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ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 4 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) The radiation with maximum ionising power is: [1]
(a) α
(b) ß
(c) γ
(d) X-radiation
Answer:
(a) α
Explanation:
The ionising power of alpha radiation (α) is 100 times that of Beta (ß) radiation and 10,000 times that of Gamma (γ) radiation. Thus, a-radiation has maximum ionising power.

(ii) Consider the following heating curve of ice: [1]

Which of the following is the portion of the latent heat of melting of ice?
(a) Part AB
(b) Part BC
(c) Part AC
(d) Only point A and C
Answer:
(a) Part AB
Explanation:
From the graph it can be noticed that for part AB, with increase in time there is no change in temperature, thus this part is corresponds to the portion of the latent heat of melting of ice.

(iii) Which of the following phenomena is know as sublimation? [1]
(a) The direct change of solid to vapour.
(b) The direct change of vapour to liquid.
(c) The direct change of liquid to solid.
(d) The direct change of vapour to solid.
Answer:
(a) The direct change of solid to vapour.
Explanation:
The phenomena of direct change of solid to vapour is known as sublimation and the phenomena of direct change of liquid to solid is known as solidification.

(iv) Which of the following substances contracts on melting? [1]
(a) Ice
(b) Lead
(c) Wax
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(a) Ice
Explanation:
Generally, volume of substance like lead, wax etc., increases on melting, but for ice, it is opposite. For ice, its volume decreases on melting to water.

(v) Which of the following is correct ascending order of speed of the given particles? [1]
(a) α < ß < γ
(c) ß < α < γ
(b) γ < ß < α
(d) ß < γ < α
Answer:
(a) α < ß < γ
Explanation:
Speed of gamma particle is same as speed of light (in vacuum), speed of beta particle is around 90% of the speed of light and speed of alpha particle is around 107 m/s.

(vi) A radioactive nucleus emits a certain type of radiation. A particle with the same mass as before but an increased atomic number of one is emitted. Determine the particle’s identity. [1]
(a) Alpha
(b) Beta
(c) Gamma
(d) Delta
Answer:
(b) Beta
Explanation:
When beta particle is emitted, the mass number of the daughter particle remain same but the atomic number increases by 1. Hence the given statement indicates the beta particle.

(vii) The temperature of a body increases by 10°C when 400 Joule of heat is applied. What is the heat capacity of the body? [1]
(a) 1.413 JK^-1
(c) 3.413 JK^-1
(b) 2.413 JK^-1
(d) 4.413 JK^-1
Answer:
(a) 1.413 JK^-1
Explanation:
We know heat capacity of the body C’ = Q/∆t, where Q is amount of applied heat, At is temperature increment.
Given, Q = 400 J, At = 10°C = 273 + 10 = 283 K
Now, C’ = 400/283 = 1.413 J K^-1.

(viii) If the supply voltage is 220 V and the total power of the appliances in the circuit is 440 W, what should the fuse’s current rating be? [1]
(a) 1A
(b) 2 A
(c) 4 A
(d) 6 A
Answer:
(b) 2 A
Explanation:
fuse s current rating = \(\frac{\text { total power of the appliances in the circuit }}{\text { supply voltage }}=\frac{440 \mathrm{~W}}{220 \mathrm{~V}}\)
So, the fuse’s current rating should be 2 A.

(ix) Consider the following two figures of two different waves. [1]

How figure (a) and figure (b) differs?
(a) They differ in waveform
(b) They differ in amplitude
(c) They differ in frequency
(d) They are identical graphs
Answer:
(a) They differ in waveform
Explanation:
Both the figures (a) and (b) have same amplitude ‘a’, also they have same frequency, but they differ in waveform.

(x) Which of the following is correct? [1]
(a) Radiation can cause diarrhoea, loss of hair, nausea.
(b) Radiation can cause leukemia and cancer.
(c) Radiation can cause Genetic disorders.
(d) All of the above.
Answer:
(d) All of the above.
Explanation:
All of the above are examples of radiation’s harmful effects. There are three types of biological effects from nuclear radiation:
(1) curable short-term effects including diarrhoea, sore throat, hair loss, nausea, and so on
(2) permanent long-term effects like leukemia and cancer.
(3) hereditary disorders.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Define e.m.f and terminal voltage? [3]
(b) Why is the filament of an electric bulb coiled?
(ii) (a) What is resonance?
(b) Explain why does a wine glass start rattling, when a note of some particular frequency is struck by a piano? [3]
(iii) A battery with an e.m.f. of 9 V and an internal resistance of 0.6 is connected to three resistors A, B, and C in the diagram below.

