabha.
  3. The Members of Parliament can discuss government policies and question the ministers. Hence, they can exercise a check on the working of the government.
  4. The Parliament can move an adjournment motion to discuss and focus on any matter of public importance which requires immediate and urgent attention from the government, for instance, natural disasters such as earthquakes and unforeseen situations such as police firing or terrorist attacks, etc.

(c) Judicial Functions of the Parliament:
The Parliament can impeach or remove the President, the Vice-President and judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts if any of them violate the Constitution or misuse their authority.

G Picture study:
This is the picture(given on Next Page) of an important government building in India.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Union Legislature 4

Question 1.
Identify the building.
Answer:
House of the People (Parliament House).

Question 2.
Which branch of the government functions in this building?
Answer:
Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
Who are the members of this branch of the government?
Answer:
Elected representatives of the people of India are the members of this branch. The lower house of the Parliament is the Lok Sabha. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha can be 552 members.

  • A maximum of 530 members can be elected directly by the people of India from different territorial constituencies.
  • Not more than 20 members can be elected from the union territories.
  • The President can nominate two members from the Anglo- Indian Community.
    At present, Lok Sabha consists of 545 members.

Question 4.
What are the basic qualifications of the members?
Answer:
A member of the Lok Sabha:

  • Should be a citizen of India
  • Should be at least 25 years of age.
  • Should be a registered voter

Question 5.
What is their primary function? Mention any two other important functions.
Answer:
The Primary Functions of Parliament house are:

  1. The Parliament can frame new laws or modify existing ones on any subjects in the Union or Concurrent List.
  2. No money can be raised or spent without the approval of the Lok Sabha.
  3. In some cases, the parliament can also pass laws on subjects under the State List.
  4. Only the Parliament can initiate a Bill to amend the Constituion.
    The other two important functions are:
    (a) Judicial Function
    (b) Elective Functions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1935-47)

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1935-47)

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The menacing presence of the Japanese army on the eastern borders of India posed a serious threat to India’s security.
  2. When the Quit India Resolution was passed in the year 1942, Gandhiji gave the Indians the mantra Do or Die.
  3. The Quit India Movement had shaken the very foundations of the British rule in India.
  4. In Tokyo, Subhash Chandra Bose took over the leadership of the Indian Independence Movement in East Asia from Rash Behari Bose.
  5. In February 1947, the British government declared that power would be transferred to the Indians by June 1948.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1935-47) 1
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1935-47) 2
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1935-47) 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The Cripps Mission was sent to India in 1942, when the British empire was under the threat of a Japanese/German/ Russian
Ans. The Cripps Mission was sent to India in 1942, when the British empire was under the threat of a Japanese attack.

2. The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress in 1929/1930/1942.
Ans. The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress in 1942.

3. Subhash Chandra Bose/Mahatma Gandhi/Rash Behari Bose was the supreme commander of the Indian National Army.
Ans. Subhash Chandra Bose was the supreme commander of the Indian National Army.

4. Mahatma Gandhi/Subhash Chandra Bose/Jawahar Lai Nehru gave the slogan, ‘You give me blood, I will give you freedom’.
Ans. Subhash Chandra Bose gave the slogan, ‘You give me blood, I will give you freedom’.

5. The Constitution of India was introduced on 26 January 1950/26 January 1948/26 January 1949.
Ans. The Constitution of India was introduced on 26 January 1950.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Muslim League.
    False
    Correct: The Quit India Resolution was passed by the Congress.
  2. The upsurge of 1942 was the last great mass challenge to British authority.
    True.
  3. Subhash Chandra Bose formed a new party called the Forward Bloc.
    True.
  4. The INA, with the help of the Japanese, liberated Imphal and Kohima in 1944.
    True.
  5. Indian Independence from British rule was finally attained on 15 August 1950.
    False.
    Correct: Indian Independence from British rule was finally attained on 15 August 1947.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Why was the Cripps Mission sent to India ?
Answer:
Japan joined the Second World War against British in 1942. The British desperately needed the active cooperation of the Indians to check the Japanese advance against the British empire in India. So it sent the Cripps Mission to India to resolve the political deadlock.

Question 2.
Why did the Cripps Mission fail?
Answer:
Cripps Mission failed because the British were not prepared to transfer any effective power to the Indians during the war.

Question 3.
What did the British realize after the Quit India Movement?
Answer:
The impact of this brief, spontaneous and powerful outburst of national sentiment was tremendous. It sounded the death knell of British rule in India. The British realized their days were numbered. Independence was now a matter of time. It demonstrated the great capacity of the masses to suffer and die for the cause of freedom.

