Prasanna

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

CRICKET
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Where did the game of cricket originate?
(a) India
(b) Australia
(c) West Indies
(d) England
Answer:
(d) England

(ii) What is the full form of ICC?
(a) International Conference on Communications
(b) International Commerce Centre
(c) International Cricket Council
(d) Indian Cricket Control
Answer:
(c) International Cricket Council

(iii) The term used when a batsman is dismissed without scoring any run:
(a) Duck
(b) Over
(c) Bye
(d) Leg bye
Answer:
(a) Duck

(iv) What is the total width of the pitched stumps?
(a) 9 inches. (22.8 cm)
(b) 28 inches. (71.1 cm)
(c) 38 inches. (96.5 cm)
(d) 22 yards. (20.12 m)
Answer:
(a) 9 inches. (22.8 cm)

(v) What is the distance between a bowling crease and a popping crease?
(a) 10 feet. (3.04 m)
(b) 4 feet. (1.22 m)
(c) 22 yards. (20.12 m)
(d) 12 ft (3.66 m)
Answer:
(b) 4 feet. (1.22 m)

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) What is bump ball in cricket? [2]
(ii) Define the term Stumped. [2]
(iii) Name any three national tournaments in cricket. [3]
(iv) What is the importance of the ’30-yard circle’ in a cricket match? [3]
Answer:
(i) A ball which is played off the bat almost instantly into the ground and caught by a fielder, often has the appearance of being a clean catch.

(ii) Stumped is a method of dismissing a batsman in cricket, which involves the wicket-keeper putting down the wicket while the batsman is out of his ground. (If a batsman misses the ball in a attempt to play it, steps outside the popping crease and wicket-keeper gathers the ball and breaks the wicket with it before the batman can ground part of his body or his bat behind his popping crease).

(iii) 1. Ranji Trophy
2. Duleep Trophy
3. Vijay Hazare Trophy

(iv) A painted circle (or ellipse) centered in the middle of the pitch, radius of 30 yard marked on the field. The purpose of 30 yard circle is separating the infield from the outfield. It is importantly used in policing the fielding restrictions for certain one-day and T20 version of the game.

Fielding restrictions:
Under current ODI rules, there are three levels of fielding restrictions:
1. In the first 10 overs of an innings (the mandatory powerplay), the fielding team may have at most two fielders outside the 30-yard circle.
2. Between 11 and 40 overs four fielders will be allowed to field outside the 30-yard circle.

Fielding restrictions for T20 cricket
1. Fielding restrictions in the first six overs – two fielders outside circle with a minimum of two stationary fielders.
2. Fielding restrictions for overs 7-20 – maximum five fielders allowed outside of circle.

Question 3.
(i) Explain the term Timed out in cricket. [2]
(ii) What do you mean by a Tie match in cricket? [2]
(iii) State any three duties of Main Umpire in cricket. [3]
(iv) Write down any three fielding positions on Leg side in cricket. [3]
Answer:
(i) Timed out is a method of dismissal in the sport of cricket. In one day cricket it occurs when an incoming batsman takes longer than two minutes, from the time the previous wicket falls, to appear on the field.

In Twenty20 cricket, to keep the game speeded up, the incoming batsman must be ready to take guard (or for his partner to receive the next ball) within 90 seconds of the previous wicket falling, or he shall be timed out.

(ii) The result of a match is considered to be a “tie” when the scores are equal at the conclusion of play, but only if the side batting last has completed its innings (i.e. all innings are completed, or, in limited- overs cricket, the set number of overs has been played or play is terminally stopped by weather or bad light).

(iii) Cricket umpires are responsible for making decisions and calls in a game of cricket. They also ensure that players and matches follow the rules of the game,
1. Before the commencement of the game main umpires duty is to determine whether the pitch and ball used are up to the standard.
2. To observe the toss made between the captains of the two teams and the decision for batting or bowling first.
3. To signal no balls, wide, byes, leg byes, out, dead ball, power play, free hit, third umpire review, short run and boundaries.

(iv) The leg side is the half of the field behind the batsman. The following are three fielding positions on Leg side in cricket:
1. Mid Wicket
2. Square Leg
3. Mid On

Question 4.
(i) State any two variations of spin bowling. [2]
(ii) Explain the term Stance in cricket. [2]
(iii) What is a Declaration in cricket? [3]
(iv) State any three ways by which runs are scored in cricket. [3]
Answer:
(i) Spin bowling is a bowling technique in cricket, in which the ball is delivered slowly but with the potential to deviate sharply after bouncing. The following are two variations of spin bowling:
1. Off spin
2. Leg spin

(ii) The stance is the position in which a batsman stands to have the ball bowled to them. Batsmen normally place their feet about 6-8inch apart or the feet should be comfortably apart, neither too far nor too close, on either side of the popping crease, and no pressure on the heels or the toes. The knees should be slightly bent, with their weight distributed evenly for good balance and mobility.

(iii) In the sport of cricket, a declaration occurs when a captain declares his team’s innings closed, when the ball is dead at any time during the innings. A declared innings shall be considered to be a completed innings. Made by the batting side when they believe they have scored sufficient runs to win the game. A declaration can be made by a captain before all his team’s batsmen are out. It is normally called so that it allows them enough time to get all the opposing batsmen out with the allotted time or number of overs available.

(iv) In cricket all runs are scored while a team is batting. The three basic ways to score runs are:
1. Running between the wickets
2. Boundaries
3. Extras
These are the ways through which runs are scored in the game of cricket.

FOOTBALL
Section – A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 5.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) What is the number of playing members on the field in a football match?
(a) 15
(b) 7
(c) 11
(d) 12
Answer:
(c) 11

(ii) Which size ball is used in an international football match?
(a) 2
(b) 1
(c) 3
(d) 5
Answer:
(d) 5

(iii) The field of play is divided into two halves by:
(a) Sideline
(b) Half way line
(c) Endline
(d) Touch line
Answer:
(b) Half way line

(iv) How much time is allotted for interval during a football match?
(a) 15 minutes
(b) 30 minutes
(c) 45 minutes
(d) 90 minutes
Answer:
(a) 15 minutes

(v) What is the width and length of the football goal area?
(a) 16.5 m by 40.32 m
(b) 5.5 m by 18.32 m
(c) 5.0 m by 18 m
(d) 16.5 yards by 40.5 yards
Answer:
(b) 5.5 m by 18.32 m

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 6.
(i) Explain the term Heading in football. [2]
(ii) What is Optional Mark in football? [2]
(iii) Write any three duties of captain in football. [3]
(iv) What is the procedure of resuming the game from a direct free kick? [3]
Answer:
(i) Heading is a football technique that is used in association football to control the ball using the head to pass, shoot or clear. Heading is an essential skill in football. A player hits the ball with their head to move it in a certain direction. They may head the ball towards another player, across the field, or into the opponent’s goal. This can be done by standing, jumping or diving position.

It is crucial for defensive players to clear balls from the back, midfielders to win critical battles in the middle of the field, and attackers to nod a ball pass the opposing keeper to score a goal.

(ii) Optional Mark is a mark 9.15 mts from comer on the goal line towards the goal post.

(iii) Three duties of captain in football are:
1. The only official responsibility of a captain specified by the Laws of the Game is to participate in the coin toss prior to kick-off (for choice of ends) and prior to a penalty shootout.
2. A captain is the player who is supposed to act as the leader of the team, acting as mediators between their team-mates, the manager and the referee.
3. He leads the team up to collect their trophy and medals.

(iv) The procedures for resuming the game from a direct free kick are:
1. If a direct kick is kicked directly into the opponent’s goal, a goal is awarded and game is’ resumed by kickoff.
2. If a direct kick is kicked and passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air and a goal is not scored, game is resumed by a goal kick.

Question 7.
(i) Explain the term wall pass in football.
(ii) What is sudden death in football? [2]
(iii) Give any three instances when kick-off is initiated. [3]
(iv) Mention any three fundamental skills of playing football. [3]
Answer:
(i) The idea of this pass is to pass the ball to the teammate and quickly sprinting forward into space and receiving the ball back from them in one touch. It is ideal when the defender is playing loosely towards the player and the player would like to exploit the space behind him. It is also known as a one-two or give-and-go. A triangular movement where one player gets past an opponent by making a short pass to a teammate and running towards the return pass.

(ii) At the end of five penalties, if score is still tied, sudden death occurs. If the teams are still tied after the initial allocated number in the penalty shoot-out, the game goes to sudden-death penalties, where each team takes a further one penalty each, repeated until only one team scores, resulting in the winning of the game. In sudden-death play ends as soon as one competitor is ahead of the others, with that competitor becoming the winner. Sudden death yields a victory for the contest without requiring a specific period of time.

(iii) A kick-off is a way of starting or restarting play. Three instances when kick-off is initiated are :
1. At the start of the match.
2. After a goal has been scored.
3. At the start of the second half of the match.

(iv) In football, the fundamental skills which a football player must possess are:
1. Controlling the ball.
2. Passing the ball.
3. Shooting.

Question 8.
(i) Explain the term Lob Pass in football. [2]
(ii) What is Zonal marking in football? [2]
(iii) State any three duties of a Referee during the football match. [3]
(iv) Name any three compulsory equipment of a football player. [3]
Answer:
(i) A lob pass (aerial pass) is a pass which goes over the opponents’ head in a high arc. It is a pass in which the ball is kicked from underneath with accuracy but with less than maximum force.

(ii) Zonal marking is a defensive strategy where defenders cover an area of the pitch rather than marking a specific opponent. If an opponent moves into the area a defender is covering, the defender marks the opponent. If the opponent leaves this area, then marking the opponent becomes the responsibility of another defender.

(iii) Three duties of a Referee during the football match are:
1. Enforces the Laws of the Game.
2. Controls the match in cooperation with the other match officials.
3. Acts as timekeeper, keeps a record of the match.

(iv) The compulsory equipment of a player comprises the following separate items:
1. A shirt with sleeves
2. Shorts
3. Footwear

HOCKEY
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 9.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which among these is the highest governing body of hockey?
(a) Federation International de Hockey
(b) International Hockey Association
(c) World Hockey Federation
(d) International Hockey Council
Answer:
(a) Federation International de Hockey

(ii) The height of each flag post is:
(a) 1.20 m to 1.50 m
(b) 1.25 yards to 1.55 yards
(c) 1.2 cm to 2.2 cm
(d) 2.30 cm to 3.30 cm
Answer:
(a) 1.20 m to 1.50 m

(iii) Which player is allowed to touch the ball with his feet during a match?
(a) Defender
(b) Goalkeeper
(c) Winger
(d) Centre-forward
Answer:
(b) Goalkeeper

(iv) Duration of each half of a hockey men’s game is:
(a) 30 minutes
(b) 40 minutes
(c) 35 minutes
(d) 50 minutes
Answer:
(a) 30 minutes

(v) What is the colour of the ball used in a hockey game?
(a) Pink
(b) Blue
(c) White
(d) Black
Answer:
(c) White

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 10.
(i) Define the term Dangerous Play in hockey. [2]
(ii) Explain the term Scoop in hockey. [2]
(iii) Explain the importance of the Shooting Circle in hockey. [3]
(iv) Write any three responsibilities of an umpire in hockey. [3]
Answer:
(i) Dangerous play is play that could likely result in injury, such as pushing, tripping, or raising the ball at an opponent who is less than five yards away.

(ii) Scoop is the method of passing the ball by raising it up into the air. The scoop is an aerial pass given by raising the ball off the ground by placing the head of the stick under the ball and using a lifting movement.

(iii) The importance of the Shooting Circle in hockey are :
1. The goals can be scored only when the ball is shot from within the Shooting Circle.

2. If any player of defending team commits an offence inside the Shooting Circle which might prevent the probable scoring of a goal, a penalty stroke is awarded to the attacking team.

3. If an offence by a defender inside the Shooting circle which does not prevent the probable scoring of a goal, a penalty corner is awarded to the attacking team.

4. If an intentional offence inside the Shooting circle by a defender against an opponent who does not have possession of the ball or an opportunity to play the ball, a penalty comer is awarded to the attacking team.

(iv) Three responsibilities of an umpire in hockey are:
1. The role of the umpires is to control the match, apply the rules of hockey, uphold a duty of care to the players (keeping the game safe), be the judges of fair play and keep the flow.

2. Each umpire has the primary responsibility for decisions in one half of the field.

3. Each umpire is the only one allowed to award a penalty comer, penalty stroke or goal in their half of the field or a free hit in their circle.

Question 11.
(i) What do you understand by the term Manufactured foul in hockey? [2]
(ii) Explain the term Back stick in hockey. [2]
(iii) Write any three duties of captain in hockey. [3]
(iv) List any three basic compulsory equipment worn by a hockey player. [3]
Answer:
(i) Manufactured foul is when a player intentionally creates a foul and takes advantage from an opponent. For example, as a player hits the ball in an opponent’s leg, player will get a foul.

(ii) Back stick is an illegal shot in which the ball strikes the rounded face of the hockey stick. Players cannot legally use both sides of the stick in field hockey. One side of the stick is flat, which players can use for regular play, while the other side is deliberately curved and may not be used for contacting the ball at all.

(iii) Three duties of captain in hockey are:
1. The main duty of a captain is to go for toss; he will stand with the referees and other team before the match and do the toss and has the choice of which goal to attack in the first half of the match and to start the match with a centre pass.

2. Captain must wear a distinctive arm-band or similar distinguishing article on an upper arm or shoulder or over the upper part of a sock.

3. Captain is responsible for the behaviour of all players on their team.

(iv) Three basic compulsory equipment worn by a hockey player are :
1. Players clothing
2. Shin guard
3. Foot wear

Question 12.
(i) Explain the term 16-yard hit in hockey. [2]
(ii) Explain the term advantage in hockey. [2]
(iii) State any three qualities of a goalkeeper in hockey. [3]
(iv) Name any three national tournaments in hockey. [3]
Answer:
(i) The 16 yard hit is a free hit for the defense 16 yards (that’s 14.63 meters) from the base line after an opposing player hits the ball over the back line or commits a foul within the shooting circle. When the attacking team plays or has the last touch to the ball and it crosses over the backline, the defense receives a 16-yard hit. The free hit is taken 16 yards from the spot where the ball crossed the backline.

(ii) Advantage in hockey is a call made by an umpire to continue the game after when a foul is committed and opponent team has the ball possession, i.e. physical control of the ball by one team, which typically gives that team the opportunity to score.

(iii) Three qualities a goalkeeper in hockey should possess are :
1. The goalkeeper should be active, healthy and always ready.
2. He/she should be able to gain speed quickly.
3. Decision making is one of the important quality a goalkeeper needs.

(iv) Three national tournaments in hockey are :
1. Nehru Senior Hockey Tournament.
2. All India Gurmeet Memorial Hockey Tournament, Chandigarh.
3. All India Chhatrapati Shivaji Hockey Tournament, Delhi.

BASKETBALL [5 Marks]
Section-A (Attempt all questions)

Question 13.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Who invented the game of basketball?
(a) Albert Einstein
(b) Charles Darwin
(c) Dr, James Naismith
(d) Ada Lovelace
Answer:
(c) Dr. James Naismith

(ii) What are the measurements of the basketball court?
(a) 84 by 60 feet. (25 m by 18 m)
(b) 92 by 50 feet. (28 m by 15m)
(c) 74 by 40 feet. (22 m by 12 m)
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) 92 by 50 feet. (28 m by 15m)

(iii) How high from the ground is the ring of the basket?
(a) 7 feet. (2.13 m)
(b) 8 feet. (2.44 m)
(c) 9 feet. (2.74 m)
(d) 10 feet. (3.05 m)
Answer:
(d) 10 feet. (3.05 m)

(iv) Basketball game begins with a:
(a) Jump ball
(b) Kick-off
(c) Let
(d) A bully
Answer:
(a) Jump ball

(v) What is the highest governing body of basketball?
(a) BCCI
(b) ICC
(c) NBA
(d) FIBA
Answer:
(d) FIBA

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 14.
(i) Explain the term Free throw in basketball. [2]
(ii) Explain the term Dunk shot in basketball. [2]
(iii) How does a team advance with the ball in an attempt to score? [3]
(iv) List any three equipment needed to play a match. [3]
Answer:
(i) A free throw is an opportunity given to a player to score one point, uncontested, from a position behind the free-throw line and inside the semicircle. Free throws are generally awarded after a foul on the shooter by the opposing team. Free throws are also awarded in other situations, including technical fouls, and when the fouling team has entered the bonus/penalty situation (after a team commits a requisite number of fouls, each subsequent foul results in free throws regardless of the type of foul committed).

(ii) It is a type of shot that is performed when a player jumps in the air, controls the basketball above the horizontal plane of the ring, and scores by putting the ball directly through the basket with one or both hands.

(iii) The ball can be advanced on the court in an attempt to score by :
1. Dribbling the ball while walking or running.
2. Throwing it.
3. Passing the ball to its teammates.

(iv) Basketball is a simple game, equipment needed to play a match are a basket, a ball and a flat court. Competitive levels require the use of more equipment such as clocks, score sheets, scoreboard(s), alternating possession arrows, and whistle-operated stop-clock systems.

Question 15.
(i) What do you mean by One hand push pass in basketball? [2]
(ii) What is Loose ball in basketball? [2]
(iii) State any three duties of Timekeeper in basketball. [3]
(iv) Explain three occasions when the ball becomes dead during play. [3]
Answer:
(i) The push pass is used most often when closely guarded. The push pass is when a player push the ball with one hand while taking a step to create space from the defender. The passing hand is behind the ball with the elbow tucked in. The other hand is on the side of the ball (this is the same grip as for shooting). Step forward and push the ball.

(ii) A loose ball is that when a ball is a live one but not in possession of either team.