(a) What is the combined resistance of B and C together and the total resistance of A, B and C together?
(b) What is the total resistance of circuit?
(c) What is the current flowing through resistor A? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) The potential difference between the terminals of a cell is called its electromotive force (or e.m.f.) when no current is drawn from it.
When current is drawn from a cell, the potential difference between the cell’s electrodes is known as the terminal voltage.

(b) To have a high resistance, the filament wire is long and thin. To fit in a small space it is coiled.

(ii) (a) When the frequency of an externally applied periodic force equals the natural frequency of a body, the body begins to vibrate with increased amplitude. This phenomenon is known as resonance.

(b) When the glass rattles, at that moment, its natural frequency corresponds with frequency of piano note, thus resonance takes place, which makes the glass to vibrate violently.

(iii) (a) The resistances B and C are connected in parallel. So their equivalent resistance is,
R₁ = (4 x 6)/(4 + 6) = 2.4 Ω.
The resistor A is connected in series with Ra, then the equivalent resistance of A, B, and C is
(R₂) = 2.4 + 2 = 4.4 Ω.

(b) The total resistance of the circuit is = R₂ + 0.6 = 4.4 + 0.6 = 5 Ω.

(c) The current drawn from the battery is, I = e.m.f / total resistance = 9/5 = 1.8 A
Thus, Current flowing through the resistor A is 1.8 A.

Question 3.
(i) (a) What is Lorentz force? [3]
(b) State faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction.
(ii) (a) Define specific heat capacity.
(b) Write an example of an specific heat capacity of an element.
(c) Specific heat capacity of element is 10 J kg^-1K^-1. The temperature of a material raised by 20 degrees when 200 Joules of heat were given to it. What is the substance’s mass? [3]
(iii) In the centre of an evacuated spherical vessel, a radioactive sample is placed.
(a) Name the radiations which are safe and unsafe.
(b) Suggest two ways for more safety.
(c) Is it true that evacuating the ship helps with safety?
(d) On emission of which particle there will be no change in the mass number as well as in atomic number? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) Lorentz found that a charge moving in a magnetic field, in a direction other than the direction of magnetic field, experiences a force. It is called the Lorentz force.

(b) 1. Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a coil, an e.m.f. is induced.
2. The magnitude of the induced e.m.f. is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux liked with the coil.

(iii) (a) The heat capacity per unit mass of a substance is described as its specific heat capacity. i.e, specific heat capacity = heat capacity of the body/mass of the body.

(b) For example, specific heat capacity of water is 4180 J kg^-1K^-1.

(c) We know that, specific heat capacity = applied heat / (mass of the body x temperature change)
Or, 10 = 200/(m x 20)
Or, m = 1 kg.
Thus, the mass of the substance is 1 kg.

(iii) (a) Because alpha radiation (α) has a lower penetration power, it is prevented by the vessel’s walls. As a result, the vessel is secure from alpha radiation. The walls of the vessel cannot stop beta (ß) and gamma (γ) radiations, hence the vessel is dangerous for both beta and gamma radiations.
(b) Measures for more safety: The sphere’s walls must be made of lead. The radius of the sphere must be large.
(c) No. It is not recommended that the vessel be evacuated. The air within will aid in the absorption of the radiations.
(d) On emission of y-particle there will be no change in the mass number as well as in atomic number.

Question 4.
(i) (a) To melt 1 kg of ice, how much heat energy is required? [Specific latent heat of ice = 336 J g^-1]. [3]
(b) Define isotone and give an example.
(ii) (a) Why the earth pin (shown in figure) is made so thick and long? [3]

(b) What is ‘short circuit’?
(iii) Consider rubbing the stem of a vibrating tuning fork on a table surface, as represented in the figure below:

(a) What type of vibrations will the table top produce? Is it going to make a sound?
(b) Under what conditions does it produce resonance?
(c) Write three key characteristics that are able to distinguish two different sounds? [4]
Answer:
(a) Given, m = 1 kg = 1000g, L = 336 Jg^-1.
Heat energy required = mL = 1000 g x 336 Jg^-1 = 336000 J = 3.36 x 10⁵ J.