Question 4.
What was the main objective of the Indian National Army?
Answer:
The primary objective of the INA was to liberate India through armed struggle.

Question 5.
When did India become:
(a) an independent dominion (b) a sovereign, democratic, republic?
Answer:
(a)
British rule in India finally came to an end of 15 August 1947.
(b)
The Constitution of India was enacted and adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26 November 1949. It was introduced on 26 January 1950-another important landmark in the history of India. On that day, the Indian dominion was transformed into a sovereign, democratic republic.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
With reference to the Quit India Movement, answer the following:
(a) Why did the Congress pass the Quit India Resolution.How did the government react to it?
(b) Briefly discuss the events of the Quit India Movement.
(c) What was the impact of the Quit India Movement on the national movement?
Answer:
(a)
The Congress passed the Quit India Resolution on 9 August, before dawn, Gandhiji and all other important nationalist leaders were arrested. The Congress was banned. The news of these arrests, even before the movement began, shocked the nation. A spontaneous, nationwide movement of protests arose; there were demonstrations, hartals and processions. Leaderless and without any guidelines, the Quit India Movement took different shapes in different parts of the country.
The government came down heavily on the people. They were lathi-charged and fired upon. The brutality of the police enraged the people. They reacted violently. Police stations, post offices, and other government buildings were destroyed. Railway, telegraph and telephone lines were disconnected. The army was called in to crush the revolt.Over 10,000 people were killed in police and military firing. The movement was savagely crushed within a very short period of time.
(b)
Among the significant causes of this movement were codlin oppression examplified by the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre, economic hardship to the common man due to large chunk of Indian wealth being exported to Britain, ruin, of Indian Artisans due to British factory made goods replacing hand made goods, and popular resentment with the British over Indian soldiers dying in World War I
while fighting as part of British army, in battles that otherwise had nothing to do with India. The movement aimed to ensure that the colonial economic and power structure would be seriously challenged and British authorities would be forced to take notice of the people demand.
(c)
The impact of this brief, spontaneous and powerful outburst of national sentiment was tremendous. It sounded the death knell of British rule in India. The British realized their days were numbered. Independence was now a matter of time. It demonstrated the great capacity of the masses to suffer and die for the cause of freedom.

Question 2.
With reference to Indian national movement, answer the following:
(a) What were the objectives of the Forward Bloc ?
(b) Examine the role of Subhash Chandra Bose in the Indian freedom struggle.
(c) Why do Indian still respect and revere Netaji?
Answer:
(a)
Objectives of the Forward Bloc

  1. To win freedom from the British without any further delay.
  2. To rebuild India, after Independence, on the principles of socialism e. economic equality, freedom and justice, equitable distribution of wealth etc.
  3. To promote world peace.

(b)
Subhash Chandra Bose believed that the only way India could get her freedom was to drive the British out of India by use of armed force. Subhash Chandra Bose had resigned from the Congress in 1939 and formed a new party called the Forward Bloc. He decided to go abroad to join hands with the enemies of the British and drive the British out of India. He was put under house arrest in Calcutta, but he managed to escape in 1941. He first went to Russia and then to Germany and finally to Japan. In Tokyo, he took over the leadership of the Indian Independence Movement in East Asia from Rash Behari Bose. Captain Mohan Singh (a formar captain in the British Indian army) had organized the Azad Hind Fauz of the Indian National Army (INA).

Subhash Chandra Bose became the supreme commander of the INA. In 1944 at a meeting in he took an oath to liberate India. ‘Give me blood and I will give you freedom,’ he declared. Netaji infused a new life and spirit into the INA. He fired the imagination of his soldiers with passionate, inspiring speeches, They were ready to lay down their lives for the liberation of their motherland. With the battle cry of ‘Dilli Chalo’ the INA advanced into India along with the Japanese army.
(c)
Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose lives on in the memories of successive generations of Indians. He was a true patriot who dedicated his life to the cause he passionately believed in-India’s freedom. He fired the imagination of a nation with his intense patriotism, personal courage, unwavering conviciton and bold leadership. He restored to India her pride and is greatly admired and revered throughout the country even to this day.

Question 3.
With reference to Indian independence, answer the following questions:

  1. What was the importance of the Mountbatten Plan
  2. What was the significance of the Indian Independence Act, 1947
  3. What is the significance of 26 January 1950 ?