(iii) Duties of Timekeeper in basketball are :
1. To set the game clock at the beginning of the first period, any overtime period or whenever play is resumed by a jump ball, when the ball is legally tapped by either of the jumpers.
2. To start and stop the clock as indicated by the referee.
3. To ensure that the game clock signal sounds very loudly and automatically at the end of a period.

(iv) The ball becomes dead when:
1. Any field goal or free throw is made.
2. An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
3. The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period. The shot clock signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.

Question 16.
(i) What do you mean by Triple Threat in basketball? [2]
(ii) Explain the term Post Player in basketball. [2]
(iii) What do you mean by Basket Interference in basketball? [3]
(iv) Explain the skill of Low Dribble in basketball. [3]
Answer:
(i) Triple treat is an offensive position a player can use who has not dribble yet. The offensive player stands with knee flexed, feet slightly wider that shoulder width and both hands on the basketball. From this position, the offensive player can either shoot, dribble, or pass to a teammate, there being a ‘triple treat’ with the basketball.

(ii) A post player in basketball is a nickname for a player on the team that likes to post up. A post up is when an offensive player puts their back to the basket and tries to use their positioning and strength to score.

(iii) Basket interference is the violation of touching the ball or any part of the basket (including the net) while the ball is on the rim of the basket, touching the ball when it is within the cylinder extending upwards from the rim, reaching up through the basket from below and touching the ball, whether it is inside or outside the cylinder, or pulling down on the rim of the basket so that it contacts the ball before returning to its original position, or during a shot attempt.

(iv) A low dribble in basketball is when a player dribbles the ball low to the ground. In order to do this, a player has to dribble the ball more times than a normal dribble. This type of dribbling simply entails keeping the ball low to the floor and in the control of the player. The player should extend the dribbling hand and arm down as much as possible to shorten the distance and the ball needs to be kept tight and in control to keep it from being stolen. The low dribble is to be used whenever the players are closely guarded.

VOLLEYBALL
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 17.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) How many playing members of each team are on the court?
(a) 12
(b) 10
(c) 14
(d) 6
Answer:
(d) 6

(ii) When was volleyball invented?
(a) 1780
(b) 2004
(c) 1895
(d) 1904
Answer:
(c) 1895

(iii) How is the team to serve first chosen?
(a) Referee’s choice
(b) A coin toss
(c) First team to catch the ball
(d) Scorer will decide
Answer:
(b) A coin toss

(iv) If you score a point doing a spike, what is it called?
(a) Push
(b) Dig
(c) Kill
(d) Lunge
Answer:
(c) Kill

(v) What is the maximum number of times a team can make contact with the ball?
(a) 5
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1
Answer:
(b) 3

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 18.
(i) What do you mean by Reading an Opponent in volleyball? [2]
(ii) Name the International and National Governing body of volleyball. [2]
(iii) Explain how a Set is won by a team. [3]
(iv) State any three duties of the First Referee during the match. [3]
Answer:
(i) Reading is the use of a defender’s (blocker or digger) visual acuity to anticipate the opponent’s attack and to move to a position on the court that will provide him the best opportunity to block, channel, or dig the ball.

(ii) International Governing body of volleyball : The Federation Internationale de Volleyball (English: International Volleyball Federation), commonly known by the acronym FIVB, is the international governing body for all forms of volleyball.

National Governing body of volleyball : The Volleyball Federation of India (VFI) is the governing body of volleyball in India.

(iii) A set is won by the team which first scores 25 points (except the deciding 5th set) with minimum lead of two points. In case of score is 24-24 tie, play continues until a two-point lead is achieved (26-24, 27-25;…). To win a match, team has to win three sets. In case of 2-2 tie of sets, the deciding 5th set is played to 15 points with a minimum lead of 2 points.

(iv) Three duties of the First Referee during the match are :
1. To give signals to indicate faults and breaking of the laws.
2. To sanction misconduct and delays.
3. To request the time-out.

Question 19.
(i) What do you mean by Misconduct in volleyball? [2]
(ii) Explain the term Joust in volleyball. [2]
(iii) What do you mean by Expulsion in volleyball? [3]
(iv) State any three Service faults in Volleyball. [3]
Answer:
(i) There are two type of misconduct in volleyball
1. Minor misconduct:
Minor misconduct offences are not subject to sanctions. It is the first referee’s duty to prevent the teams from approaching the sanctioning level by issuing a verbal or hand signal warning to a team member or to the team through the game captain. This warning is not a sanction and has no immediate consequences.

2. Misconduct Leading to Sanctions :
Incorrect conduct by a team member towards officials, opponents, teammates, or spectators is classified in three categories according to the seriousness of the offense.
(a) Rude Conduct-Action contrary to good manners or moral principles, or expressing contempt.
(b) Offensive Conduct-Defamatory or insulting words or gestures or any action expressing contempt.
(c) Aggression-Actual physical attack or aggressive or threatening behavior.

(ii) In volleyball, a joust refers to a situation where two opposing players simultaneously make contact with the ball above the net causing the ball to momentarily come to rest; the point is replayed if joust is called by the official.

(iii) Expulsion is repeated rude conduct or offensive conduct, that is sanctioned by expulsion. A team member who is sanctioned by expulsion must be substituted legally or exceptionally and immediately if on court, shall not participate for the rest of the set, and must go to the team’s dressing room until the completion of the ongoing set with no other consequences.

An expelled coach loses his/her right to intervene in the set and must go to the team’s dressing room until the completion of the ongoing set.
1. The first offensive conduct by a team member is sanctioned by expulsion with no other consequences.
2. The second rude conduct in the same match by the same team member is sanctioned by expulsion with no other consequences.

(iv) Three service faults in Volleyball are :
1. The following faults lead to a change of service even if the opponent is out of position the server violates the service order.
2. If the server does not execute the service properly.
3. After the ball has been correctly hit, the service becomes a fault if the ball lands outside limits of opponent’s court.

Question 20.
(i) Explain the term Four Hits.
(ii) What is Blocking in volleyball?
(iii) What are the duties of a Captain during a match of volleyball?
(iv) State any three rules related to a libero player.
Answer:
(i) The team is entitled to a maximum of three hits (in addition to blocking), for returning the ball. If more are used, the team commits the fault of “FOUR HITS”. Four hits is a fault called if a team hits the ball four times before returning it.

(ii) Blocking is a skill wherein the player deflects the ball from the opponent. Blocking is the action of players close to the net to intercept the ball coming from the opponent by reaching higher than the top of the net, regardless of the height of the ball contact. Only front-row players are permitted to complete a block, but at the moment of the contact with the ball, a part of the body must be higher than the top of the net.

(iii) During the match and while on the court, the team captain is the game captain. The duties of a Captain during a match of volleyball are as follows:
1. The captain is authorised to speak to the referees to ask for an explanation on the application or interpretation of the rules and also to submit the requests or questions of his/her teammates.

2. He may ask authorisation from referees to change uniform or equipments.

3. He is only person, who may ask the first referee to check the floor, the net, the ball, etc or to verify the positions of the teams.

(iv) Three rules related to a libero player are :
1. The Libero player must wear a uniform which has a different dominant colour from any colour of the rest of the team. The uniform must clearly contrast with the rest of the team.

2. He/she is restricted to perform as a back row player and is not allowed to complete an attack hit from anywhere (including playing court and free zone) if at the moment of the contact the ball is entirely higher than the top of the net

3. Only one Libero may be on court at any time.

BADMINTON [5 Marks]
Section-A

Question 21.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(1) How many feathers does a shuttlecock have?
(a) 8
(b) 24
(c) 16
(d) 20
Answer:
(c) 16

(ii) Where did badminton originate?
(a) India
(b) USA
(c) Australia
(d) Sri Lanka
Answer:
(a) India

(iii) Which body governs the badminton game internationally?
(a) Indian Badminton Federation
(b) Badminton World Federation
(c) ICC
(d) FIFA
Answer:
(a) Indian Badminton Federation

(iv) In badminton this is the hit that begins each play:
(a) Fault
(b) Let
(c) Serve
(d) Set
Answer:
(c) Serve

(v) What is the length of the badminton court for singles and doubles?
(a) 6.70 m
(b) 5.18 m
(c) 18.04 m
(d) 13.40 m
Answer:
(d) 13.40 m

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 22.
(i) When do the players change the court? [2]
(ii) What is a Deuce in a badminton match? [2]
(iii) State any three duties of an Umpire in badminton. [3]
(iv) Explain the term Forehand grip in badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) Players shall change the court when:
1. at the end of the first game.
2. at the end of the second game, if there is to be a third game.
3. In the third game when a side first scores 11 points.

(ii) During a general game of 21 points, when both players have reached 20-20, it is termed as deuce in a badminton match. This means that either one side must lead by 2 points to win the game.

(iii) Three duties of an Umpire in badminton are :
1. An umpire shall uphold and enforce the Laws of Badminton and, especially, call a ‘fault’ or a ‘let’ should either occur.
2. An umpire shall give a decision on any appeal regarding a point of dispute, if made before the next service is delivered.
3. An umpire shall record and report to the Referee all matters relating to continuous play, misconduct and penalties.

(iv) Hold the racket by the shaft in the left hand with the face of the racket perpendicular to the floor and shake hands with the grip. The player slides’ hand down so that the fatty part rest comfortably against the butt of the handle. There will be a ‘v’ shape of the thumb and index finger. Grip the handle lightly, with fingers spread slightly. The thumb wraps around the handle on the left side. The grip should be relaxed when the player is not stroking the shuttle. Tighten the grip when the player is ready to stroke the shuttle.

Question 23.
(i) Define the term Side Alley. [2]
(ii) Explain the term Drive in badminton. [2]
(iii) Explain the term Overhead Forehand Stroke in badminton. [3]
(iv) Explain the Half Smash in badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) The alley is an 18 inch section situated on both sides of the court. The side alley extension marks the area between the singles and doubles sidelines. Thus, side alley in badminton terms represents the sections between the boundary tramlines used only in doubles play.

(ii) Drive shots are shots that cross the net flatly in a horizontal trajectory. The drive is an attacking shot that is usually played from the sides of the court when the shuttle has fallen too low for it to be returned with a smash. A hard driven short that travels parallel with the floor. This shot clears the net but does not go high enough for the opponent to smash.

(iii) The overhead badminton forehand stroke is very common and is used most often in badminton. In badminton, this stroke generates the most power. The power of a badminton forehand stroke comes from correct technique, not how much strength the player exerts into a swing.

(iv) Half smash is the first variation of the smash. It is simply smashing with half (more like two third) the player’s strength. This shot is best played at random points in the game, to keep the opponent guessing, which in turn makes it difficult for them to get used to the gameplay of the opposite team.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the term Rally in badminton. [2]
(ii) What do you mean by Net Kill in badminton? [2]
(iii) Explain any three scoring system in badminton. [3]
(iv) Mention any three duties of Service Judge in badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) A sequence of one or more strokes starting with the service, until the shuttle ceases to be in play. A rally is won when a shuttle is hit over the net and onto the floor of the opponent’s court. A rally is also lost if the shuttle touches the player’s clothing or body, or if it is hit before it crosses over the net.

(ii) Net kill area shots taken from the forecourt. It travels down steeply towards the opponent side. Usually, net kills are used to counter weak net shots from the opponent.

(iii) Three scoring system in badminton are :
1. A match consists of the best of 3 games of 21 points (games cap at 30 points).
Each game starts at 0-0. If the match goes to the third game that third game will be played to 15 points.

2. Every time there is a serve – there is a point scored.
(a) A rally is won when a shuttle is hit over the net and onto the floor of the opponent’s court.
(b) A rally is lost if the shuttle is hit into the net, or over the net but outside of the opponent’s court. A rally is also lost if the shuttle touches the player’s clothing or body, or if it is hit before it crosses over the net.

3. The side winning a rally adds a point to its score.

(iv) Three duties of Service Judge in badminton are:
1. The service judge is responsible in making a ‘service fault’ call and to provide shuttles to the players.
2. To see that the server shall not serve before the receiver is ready.
3. To see that there is no undue delay in the delivery of the service.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) This scheme is a component of BBBP programme:
(a) Aapki Beti Humari Beti
(b) Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
(c) Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Sukanya Samridhi Yojana
Explanation:
This scheme aims to ensure the equitable share of the girl child in family savings and is a component of BBBP programme.

(ii) This agent is used for stiffening fabrics such as silks, georgette, and chiffon.
(a) Arrowroot powder
(b) Indigo blue
(c) Gum water
(d) Optical brightening agent.
Answer:
(c) Gum water
Explanation:
Gum Arabic is soaked overnight to make gum water and is used to stiffen fabrics like chiffon, georgette, silk, etc.

(iii) ________ is the first step in launderine bv wet method.
(a) Soaking
(b) Sorting
(c) Bleaching
(d) Washing
Answer:
(b) Sorting
Explanation:
Sorting helps in differentiating the clothes according to texture, size, colour, degree of dirt and is to be done first while laundering.

(iv) Which one of the following is not a perishable food?
(a) Avocado
(b) Milk
(c) Nuts
(d) Banana
Answer:
(c) Nuts
Explanation:
Nuts are grouped under semi-perishable food.

(v) Human trafficking involves:
(a) use of force to obtain some kind of labour
(b) processing of trapping people through violence
(c) grooming of girls and forcing into sexual exploitation
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

(vi) The most important precaution while ironing is:
(a) To remove wrinkles
(b) To remove stains
(c) To maintain appropriate temperature
(d) To reduce moisture
Answer:
(c) To maintain appropriate temperature
Explanation:
If clothes are ironed at higher temperature, they turn yellow. If clothes are ironed at lower temperature, the crease is not removed. Thus, maintaining an appropriate temperature is very important.

(vii) The optimum temperature for drying is:
(a) 38°C and 40°C
(b) 51.6°C and 60°C
(c) 65°C and 68°C
(d) 41.2°C and 45°C
Answer:
(b) 51.6°C and 60°C .
Explanation:
The optimum temperature for drying is 125°F and 140°F (51.6°C and 60°C).

(viii) Flyers are effective because:
(a) they are affordable forms of communication
(b) they are convenient for handling and sharing
(c) a wide range of audience can be targeted using flyers
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) All of the above

(ix) Fabric conditioners are chemical compounds that:
(a) provide freshness to the clothes
(b) remove stains from the clothes
(c) makes the cloth appear whiter
(d) provide stiffness to the clothes
Answer:
(a) Provide freshness to the clothes
Explanation:
Fabric conditioners give shine and fragrance to the clothes, make the clothes extra soft and smooth. They also provide freshness to the clothes.

(x) Convenience food does NOT include which of the following?
(a) Jams and jellies
(b) Rice and grains
(c) Juices
(d) Pickles
Answer:
(b) Rice and grains
Explanation:
Rice and grains are non-perishable items and can be stored for a longer time for months to years.

Section – B[40 Marks]
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Mention any two factors on which durability of fabric is dependent. [2]
(ii) Mention two points on how illusion can be created while designing. [2]
(iii) Mention three advantages of soaking the fabric while laundering. [3]
(iv) Mention any three precautions to be taken while using bleaching agents. [3]
Answer:
(i) The durability of a fabric depends on:
1. The kind and quality of the fibre, yam.
Weaves used in the preparation of Fabric.

(ii) Horizontal lines give an illusion of increase in the width and vertical lines increase in the height. A short lady can wear a saree with narrow border. These illusions can be created easily while designing.

(iii) Three advantages of soaking the fabric while laundering are :
1. The clothes are able to get thoroughly wet which helps in the easy removal of fixed dirt.
2. Stains and starch that are soluble in water are removed.
3. Loose and soluble dirt are removed by the action and impact of water molecules.

(iv) Precautions to be taken while using bleaching agents are:
1. The bleach should always be added in dilute form and then slowly added more.
2. The strength of the bleach should be known before using it.
3. After the bleaching process is complete the fabric should be thoroughly rinsed.

Question 3.
(i) Mention any two precautions while blueing the fabric. [2]
(ii) Mention any two differences between wet cleaning and dry cleaning. [2]
(iii) Mention three points to be kept in point while selecting readymade garments. [3]
(iv) How are detergents different from soaps? [3]
Answer:
(i) Precautions while blueing the fabric are :
1. Preferably coloured fabric should not the blued.
2. The fabric should not be kept in blue water for a longer time.

(ii) The difference between wet cleaning and dry cleaning are :
1. The wet method of cleaning uses water whereas, in dry cleaning solvents are used.
2. In wet cleaning the clothes are soaked in water with various cleaning agents like soap, detergents, borax etc. Whereas in dry cleaning the dirt and the grease get removed directly by solvents.

(iii) Points to be kept in mind while selecting the readymade garments are :
1. The readymade garments should be bought from reliable shop.
2. Labels of the readymade garments should be read carefully for the instructions.
3. The readymade garment should be bought according to the climate, need and occasion.

(iv) Detergents are easily soluble in cold water and are efficient in hard water too. They have lower surface tension and thus are more efficient than soaps.

Question 4.
(i) Enlist two points to be kept in mind while storing fruits. [2]
(ii) Mention two disadvantages of convenience food. [2]
(iii) What is Pasteurization? [3]
(iv) Enlist three precautions to be kept in mind while home preservation. [3]
Answer:
(i) Points to be kept in mind while storing fruits are :
1. Fruits should not be washed before storing as they get spoilt faster.
2. Papayas, avocadoes, bananas and pineapples should not be stored in refrigerator as these undergo undesirable changes in texture and flavour.

(ii) Two disadvantages of convenience food are :
1. Convenience food are heavily processed and have lost much of their nutritive value in process.
2. The convenience food is laden with saturated fats, sodium and sugar which are unhealthy and have no nutritive value.