(b) Isotones are atoms with varying numbers of protons but the same number of neutrons. They also differ in the number of electrons they have. For example, \({ }_{400}^{20} Ar\) and \({ }_{39}^{19} K\) have same number of neutrons but different numbers of protons, thus they are isotones.

(ii) (a) The earth pin is made so thick because the earth pin can never be put into other pin holes of live and neutral connections. Also, because the earth pin must be connected first, it is longer than the other pins. If the holes are of equal thickness, the appliance may be destroyed if the wrong pin is accidentally placed into the wrong hole.

(b) A short circuit occurs when a live wire makes direct contact with a neutral wire. In this circumstance, resistance in the current’s path drops to virtually. As a result, a large amount of current flows through the live wire.

(iii) (a) As the vibrations are due to external means, thus forced vibrations are those that occur in the table top.
Yes, it will definitely produce a sound.

(b) Resonance will occur when the natural frequency of the table top’s vibrations will be equal to the frequency of the vibrating tuning fork.

(c) Loudness, pitch (shrillness), and quality (timber) are the three key characteristics that are able to distinguish two different sounds.

Question 5.
(i) Consider the following combination of resistors: [3]

(a) What is the effective resistance across PQ?
(b) What is the equivalent resistance across XY?
(c) If a 10 V battery is connected across terminal XY, what will be the flow of current through the battery?
(ii) The diagram below shows a loop of wire carrying current I:

(a) What is the magnetic polarity of the loop that faces us?
(b) With respect to the diagram how can we increase the strength of the magnetic field produced by this loop? [3]
(iii) (a) What is the purpose of using a hot water bottle for fomentation?
(b) What is sublimation? What is its opposite phenomenon called? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) Across PQ the effective resistance is = \(\frac{(3+3) \times 3}{(3+3)+3}=\frac{18}{9}\) = 2 Ω

(b) Equivalent resistance across terminal XY is = 3 + effective resistance across PQ + 3
= 3 + 2 + 3 = 8 Ω.

(c) Across terminal XY 10 V is applied, i.e., V = 10 V
The flow of current through the battery is = \(\frac { Voltage applied }{ Equivalent resistance across terminal }\)
= 10/8
= 1.25 A.

(ii) (a) South
(b) By passing a stronger current.

(iii) (a) Because water does not cool rapidly due to its high specific heat capacity, utilising a hot water bottle for fomentation gives more heat energy for fomentation over a longer length of time.

(b) Sublimation is the process in which a solid is directly transformed into vapour, without through the phase of liquid.
Deposition or de-sublimation is the opposite of sublimation, in which a material transitions from a gas to a solid state.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.) [1]
(i) In damped vibration:
(a) total energy of the oscillator decreases with time
(b) total energy of the oscillator increases with time
(c) total energy of the oscillator does not change with time
(d) total energy of the oscillator first decreases then increases with time
Answer:
(a) total energy of the oscillator decreases with time
Explanation:
Vibrations are considered to be damped when the energy of a vibrating system is progressively dissipated by various resisting forces. The vibrations gradually decrease in frequency and after sometime the system returns to its equilibrium state. Thus in damped vibration, total energy of the oscillator decreases with time.

(ii) 12.5 kilocalorie is equivalent to ________. [1]
(a) 52300 Joule
(b) 5230 Joule
(c) 23500 Joule
(d) 32500 Joule
Answer:
(a) 52300 Joule
Explanation:
We know, 1 cal = 4.184 Joule
Or, 1 kcal = 4184 Joule
Thus 12.5 kcal = 4184 x 12.5 = 52300 Joule.

(iii) A conducting wire of length 2 meter and cross sectional area of 4 m² has resistance of 4 Ω. What is the resistivity of the wire? [1]
(a) 4 Ω-m
(b) 6 Ω-m
(c) 8 Ω-m
(d) 10 Ω-m
Answer:
(c) 8 Ω-m
Explanation:
we know that resistivity, ρ = RA/l. where R is the resistance, A is the cross sectional area of the wire and l is the length of the wire.
Given: R = 4 Ω; A = 4 m²; l = 2 m.
Thus, ρ = (4 x 4)/2 = 8 Ω-m.

(iv) The frequency of the topmost wave is 100 Hz. What is the frequency of the bottom most wave? [1]

(a) 100 Hz
(b) 400 Hz
(c) 500 Hz
(d) 600 Hz
Answer:
(d) 600 Hz
Explanation:
The topmost wave has frequency of 100 Hz, i.e., fundamental frequency. Now, it can be seen that the bottom most wave is 5^th overtone. Thus, the frequency of the bottom most wave will be = 6 x 100 = 600 Hz.