Answer:
(a)
Mountbatten announced his plan for the division of British India into India and Pakistan and the transfer of power to the two dominions. The North-West Frontier Province, Sind, baluchistan, West Punjab and East Bengal separated from the rest of India to form a new country called Pakistan.
(b)
On the basis of the Mountbatten Plan, the British Parliament passed the Indian Independence Act in July 1947. British rule in India finally came to an end of 15 August 1947.
(c)
Constitution of India was introduced on 26 January 1950. It was another important landmark in the history of India. On that day, the Indian dominion was transformed into a sovereign, democratic republic. With confidence in their  capacity and a determination to succeed, the people of India set out to build the country of their dreams—a country based on liberty, equality, justice and fraternity.

G Picture study.
This is the picture of a leader who formed a new party called the Forward Bloc in 1939.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1935-47) 4

1. Identify the leader in the picture.
Ans. Subhash Chandra Bose

2. What was the name of the army of which he was the supreme commander.
Ans. INA (Indian National Army)

3. What was his slogan for the liberation of India?
Ans. DilliChalo

4. Write a few lines on the leadership qualities of this person.
Ans. Subhash Chandra Bose was bom on 23 January 1897, popularly known as Netaji (literally respected leader), was one of the most prominent leader in the Indian Independence Movement and a legendary figure in India today. Bose was elected president of Indian National Congress for two successive terms but has to resign from the post following ideological conflicts with Mohandas K. Gandhi. He established a separate political party, the All India Forward Bloc and continued to call for the full and immediate independence of India from British rule. He was imprisoned by the British authorities eleven times. His famous  motto was “Give me Blood and I will give you Freedom”. He is presumed to have died on 18 August, 1945 in a plane crash in Taiwan. However, contradictory evidence is believed to be extent regarding his death in the accident.

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1917-1934)

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1917-1934)

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Gandhi spent about 22 years in South Africa as a practicing lawyer.
  2. Under Gandhiji leadership, the Indian national movement was transformed into a mass movement.
  3. To protest against the arrest of their leaders, a public meeting was held at Jallianwala Bagh in Amritsar in the year 1919.
  4. After the British brutalities in Amritsar, Gandhiji declared that it would be a sin to co-operate with the satanic government.
  5. At the Lahore session of the Congress in 1929, Poorna Swaraj. was declared as its goal.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1917-1934) 1
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1917-1934) 2
Answer:

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1917-1934) 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. Gandhiji studied law in England/South Africa/France.
Ans. Gandhiji studied law in England.

2. Gandhiji organized a workers strike against the exploitative Indian mill owners in Ahmedabad/Kheda/Champaran.
Ans. Gandhiji organized a workers strike against the exploitative Indian mill owners in Ahmedabad.

3. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Gandhiji in 1920/1930/1940.
Ans. The Non-Cooperation Movement was launched by Gandhiji in 1920.

4. A resolution declaring ‘Poorns Swaraj was declared as its goal at the Lahore/Surat/Bombay session of the Congress.
Ans. A resolution declaring ‘Pooms Swaraj was declared as its goal at the Lahore session of the Congress.

5. The Non-Copperation Movement/Civil Disobedience Movement/ Quit India Movement was started with the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.
Ans. The Civil Disobedience Movement was started with the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Gandhiji did not have faith in the capacity of the common masses.
    False. Gandhiji have immense faith in the capacity of the common masses.
  2. In 1919, General Dyer had issued an order banning all public meetings.
    True.
  3. The Non-Cooperation Movement had ended in failure after the Chauri Chaura incident
    True.
  4. Independence Day was celebrated on 26 January in 1930.
    True.
  5. Sarojini Naidu was one of the leaders of the Civil disobedience Movement.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What technique of resistance did Gandhji evolve in South Africa? What was its basic principle ?
Answer:
Gandhiji became the leader of a struggle against racial injustice in South Africa. During the struggle, he evolved a technique known as satyagraha which was later applied to the Indian National Movement.

Question 2.
Why did Gandhiji lead campaigns in
(a) Champaran
(b) Kheda ?
Answer:
(a)
Champaran — Gandhiji championed the cause of the tenant farmers of Champaran district against the oppression of the British indigo planters. The movement was a success and the peasants received compensation.
(b)
Kheda — Gandhiji advised and convinced the cultivators of Kheda district to stop paying land revenue to the government because the crops had failed. The peasant’s demand for remission of land tax was accepted by the government.

Question 3.
Which incident marked the end of the Non-Cooperation Movement and when?
Answer:
The Chauri Chaura incident in 1922 marked an end of the Non-­Cooperation Movement.