(iii) Pasteurization is the process to preserve milk by holding or flash process. In the holding process, the milk is heated to 65°C and kept at this temperature for 30 minutes and then cooled down. In the flash process, the milk is heated to 75°C for 15 seconds only.

(iv) Three precautions to be kept in mind while home preservation are :
1. The refrigerator should be frequently defrosted and cleaned.
2. Only fresh and wholesome food should be kept in refrigerator.
3. Food kept in refrigerator should be consumed as early as possible.

Question 5.
(i) Mention two points of storing potatoes. [2]
(ii) Enlist two advantages of Sun drying. [2]
(iii) How salt helps in food preservation? [3]
(iv) Mention three points to be kept in mind while purchasing food. [3]
Answer:
(i) Two points of storing potatoes are:
1. Potatoes should be hung up from the ceiling in a wire or plastic-mesh basket.
2. The temperature of potatoes should be maintained at about 3.6°C to keep sprouting to a minimum.

(ii) 1. Drying helps in evaporating the moisture from the food items and hence reduces the growth of micro-organisms.
2. Drying in Sun is cheap and effective method.

(iii) Salt is hygroscopic in nature and thus absorbs excess water or moisture from food. The hypotonic nature of salt inactivates the fungal and bacterial growth in the food. Thus in this salt helps in food preservation.

(iv) Points to be kept in mind while purchasing food are :
1. Ensure that the fruits and vegetables are fresh and in good colour and flavour.
2. The appearance of the meat product is important.
3. There should not be any sign of infestation in fruits and vegetables.

Question 6.
(i) What is sex ratio? [2]
(ii) Mention two rights to children provided by the constitution of India. [2]
(iii) Mention three objectives of DWCRA program. [3]
(iv) Enlist three points to be kept in mind while designing a brochure. [3]
Answer:
(i) The sex ratio is the ratio of males to females in a population. In most sexually reproducing species, the ratio tends to be 1:1. For various reasons, however many species deviate from an even sex ratio either periodically or permanently.

(ii) 1. No child below 14 years should be employed in factories or mine.
2. The children should be given opportunities and facilities to develop in a healthy manner.

(iii) Three objectives of DWCRA program are :
1. Improving the status and quality of poor women and children in rural areas.
2. Enabling women to improve their learning capacity.
3. Improving the impact of the on-going development programs by stimulating, supplementing, strengthening, and integrating them.

(iv) Points to be kept in mind while designing a brochure are :
1. The idea should be collected for understanding the composition, style, graphics, and feel of the brochure.
2. A proper content should be made to fit the brochure.
3. The content should meet the purpose and goal very clearly.

Question 7.
(i) What are the eligibility criteria for PMJDY? [2]
(ii) What is the aim of MNREGA? [2]
(iii) Define human capital. What are the advantages of Human capital? [3]
(iv) What are the Objectives of Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)? [3]
Answer:
(i) Anyone from weaker section can open an account under PMJDY. The scheme can be availed by the minors below 10 years and the guardian should maintain the account.

(ii) The aim of MNREGA is to improve the livelihood and security in rural areas by providing at least 100 days of wage employment.

(iii) The knowledge, skills, competencies and other attributes embodied in individuals and groups of individuals acquired during their life and used to produce goods, services or ideas in market circumstances.

Advantages of the Human Capital are:
1. Improved employee retention rates.
2. Improved returns on all employee-related
3. More accurate workforce data tracking.
4. Better employee prospecting.

(iv) PMJDY is a National Mission on Financial Inclusion encompassing an integrated approach to bring about comprehensive financial inclusion of all the households in the country. The plan envisages universal access to banking facilities with at least one basic banking account for every household, financial literacy, access to credit, insurance and pension facility.

Objective of “Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)” are:
1. To ensure access to various financial services like availability of basic savings bank account, access to need based credit, remittances facility, insurance and pension to the excluded sections i.e. weaker sections and low income groups.

2. The deep penetration at affordable cost is possible only with effective use of technology. The plan also envisages channelling all Government benefits (from Centre / State / Local Body) to the beneficiaries accounts and pushing the Direct Benefits Transfer (DBT) scheme of the Union Government.

3. Mobile transactions through telecom operators and their established centres as Cash Out Points are also planned to be used for Financial Inclusion under the Scheme.

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) The amount of sugar solution used in preservation of sauces is:
(a) 10% sugar solution
(b) 15% sugar solution
(c) 60% sugar solution
(d) Only a & b
Answer:
(c) 60% sugar solution
Explanation:
In preservation method sauces are stored in 60% sugar solution and 10%-15% salt.

(ii) Oil is used in pickles to:
(a) Reduce the growth of microorganisms
(b) Checks on air contact with ingredients
(c) Improves texture
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these
Explanation:
Oil helps in checking air from coming in contact with the pickles by forming an oil layer. It also provides texture and taste to the pickle.

(iii) HTST stands for:
(a) High Temperature for Short Time
(b) High Technique for Short Time
(c) High Technique for Storage Time
(d) High Temperature for Storage Time
Answer:
(a) High Temperature for Short Time
Explanation:
Milk is heated to 75°C for 15 seconds and then cooled. This process is called HTST or High Temperature for Short Time.

(iv) This improves the resilience of fabric due to which it does not get crumbled easily:
(a) Singeing
(b) Sizing
(c) Crease resistance
(d) Mercerization
Answer:
(c) Crease resistance
Explanation:
Crease resistance is a fabric that improves the resistance of the fabric.

(v) Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
(a) Thick or rough-textured fabric is chosen for furnishing and curtain.
(b) Fabrics like wool which have rough texture produce warmth whereas fabrics like satin which have smooth texture feel soft.
(c) For children and inner wears, soft -textured fabrics are used.
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(d) All of these

(vi) Steeping of ____________ is generally avoided.
(a) Silk
(b) Cotton
(c) Rayon
(d) Woollens
Answer:
(d) Woollens
Explanation :
Wool is a weak and elastic fibre, on steeping its gets damaged and looses its natural elasticity.

(vii) The amount of starch to be applied on a fabric depends on the:
(a) Thinness of fabric
(b) Stiffness a fabric can take
(c) Stiffness desired by the user
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(viii) Child abuse will include:
(a) Physical abuse
(b) Sexual abuse
(c) Emotional abuse
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) All of these

(ix) DWCRA stands for:
(a) Development of Women Children in Rural Areas
(b) Development of Women and Children in Rural Areas
(c) Development of Women Community in Rural Areas
(d) Development of Women or Children in Rural Areas
Answer:
(b) Development of Women Children in Rural Areas
Explanation:
The DWCRA scheme was aimed to improve the socio-economic status of the poor women in the rural areas through creation of groups of women for income generating activities on a self-sustaining basis.

(x) The act of conversation taking place between artist and the puppet is:
(a) Rod puppet
(b) Ventriloquist’s Dummy
(c) Hand puppet
(d) Finger puppet
Answer:
(b) Ventriloquist’s Dummy
Explanation:
Ventriloquist Dummy is a big puppet almost size of the performer it sits on the performers knee and a Dummy conversation is made.

Section – B[40 Marks]
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Mention two protective methods that can be used to repel insects. [2]
(ii) What are optical brighteners? [2]
(iii) What are the three major steps in the process of laundering? [3]
(iv) Write three advantages of readymade garments. [3]
Answer:
(i) Use of naphthalene balls and use of dry neem leaves, can be used as the protective methods to repel the insects.

(ii) Optical brighteners agents are colourless dyes which attach themselves to the fabric and make them appear whiter or brighter by reflecting light.

(iii) Three major steps in the process of laundering are :
1. Regular washing: Includes washing the fabric to remove the dirt, grease or stain.
2. Finishing: Gives clothes the structure and shine and restores their colour.
3. Storing: The fabric is stored properly after ironing and folding.

(iv) Three advantages of readymade garments are :
1. No tailoring is required.
2. They are cheaper compared to the stitched clothes.
3. Good after-sales service

Question 3.
(i) Explain reducing bleaches. [2]
(ii) Mention the importance of water while laundering. [2]
(iii) Which qualities are important while purchasing garment? [3]
(iv) Classify the types of dirt. [3]
Answer:
(i) Reducing bleaches remove oxygen from the coloured part of the stains by converting them into colourless compounds.

(ii) 1. Water is a very good solvent and helps in removing dirt and stain.
2. Water emulsifies and dissolves soaps and detergents thus helping in quick and easy cleaning.

(iii) Qualities important while purchasing garments are :
1. Buy garment suitable to the climate.
2. Buy garments appropriate for age, personality and economic status.
3. Compare the value of money and the quality of similar garments from various shops.

(iv) Types of dirt are :
1. Loose dirt: Dirt that rests loosely on the surface of the fabric.
2. Dirt embedded in the fabric: Dirt that clings to the fabric with the help of grease or sticky substance.

Question 4.
(i) Give two reasons as to why benzoic acid is a popular preservative. [2]
(ii) How does carbonation help in preservation? [2]
(iii) Mention three factors affecting the safety of food at home. [3]
(iv) Write three tips to maintain sanitation and hygiene in the kitchen. [3]
Answer:
(i) Benzoic acid is used as preservative because :
1. It increases the concentration of carbon dioxide in the medium.
2. It is more effective against yeast and moulds.

(ii) Carbon dioxide present in the medium prevents the growth of yeast and moulds. Yeast and mould need oxygen for their growth. Thus in this way carbonation helps in preservation.

(iii) Facts affecting the safety of food at home are :
1. Personal hygiene.
2. Cleanliness in the kitchen.
3. Purchasing and cooking food in accordance to the requirement.

(iv) Tips to maintain sanitation and hygiene in the Kitchen are :
1. All kitchen equipment and utensils should be kept clean and in good condition.
2. Food should be covered after cooking.
3. Personal hygiene must be maintained.

Question 5.
(i) Mention two environmental factors that affect the shelf life of the food products. [2]
(ii) How food can be protected in all stages? [2]
(iii) Mention three personal hygiene methods while handling the food. [3]
(iv) Write three advantages of convenience foods. [3]
Answer:
(i) Temperature and humidity, are the environmental factors which affects the shelf life of the food products.

(ii) Food should be protected during storage, in preparation, in serving and while purchasing. This helps to prevent bacterial contamination when food is consumed.

(iii) Three personal hygiene methods while handling the food are :
1. Avoid nail paint and long nails.
2. Avoid coughing and sneezing while handling food.
3. Washing hands with proper soap to ensure hygiene.

(iv) Advantages of convenience foods are :
1. They are easy to prepare since they are semi-processed and hence are very convenient to use.
2. They come in handy during travelling or in places where certain food items are not available.
3. They have increased shelf life.

Question 6.
(i) How can brochure be helpful to people? [2]
(ii) What is puppetry? [2]
(iii) Mention three uses of communication. [3]
(iv) List the uses of flyers for communication. [3]
Answer:
(i) A brochure can be used to convey step by step information and educate people on social causes. They help to promote a product or service offering.

(ii) Puppetry is a form of performance that involves conveying stories or awareness by manipulating the puppets.

(iii) Three uses of communication are:
1. Marketing a product or event.
2. Spreading social awareness.
3. For the promotion of charitable causes.

(iv) Uses of flyers for communication are :
1. To explain a community issue and to popularise a slogan or message.
2. It is used to inform people about their rights.
3. It is used for advertising vacancies for new businesses, clubs or restaurants.

Question 7.
(i) What is child labour? [2]
(ii) Explain HDI. Give two pros and cons of HDI. [2]
(iii) What is carbon Footprints? Explain carbon off setting? [3]
(iv) How population explosion and poverty inter-related? [3]
Answer:
(i) Child labour refers to the exploitation of children through any form of work that deprives them of their childhood, interferes with their ability to attend regular school and is mentally, physically, socially and morally harmful.

(ii) HDI or Human Development Index is a statistic composite index of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators.
Pros of HDI:
1. Wide use
2. Increased infrastructure
Cons of HDI:
1. Measures data on a few areas.
2. Reflect on long-term changes.

(iii) A carbon footprint is the total amount of greenhouse gases (including carbon dioxide and methane) that are generated by the actions of the humans. The average carbon footprint for a person in the United States is 16 tons, one of the highest rates in the world. Globally, the average carbon footprint is closer to 4 tons. For example, the carbon footprint of a bottle of water includes the CO₂ or CO₂ equivalent emitted during the manufacture of the bottle itself plus the amount emitted during the transportation of the bottle to the consumer. Decreasing the carbon footprints is referred to as carbon offsetting. It can be achieved either by decreasing the amount of energy required for production or by decreasing the dependence on carbon emitting fuels.

(iv) Population explosion is the rapid and large increase in the number of a particular species. The growth in population of humans has led to the socio-economic and ecological problems like poverty. This is due to increased illiteracy and low awareness. First, rapid population growth is likely to reduce per capita income growth and well-being, which tends to increase poverty. Second, in densely populated poor nations with pressure on land, rapid population growth increases landlessness and hence the incidence of poverty. Thus both the terms population explosion and poverty are inter related.

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) Shelf life means:
(a) No spoilage of food
(b) deterioration of food after a short period of time
(c) preservation of food
(d) adulteration of food
Answer:
(b) Deterioration of food after a short period of time.
Explanation:
Shelf life means deterioration or spoilage of food after a certain period due to chemical or biological changes.

(ii) _________ fibres are also called wash and wear fabrics.
(a) cotton
(b) silk
(c) synthetic
(d) wool
Answer:
(c) Synthetic
Explanation:
Synthetic fibres are called wash and wear fabrics as they can be easily cleaned, and they dry quickly.

(iii) In West Bengal the glove puppet is called:
(a) Kathputli
(b) Benerputul
(c) Sutoputul
(d) Pavakoothu
Answer:
(b) Benerputul
Explanation:
In West Bengal glove puppets are used and are known as Benerputul.

(iv) Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana is a:
(a) health insurance scheme
(b) productive income generating scheme
(c) financial scheme accessing to bank accounts and pensions
(d) a scheme to safeguard the health of women and children
Answer:
(c) financial scheme accessing to bank accounts and pensions
Explanation:
Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojana aims to expand affordable access to financial services such as bank accounts, remittances, credit, insurance, and pensions.

(v) The method applied in washing of woollen clothes is:
(a) washing by friction
(b) kneading and squeezing method
(c) washing by suction washer
(d) wet cleaning
Answer:
(b) kneading and squeezing method
Explanation:
Wool is a weak protein fibre and should be washed with gentle kneading and squeezing technique.

(vi) Name the stiffening agent used for cotton clothes:
(a) Gum Arabic
(b) Anilline Blue
(c) Rice Starch
(d) Detergents
Answer:
(c) Rice starch
Explanation:
The rice grains are crushed to make starch at home with cold water.

(vii) The life span of a perishable food is for:
(a) One month
(b) One Year
(c) One to two days
(d) One and a half month.
Answer:
(c) One to two days
Explanation:
Perishable foods can be kept at room temperature for only few hours or up to 1 or 2 days before they get spoilt.

(viii) _________ is an example of nonperishable food.
(a) flesh food
(b) milk products
(c) spices
(d) fruits
Answer:
(c) Spices
Explanation:
Non-perishable foods can be kept for months or years without spoilage.

(ix) Ironing temperature of linen fabric is:
(a) 100° F
(b) 275° F
(c) 450° F
(d) 400° F
Answer:
(c) 450°F
Explanation:
The ironing temperature for linen is 450° F.

(x) What is the full form of HDI?
(a) Human Diabetic Index
(b) Human Default Index
(c) Human Development Index
(d) Human Download Index
Answer:
(c) Human Development Index
Explanation:
Human development Index or HDI is the statistic composite index of life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators.

Section – B[40 Marks]
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) List any two advantages of soaking clothes prior to washing. [2]
(ii) Enlist any two advantages of applying stiffening agents. [2]
(iii) Discuss any three considerations while laundering of a silk shirt. [3]
(iv) List any three properties of a good laundry soap. [3]
Answer:
(i) Two advantages of soaking clothes prior to washing are:
1. Soaking economises factors such as time, labour, and soap.
2. Loose and soluble dirt are removed by the action of water molecules.

(ii) Two advantages of applying stiffening agents are:
1. Stiffening agents make the garments and fabric appear smooth and shiny.
2. Stiffening agents make the fabric easier to iron and gives body and crispness to the garment.

(iii) Three considerations while laundering a silk shirt are :
1. Soaking should be generally avoided. If necessary, should be soaked for 15 minutes in lukewarm/ cold water.
2. Wash using kneading and squeezing technique with neutral soap.
3. Ironing should be before the shirt is completely dry and never sprinkle water while ironing.

(iv) Properties of good laundry soap are :
1. The colour of the soap should be clear and pale. Dark coloured soaps contain impurities.
2. It should be hard to touch as soaps that are soft contain excessive water.
3. When the soap is broken it should appear granular.

Question 3.
(i) Give any two reasons why steeping of woollen clothes should be avoided. [2]
(ii) Name the fabric and reasons for boiling clothes. [2]
(iii) State any three factors to be kept in mind while starching a fabric. [3]
(iv) List three advantages of blueing clothes. [3]
Answer:
(i) Steeping of woollen clothes should be avoided due to following reasons :
1. Wool is a weak and elastic fibre. If steeped the fabric gets damaged and looses its natural elasticity.
2. Knitted woollen clothes lose shape when wet hence these need to be put back to shape after washing.

(ii) 1. Cotton or linen can be boiled in water, overnight if they are heavily soiled.
2. These clothes are boiled in order to disinfect them and to restore the whiteness and freshness of these fabrics.

(iii) The factors to be kept in mind while starching a fabric are:
1. Whether the fabric is thick or thin.
2. The amount of stiffness a fabric can take.
3. Amount of stiffness desired by the user.

(iv) Three advantages of blueing clothes are :
1. Blue is used in laundering to restore the whiteness of the white fabric.
2. Blue is the complementary colour of yellow and diminishes the yellowish tinge of the fabric making it appear white.
Blued fabric should be dried in sun for getting better result.
3. Blueing agents have a pH balancer and a biocide which prevents the buildup of algae and bacteria.

Question 4.
(i) Define food hygiene. [2]
(ii) Suggest any two precautionary measures to be followed by food handlers. [2]
(iii) List three ways of storing eggs to maintain its freshness. [3]
(iv) Enumerate any three ways by which oil acts as a natural preservative in picking. [3]
Answer:
(i) Food hygiene may be defined as the handling of food in a way that will keep it safe and free from all contaminants.

(ii) Precautionary measures to be followed by food handlers are:
1. Avoid coughing, sneezing, spitting, smoking or use of perfumes while handling food.
2. Wash hands properly with antibacterial soap before starting the work.

(iii) Three ways of storing eggs to maintain its freshness are :
1. Eggs are best kept in a cool place in an airy room or refrigerator.
2. Eggs should not be washed before storing as the pores of the shell covered with organic matter will be exposed for microbial attack.
3. To store the eggs, the pointed end should be facing downwards to prevent the movement of air cell the yolk.

(iv) Three ways by which oil acts as a natural preservative in pickles are:
1. The oil added to the pickle helps in checking air from coming in contact with the pickle to prevent them from spoilage.
2. It forms a layer on the pickle and thus reduces the air available for the growth of microorganisms.
3. Oils also prevent the antimicrobial action.

Question 5.
(i) Name two important chemical preservatives permitted and popularly used in the preservation industry. [2]
(ii) Define perishability of food. [2]
(iii) State any three points to be kept in mind while storing processed cereal products. [3]
(iv) Discuss any three precautionary measures to be followed while refrigerating food. [3]
Answer:
(i) Benzoic acid or sodium benzoate and potassium metabisulphite, are used as perservatives.

(ii) Perishable foods can be kept in room temperature for only few hours or up to 1 to 2 days. They get spoilt easily for example : milk, meat, fish, etc.

(iii) Points to be kept in mind while storing processed cereal products are :
1. The processed cereals get easily infested by insects if not taken care and due to this they develop off-flavour.
2. They should be sieved and cleaned of all contamination. Then they should be exposed to sun for few hours and then cooled to store them properly.
3. Storing should be done in air tight covered bottles or containers.

(iv) Precautionary measures to be followed while refrigerating food are :
1. Perishable food should be kept in a compartment close to the freezer.
2. Food kept in the refrigerator should be consumed as early as possible.
3. Only wholesome and fresh food should be kept in the refrigerator.

Question 6.
(i) State the meaning of gender discrimination. [2]
(ii) State any two objectives of Beti Bachao Beti Padhao. [2]
(iii) Discuss the three features of PMUY. [3]
(iv) List three points to be remembered for writing a brochure. [3]
Answer:
(i) Gender discrimination is the unequal or disadvantageous treatment of an individual or group of individuals based on their gender.

(ii) Two objectives of “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” are :
1. “Beti Bachao Beti Padhao” is a campaign to generate awareness and improve the efficiency of welfare services meant for girls.
2. The campaign also ensures the survival, protection, and empowerment of girls in India.

(iii) The three features of Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana (PMUY) are:
1. Protecting the health of women and empowering them.
2. Curbing health issues that result from using fossil fuels and other fuels for cooking.
3. Reducing casualties that occur as a result of the use of unclean fuels used for cooking.

(iv) Points to be remembered for writing a brochure are :
1. The language in the brochure should be simple, concise, and clear.
2. There should be short sentences without complicated words or phrases.
3. The language should be informal and preferably in active voice.

Question 7.
(i) What is the aim of street play? [2]
(ii) Name the two components of AYUSHMAN BHARAT SCHEME. [2]
(iii) Discuss any three causes of child labour. [3]
(iv) Write a short note on women empowerment. [3]
Answer:
(i) The aim of the street paly is to communicate and educate people on social issues like dowry, human trafficking, child labour, and more. This is an easy way to operate awareness campaigns on the problems faced by the society.

(ii) Ayushman Bharat has adopted two inter-related components for the care approach.
These are :
1. Establishment of Health and Wellness Centres (HWCs).
2. Establishment of Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PM-JAY)

(iii) The causes of child labour are :
1. Poverty is one of the major causes of child labour. Many parents can not afford to send their children to school, instead they send them to work to support the family.
2. Illiteracy is another cause of child labour. Many illiterate families borrow money in emergency and when unable to pay forcibly send their children to work.
3. The poor access to decent work and the professional needs of some industries force the children to work with dangerous elements.

(iv) Women empowerment is the social movement through which women can gain power and control their own lives. Women empowerment includes five components:
1. To have a sense of self-worth.
2. To have a sense of rights to have and determine her choices.
3. Awareness to have access to resources and opportunities.
4. The right to have the power to control her own life within and outside home.
5. The ability to create a fair social and economic order both nationally and internationally.

ICSE Class 10 Home Science Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) A person appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before which of the following?
(a) Prime minister
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General of India
(d) President of India
Answer:
(d) President of India.
Explanation:
A person appointed as a judge of the Supreme Court, before entering upon his office, has to make and subscribe an oath or affirmation before the President, or some person appointed by him for this purpose.

(ii) With respect to the parliamentary form of government in India, who among the following is considered as the nominal executive?
(a) Vice President of India
(b) President of India
(c) Prime Minister of India
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) President of India.
Explanation:
In the Parliamentary system of government, Prime Minister is the real executive authority whereas the President is the nominal executive authority. The President is the head of the State while Prime Minister is the head of the government.

(iii) The __________ is presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha.
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(c) Vice President.
Explanation:
The Vice President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha. The House also elects a Deputy Chairman from among its members.

(iv) How many types of writs are issued by Supreme Court?
(a) 3
(b) 5
(c) 4
(d) 6
Answer:
(b) 5
Explanation:
There are five types of Writs which are Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Certiorari, Quo Warranto and Prohibition and all these writs are an effective method of enforcing the rights of the people and to compel the authorities to fulfil the duties which are bound to perform under the law.

(v) Arunachal Pradesh _______ Comes under the jurisdiction of which high court.
(a) Sikkim
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Gauhati
(d) Kolkata
Answer:
(c) Gauhati
Explanation:
It was originally known as the High Court of Assam and Nagaland, but renamed as Gauhati High Court in 1971 by the North-Eastern Areas (Reorganisation) Act, 1971. It has largest jurisdiction in terms of states, with its area covering the states of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, and Mizoram.

(vi) On which date United Nations Organisations was formed in San Francisco?
(a) March 1, 1990
(b) September 6,1957
(c) October 24,1945
(d) December 8,1940
Answer:
(c) October 24,1945
Explanation:
After bitter experience of two World Wars, the world leaders wanted an organisation more powerful than the league of Nations. They held many conferences to discuss the nature and viability of such an organisation. This efforts finally took shape at San Francisco and UNO came into existence on October 24,1945.

(vii) Which country was not part of Triple alliance in First World War?
(a) Russia
(b) Italy
(c) Germany
(d) Austria-Hungary
Answer:
(a) Russia
Explanation:
Triple Alliance, secret agreement between Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy formed in May 1882 and renewed periodically until World War I. Germany and Austria-Hungary had been closely allied since 1879.

(viii) Which country is not the permanent member of United Nation Security Council?
(a) France
(b) Russia
(c) Germany
(d) China
Answer:
(c) Germany
Explanation:
The Security Council has five permanent members – China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States – collectively known as the P5.

(ix) The Treaty of Versailles signed on:
(a) 28 Jun., 1919
(b) 12 Feb.,1919
(c) 28 Dec., 1920
(d) 24 Oct.1920
Answer:
(a) 28 June, 1919
Explanation:
Treaty of Versailles, peace document signed at the end of World War I by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany in the Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles, France, on June 28, 1919; it took force on January 10,1920.

(x) Who led the fascist movement in Italy?
(a) Adolf Hitler
(b) Joseph Stalin
(c) Benito Mussolini
(d) Vladimir Lenin
Answer:
(c) Benito Mussolini
Explanation:
In Italy, Benito Mussolini used his charisma to establish a powerful fascist state. Benito Mussolini coined the term “fascism” in 1919 to describe his political movement.

Part – II
Section – A [50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The scheme of parliamentary system of government provided by the Constitution. In this context, answer the following question:
(i) Describe any two executive powers of President.
(ii) Mention the circumstances when the President can declare a National Emergency.
(iii) What are the functions of Cabinet?
(iv) State any three qualification required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice President of India
Answer:
(i) The two executive powers of President are:
1. Head of the Union Executive: All executive orders are issued in the name of the President.
2. Formation of the council of Ministers: The constitution lays down that the Prime Minister is to be appointed by the president and the other Ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the Prime Minister.

(ii) The circumstances under which the President can declare a National Emergency are :
1. General or National Emergency (Article 352) caused by war, external aggression or armed rebellion.
2. Emergency due to failure of constitutional machinery in a state (Article 360)

(iii) The functions of Cabinet are:
1. Administrative Function: The Cabinet is the chief policy making organ of the government. It is the highest decision-making authority in Indian politico-administrative system which frames both the external and domestic policies of the government.

2. Policy Implementation: Once the policy is formulated the Cabinet looks after the execution of the policy. The policies framed by the Cabinet are communicated to the entire Council of Ministers which remains collectively responsible towards the implementation of the policies, wherein experienced and well trained professional body of civil servants assist them.

3. Legislative Function: Cabinet forms an integral part of the legislative system. It is in the cabinet that all the important government bills are drafted. The Cabinet Ministers formulate policies, make decisions and draft bills on all significant matters which in their judgement require legislative attention. Almost 95% of such decisions and policies presented in the Parliament are directed by the Cabinet which are further approved by taking the necessary votes from the members of Parliament.

(iv) (a) Qualification required for a candidate to be elected as the Vice President of India;
1. He/She should be a citizen of India.
2. He /She should have completed 35 years of age.
3. He /She should be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.

(b) The Vice President assumes the duties of the President whenever he takes over the office of the President for a period of six months at best whenever the office falls vacant by reason of death, resignation or impeachment of the President.

Question 3.
(i) How are the Judges of a High Court appointed?
(ii) What is meant by judicial review?
(iii) India has a single integrated judicial system that is independent and supreme. With reference to the judiciary answer the following:
Who appoints the judges of High court and State any two qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a High court judge.
(iv) State the term of office of the Judges of the High Court. Explain when and how the Judges can be removed from office.
Answer:
(i) The Chief Justice of High Court is appointed by the President under his own hand and seal while appointing the Chief Justice, the President consults the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the concerned State. In case of the appointment of other judges, the President consults the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court also.

(ii) The Judicial review is a process through which the judiciary examines whether a law enacted by a legislature or an action of the executive is in accordance with the Constitution or not. A law may be declared ‘ultra vires’ or null and void if it is against the letter and spirit of the Constitution or infringes any provision of the Constitution.

(iii) (a) The judges of high courts are appointed by the president of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the concerned state.

(b) The qualifications required for a person to be appointed as a High court judge:
1. He/ She should be a citizen of India.
2. He/ She should have held a judicial office in the territory of India for 10 years or more or should have been an advocate of a High Court for minimum 10 years.
3. He/ She should not be over 62 years of age.

(iv) A Judge of a High Court shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-two or they themselves resign their office. Neither an additional nor an acting Judge can hold office beyond the age of sixty-two years. A Judge of High Court cannot be removed from office except by an order of the President on the grounds of proved misbehaviour or incapacity. Such an order is passed after an address by each House of Parliament supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by a majority of not less than two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting for such a removal.

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention two similarities between Fascism and Nazism
(ii) How Treaty of Versailles cause the rise of Nazism in Germany?
(iii) Why the league of Nation failed? Mention any three causes.
(iv) Mention any three causes for the rise of Fascism in Italy.
Answer:
(i) Two similarities between Fascism and Nazism:
1. Both aimed to provide a strong and stable government. According to them, dictatorship was the best form of government and progress could be assured by working under one leader only.

2. Both laid stress on nationalism and shunned individual institutions. They favoured equal control over all sections of society viz., capitalists, industrialists, labourers, peasants, etc.

(ii) The Treaty of Versailles which was signed by the representatives of the Weimar Government had imposed very harsh terms on Germany. They had to pay heavy war indemnity. All her overseas possessions were taken away. The sizes of the German army and navy were asked to be reduced. The violation of Germany’s right of self-determination and not to unite with Austria created a psychology of revenge.

(iii) The League of Nation failed due to following reasons:
1. The League had no armed forces of its own, the only weapon that was available with the League was the economic sanctions.
2. The membership was not universal.
3. The US did not become a member of the League of Nations.
4. The defeated nations were not allowed to be members in the beginning.
Rise of dictatorships in Germany and in Italy proved to be a big threat to the League.
5. It became difficult for an international body like the League to exist when its members lacked
international views. (any 3 points can be written)

(iv) The three causes for the rise of Fascism in Italy are:
1. Dissatisfaction with the Treaty of Versailles: As per the treaty, Italy got control of only Southern Tyrol and Trentino and the coastal regions of Dalmatia. But Italy had hoped to annex the German and Turkish Colonial Empire, an ambition left unfulfilled by the treaty.

2. Economic Crisis-The Italian economy was not only unable to recover from the post-war losses but also was unable to provide jobs for the unemployed youth. The liberal democratic government was unable to cope with the economic crisis and failed to implement any result oriented programs for the economic recovery of the country.

3. Fascist Propaganda and Class Conflicts: People were getting impatient and frustrated with the slow and inefficient democratic style of government. A number of political groups like the communists and the socialists, organised industrial workers and peasants emerged with the aim of overthrowing the existing government and replacing it with a socialist pattern like that of the Soviet Union. The industrialists and big businessmen gave financial support to the Fascists.

Question 5.
(i) When is United Nation day observed? How many official languages are in United Nation name them?
(ii) Why veto power is considered a negative power in the Security Council?
(iii) Mentions any three functions of Security Council.
(iv) What are the reasons behind the establishment of united Nation?
Answer:
(i) The United Nation day observed every year on 24th October.There are six official languages of the United Nations, namely, English, Chinese, Arabic, French, Spanish and Russian.

(ii) The veto power is a negative vote to delay any decision by five permanent members of UN Security Council. Sometimes the moves have been made to change this but it is presumed to have a danger to lose interest by great powers, and without their support and involvement such organisation would become ineffective.

(iii) The three functions of Security Council are:
1. To maintain international peace and security in accordance with the principles of the UN charter.
The Council can take any quick and effective action to prevent an international war.
2. To formulate plans, submitted to the members of the UN on issues such as regulation of armaments.
3. To call on member states to apply and enforce economic sanctions against the aggressor and thus to put pressure on the guilty state to stop aggression.
4. To investigate international disputes, any threat to peace or act of aggression and recommend
appropriate methods of settling and resolving such disputes. (any 3 points can be written)

(iv) The reasons behind the establishment of united Nation are:
1. The Second World War and the Fear of another War: Second World War proved to be more destructive than the first. It left millions of people dead and disabled. The economy of many nations was also left in complete shambles. Realization of the fact that another war of a greater scale would possibly bring about complete destruction of the world and wipe out human civilization became a matter of concern all over the world.

2. Elimination of Mutual Suspicions: The results of the Second World War was the division of some of the major countries into diametrically opposed ideological blocs. There was an urgent need to pacify and bring them together through an institution that appeared to be even handed and neutral.

3. Invention of destructive Weapons: With the invention and deployment of sophisticated nuclear weapons, the threat to the survival of modern civilization had intensified more than ever.
Therefore, an organization was required to ensure that such deadly weapons would not be used.

Question 6.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow :

(i) What is the composition of International Court of justice?
(ii) Mention any two functions of UNESCO.
(iii) What are the major functions of UNICEF? Mention any three.
(iv) Explain the role of Jawaharlal Nehru in Non-aligned movement.
Answer:
(i) It is the emblem of “International Court of Justice”. It’s headquarter is located at The Hague, Netherlands.

(ii) Two functions of International Court of Justice are :
1. The jurisdiction extends to disputes pertaining to the interpretation of international law, reparation i.e., compensation for breach of international obligation.
2. The General Assembly or the Security Council may request the International Court of Justice to give its advice or opinion on any legal question.

(iii) Three functions of UNESCO are :
1. To correct imbalances in scientific and technological man power, which is largely concentrated in the countries.
2. To make primary education compulsory for the removal of illiteracy.
3. It gives every possible encouragement to artistic creations in the field of literature and fine arts.
4. It plays a vital role in distribution of knowledge about the human rights.

(iv) Major functions of UNICEF are :
1. It provides services in primary health, nutrition, family and child welfare, basic education, vocational training for the benefit of children, sanitation and women’s development programmes are undertaken in developing countries.

2. These programmes include providing balanced food and protective food like milk, meat fish etc.

3. Training and orientation of national personnel including health and sanitation workers, teachers, nutritionists and child welfare specialists.

4. Technical supplies, equipment and other aids ranging from paper for text books and equipment and medicines for health to pipes and pumps for bringing clean water to villages are delivered.

5. Basic social services are provided for children in developing countries like campaigns against endemic diseases and preventable diseases and malnutrition have been carried on. Emergency help is provided to victims of foods, earthquakes drought or other diseases.

6. Interests of women and facilities for pregnant women are provided. Conventions for suppression of traffic in women and children, crime prevention etc. are supported.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) _________ lay down that there shall be Council of Minister with Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President in discharge of his function.
(a) Article 65
(b) Article 74
(c) Article 45
(d) Article 50
Answer:
(b) Article 74
Explanation:
Article 74 lay down that there shall be Council of Minister with Prime Minister at the head to aid and advice the President in discharge of his function.