Question 4.
Under whose leadership was the Lahore session of the Congress held in 1929? What resolution was passed in this session?
Answer:
In December 1929, the Indian National Congress met in Lahore under the youthfiil and dynamic leadership of Jawaharlal Nehru.
The Congress passed a resolution declaring ‘Pooma Swaraj’ or ‘Complete Independence’ as its goal. 26 January 1930 was fixed as ‘Independence Day’.

Question 5.
What do you understand by the Civil Disobedience Movement?
Answer:
Civil Disobedience Movement was a form of non-cooperation involving the breaking of government laws. Its objective was to defy the british government and pressurize it to give in to the demands of the nationalists.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
With reference to Gandhiji, discuss his views on the following issues:

  1. Truth and non-violence
  2. Hindu-Muslim unity
  3. Social justice

Answer:
(a)
Satyagraha is a combination of two Sanskrit words-satya (truth) and agraha (eagerness). Satyagraha is based on the twin principles of truth and non-violence.
A satyagrahi was one who firmly believed in truth and non­violence and who would resist evil at all costs. A satyagrahi was peaceful, fearless and strong. He/She would have evil but not the ‘evil doer’. In the fight for justice and truth, the satyagrahi would willingly accept suffering and be ready to make sacrifices.
The suffering and patience of the satyagrahi was expected to bring about a change of heart in the enemy. The idea behind satyagraha was not to destroy the enemy but the transform and enlighten him.
Gandhiji insisted on non-violent methods of struggle. He believed that non-violence was the weapon of the strong and could be effectively used to resist armed attacks by the enemy. A satyagrahi was expected to follow peaceful methods even under extreme provocation.
(b)
Gandhiji was a devout Hindu and a passionate believer in the equality of all religions. He was convinced that the path to India’s salvation lay in Hindu-Muslim unity. Gandhiji lived and died for the cause of Hindu-Muslim unity.
(c)
Gandhiji was a great believer in social justice. He championed the cause of the poof and the downtrodden, the emancipation of women and improvement of the conditions of the lower caste ‘untouchables’ whom he called ‘Harijans’, i.e., children of God. He worked tirelessly to remove prejudices and change the mindest of the people. He believed that political freedom was meaningless without social reforms.

Question 2.
In the context of the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy, answer the following:
(a) Why was a public meeting held in Jallianwala Bagh on 13 April 1919?
(b) Why did the troops open fire on the gathering? What happened as a result of the shooting?
(c) How did the entire nation and Gandhiji react to the events in Amritsar?
Answer:
(a)
The British government adopted the policy of repression to crush the anti-British movement against the repressive Rowlatt Act passed by the government in 1919. In some places, particularly in Punjab, the hartals led to violence.Two popular nationalist leaders were arrested in Amritsar.To protest against the arrest of their leaders, a public meeting was held on 13 April 1919 in an enclosed space known as Jallianwala Bagh. General Dyer surrounded the Bagh with his troops, blocked the only exit and ordered the troops to open fire on the peaceful gathering in the Bagh.
(b)
The people were unarmed and peaceful. Unfortunately, they were not aware of the fact that the military commander of Amritsar, General Dyer, had issued an order banning all public meetings.General Dyer surrounded the Bagh with his troops, blocked the only exit and ordered the troops to open fire on the peaceful gathering in the Bagh.The shooting continued till there was no ammunition left.Nearly 400 people were killed and over 1,000 were injured.
(c)
Martial law was proclaimed in Punjab. During this period, people were humiliated and tortured. The brutality of the Jallianwala Bagh massacre and the humiliation and inhuman treatment of the Indians that followed shocked the entire nation. Gandhiji was horrified. He lost all faith in the goodness of the British government and declared that it  would be a ‘sin’ to cooperate with the ‘Satanic’ government.

Question 3.
In the context of the Non-Cooperation Movement, answer the following questions: 

(a) Discuss the programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
(b) Why did Gandhiji abruptly suspend the Non-Cooperation Movement?
(c) State the significance of the Non-Cooperation Movement.
Answer:
(a) Programme of the Non-Cooperation Movement:

  1. Boycott of foreign goods.
  2. Boycott of government schools, colleges, law courts, legislatures and all British institutions.
  3. Boycott of elections and government functions.
  4. Renunciation of titles and honours awarded by the British.

(b)
Early in 1922, a procession of peasants were fired upon by the police at Chauri-Chaura a village in U.P. The people reacted violently and burnt down the Chauri-Chaura police station. Twenty-two policemen were killed. Gandhiji immediately called off the movement.
(c)
The Non-cooperation Movement was a significant phase of the Indian struggle for freedom from British Rule. This movement which lasted from 1920 to 1922 was led by Mohandas Gandhi and supported by the Indian National Congress. It aimed to resist British occupation of India through non-violent means. Protestors would refuse to buy British goods, adopt the use of local handicrafts and try to uphold the values of Indian honour and integrity. The Gandhian ideals of ahimsa or non-violence, and his ability to rally hundreds of thousands of common citizens toward the cause of Indian Independence, were first seen on a large scale in this movement.