(ii) The is the chief policy making organ of the country.
(a) Prime Minister
(b) High Court
(c) Cabinet
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(c) Cabinet
Explanation:
The Cabinet is the chief policy making organ of the country. It is the highest decision making authority in Indian politico administration system.

(iii) The _________ enjoy advisory jurisdiction on the matters referred to the court for the legal advice by the President.
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Sub ordinate Court
(d) All of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court
Explanation:
According to article act 143 of the Constitution^ it appears to the president that any question of law of public importance has arisen, he /she may refer to the Supreme Court.

(iv) _________ is the highest Criminal Court in District.
(a) Session Court
(b) District Court
(c) Lok Adalats
(d) Sub Ordinate Court
Answer:
(a) Session Court
Explanation:
Session Court is the highest Criminal Court in district presided by Session Judge.

(v) _________ is the ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States.
(a) Vice President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(a) Vice President
Explanation:
The Vice President is the ex-officio chairman of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha), thus primarily perform the function of the chairman of the Council of States.

(vi) _________ formed the squard of street fighters who wore black uniform.
(a) Hitler
(b) Mussolini
(c) Hindenburg
(d) Danzig
Answer:
(b) Mussolini
Explanation:
Mussolini formed the squard of street fighters who wore black uniform, therefore they came to be known as Black Shirts.

(vii) Italy, Germany and _________ were the main power in the Triple Alliance.
(a) Spain
(b) Austria Hungry
(c) Berlin
(d) Tokyo
Answer:
(b) Austria Hungry
Explanation:
Italy, Germany and Austria Hungry were the main power in the Triple Alliance,while England,France and Russia formed the Triple Entente.

(viii) The _________ is the largest legislative organ of the UN.
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Security Council
(c) The International Court of Justice
(d) The Secretariat
Answer:
(a) The General Assembly
Explanation:
The General Assembly is the the largest legislative organs of the UN. It is the only organ that consists of all members of UN

(ix) The league of nation was established in _________ after the first World War.
(a) 1918
(b) 1919
(c) 1920
(d) 1921
Answer:
(b) 1919
Explanation:
The league of Nation is established in 1919 with the aim of fostering peace among the nation.

(x) _________ is the country stood for dictatorship, war and imperialism.
(a) Britain
(b) France
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer:
(c) Japan
Explanation:
Germany, Italy and Japan stood for dictatorship, war and imperialism on the other hands Britain,France and USA stood for peace and security.

Part – II
Section – A [50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The Supreme Court is the ‘Apex Court’ of the judicial system with the reference to the statement answer the following question:
(i) How the judges of Supreme Court appointed? [2]
(ii) How many types of jurisdiction does Supreme Court of India enjoys? Name them. [2]
(iii) Explain writs of Quo Warranto, Mandamus and Habeas Carpus. [3]
(iv) Write any three qualification required to be a judge of Supreme Court. [3]
Answer:
(i) Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his/her hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and of the High Court in the States as President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of 65 years.

(ii) The Supreme Court in India has three types of jurisdictions-Original, Appellate and Advisory as provided in Articles 131,133-136 and 143 respectively of the Indian Constitution.

(iii) The writ of ‘Quo Warranto’ is generally issued against a person who has illegally or forcefully occupied a public office. It also questions the bonafides of the person holding such an office. If a person illegally occupies a post, this writ is generally issued against that person.

In Latin ‘Mandamus’ means ‘we command’. The writ is issued when a petition is filed against any public official or unit who is not performing his/her/its duty. In such cases the higher court can command the lower court to perform its duty.

Habeas Corpus: Habeas Corpus is a latin term which mean ‘you may have the body’. It providers a remedy for a person who has been unlawfully held in prison or in police custody. The writ can also be issued when a person has been detained by a private individual. The Supreme Court and High Court command the detain authority to bring the prisoner into court to explain why he is being held.

(iv) The three qualifications required for appointment as a judge of the Supreme Court are:
1. The person should be a citizen of India; and
2. He/she should have been for at least five years a Judge of a High Court or of two or more such Courts in success.
3. He/she has been for at least ten years an advocate of a High Court or of two or more such courts in succession.

Question 3.
Answer the following questions in regard to the below picture:

(i) Identify the above picture and describe the same. [2]
(ii) Which kind of cases are solved by this methods? [2]
(iii) State any three advantages of the same process. [3]
(iv) State the meaning of the method used in above picture and how is its useful. [3]
Answer:
(i) The above picture depicts Lok Adalat. ‘Lok’ stands for People and the word ‘Adalat’ means Court. Lok Adalat is a special kind of people’s court in which disputes solved by direct talks between the litigant’s.

(ii) Civil cases, Matrimonial cases, MACT CASES and petty offence cases are mainly referred for lok i adalats.

(iii) The advantages of Lok Adalats are:
1. They work in the spirit of compromise and understanding which makes both parties feel satisfied.
2. They deliver inexpensive and fast justice.
3. They allow any person to move Lok Adalat by an application on a plain paper or by using the format available with Legal Services Authorities.

(iv) Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled/ compromised amicably. Lok Adalats have been given statutory status under the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.

Usefulness of Lok Adalats:
1. The Lok Adalats is a forum used to bring justice to poor and underprivileged people of India.
2. It ensures that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities.

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War and Second World war, answer the following questions:
(i) When and why did the Second World War started? [2]
(ii) What do you mean by Aggressive Nationalism? [2]
(iii) Name the two military alliances formed before the First World War. How did their formations make the First World War inevitable? [3]
(iv) Explain the immediate cause of the First World War.
Or
What was the Sarajevo Crisis?
Or
How the Sarajevo Crisis of the 1914 lead to the First World War? [3]
Answer:
(i) Hitler’s invasion of Poland in September 1939 drove Great Britain and France to declare war on Germany, marking the beginning of World War II. Over the next six years, the conflict would take more lives and destroy more land and property around the globe than any previous war.

(ii) Aggressive nationalism was partly responsible for World War I. The love of one’s country demanded the hatred of another country. European leaders’ aggression towards other countries was supported by the increasing nationalism of the European nations.

(iii) The two triple alliances formed before the First World War were:
1. Triple Alliance: It had Germany, Austria-Hungary and Italy as its members.

2. Triple Entente: It has Britain, Russia and France as its members.
The conflicts within Europe and the conflicts over colonies mentioned earlier had begun to create a very tense situation in Europe from the last decade of the nineteenth century. European countries began to form themselves into opposing groups. They also started spending vast sums of money to increase the size of their armies and navies, to develop new and more deadly weapons, and to generally prepare themselves for war, Europe was gradually becoming a vast armed camp.

France was defeated very badly in the Franco-Prussian War of 1870-71. After this war, the German Chancellor, Bismarck adopted such a diplomatic foreign policy as to keep France isolated and prevented her from establishing friendly relations with any other European country. Britain as stated above was alarmed at the growing military power of Germany. As early as in 1879, Germany had concluded a secret military alliance with Austria-Hungary called the “Dual Alliance”. It provided for mutual military assistance in case either country is attacked by France or Russia.

Italy joined it later on in 1882. Thus, it was converted into ‘Triple Alliance’. Britain, Russia and France formed the Triple Entente in 1907. Thus, Europe was divided into two hostile groups. The real aims of the countries which joined these alliances were the extension of their colonial possessions; an all-European war almost certainly would become a worldwide war.

(iv) Immediate cause: Archduke Francis Ferdinand, the heir to the throne of Austria-Hungary, was assassinated at Sarajevo, capital of Bosnia on June 28, 1914. The assassination was organised by a secret society called ‘Black Hand’ or’Union of Death’ formed by extremist Serbian nationalists whose aim was to unite all Serbians into a single Serbian State.

Austria declared an ultimatum on Serbia on June 23 making eleven demands. Serbia accepted most of the demands except those that would have led to the loss of her sovereignty. Austria declared was on Serbia on July 28, 1914. Russia started preparing for the war to support Serbia. On August 1, 1914 Germany declared war on Russia; and on August 3, on France. German troops marched into Belgium to press on to France on August 4 and on the same day Britain declared war on Germany.

Many other countries soon entered into the War. Japan declared war on Germany to capture German colonies in the far East. Turkey and Bulgaria joined on the side of Germany. Italy remained neutral for some time but joined the war against Germany in 1915 after breaking the Triple Alliance.

Question 5.
With reference to the organs of the United Nation, answer the following questions:
(i) Write down the composition of General Assembly. [2]
(ii) Describe the UN emblem depicted on its flag. [2]
(iii) What are the major achievements of the UNICEF? [3]
(iv) Mention the functions of UNESCO in the field of education. [3]
Answer:
(i) The General Committee is composed of the President of the General Assembly and 21 Vice-Presidents of the Assembly and the Chairman of the six Main Committees. The five permanent members of the Security Council serve as Vice-Presidents, as well.

(ii) On 20 October, 1947 the General Assembly adopted resolution 167 (II) on the United Nations Flag. Description: The official emblem of the United Nations in white, centered on a light blue background. The blue and white flag of the UN consists of the two olive branches encasing a picture of the world. The two olive branches represent peace and the map represents the countries of the world. The emblem therefore stands for peace between nations.

(iii) Major achievements of UNICEF: The four-point programme against preventable diseases:
1. Immunization,
2. Oral dehydration,
3. Advocating breast feeding,
4. Monitoring growth. This has reduced diseases considerably.
UNICEF celebrated 1979 as the International Year of the Child for focusing people’s attention on the rights of children. It has supported AIDS education and helps families of its victims. Health centers and maternity homes have been established. Poverty stricken, disabled, demented and victims of other emergencies are provided special protection.

With UNICEF’s efforts a world summit for children was held at UN headquarters attended by representatives of 150 countries. Thus, along with other UN agencies UNICEF has achieved considerable success in achieving its goals, but there is still at lot more to be done.

(iv) Functions in the field of Education:
1. To raise education standards throughout the world – specially for women and girls, who in turn will educate their children.

2. To make primary education compulsory for the removal of illiteracy.

3. Spread of knowledge by training teachers, educational planners, administrators, to encourage local building programmes and equipment of schools. To provide grants and fellowships to teachers and scholars, organise library systems and promote international understanding through education.

4. To guide and expand education to enable the developing countries to take their own development in hand more effectively.

Question 6.
With reference to UN Agencies and Non-Aligned Movements. Answer the following questions.
(i) When was UNICEF established and where is the Headquarter located? [2]
(ii) Write any two functions of UNICEF for the welfare of children. [2]
(iii) What steps has the UNICEF taken to protect women’s interest? [3]
(iv) Discuss the role of WHO in combating diseases. [3]
Answer:
(i) The United Nations Children’s Fund (UNICEF) is a United Nations program. It’s headquarter is in New York City. It was established on 11th December, 1946.

(ii) The two functions of UNICEF are as follow:
1. UNICEF’s activities include providing immunizations and disease prevention, administering treatment for children and mothers with HIV, enhancing childhood and maternal nutrition

2. It helps in improving sanitation, promoting education, and providing emergency relief in response to disasters.

(iii) Women’s development is also one of the aims of UNICEF. It provides facilities for pregnant mothers. A number of maternity homes have been opened. It takes care of the interest of women and has extended support to various conventions for the suppression of traffic in women and children, crime prevention and child labour. It protects rights of children.

(iv) WHO or World Health Organisation performs three vital roles in combating diseases which are as follows:
1. To fight against diseases throughout the world and to prevent their spread at the source.

2. It has launched a programme along with UNICEF to immunize children against six major diseases like measles, diphtheria, tetanus, tuberculosis, polio and whooping cough.

3. To set international standards for food, water, biological and pharmaceutical production such as drugs, medicines and vaccines.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 4 with Answers

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The impeachment motion of the judge of the Supreme Court must be supported by members of the Lok Sabha.
(a) 100
(b) 50
(c) 150
(d) 200
Answer:
(a) 100
Explanation:
The impeachment of the judge of the Supreme Court can only be initiated if 100 members of the Lok Sabha or 50 members of Rajya Sabha deliver a motion addressed to the President of India.

(ii) The _______ occupies the highest position in Judicial Administration in a state.
(a) Lok Adalats
(b) District Court
(c) High Court
(d) Supreme Court
Answer:
(c) High Court
Explanation:
The judiciary in a State consists of a high court and a hierarchy of sub ordinate courts where High Court has the highest position in the judicial administration of a state.

(iii) Which of the following institutions has been included in the election of the President to make it truly the choice of the nation?
(a) The Lok Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha
(c) The Legislative Assemblies
(d) The Legislative Councils
Answer:
(c) The Legislative Assemblies
Explanation:
The Legislative Assemblies of the states have been included in the election of the President in order to make the President more truely representative of the choice of the nation.

(iv) The legal system of of a court has the power to hear a case first time.
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction
(c) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(c) Original Jurisdiction
Explanation:
Original jurisdiction is the right of a court to hear a case for the first time.

(v) is the commander in chief of the Armed force of India.
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(a) President
Explanation:
The President as the commander in chief also has authority in senior military officer mutation and promotion in tour of duty.

(vi) The First World War that broke out in lasted for four years and three months.
(a) 1913
(b) 1914
(c) 1915
(d) 1916
Answer:
(b) 1914
Explanation:
The world has witnessed many wars but none was fought on as large scale like First World War in 1914.

(vii) During the course of war, which of the given countries did not join the Entente?
(a) Canada
(b) Australia
(c) Italy
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India
Explanation:
The alliance among Russia, France and Britain was known as the Triple Entente.
During the course of war, many other countries, such as Canada, Australia, Italy, Japan and the United State also joined the Entente.

(viii) There are _________official languages of the United Nation.
(a) Five
(b) Six
(c) Four
(d) Seven
Answer:
(b) Six
Explanation:
There are six official languages of the United Nation namely, English,Chinese, Arabic, French, Spanish and Russia.

(ix) The _________ is the most important effective organ of United Nation.
(a) The General Assembly
(b) The Security Coundi
(c) The Secretariat
(d) Trusteeship Council
Answer:
(b) The Security Council
Explanation:
The Security Council is the executive wing of United Nation which consists of 15 members.

(x) ________ main objective is to contribute peace and security in the World.
(a) WHO
(b) UNICEF
(c) UNESCO
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) UNESCO
Explanation:
UNESCO main aim is to maintain peace in the World by promoting collaboration among the nations in the world.

Part – II
Section – A[50 Marks] 
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
With reference to the Position and Power of Prime Minister and Council of Ministers answer the following questions:
(i) How the Council of Ministers is formed and mention its tenure? [2]
(ii) Who checks the authority of the Prime Minister? [2]
(iii) State briefly the position of the Prime Minister in the Parliamentary System of Government and his responsibilities? [3]
(iv) State the difference between Collective Responsibility and Individual Responsibility of the Ministers. [3]
Answer:
(i) Article 75 explains the process of formation of the Council of Ministers. According to this Article, the Prime Minister is to be appointed by the President, and the Ministers are appointed on the advice of the Prime Minister. The Council of Ministers must be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
The Council of Ministers continues till it enjoys the confidence of the Parliament. It can continue even up to 5 years.

(ii) The Opposition in the Parliament can check the authority of the Prime Minister by grilling him over matters in which his government or any particular Ministry has under performed, or its policies are unsatisfactory.

(iii) The prime minister is the senior-most member of the cabinet in the executive branch of the federal government in the parliamentary system. His responsibilities include:
1. The Prime Minister selects and can dismiss members of the cabinet.
2. The Prime Minister allocates posts to members within the government.
3. The Prime Minister is the presiding member and chairperson of the cabinet.

(iv)

Collective Responsibility	Individual Responsibility
The Council of Ministers, as a single body, has a responsibility towards the Lok Sabha for the Government’s general conduct of affairs.	Individual Responsibility means that each minister is answerable to the President of the department under his care.
Collective responsibility requires each minister to support each Government decision.	Individual ministerial responsibility refers to the convention that a minister is responsible to Parliament for the actions of their department.

Question 3.
Our judicial system has a Supreme Court as it’s APEX. Following by the High Court and other Subordinate Court. With this content answers the following questions:
(i) Name any two writs issued by Supreme Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the Chief Justice of Supreme Court and other judges? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) What is Appellate Jurisdiction? Mention any two types of cases over which the Supreme Court has Appellate Jurisdiction. [3]
(iv) Explain the different categories of cases that fall under the Jurisdiction of Criminal Courts. [3]
Answer:
(i) Habeas Corpus and Mandamus are two of the five writs that can be issued by the Supreme Court.

(ii) The Chief Justice of India and the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President under clause (2) of Article 124 of the Constitution.
The Chief Justice of India as well as the other judges of the Supreme Court hold office till they attain the age of 65 years. A judge may voluntarily resign before expiry of his term.

(iii) Appellate Jurisdiction means that Supreme Court is the final court of appeal, has the power to grant special leave to appeal against the judgement that is delivered by any other court in the country.
The Supreme Court has Appellate Jurisdiction regarding all types of cases i.e., constitutional, civil and criminal.
1. Constitutional Cases : If the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law and needs to be heard in the Supreme Court.

2. Civil Cases : Any such case which the High Court certifies that the case involves a substantial question of law and needs to be decided by the Supreme Court.

3. Criminal Cases : When the Lower Court acquits the accused and on appeal, the High Court reverses the decision and gives death penalty.

(iv) Criminal Courts : From 31st March, 1973 a new Criminal Procedure Act came into effect. Criminal Courts deal with criminal cases. These courts are divided into four categories :
1. The Sessions Courts : The Sessions Court is the highest Criminal Court in a district. The District Judge of the Civil Court also works as the Sessions Judge. Cases of murder, dacoity, and of the sort are heard by the Sessions Judge. He can award Capital punishment subject to the approval of the High Court.