Question 4.
In the context of the Civil Disobedience Movement, answer the following:
(a) Give an account of the Salt Satyagraha.
(b) How did the government react to the movement?
(c) What impact did the Civil Disobedience Movement (1930-34) have on the nation?
Answer:
(a)
The Salt Satyagraha began with the historic Dandi March.Gandhiji set out from Sabarmati Ashram with 78 followers, on a 385-km journey to the coastal village of Dandi. Thousands of people joined him on the way. On his arrival in Dandi, he picked up a handful of salt from the beach. This act symbolized defiance of the salt law. It was a signal for every Indian to violate the salt law. Throughout India, people began to manufacture salt and sell if openly.
(b)
The goverment suppressed the movement with force and brutality, Gandhiji, Nehru and all other important leaders were arrested. Hundreds of people were injured or killed in lathi charges and police firing. Over 90,000 people were imprisoned.
(c)
Civil Disobedience is the active, professed refusal to obey certain laws, demands and commands of a government, or of an occupying international power. Civil Disobedience is usually but not always, defined as being non-violent resistance. Civil Disobedience is one of the many ways people have rebelled against what they deem to be unfair laws. It has been used in many well-documented non­violent resistance movement in India.

G Picture study:
This is the picture of an Indian leader who was known as the ‘Father of the Nation’,
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1917-1934) 4

Question 1.
Identify the person.
Answer:
Mahatma Gandhi

Question 2.
What method did he use in the Indian struggle for freedom?
Answer:
Gandhiji used ‘Satyagraha in the Indian struggle for freedom.Satyagraha is based on the twin principal of truth and non ­violence.

Question 3.
What are the principles on which his method is based?
Answer:
Gandhiji Method of Struggle ‘Satyagraha’ is a combination of two Sanskrit words: satya (truth) and agraha (eagerness). It is based on the twin principles of truth and non-violence. The suffering and patience of the satyagrahi was expected to bring about a change of heart in the enemy. The idea behind satyagraha was not to destroy the enemy but to transform and enlighten him.

Question 4.
Why is he called the leader of the masses?
Answer:
Gandhiji had immense faith in the capacity of the common people to struggle against oppression. Under his leadership, the Indian national movement was transformed into a mass movement.

Question 5.
Mention the features of his non-violent struggle against the British.
Answer:

  1.  Peaceful demonstration
  2.  Defiance of unjust British laws
  3. Boycott of British goods, institutions and services.
  4. The use of the charkha and khadi to promote self-reliance and the swadeshi spirit.
  5. Non-payment of the oppressive taxes. The idea was to bring the government to a standstill.

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1885-1916)

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – The Indian National Movement (1885-1916)

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The early nationalists spread political awareness among the people.
  2. The assertive nationalists believed that British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse.
  3. After the partition of Bengal, the assertive nationalists adopted the methods of boycott, swadeshi and national education to achieve the goal of swaraj.
  4. Separate electorates meant that the Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives.
  5. The early nationalist leaders expelled the assertive nationalists from the Congress at the Surat session in 1907.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1885-1916) 1
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1885-1916) 2
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1885-1916) 3

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three/four/five
Ans. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three phases.

2. Bal Gangadhar Tdak/Dadabhai Naoroji/Surendranath Banerjea was an important assertive nationalist leader.
Ans. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an important assertive nationalist leader.

3. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal/Punjab/Gujarat on communal lines.
Ans. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal on communal lines.

4. The Muslim League was established in 1905/1906/1913.
Ans. The Muslim League was established in 1906.

5. Two Home Rule Leagues were formed in 1916/1914/1918.
Ans. Two Home Rule Leagues were formed in 1916.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The early nationalists believed in the justice and fair play of the British.
    True.
  2. The early nationalists presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
    False.
    Correct: The early nationalists presented their grievances  to the British in the form of meetings, lectures and the press.
  3. The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were the same as those of the early nationalists.
    False.
    Correct: The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were different as those of the early nationalists.
  4. The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists.
    True.
  5. Tilak knew that the British would concede to the demand of swaraj easily without any struggle.
    False.
  6. Correct: Tilak knew that the British would never concede to the demand of Swaraj easily without any struggle.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Mention two leaders of the early nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the early nationalist phase were Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjea and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Question 2.
Mention two leaders of the assertive nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the assertive nationalist phase were Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai and Aurobindo Ghosh.

Question 3.
Why were the assertive nationalists disillusioned with the leadership of the early nationalists?
Answer:
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. They knew that the British would never concede to the demand for swaraj without a struggle. So they have to adopt a method of active opposition to government Swaraj would have to be achieved through a political, anti-government agitation and with the involvement and support of the masses. The Congress would have to be transformed from a platform for debates among the westernized, Indian intelligentsia into a regiment of freedom fighters-united, determined, confident and willing to make sacrifices.

Question 4.
When and why was Bengal partitioned?
Answer:
The British partitioned Bengal in 1905 in pursuance of their policy of divide and rule.

Question 5.
Where and under whose leadership was the Muslim League established?
Answer:
The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

Question 6.
Mention two objectives of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Objectives of Muslim league:

  1. To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.
  2. To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims.
  3. To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

Question 7.
Why was the introduction of separate electorates a death blow to national unity?
Answer:
Separate electorates refers to the voting population of the country, divided into different electorates based on the factors like religion, caste, occupation etc. For example, it meant that Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives. The introduction of separate electorates sounded the death knell of national unity. It was the first definite step on the road to the partition of India.

Question 8.
Why did the Indian nationalists support the war effort of the British when the First World War broke out ?
Answer:
Initially, there was an outburst of loyalty and the Indian nationalist leaders supported the British government with men and money. More than a million Indian soldiers were sent overseas to join the British army and a hundred million pounds were given to the British government.
The British and their allies declared that they were fighting the war to make the world ‘safe for democracy’ and to promote the right of all nations to form self-governments. This led the Indian nationalists to believe that a grateful Britain would reward India’s loyalty and fulfill  its demands for self-government.

Question 9.
What was the main aim of the Home Rule Leagues ?
Answer:
The main aim of the Leagues was to achieve self-government within the British empire after the war.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
With reference to the early nationalists, discuss the following:
(a) Beliefs of the early nationalists
(b) Methods of the early nationalists
(c) Important contributions made by the early nationalists to the national movement?
Answer:
(a)
The early nationalists believed that British rule had conferred several benefits on India. They felt that at that stage of history it was in their own interests to remain under the British since they were not yet ready to govern themselves. The early nationalists were convinced that the British could be persuaded to introduce necessary reforms and the government could be transformed to suit the interests of the Indian subjects.
(b)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British.. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give into their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings, lectures and the press. They also sent delegations to England to persuade the British government to introduce necessary reforms.
(c)
Contribution of the early nationalists:

  1.  The early nationalists established a solid foundation which served as a base for a more radical approach in later years.
  2. They spread political awareness among the people and instilled in them a sense of national unity. The people began to think of themselves as a members of one single nation the Indian nation. The path for a united national struggle was laid.
  3. The Congress under the early nationalists trained the Indians in political affairs. They educated them in political matters and familiarized them with ideas of – freedom, government, democracy, secularism nationalism, etc. This knowledge and training in political affairs helped Indian nationalists to organize and raise the national movement to the next stage of development.

Question 2.
With reference to the rise of the assertive nationalists within the congress, discuss:
(a) The beliefs of the assertive nationalists
(b) The objectives of the assertive nationalists
(c) How the methods of the assertive nationalists differed from those of the early nationalists?
Answer:
(a)
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the British sense of justice and fair play. They believed that the British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse. They were convinced that the British had no honest intentions of introducing reforms for the welfare of the Indians. They realized that the British interests were different and clashed with the Indian interests. India could never grow and progress under British rule.
(b)
The goal of the assertive nationalists was not self­ government in ‘gradual’ stages but immediate freedom (Swaraj) from British rule.
(c)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to  pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give in to their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings,  lectures and the press. But the assertive nationalists on the other hand, had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. Twenty years of prayers, petitions, appeals and resolutions and representations hadfailed to yield any concrete results,

Question 3.
With reference to the Lucknow Session of the Congress of 1916, answer the following questions:

Question 3(a).
What was the Lucknow Pact ?
Answer:
The Lucknow Pact was an agreement signed by the Muslim League and the Congress to pave the way for a joint scheme of political reforms in India.

Question 3(b).
What was the objective of the Lucknow Pact ?
Answer:
Under the Lucknow Pact, the League jointly with the Congress put forward the demand for a Dominion Status for India. This was an important step towards Hindu-Muslim unity.