2. Court of the Judicial Magistrates of First Class : Below Sessions Court, there is the Court of Judicial Magistrates of First Class. It can award imprisonment up to three years or a give up to ₹ 5,000/- It hears the appeals against the decisions of the Second Class Judicial Magistrates.

3. Court of the Judicial Magistrate of Second Class : The Second Class Magistrate can try cases involving imprisonment up to two years or a fine up to ₹ 1,000/- or both. He enjoys Original Jurisdiction in all cases which come to him in the first instance.

4. Court of the Judicial Magistrate of Third Class : A Magistrate of this Court hears criminal cases of simple or individual quarrels and cases of rioting. He can award imprisonment for not more than one month or a fine up to?50 or both. (any 3 points can be written)

Section – B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
After the first world war, Fascism served as a model of dictatorial regime to the nazi movement in Germany, answer the following questions:
(i) What was the title Hitler assumed after he became the dictator? [2]
(ii) Discuss about the loss of life and money occurred due to First World War. [2]
(iii) Explain the treaty of Versailles and it’s 4 terms. [3]
(iv) State any three factors that led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy. [3]
Answer:
(i) Fuhrer, also spelled Fuehrer, German Fuhrer, (‘Leader’), title used by Adolf Hitler to define his role of absolute authority in Germany’s Third Reich (1933M5).

(ii) During the four years of war, about 80 lakh persons were killed, 60 lakh disabled and about one crore and 20 lakh wounded. Nearly 80 lakh people were missing.
The war proved to be very costly. The expenditure was nearly 41,000 million pounds on the side of Allies and 15,000 million pounds on the side of Germans.

(iii) The Treaty of Versailles is famous for both solving and creating problems. The treaty forced Germany to surrender colonies in Africa, Asia and the Pacific; cede territory to other nations like France and Poland; reduce the size of its military; pay war reparations to the Allied countries; and accept guilt for the war.
The four terms of Treaty of Versailles are:
1. The surrender of all German colonies as League of Nations mandates.
2. The return of Alsace-Lorraine to France.
3. Cession of Eupen-Malmedy to Belgium, Memel to Lithuania, the Hultschin district to Czechoslovakia.
4. Poznania, parts of East Prussia and Upper Silesia to Poland.

(iv) The three factors that led to the rise of dictatorships in Germany and Italy are:
1. Dissatisfaction of the Peace Treaties: Italy joined the First World War on the side of the allies. Mussolini and for that matter whole of the Italy as dissatisfied with the compensation granted to Italy after the war. Similarly German felt discriminated by the Treaty of Versailles. A large chunk of it occupied and own territories were taken away and share by other European powers. Military sanction were imposed. Adolf Hitler blamed the democratic government for this.

2. Economic Factors: Economic conditions in Italy after the war was very bad, war debts and budget deficit cause lots of difficulty. The salaried employees, the farmers and the industrial workers felt the pinch post war inflation. Additionally heavy war penalties were imposed on Germany which made economic recovery impossible and resulted in high rate inflation and unemployment. Nazi ranks swelled by unemployed youth.

3. Inefficient and Corrupt Democratic Government: The post war democratic Governments were weak. They could not respond properly to the needs and aspirations of the people. Short lived coalition governments in Italy were unable to tackle the problem faced by the people in their day to day life. Similar was the political scenario in Germany where Weimar republic failed miserably in to tackle economic downfall and ensuing riots.

Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Name the organisation of which this building is the headquarter. Also mention its location land any two aims of it. [2]
(ii) When was its flag adopted? What it consist of and where is it used? [2]
(iii) Name the principal organ of this organisation, State the functions of any two. [3]
(iv) Mention the three major Principals of this organisation. [3]
Answer:
(i) It is the headquarters of United Nation and situated at New York , USA. The two aims of United Nations are mentioned below:
1. To maintain international peace and security between and in all the countries.
2. To promote international cooperation in the spheres of economic, social and cultural developments.

(ii) The flag of the United Nations was adopted on 20th October, 1947, and consists of the official emblem of the United Nations in white on a blue background. The United Nations emblem has been incorporated into the logo designs of several entities in the UN system and is also used on United Nations stamps.

(iii) The United Nations (UN) has six main organs. Five of them – The General Assembly, the Security Council, the Economic and Social Council, the Trusteeship Council and the Secretariat – are based at UN Headquarters in New York. The sixth, the International Court of Justice, is located at The Hague in the Netherlands.
The functions of any two are mentioned below:
1. The General Assembly: The General Assembly is the principle organ of UNO. The deliberative functions of the General Assembly are related to peace and security. The Assembly has the power to make recommendations for the purpose of promoting international cooperation in the political field and promoting international cooperation in the economic, social, cultural educational and health fields.

2. The Economic and Social Council: The Economic and Social Council provides a central forum for discussing the world’s economic, social, and environmental challenges and for formulating policy recommendations to address them. It coordinates about 70 percent of the UN’s human and financial resources, including those of the 15 specialized agencies, eight functional commissions, and five regional commissions under its jurisdiction.

(iv) The three major Principles of Unites Nation are:
1. The Organization is based on the principle of the sovereign equality of all its Members.

2. All Members, in order to ensure to all of them the rights and benefits resulting from membership, shall fulfil in good faith the obligations assumed by them in accordance with the present Charter.

3. All Members shall settle their international disputes by peaceful means in such a manner that international peace and security, and justice, are not endangered.

4. All Members shall refrain in their international relations from the threat or use of force against the territorial integrity or political independence of any state, or in any other manner inconsistent with the Purposes of the United Nations.

5. All Members shall give the United Nations every assistance in any action it takes in accordance with the present Charter, and shall refrain from giving assistance to any state against which the United Nations is taking preventive or enforcement action. (Any 3 points can be written)

Question 6.
With reference to Non Alignment Movement. Answers the following questions:
(i) Meaning of Non Aligned Movement and its founders or Architects? [2]
(ii) Give two factors for the rise of the Non Aligned Movement. [2]
(iii) Write any three functions of UNESCO that preserves our ‘Cultural Heritage’. [3]
(iv) State the main objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3]
Answer:
(i) The term Non Aligned does not implify isolation, neutrality or a negative approach to international issue but it is generally used to describe the constructive and positive foreign policy of nation leading to freedom, peace, security and cooperation.

The term ‘Non-Alignment’ was first coined by V. K. Menon in his speech at UN in 1953 which later was used by Indian Prime Minister, Jawahar Lai Nehru during his speech in Columbo in 1954.

(ii) Following are the two factors for the rise of the NAM :
1. Reaction against the system of military alliances: The NAM was a reaction against military alliances and aligning with either of the power blocs during the cold war.

2. Nationalism in African and Asian Countries: Many Asian and African countries got freedom from imperialism after the Second World War. Intense nationalism in these countries led them to adopt a policy of keeping out of alliances in general and military pacts in particular, so they could have their free foreign polices based on their power of self-determination.

(iii) 1. It helps the member states in the preservation of their cultural heritage and encourages translation of rare mansuscripts. It adopted a Convention to ensure that member states take measures to protect monuments of artistic or historic interest.

2. It encourages cultural interchange. UNESCO provides travel grants to writers and artistis under a project named Mutual Appreciation of Eastern and Western Cultural Values.

3. It gives every possible encouragement to artistic creations in the field of literature and fine arts.

4. It plays a vital role in distribution of knowledge about the human rights.

(iv) Main objectives of the Non-Alignment Movement were:
1. To promote unity and cooperation between the developing countries based on mutual interests.
2. To defend international peace and security and solve conflicts in peaceful manners.
3. To promote sustainable development through international cooperation.
4. To promote and reinforce multilateralism.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The High Court at Chandigarh has a joint jurisdiction over: [1]
(a) Punjab
(b) Haiyana
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)
Answer:
(b) President
Explanation:
All the executive power is vested by President and executive actions are taken in his name.

(ii) The _________ has the power to summon and Prorogue the houses of Parllatnent and thssolve Lok Sabha. [1]
(a) Prime Mmister
(b) Vice President
(c) Speaker
(d) President
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court
Explanation:
All doubt and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President shall be inquired into and decided by Supreme Court.

(iii) _________ is a legal forum for the friendly compromise of legal disputes and quick justice to those who are not in a position to engage lawyers. [1]
(a) High Court
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Lok Adalat
(d) District Court
Answer:
(a) 35
Explanation:
According to Article 58 of the Constitution, no person shall be eligible unless he has completed 35 years of age.

(iv) The _______ Is the inner body with in the Councils of Ministers. [1]
(a) Cabinet
(b) Minister of State
(c) Deputy Minister
(d) Chief Minis-ter
Answer:
(b) Second
Explanation:
Vice President is accorded second rank next to the President of India in the official warrant of precedence.

(v) The _________ Is elected by the two houses of Parliament by the system of proportional representation by meana of single transferable vote. [1]
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(c) 65
Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years.

(vi) One major result of the firsi World War was the end of ___________. [1]
(a) Democracy
(b) Monarchies
(c) Assemblies
(d) Imperialism
Answer:
(d) Economic
Explanation:
The war was a devastating experience for many countries which led to economic crisis in various nations of the world.

(vii) Germany defeated France and took away the provinces of Alsace and _______. [1]
(a) Serbia
(b) Lorraine
(c) Balkan
(d) Berlin
Answer:
(b) Germany
Explanation:
The rise of extreme nationalism in Germany in the form of Fascism and Nazism, contributed to the causes which led to the second world war.

(viii) The United Nation Organisation was established alter the war on 24 October, 1945 at ____________. [1]
(a) Tokyo
(b) San Francisco
(c) Spain
(d) Russia
Answer:
(b) Maintaining world peace
Explanation:
The treaty included a covenant creating the league of nation, and international organization aimed at preserving peace.

(ix) The NAM tried to act as a establishing force between the ___________ superpowers blocs. [1]
(a) Five
(b) Four
(e) Three
(d) Two
Answer:
(c) 20 October, 1947
Explanation:
On 20 October 1947 the General Assembly adopted resolution 167(11) on the united nation flag.

(x) When did Hitler and MussoLini sign a pact? [1]
(a) 1937
(b) 1939
(c) 1938
(d) 1933
Answer:
(d) Poland
Explanation:
On September 27, 1939, 140,000 Polish troops were taken as prisoner by the German invaders as Warsaw surrenders to Hitler’s army.

Part – II
Section – A[50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which building does this picture show? Where it is situated? [2]
(ii) Who is the head of this organisation and by whom he is appointed? [2]
(iii) What is understood by a ‘Single Integrated Judicial System’ as provided in the Indian Constitution? [3]
(iv) What is the term of office and removal procedure of the judge of this organisation? [3]
Answer:
(i) It is the building of the Supreme Court of India and it is situated in Delhi.

(ii) Chief justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court and he is appointed by the President of India.

(iii) In a ‘Single Integrated judicial System’ provided in the Indian Constitution, the Supreme Court of India is the Apex Court of India and administers both Union and State laws. Below the Supreme Court are the High Courts in each State or group of States followed by Subordinate Courts.

(iv) Once appointed, a judge retires on attaining the age of 65 years.
A judge may be removed from his office by the President on the ground of proved misbehaviour or incapacity, and the procedure followed is known as ‘Impeachment’.

Question 3.
The President and the Vice President are the part of Union Executive. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the President of India. [2]
(ii) How Vice President is elected and mention his/her term of office? [2]
(iii) What is the process of impeachment of the President? [3]
(iv) What does the President solemnly undertake to do when he takes the Oath of Office? [3]
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)
Answer:
(i) The two qualifications required by a person to be the President of India are:
1. He should be a citizen of India.
2. He should not hold any Office of Profit under the Government.

(ii) The Vice-President is elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament, in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote and the voting in such election is by secret ballot. The Electoral College to elect a person to the office of the Vice-President consists of all members of both Houses of Parliament.
The Vice President holds office for five years.

(iii) Article 61 of the Constitution prescribes that he President can be impeached by the Parliament if a President begins to act against the provision of the Constitution or is found guilty of misusing his status and position or found involved in corruption. He may be impeached out of office. Charges can be framed by either of the two houses of Parliament by a two-third majority. A 14 days’ notice signed by at least one-fourth of the total number of members has to be given.

The other House investigates the charges and sustains them by 2/3rd majority of the total membership of that House, the President is impeached.

(iv) The Oath of Office taken by the President demands:
1. To faithfully execute the office of the President or discharge the functions of the President.
2. To preserve, protect and defend to the best of his ability, the Constitution and the Law.
3. To devote himself to the service and well-being of the people of India.

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the countries that fall after world war I. [2]
(ii) Mention any two consequences of First World War. [2]
(iii) Mention any three points under the treaty of Versailles which affected Germany. [3]
(iv) Mention any three causes of World War 1. [3]
Answer:
(i) Germany, Australia Hungary, Russia and Turkey.

(ii) The two consequences of First World War was:
1. The Treaty of Versailles was signed which was harsh and humiliating.
2. Territorial Rearrangement: The period after the war saw the beginning of the end of the European supremacy in the world. Economically and militarily the United States surpassed Europe to emerge as a World Power. The peace treaties signed after the war transformed the political map of the world particularly of Europe.
3. Formation of the League of Nations: One of the most significant consequences of the war was the
creation of League of Nations.

(iii) The three points under the treaty of Versailles which affected Germany are:
1. Germany and her allies were held guilty for aggression and hence Germany was forced to cede certain parts of her pre-war territories to Denmark, Belgium, Poland and Czechoslovakia.

2. Alsace and Lorraine were returned to France. Moreover, the Saar Valley, known for its coal mines, was ceded to France for 15 years.

3. Germany had also to lose all her colonial empire which was divided among the victors. Togo land and Cameroons were divided among France and England. German colonies in South-West Africa and East Africa were also taken away from her and shared by England, Belgium, Portugal and South Africa. While Japan got the Shantung and Kiau Chow in China, New Zealand got the Samoa Island.

(iv) The three causes of World War first are:
1. Imperialism: Prior to World War I, the major European powers had colonies all around the world. The British had control over major parts of South Asia, the French were colonizing much of Africa, and the Spanish had parts of South America under their rule. The Europeans had made the most out of the age of the Renaissance, using their superiority over less developed nations to bring them under their control.

2. Balkan Wars:The Balkan Wars were the result of instability in the Ottoman Empire, with Serbia, Greece, Montenegro, and Bulgaria making
up the Balkan alliance against the fading empire.

3. Nationalism: In an attempt to make the most out of instability in the Slavic region, the Slavic people in Bosnia and Herzegovina decided it was the right time to separate from Austria-Hungary and merge into Serbia. Despite the volatile situation in the region, a war that would soon involve all major European superpowers was still only a distant fear for many.

Question 5.
Answer the following question with reference to United Nations.
(i) Who are the members of General Assembly? [2]
(ii) Name the permanent members of Security Council. [2]
(iii) State any three functions of the International Court of Justice. [3]
(iv) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining peace. [3]
Answer:
(i) All 193 members of the United Nations are members of the General Assembly, with the addition of Holy See and Palestine as observer states.

(ii) The permanent members of the United Nations Security Council (also known as the Permanent Five, Big Five, or P5) are the five sovereign states to whom the UN Charter of 1945 grants a permanent seat on the UN Security Council: China, France, Russia, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

(iii) Three functions of the International Court of Justice are:
1. Advisory opinion on legal matters to the organs of special agencies of the UN.
2. Decides disputes between member states when referred.
3. Disputes concerning interpretation of international law.

(iv) The functions of the Security Council related to maintaining world peace are:
1. At the time of war: The Security Council may call for ceasefire to stop aggression or for cutting off communication links with the aggressor nation or severing diplomatic relations with it.

2. Investigatory role: It may investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction. It can also recommend methods for adjusting such disputes.

3. Military action: Security Council may resort to military action. Such action may include operations by air, sea or land forces supplied by Member Nations.

4. Admission of new members : New members are admitted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of UNICEF and mention its Headquarter? [2]
(ii) State any two functions of WHO. [2]
(iii) Discuss the four main factors for the formation of Non-Aligned Movement. [3]
(iv) State any three features of the Non-Aligned Countries. [3]
Answer:
(i) The full form of UNICEF is United Nations Children’s Fund and it’s Headquarter is located at New York, United States.

(ii) 1. To provide information on diseases of epidemic nature.
2. To provide quarantine measures for prevention of spread of diseases.

(iii) The four main factors for the formation of Non-Aligned Movement are:
1. The creation and strengthening of the socialist block after the defeat of fascism in World War II.
2. The collapse of colonial empires.
3. The emergence of a bipolar world and the formation of two military blocks (NATO and the Warsaw Pact).
4. The underdeveloped countries, most of them in Asia and Africa, felt the need to join efforts for the common defence of their interests.

(iv) 1. Opposition to Cold War: The origin of Non-alignment came at a time when the USA and USSR
had got involved in a cold-war. The peace after the Second World War was a tense peace as the cold war between the two super powers was keeping the world at the brink of a new war. Each of the two tried to win over other states, particularly the new sovereign states.

2. Opposition to Military/Security Alliances: Non-alignment, obviously means non-alignment with military blocs. Non alignment is opposed to all types of military/political/ security alliances which are nothing but means of tensions and power politics.

3. Peaceful Co-existence and Non-interference: Non-alignment accepts peaceful coexistence and non-interference as two basic principles of international relations. It believes that cold war and its attempts to maintain peace through preparation for war are unjust and harmful principles.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) is a only a nominal executive in a parliamentary system of government. [1]
(a) Vice President
(b) President
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor
Answer:
(b) President
Explanation:
All the executive power is vested by President and executive actions are taken in his name.

(ii) Disputes, if any, about the election of president heard and decided by: [1]
(a) Supreme Court
(b) High Court
(c) Prime Minister
(d) none of these
Answer:
(a) Supreme Court
Explanation:
All doubt and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of President shall be inquired zinto and decided by Supreme Court.

(iii) To be elected as President of India, a person must be at least years of age. [1]
(a) 35
(b) 25
(c) 30
(d) 40
Answer:
(a) 35
Explanation:
According to Article 58 of the Constitution, no person shall be eligible unless he has completed 35 years of age.
(b) Second
Explanation:
Vice President is accorded second rank next to the President of India in the official warrant of precedence.

(iv) The Vice President occupies the _______ highest office in the country. [1]
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth
Answer:
(c) 65
Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years.

(v) The Chief Justice and any other judges of the Supreme Court shall hold office till they attain the age of _______ years. [1]
(a) 45
(b) 55
(c) 65
(d) 50
Answer:
(c) 65
Explanation:
As per the Constitution of India Supreme Court judges retire at the age of 65 years.

(vi) The first world war caused an _______ crisis in various nations of the world. [1]
(a) cultural
(b) political
(c) social
(d) economic
Answer:
(d) Economic
Explanation:
The war was a devastating experience for many countries which led to economic crisis in various nations of the world.

(vi) Fascism served as a model of dictatorial regime to the nazi movement in _______. [1]
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Britain
(d) Italy
Answer:
(b) Germany
Explanation:
The rise of extreme nationalism in Germany in the form of Fascism and Nazism, contributed to the causes which led to the second world war.

(viii) The Treaty of Versailles based on which motive _______. [1]
(a) Cooperation
(b) Maintaining world peace
(c) Division of Italy
(d) Ideology conflicts
Answer:
(b) Maintaining world peace
Explanation:
The treaty included a covenant creating the league of nation, and international organization aimed at preserving peace.

(ix) The UN flag was adopted on _______. [1]
(a) 22 October, 1943
(b) 23 October, 1945
(c) 20 October, 1947
(d) 25 October, 1945
Answer:
(c) 20 October, 1947
Explanation:
On 20 October 1947 the General Assembly adopted resolution 167(11) on the united nation flag.

(x) Which country surrendered to Germany in Second World War? [1]
(a) Britain
(b) Italy
(c) Japan
(d) Poland
Answer:
(d) Poland
Explanation:
On September 27, 1939, 140,000 Polish troops were taken as prisoner by the German invaders as Warsaw surrenders to Hitler’s army.

Part – II
Section – A[50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The Prime Minister and Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention the formation of council of minister. [2]
(ii) How prime minister appointed? [2]
(iii) Mention any three function and powers of the Prime Minister. [3]
(iv) Give any three distinction between council of ministers and cabinet. [3]
Answer:
(i) The leader of the majority party in the election is chosen as Prime Minister. The Prime Minister chooses his minister. On the advice of Prime Minister, the President appoints the Council of Ministers. The Council of Ministers is headed by the Prime Minister.

(ii) The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime minister.

(iii)
1. He recommends persons who can be appointed as ministers by the president.
2. He presides over the meetings of the Council of Ministers and influences its decisions.
3. He is the principal channel of communication between the President and the Council of Ministers.

(iv)

Cabinet	Council of Ministers
It’s a smaller group consisting of senior member that hold important portfolios.	They consist of all categories of ministers – cabinet minister, minister of state and deputy minister.
They are the most trusted and consulted colleagues of the Prime Minister.	The Prime Minister may or may not consult these ministers.
They are a small group of senior ministers who meets frequently.	They meet rarely as a whole in day to day working of the government.

Question 3.
The High Court occupies the top position in the Judicial Administration of the state. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the Judge of the High Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the Judges of the High Court? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) State the difference between Court of the District Judge and the Sessions Court? [3]
(iv) What do you understand by Lok Adalat’s and give any two advantages of Lok Adalat? [3]
Answer:
(i)
1. A person must be citizen of India.
2. He/she should have held a judicial office in India for 10 years or he/she should have been an advocate of High Court for 10 years.

(ii) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India, the Governor of the state. A judge of High Court holds the office until he completes the age of 62 years.

(iii)

District Court Judge	Sessions Court Judge
Its is the highest Civil Court of a district.	Its is the highest Criminal Court of a district.
Its is presided over by the District Court Judge.	Its is presided over by the Sessions Court Judge.
These judges decided civil related cases such as divorce, land and property etc.	These judges decide criminal related cases such as murders, theft and dacoity etc.

(iv) Lok Adalat is one of the alternative dispute redressal mechanisms, it is a forum where disputes/cases pending in the court of law or at pre-litigation stage are settled amicably.
Three advantages of Lok Adalat’s are as follow:
1. The Lok Adalat’s work in the spirit of compromise and understanding, as a result both the parties feel satisfied.
2. It save time and money and unnecessary harassment.
3. The Lok Adalat’s can relieve the Laws Courts of the heavy backlog of the cases.

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the Second World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two countries which declared the war against Germany. [2]
(ii) Write down two factor that led to the failure of league of nation. [2]
(iii) How did the rise of Fascism and Nazism lead to World War II? [3]
(iv) Mention any three causes that led to Second World War? [3]
Answer:
(i) Britain and France both the countries declared the war against Germany.

(ii) Two factors that led to failure of the league of nation are:
1. All the great powers were not its members. The United State was not a member. In 1925, Germany joined the organisation while Russia was allowed entry in 1934. Later, both Germany and Japan left the league. The league, therefore, lacked universal representation

2. The rise of dictatorship in Italy and Germany lead to the weakening of the League of Nations.

(iii) The rise of extreme Nationalism in Italy Germany in the form of Fascism and Nazism respectively contributed to the causes which led to the second world war. Italy wanted to receive the glory of old Roman Empire. Thus, Mussolini and Hitler drove the countries of the world towards another World War. Nazism considered to be one form of fascism, both rejected the ideologies of liberalism, Marxism and Democracy. Fascism was in vogue between 1919 to 1945, Nazism became popular between 1933 to 1945.

(iv) Three causes that led to second world war are as follow:
1. Discontentment with The Treaty of Versailles: The treaty of Versailles, though aimed at maintaining world peace, was undoubtedly un biased and vindictive. Its demand disintegration of Germany and creation of many states.

2. Rise of Fascism and Nazism: The rise of fascism ideologies in Italy and the Nazi spirit in Germany gave an impetus to the already discontented countries. Subsequently, Italy and German employed aggressive policies of annexation that propelled all nation toward the second world war.

3. Aggressive Nationalism and Expansionism: To satisfy their nationalistic urges and to further economic interest, the rulers of Germany ,Italy and Russia followed a policy of aggressive nationalism.

Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) What the above picture depicts? [2]
(ii) In November 1950,The General Assembly increased its power through a resolution called? [2]
(iii) Mention any three objectives of United Nation. [3]
(iv) Discuss the role of Security Council in maintaining peace. [3]
Answer:
(i) The United Nation General Assembly.

(ii) The General Assembly increased its power through a resolution called ‘Uniting for Peace’.

(iii) 1. By preventing and removing all threats to peace.

2. To develop friendly relation among nation based on respect for the principle of equal right and self-determination of people.

3. By setting all international disputes by peaceful means on the principle of justice and international laws.

(iv) The functions of the Security Council related to maintaining world peace are:
1. At the time of war: The Security Council may call for cease fire to stop aggression or for cutting off communication links with the aggressor nation or severing diplomatic relations with it.

2. Investigatory role: It may investigate any dispute or situation which might lead to international friction. It can also recommend methods for adjusting such disputes.

3. Military action: Security Council may resort to military action. Such action may include operations by air, sea or land forces supplied by Member Nations.

4. Admission of new members: New members are admitted by a two-thirds vote of the General Assembly upon the recommendation of the Security Council.

Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of WHO and where it headquarters. [2]
(ii) How did the UNICEF come into existence and to what purpose? [2]
(iii) What efforts has the UNICEF made for education and improvement of sanitation? [3]
(iv) Explain how non-Alignment is neither neutrality, nor neutralisation, nor non-commitment. [3]
Answer:
(i) WHO- World Health Organisation. It’s headquartered is at Geneva.

(ii) The UNICEF was created through a resolution of the UN General Assembly in 1946, to meet the emergency needs of children in Europe and China immediately after Second World War.

(iii) The UNICEF provides funds for programmes advocating education for development, training and orientation of national personnel including health, sanitation workers, teachers, nutritionists and child welfare specialists. It supports AIDS education and families of AIDS victims. It helps the community to cope up with this problem. For education, it provides paper, textbooks and equipment like pumps and pipes for bringing clean water to villages.

(iv) (a) It does not remain aloof from international problems. It actively participates in the politics among
nations. So, Non-Alignment stands for action rather than passivity.

(b) The newly independent nations realised that although they do not have the military and economic powers to influence international affairs, they had great moral force and with their collective reason they could maintain or promote world peace on their own.

(c) NAM has supported the cause of international peace, justice and freedom. It has vehemently stood against any injustice, be it the Suez Crisis in 1956, aggressive policies of Israel or the unilateral attack by the USA against Iraq.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Part – I [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)

Question 1.
(i) The procedure to remove the President is called _________. [1]
(a) Impeachment
(b) Interpellation
(c) Resolution
(d) Prorogation
Answer:
(a) Impeachment
Explanation:
The President of India can be removed from his office before the expiry of his term if he violates the Constitution of India. The impeachment procedure can be initiated in either of the two houses of the Legislature: Lok Sabha (The Lower House) or Rajya Sabha (The Upper House).

(ii) The term of office of the Vice President is _________. [1]
(a) Five years
(b) Six years
(c) Two years
(d) Ten years
Answer:
(a) Five year
Explanation:
Normal term of office of the Vice-President is five years provided by constitution.

(iii) The ___________ is considered to be the Leader of the Lok Sabha. [1]
(a) President
(b) Speaker
(c) Vice President
(d) Prime Minister
Answer:
(d) Prime Minister
Explanation:
The Presiding officer of the lower house of the Parliament is Prime Minister.

(iv) The power of the Supreme Court to review laws passed by Union Legislature is _________. [1]
(a) Revisory Jurisdiction
(b) Advisory Jurisdiction
(c) Original Jurisdiction
(d) Judicial Review
Answer:
(d) Judicial Review
Explanation:
Judicial Review can be defined as the power of the Supreme Court to examine the laws passed by the union legislature and the orders issued by the executive officials to find wether or not they are permitted by the Constitution.

(v) The High Court judges are appointed by the _________. [1]
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Governor
(d) Chief Justice of India
Answer:
(a) President
Explanation:
The Chief Justice of the High Court is appointed by the President of India in consultation with the chief justice of the Supreme Court and the Governor of concerned state. The appointment of other judges shall also be made in the same manner except that in their case the Chief Justice of High Court shall also be consulted.

(vi) Which of the following was not a common ideology of the dictators? [1]
(a) Faith in totalitarian rule
(b) One party and One Leader
(c) Faith in Communism
(d) Aggressive Nationalism arid Imperialism
Answer:
(c) Faith in Communism
Explanation:
The ideology of dictatorship faith in totalitarian rule, One party One Leader and Aggressive Nationalism and Imperialism but not in communism.

(vii) The International Court of Justice consists of _________ judges. [1]
(a) 9
(b) 15
(c) 10
(d) 20
Answer:
(b) 15
Explanation:
The International Court of Justice is composed of 15 judges elected to nine-year terms of office by the United Nations General Assembly and the Security Council. These organs vote simultaneously but separately. In order to be elected, a candidate must receive an absolute majority of the votes in both bodies.

(viii)The non-permanent members of the Security Council are elected by the members of _________. [1]
(a) General Assembly
(b) International Court of Justice
(c) The Trusteeship Council
(d) The Secretariat
Answer:
(a) General Assembly
Explanation:
The Security Council has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security. It has 15 Members, and each Member has one vote.

(ix) The Treaty of Versailles mandated Germany to pay a war reparation of _________. [1]
(a) 35 billion dollars
(b) 40 billion dollars
(c) 33 billion dollars
(d) 50 million pounds
Answer:
(c) 33 billion dollars
Explanation:
Treaty of Versailles, peace document signed at the end of World War I by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany in the Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles, France, on June 28,1919; it took force on January 10, 1920.

(x) Which of these countries was not part of the Berlin-Rome -Tokyo Axis? [1]
(a) Germany
(b) Italy
(c) Japan
(d) France
Answer:
(d) France
Explanation:
Rome-Berlin-Tokyo Axis was the alliance between Italy, Germany, and Japan who fought against Allied forces in World War II. Officials from Nazi Germany, Fascist Italy, and Imperial Japan signed the ten-year Tripartite Pact. The pact was the military alliance which asked for cooperation among the three nations (Axis powers) in World War II.

Part – II
Section – A [50 Marks]
(Attempt any one question from this Section)

Question 2.
The executive power of the Indian Union is vested in the President of India. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Give any two reasons for the indirect election of the President. [2]
(ii) Mention any two discretionary powers of the President. [2]
(iii) Mention any three legislative powers of the President. [3]
(iv) Name the three kinds of emergencies that can be proclaimed by the President. [3]
Answer:
(i) The two reasons for the indirect election of the President are:
The President is only a nominal executive and the real powers are vested in the council of ministers headed by the Prime Minister. It would have been anomalous to have the President elected directly by the people and not give him any real power.

The direct election of the President would have been very costly and time and energy-consuming due to the vast size of the electorate. This is unwarranted keeping in view that he is only a symbolic head.

(ii) Two Discretionary powers of the President are:
1. The President has to be informed of all important decision and deliberations of the Council of Ministers and the Prime Minister is bound to provide whatever information the President seeks.

2. The President cannot dismiss the Prime Minister in a Parliamentary System, as long as he enjoys a majority. But in case no single party gets a majority, then the President can write to the person who can govern with a majority support to form a Coalition Government which would be stable.

(iii) Legislative powers of the President are:
1. He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha. He can also summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

2. He can address the Parliament at the commencement of the first session after each general election and the first session of each year.

3. He can send messages to the Houses of Parliament, whether with respect to a bill pending in the Parliament or otherwise. (Any two)

(iv) There are three types of emergencies under the Indian Constitution which are declared by president namely:
1. National Emergency: Article 352 of the Indian Constitution talks about the national emergency. National emergency is imposed whereby there is a grave threat to the security of India or any of its territory due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion.

2. State Emergency: Article 356 talks about the failure of constitutional machinery in state also known as the President’s rule. If the president on Governor’s report or otherwise is satisfied that the situation has arisen that the government can’t be carried in accordance with the constitutional provisions then, he may issue State emergency.

3. Financial Emergency: The president under Article 360 of the constitution has the power to declare financial emergency if he is satisfied that the financial stability or the credit of India or any part of its territory is threatened. It has to be laid before both the Houses of Parliament and ceases to operate at the expiration of two months unless meanwhile approved by the resolution of Houses.

Question 3.
The Supreme Court is the head of the entire system of judiciary. In this context, answer the following questions:
(i) Mention any two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court. [2]
(ii) Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court? What is their term of office? [2]
(iii) Mention any three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. [3]
(iv) Why is the Supreme Court called the Court of Record? [3]
Answer:
(i) Two qualifications required by a person to be the judge of the Supreme Court are He should be a citizen of India. He should have been a judge of a High Court (or high courts in succession) for five years.

(ii) The judges of the Supreme Court are appoint by President.
The term of office of Supreme Court judges are until they attain the age of 65 years.

(iii) The three cases which come under the Original Jurisdiction of the Supreme Court are:
1. Any dispute between the Centre and one or more state.
2. Protection of Fundamental Rights.
3. Interpretation of Constitution.

(iv) The Supreme Court called the Court of Record because:
The judgements, proceedings and acts of the Supreme Court are recorded for perpetual memory and testimony. These records are admitted to be of evidentiary value and cannot be questioned when produced before any court. They are recognised as legal precedents and legal references.

Section – B
(Attempt any two question from this Section)

Question 4.
With reference to the First World War, answer the following questions:
(i) Name the two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War. [2]
(ii) Name the two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War. Name the dictators. [2]
(iii) Explain the Sarajevo Crisis. [3]
(iv) Mention any three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France. [3]
Answer:
(i) The two alliances formed in Europe during the First World War I are:
1. Triple Alliance: It had Germany, Austria Hungary and Italy as its members.
2. Triple Entente: It had France, Britain and Russia as its members.

(ii) The two countries which came under dictatorship after the First World War were Germany and Soviet Russia:
1. The dictator of Germany was- Adolf Hitler.
2. The dictator of Soviet Russia was- Joseph Stalin.

(iii) This Sarajevo Crisis refers to the events surrounding the assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand, heir to the Austro-Hungarian throne, and his wife Archduchess Sophie during a state visit to Sarajevo on 28 June, 1914. It is traditionally regarded as the immediate catalyst for the First World War which also ended Austro-Hungarian rule in Bosnia and resulted in the creation the kingdom of Yugoslavia.

(iv) Three ways in which the Treaty of Versailles benefited France were:
1. France gained a lot from the Treaty of Versailles. Alsace-Lorriaine were returned by Germany to them.
2. France was compensated for the destruction of its coal mines by Germany. France was supposed to get 15 years of supply of coal from Germany.
3. Germany paid financial reparations, disarm, overseas colonies, 13% of its territories to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania.

Question 5.
Look at the picture given and answer the questions that follow:

(i) Which organization does this emblem represent? Where is its head quarters ? [2]
(ii) Mention any two objectives of this organisation. [2]
(iii) Mention any three functions of the General Assembly. [3]
(iv) What is the composition of the Security Council? [3]
Answer:
(i) This emblem represents United Nation Organisation. Its headquarter is in New York City.

(ii) The two objectives of United Nation Organisation are:
1. The maintenance of International Peace and security.
2. To encourage international cooperation in the spheres of social, economic and cultural development.