Question 3(c).
What were the results of Lucknow Pact ?
Answer:
The unity between the Muslim League and the Congress, on the one hand and the early nationalists and the assertive nationalists, on the other, aroused great political enthusiasm and strengthened the national movement.

G Picture study:
This is the picture of a national leader
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - The Indian National Movement (1885-1916) 4

1.Identify the person in the picture.
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

2. Which political organization did he join and when ?
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the Muslim League in 1913.

3. When and by whom was this organization founded ?
Ans. The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

4. What were the objectives of this organization ?
Answer:
The main objectives of the Muslim League were as follows:

  1. To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.
  2. To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims
  3. To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

 

 

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Rise of Indian Nationalism

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions – Rise of Indian Nationalism

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Answers

Trail HistoryCivics Focus on HistoryCivics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES         

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1.  Modem Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenge of Foreign domination.
  2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became subtle and systematic.
  3. The Kukas Rebellion was an armed rebellion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.
  4. The English language acted as a link language among the educated Indians.
  5. A.O. Hume laid the foundation of the Indian National Congress in December 1885.

B. Match the following:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Rise of Indian Nationalism 1
Answer:
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Rise of Indian Nationalism 2

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. ‘Vande Mata ram’ was written by Swami Vivekananda/Raja Ram Mohan Roy/Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.
Ans. ‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.

2. Lord Ripon/Lord Lytton/Lord Dalhousie approved the Ilbert Bill.
Ans. Lord Ripon approved the Ilbert Bill.

3. The Indian National Congress was established in 1883/1885/ 1890.
Ans. The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.

4. The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 62/72/82
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 72 delegates.

5. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by C. Bannerjee/Surendranath Banerjea/A.O. Hume.
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by W.C. Bannerjee.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Revolt of 1857 had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
     True.
  2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians together.
     False.
    Correct: Western education and modem ideas bring the Indians together.
  3. Racial arrogance and racial discrimination by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
    True.
  4. The Ilbert Bill had to be amended as the European reacted violently to it.
     True.
  5. A.O. Hume was not supported by nationalist Indian leaders.
    False.
    Correct: A. O. Hume was supported by nationalist Indian leaders.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Define nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism may be defined as a devotion and loyalty to one’s own nation, patriotism. It is also the policy or doctrine of asserting the interest of one’s own nation viewed as separate from the interests of others nations or common interest of all nation.

Question 2.
Name any two Western scholars who researched the Indian past and rediscovered its rich heritage.
Answer:
European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Prinsep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage.

Question 3.
How did the British economic policies in India transform India into an agricultural colony.
Answer:
British economic policies in India had deliberately transformed India into an agricultural colony. India had become a supplier of British raw materials and a market for British manufactured products.

Question 4.
Why was the Ilbert Bill introduced and by whom?
Answer:
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which proposed that Indian judges be allowed to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes.

Question 5.
When and where was the first session of the Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay (now  Mumbai) in December 1885.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
There were many factors that led to the rise of nationalism 
in India. In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
(b) What changes did Western education bring about in the traditional Indian outlook?
(c) The English language acted as a link language among the Indians. Explain.
Answer:
(a)
Exploitation after Revolt of 1857, was subtle and systematic. The impact of exploitation was felt by almost all sections of Indian society, but it took several decades to comprehend the true nature of British rule and establish the link between British polices and India’s growing poverty. Several armed revolts took place after 1857. The Kuka rebellion was one such revolt. It was a protest against the deliberate policy of the British to create a rift between the Hindus and the Muslims.
(b)
The British had introduced Western Education in India to create a class of loyal clerks and Anglicized buyers of British goods. Western education did that and much more. It opened the floodgates of modem knowledge and rational thinking. New ideas of humanism, nationalism and democracy transformed the traditional outlook of the people. A new class arose-English-educated Indians-small in number but who in course of time, would produce, leaders and organizers of a national movement.
(c)
The English language acted as a link language between the educated Indians and various parts of the country. Thus, it played a very significant role in fostering feelings of unity among educated Indians from different provinces and linguistic regions of the country. The barriers of language now broke down as the English language became the common medium of communication. Educated middle class Indians who spoke different language could now express their views and exchange ideas among themselves in English. A common language fostered a sense of oneness and understanding of their Indian identity.