(iii) The three functions of the General Assembly are:
1. Consider and approve the United Nations budget and establish the financial assessments of Member States.

2. Elect the non-permanent members of the Security Council and the members of other United Nations councils and organs and, on the recommendation of the Security Council, appoint the Secretary-General.

3. Consider and make recommendations on the general principles of cooperation for maintaining international peace and security, including disarmament.

4. Discuss any question relating to international peace and security and, except where a dispute or situation is currently being discussed by the Security Council, make recommendations on it.

(iv) The Security Council consists of fifteen Members of the United Nations.
The Republic of China, France, the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics, the United Kingdom of Great Britain and Northern Ireland, and the United States of America are the permanent members of the Security Council.

The General Assembly elect ten non-permanent members of the United Nations the Security Council. The non-permanent members of the Security Council shall be elected for a term of two years. In the first election of the non-permanent members after the increase of the membership of the Security Council from eleven to fifteen, two of the four additional members shall be chosen for a term of one year. A retiring member shall not be eligible for immediate re-election. Each member of the Security Council shall have one representative.

Question 6.
(i) Give the full form of UNICEF and UNESCO. [2]
(ii) Mention any two functions of WHO. [2]
(iii) What is meant by the term Non-Alignment? Name any two founders of the Non- Aligned Movement. [3]
(iv) Mention any three objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement. [3]
Answer:
(i) UNICEF: United Nations Children’s Fund.
UNESCO: United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organisation.

(ii) The two functions of WHO are:
1. Providing leadership on matters critical to health and engaging in partnerships where joint action is needed.
2. Shaping the research agenda and stimulating the generation, translation and dissemination of valuable knowledge.

(iii) Non-aligned may refer to: Non-Aligned Movement, movement of states considering themselves not formally aligned with or against any major power bloc. Non-belligerent, in a war. Neutrality (international relations), in a war: more restrictive than non-alignment.
The first NAM was held in Belgrade in 1961.
Two founders of Non-aligned Movement were:
1. President Tito (original name Josip Broz) of Yugoslavia.
2. President Kwame Nkrumah of Ghana. President Sukarno of Indonesia.

(iv) The three objectives of the Non-Aligned Movement are:
1. To eliminate all the causes which could lead to war.
2. To strengthen the United Nations as an organ of world peace.
3. To oppose colonialism, imperialism and racial discrimination.

ICSE Class 10 History and Civics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Vindhya Range [1]
(ii) River Brahmaputra [1]
(iii) Allahabad (Prayagraj) [1]
(iv) Chota Nagpur Plateau [1]
(v) Chilka Lake [1]
(vi) Konkan coast line [1]
(vii) Karakoram Pass [1]
(viii) Standard Meridian (82°30’E) [1]
(ix) Direction of North East Monsoons. [1]
(x) State with lowest population density. [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Name the metallic mineral which used in paint pigments. [2]
(b) Write any two industrial uses of copper.
(ii) Why petroleum is called mineral oil? Write its two advantages. [2]
(iii) With reference to Hirakud dam answer the following questions: [3]
(a) On which river it is situated and name the state where it is located?
(b) To which steel plant does Hirakud dam supply electricity?
(iv) (a) Which state is the leading producer of wind energy in India? [3]
(b) Why Indian railways is often called as the lifeline of the nation? Give two reasons.
Answer:
(i) (a) Iron is a metallic mineral, used in pain pigments.
(b) The two industrial uses of copper are as follows:
1. It is used in electronic product manufacturing.
2. It is used in building construction and power generation and transmission.

(ii) Petroleum is called mineral oil because it is obtained from sedimentary rock of the Earth. Advantages of petroleum are as follows:
1. It is used as a fuel to power vehicles, heating units and machines.
2. It is used as an important raw material for various petro-chemical products.

(iii) (a) It is situated on Mahanadi River.
(b) Hirakud dam supplies electricity to the Rourkela Steel Plant.

(iv) (a) Tamil Nadu is the leading producer of wind energy in India.
(b) Indian Railways is often called as the lifeline of the nation because of the following reasons:
1. It provides means of living to lakh of people including not only to its employees but also to many more Further it connects the entire nation into a common thread and transports passengers as well as goods.

Question 3.
(i) Name any two major problems faced by farmers in Indian Agriculture. [2]
(ii) (a) Name any two Rabi Crops of India. [2]
(b) Name any two Kharif Crops of India.
(iii) With reference to Rice cultivation answer the following questions: [3]
(a) What are the conditions required for cultivation of this crop?
(b) Name the state that is the largest producer of this crop in India.
(c) Name any two methods of rice cultivation in India.
(iv) (a) Define the Drilling method of cultivation.
(b) Which soil is more preferred for cotton cultivation in India?
(c) What does 210 frost free days term refers in cotton cultivation? [3]
Answer:
(i) Problems faced by farmers in Indian Agriculture are as follows:
1. Small and fragmented land holdings.
2. Poor Quality of seeds. Inadequate storage facilities
3. Inadequate use of manure and fertilizers. (any two)

(ii) (a) Wheat, peas, gram, sesame, mustard etc. are the main rabi crops. (any two)
(b) The main Kharif crops are rice, cotton groundnut, maize etc. (any two)

(iii) (a) Conditions required for the cultivation of rice are as follows.
1. It is a Kharif crop that requires a high temperature.
2. The average rainfall required is about 150 to 200 cm.
(b) West Bengal is the largest producer of rice in India.
(c) Methods of rice cultivation in India are as follows:
1. Broadcasting method or scattering
2. Dibbling
3. Drilling method
4. Transplantation (any two)

(iv) (a) In Drilling method seeds are sown in the furrows with the help of a drill normally made of bamboo.
(b) Black soil is most suitable soil for growth of Cotton therefore it is also called black cotton soil.
(c) Cotton is the moderate temperature crop if the temperature drops below zero the plant will die and no harvesting will be there hence cotton requires about 210 frost free days during its growth period.

Question 4.
(i) Why Petro-Chemical Industries are so important and what products are made from the Industries? [2]
(ii) Give two reasons why sugar industries are shifting from northern to southern India. [2]
(iii) With reference to Tata Iron and Steel Company Limited (TISCO) answer the following questions:
(a) Who is the founder of TISCO and when was it established?
(b) Why it is located in Jamshedpur? Give any two reasons.
(c) Why it is more prominent than other private sector of steel industries? [3]
(iv) (a) What are agro- based industries? Name any two importance of agro-based industries.
(b) Name any two products of Electronic industry. [3]
Answer:
(i) Petrochemical industries are important because they produce products which are cost-effective, economically stable and cheaper. Synthetic fibre, synthetic rubber, PVC, polythene, plastic chappals etc. are the products of petrochemical industries.

(ii) The sugar industry of India is gradually shifting from northern India to peninsular India because of the several better conditions prevailing there.
1. The tropical climate of peninsular India results in higher yield per unit hectare of land.
2. Higher sucrose content in peninsular cane.
3. Cooperatives are more successful in these states.
4. Longer crusting season in South prevent drying of cane. (any three)

(iii) (a) Jamshedji Tata is the founder of TISCO and it was established in 1907.
(b) The industry is located in Jamshedpur on the banks of Subarnarekha and Kharkai river because:
1. These rivers help in the industrial uses and water treatment for the industry.
2. Densely populated regions of Jharkhand and Odisha provide cheap labour.
(c) Tata steel is more prominent because it is one of the most geographically diversified steel producers with operations and commercial presence across the world. It operates in 26 countries with key operations in UK, India and Netherlands.

(iv) (a) Industries that uses agricultural products as their raw materials such as cotton, jute, silk, sugarcane
and edible oil are known as agro-based industries.
The importance of agro based industries are as follows:
1. It supports balanced growth between agriculture and industry.
2. It avoids wastage of perishable agricultural products.
3. It provides employment to the landless agricultural labour and tribal population in rural and backward areas and further provides base for the development of these areas. (any two)

(b) These are the products of Electronic industry:
1. Capacitor
2. Computers and monitors
3. Resistor
4. Defence equipment
5. Printed circuit board (any two)

Question 5.
(i) Why water transport is important for the development of country? Give any two reasons. [2]
(ii) Differentiate between conventional and non-conventional sources of energy. [2]
(iii) What is Golden quadrilateral and name the four major cities which are connected by it? [3]
(iv) What do you mean by “North-South and East-West Corridor” (NSEW)? Which Indian state falls in both North-South and East-West corridor project? [3]
Answer:
(i) Water transport is important for the development of a country because:
1. It is more suitable for carrying heavy and bulky goods.
2. It is fuel-efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.

(ii)

Conventional Sources of Energy	Non-Conventional Sources of Energy
Conventional sources of energy are natural energy resources which are present in a limited quantity and are being used for a long time.	Non-Conventional sources are the energy resources which are continuously replenished by natural processes. These cannot be exhausted easily and can be generated constantly.
These are called nonrenewable sources of energy as once depleted they cannot be generated easily. E.g. Coal, Petroleum, Natural gas.	These are called renewable sources of energy as they can be replaced through natural processes at a rate equal to or greater than the rate at which they are consumed. Example: Wind energy, Solar energy, Tidal energy.

(iii) The Golden Quadrilateral is a national highway network connecting the major industrial, agricultural and cultural centers of India. The project is being implemented by “National Highways Authority of India” (NHAI). It forms a quadrilateral connecting the four major metro cities of India that are Delhi, Kolkata, Mumbai and Chennai.

(iv) The North-South, East-West (NSEW) is the largest ongoing highway project in India. It consists of 7300 km of 4/6 lane expressways associating Srinagar, Kanyakumari, Kocchi, Porbandar and Silchar. Jhansi is the junction of North-South and East-West corridors.

Question 6.
(i) What is the importance of waste segregation? [2]
(ii) What is dumping method of waste disposal? Explain. [2]
(iii) What is composting? Mention any two significance of compositing. [3]
(iv) What is the 3R principles in Solid Waste Management? [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. It decreases the amount of waste that reaches to landfills.
2. It makes wastes much easier to recycle.
3. Pollution of air and water can be controlled when hazardous waste is separated and located separately.

(ii) Dumping or landfilling is an old way of disposing of wastes. It is an easy method for disposal of dry refuse. In this process solid waster are dumped in a low lying area and as a result of bacterial action they are converted gradually into humus.

(iii) Composting is a natural process of recycling organic matter such as leaves and food scraps into a valuable fertilizer that can enrich soil and plants. The process involves decomposition of organic waste into humus known as compost.
Significance of composting are as follows:
1. Reduction of the quantity of wastes to be disposed by householder.
2. It is a natural waste disposal system.
3. The compost improves the texture of the soil. (any two)

(iv) The principle of reducing reusing and recycling wastes are often called as the 3R principles in Solid Waste Management.
Reducing means choosing to use things with care to reduce the amount of waste generated.
Reusing involves the repeated use of items or parts of items which still have usable aspects.
Recycling means the use of wastes itself as resources.
Waste minimization can be achieved in an efficient way by focusing primarily on these 3R principles of Solid Waste Management.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Geography Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 80
Time: 2 Hours

Genaral Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section – A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
On the outline map of India provided mark and name the following:

(i) Satpura Range [1]
(ii) River Narmada [1]
(iii) Kolkata [1]
(iv) Nilgiris [1]
(v) Andaman Sea [1]
(vi) Gangetic Plains [1]
(vii) Deccan Plateau [1]
(viii) Thar (The Great Indian Desert) [1]
(ix) South West Monsoon [1]
(x) State with Highest population density. [1]
Answer:

Section – B [50 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) In waste management three R’s stands for what? Name any two of them. [2]
(b) What do you mean by Recycling?
(ii) Define waste segregation and name the two most popular categories of waste segregation based on decomposition. [2]
(iii) With reference to Waste Management answer the following questions: [3]
(a) Why is waste management needed today? Give two reasons.
(b) In order to segregate the waste how many types of dustbins are used in domestic areas?
(iv) (a) What do you mean by Composting? Give its one importance.
(b) Name any two sources form which Municipal solid waste is generated. [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) The three R’s stand for Reducing the waste, Reusing the waste and Recycling the waste.
(b) The process of changing the waste and non-usable materials into potentially useful materials is called Recycling.

(ii) Separation of wastes into different categories of waste is called waste segregation. It depends upon the disposal technique. The two most popular classification of waste segregation based on decomposition are biodegradable and non-biodegradable waste categories.

(iii) (a) Waste management is needed today because:
1. Waste causes air and water pollution.
2. The rotting garbage produces harmful gases and mixes with the air causing breathing problems to the people.

(b) Types of dustbin used in domestic areas:
1. Green coloured dustbins are used for wet and biodegradable wastes coloured dustbins are used for non-biodegradable wastes.
2. Blue coloured dustbins are use for non-biodegradable wastes.

(iv) (a) Composting is a form of waste disposal where organic waste decomposes naturally under oxygen- rich conditions. This mixture of decayed or decaying organic matter used to make soil fertile.
(b) Municipal solid waste is generated from:
1. Households
2. Parks
3. Street Wastes

Question 3.
(i) Name any two important ores of iron. [2]
(ii) (a) Name the two states who are leading producer of manganese in India. [2]
(b) Why is Copper used to prepare utensils?
(iii) With reference to Mineral and Energy Resources answer the following questions: [3]
(a) What do you mean by Metallic Mineral?
(b) Name the state where the two copper mines Singhbhoom and Hazaribagh are located.
(c) Name the clean energy resource which is associated with petroleum.
(iv) (a) How is biogas produced?
(b) Why is the use of alternative sources of energy becoming essential in modern time?
(c) Mention one agricultural and one industrial problem solved by the Bhakra Nangal Dam. [3]
Answer:
(i) Haematite and Magnetite

(ii) (a) The leading producers of manganese as per the data of 2018-19 in India are Madhya Pradesh followed by Maharashtra.
(b) Copper is used to prepare utensils because it is a good conductor of heat.

(iii) (a) A mineral from which we get metals is known as Metallic Mineral. Examples: Iron, copper, aluminium, gold, lead, tin etc.
(b) Singhbhoom and Hazaribagh are two copper mines of Jharkhand.
(c) Natural gas is the clean energy resource which is found in association with petroleum.

(iv) (a) Biogas is produced by the use of cattle dung. The technique is based on decomposition of organic matter in the absence of air to yield gas.
(b) Alternative sources of energy are needed because the ever-growing demand for energy cannot be met by conventional sources of energy.
(c) Bhakra Nangal Dam solved the agricultural problem of flooding and soil erosion.

Question 4.
(i) Name any two environmental factors contributing to low agricultural development in India. [2]
(ii) Is wheat a rabi or kharif crop ? In which state of India is the largest amount of wheat grown? [3]
(iii) With reference to rice cultivation answer the following questions:
(a) Which method of cultivation in India is being popularized to increase the productivity of rice?
(b) Which is the ideal soil for the growth of rice?
(c) What are the methods of cultivation of rice? Which one is known for its better yields? [3]
(iv) (a) What is’Hybrid’? [3]
(b) What is ‘Rust’?
Answer:
(i) The environmental factors contributing to low agricultural development in India are as follows:
1. Erratic and unreliable rainfall.
2. Lack of adequate irrigation facilities and dependence on monsoon.
3. Soil degradation from erosion and salinization destroys productivity.

(ii) Wheat is a rabi crop. Uttar Pradesh produces the largest amount of the total production of wheat.

(iii) (a) Japanese method of rice cultivation is being popularized in India in order to increase the productivity of rice.
(b) Alluvial, friable loamy with clay-like impervious sub-soil is ideal for the growth of rice.
(c) Drilling, dibbling, broadcasting and transplanting are the methods of cultivation of rice. Transplantation is known for its better yields.

(iv) (a) Crossing of two varieties of seeds of the same family to give a new seed is known as hybrid.
(b) A fungus called ‘rust’ which affects the wheat crop in India. It is a kind of wheat crop diseases.

Question 5.
(i) Give any two reasons as to why Mumbai has developed into an important cotton textile centre. [2]
(ii) Give any two reasons why the sugar industry is migrating to the South. [2]
(iii) Name the three types of sugar made from sugarcane juice. [3]
(iv) Name some important centres of the cotton industry in Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh and Punjab. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Mumbai’s location as an international port helps in import and export.
2. Humid climate of Mumbai is ideal for this industry.

(ii) 1. Maritime climate which is free from loo and frost.
2. Availability of black soil which is well drained and more fertile.
3. Sugarcane of the South is of superior quality. (any two)

(iii) 1. Gur or jaggery
2. Khandsari
3. White sugar.

(iv) Maharashtra: Mumbai, Sholapur, Pune, Nagpur, Akola
Uttar Pradesh: Kanpur
Punjab: Phagwara

Question 6.
(i) Name the two extreme stations which are connected by the North-South Corridor. [2]
(ii) Name the four cities which are connected by Golden Quadrilateral. [2]
(iii) Why is the air transport preferred in North-Eastern states of India? Give any three reasons. [3]
(iv) Why is inland waterways declining in its importance ? Give three reasons for your answer. [3]
Answer:
(i) Srinagar-Kanyakumari are extreme points connected by the North-South Corridor.

(ii) Golden Quadrilateral is a network of roads that connects Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata.

(iii) The air transport is preferred in North-Eastern states of India:
1. Due to the hilly terrains, the region is unfavourable for the construction of railway lines.
2. The region has big rivers, dissected relief, dense forest and frequent floods and international frontiers so it is also difficult to construct roads.
3. Airways can cover difficult terrains, deserts, dense forests and long distances with ease.
4. It is a safe mode of transportation.

(iv) 1. It is slower means of transport.
2. Water transport provides access to limited areas.
3. Diversion of water from the river for the purpose of irrigation and silting of the river beds have reduced the importance of inland water transport.

ICSE Class 10 Geography Question Papers with Answers