Question 2.
In the context of the causes of the rise of Indian nationalism, answer the following questions:
(a) How did the British administrative system indirectly create conditions favourable for the growth of Indian nationalism.
(b) Examine the role of modern transport and communication in fostering unity and nationalism among the people.
(c) How did the rediscovery of India’s glorious past prepare the ground for the growth of the national spirit among the Indians.
Answer:
(a)
The British transformed a fragmented India into a united whole under their rule. They introduced a uniform and modern system of government throughout the British provinces. Uniform laws were applied to all British subjects. People from different provinces and from different communities and castes now followed the same laws and regulations. They gradually realized that they all belonged to the same country and shared a common national identity as Indians.
(b)
This growing sense of unity and nationalism was further strengthened when the British introduced a new network of roads, railways and the post and telegraph system. Social mobility and interaction increased. Caste barriers broke down. People from different parts of the country grew closer to each other. They realized that they shared common problems, common aspirations and common goals. They belonged to one nation.
(c)
The rediscovery of a past was great and glorious. It was a past that could boast of the intellectual richness of Vedic philosophy, the political unity and administrative wisdom of the Mauryas, the Golden Age of the Guptas and the cultural brilliance of the Mughals. These discoveries were made by European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Princep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage. These revelations instilled in the Indians feelings of national pride and self-confidence and inspired them to dream of a new resurgent India.

Question 3.
With reference to the rise of Indian nationalism, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the role of vernacular press and literature in the rise of Indian nationalism?
(b) How did the British economic policies lead to the growth of Indian nationalism?
(c) Mention the discriminatory policies that were greatly resented by the Indian intellectuals.
Answer:
(a)
The vernacular press played a vital role in spreading modem ideas and creating national awareness. Nationalist leaders, the best among the educated middle-class intellectuals, used the press to criticize British policies and expose the evils of foreign rule. The ideas of democracy and responsible government were popularized through the press. Indians were asked to unite and work for the welfare of the nation.
National literature also inspired the spirit of nationalism among the people. Novels, essays and patriotic poems written by well-known authors and poets fired the imagination of the common people and gave rise to powerful patriotic feelings. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya’s ‘Vande Mataram’ continues to evoke strong patriotic emotions among Indians even to this day.
(b)
The drain of India’s wealth to Britain, the impoverishment of the masses, industrial decay, grinding poverty, frequent famines, and the indifference and apathy of the British government produced a nationalistic reaction. The educated Indians realized the gravity of the situation and the need to have some control over economic policies.
(c)
Discriminatory policies adopted by the British:

  1. Indians were debarred from using parks, clubs, hospitals, libraries and railway coaches reserved exclusively for the British.
  2. All important positions in the administration were also reserved for the British. (Surendranath Banerjee was ” dismissed from the Indian Civil Service on flimsy grounds) Nominated Indian members in the Legislative Councils were not given any powers.
  3. British economic policies sacrificed Indian interests to those of the British. Lord Lytton‘s discriminatory policies caused great resentment among the educated Indians.

Question 4.
In the context of the Indian National Congress, answer the following questions:
(a) Briefly discuss the Ilbert Bill controversy and show how it hastened the establishment of the Indian National Congress.
(b) What role did A. O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
(c) Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Answer:
(a)
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which allowed Indian judges to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes. The violent reaction of the Europeans and Anglo-Indians to this proposal shocked the Indian nationalists. The Bill had to be amended. This incident blew the lid off the racial arrogance of the Europeans. It served as an eye-opener and drove home the urgent need to form an organized national body to protect the interest and dignity of the Indians. In 1883, Surendranath Banerjee held the Indian National Conference, and within 2 years, the Indian National Congress was formed.
(b)
A.O. Hume was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress, a political party that was later lead to Indian Independence Movement. Hume took the initiative and it was in March 1885, when the first notice was issued convening the First Indian National union to meet at Poona in December. Founded in 1885 with the objective of obtaining a greater share in government for educated Indians, Indian National Congress was initially not opposed to British rule. The Congress met once a year during December. A. O. Hume is known for prominent figure of Indian Independence Movement activism and reorganizing and leading the Indian National Army in World War II.
(c)
The main aims of the Congress were:

  1. To promote friendly relations among nationalist workers in different parts of the country.
  2. To develop and strengthen feelings of national unity throughout the country.
  3. To formulate popular demands and to place them before the government.
  4. To train and organize public opinion in the country.


G Picture study:

This is the picture of a person who was dismissed from the Indian Civil Service by the British on flimsy grounds.
The Trail History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions - Rise of Indian Nationalism 3

1. Identify the person in the picture.
Ans. Surendranath Banerjee

2. Name the conference that he held in 1883.
Ans. Indian National Conference

3. What  was the outcome of the conference?
Ans. Indian National Congress was established in 1885, as a result of the conference in 1883.

4. What were the main aims of the Indian National Congress?
Ans. Refer Ans. F-4 (c) above.

Swami Vivekananda Scholarship