(v) What is the maximum number of electrons an atom can contain in its fourth orbit? [1]
(a) 4
(b) 16
(c) 24
(d) 32
Answer:
(d) 32
Explanation:
In an orbit on an atom, the maximum number of electrons can be 2n², where V is the orbital number In the present case ‘n’ is 4. So this orbit can have a maximum of 32 electrons.

(vi) Lenz’s law is based on conservation of ________. [1]
(a) mass
(b) current
(c) angular momentum
(d) energy
Answer:
(d) energy
Explanation:
The law of energy conservation is the foundation of Lenz’s law. The induced current, according this rule, always tends to oppose the source that creates it.

(vii) How does the melting point of wax change as pressure rises? [1]
(a) Melting point increases.
(b) Melting point decreases.
(c) Melting point remains unchanged.
(d) Cannot be said.
Answer:
(a) Melting point increases.
Explanation:
The melting point of materials that expand when melted, such as wax, lead etc., rises as pressure rises. In contrast, the melting point of substances that contract when melted, such as ice, decreases as the pressure rises.

(viii) During which of the following processes heat energy is absorbed by the substance? [1]
(a) Melting
(b) Freezing
(c) Boiling
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
The material absorbs heat energy during the melting and boiling processes. During freezing, however, the material releases heat energy.

(ix) Name of the instrument presented below is ________. [1]

(a) Fuse
(b) Earthling
(c) Circuit Breaker
(d) Switch
Answer:
(c) Circuit Breaker
Explanation:
The instrument presented in the figure is called ‘Circuit Breaker’.

(x) Which instrument is used to measure current in an electric circuit? [1]
(a) Ammeter
(b) Potentiometer
(c) Voltmeter
(d) Tachometer
Answer:
(a) Ammeter
Explanation:
Ammeter is used to measure current in a circuit.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Specific heat capacity of water is more compared to ice. Correct or Wrong? Why? [3]
(b) State the principle of Calorimetry.
(ii) (a) Write two differences between a chemical change and a nuclear change.
(b) Mention the beneficial and harmful effects of radiations. [3]
(iii) Carbon has an isotope \({ }_{146}^{6} X\)
(a) How many protons and neutrons does it contain?
(b) How many neutral electrons does it contain?
(c) After decaying a particle, the daughter element becomes, say \({ }_{14}^{7} X\). What is that decaying particle? Write down the equation of the changes. [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) The statement is Correct. Specific heat capacity of water is 4184 J.kg^-1K^-1and for ice it is 2108 J.kg^-1K^-1. So, Specific heat capacity of water is more compared to ice. Ice has a covalent chemical structure, which makes it easier to break intermolecular bonds than water. As a result, ice has a lower specific heat capacity than water.

(b) According to the principle of Calorimetry, when a hot body is kept in contact with a cold body, heat energy is transferred from the hot body to the cold body until both bodies reach the same temperature. If no heat energy is lost to the surroundings, then Heat energy lost by the hot body is equal to the Heat energy gained by the cold body.

(ii) (a) Differences:
1. A chemical change occurs when orbital electrons change, whereas a nuclear change occurs when nucleons inside the nucleus change.
2. A nuclear change requires a significantly larger amount of energy than a chemical change.

(b) Beneficial effects: Radiations emitted during the decay process are used to treat such as cancer, tumour etc.
Harmful effect: Radiations has the potential to harm and cause permanent damage to living tissues.

(iii) (a) The given isotope of carbon is \({ }_{14}^{6} C\).
Number of protons = 6
Number of neutrons = mass number – atomic number = 14 – 6 = 8.

(b) Atomic number = number of protons = number of neutral electrons = 6.

(c) After decaying a particle, the daughter element became \({ }_{14}^{7} X\). Means, the mass number remain the same but the atomic number is increased by 1. Thus it is a ß-decay.
The equation is, \({ }_{6}^{14} \mathrm{C} \stackrel{-\beta}{\longrightarrow}{ }_{7}^{14} X .\)

Question 3.
(i) Consider the bar magnet and solenoid combination, where the bar magnet is placed close to the solenoid: [3]

(a) What would be the polarity at the rightmost point of the solenoid? Will the magnet be attracted or repelled?
(b) Write one application of bar shaped electromagnet.
(ii) A current of 2 A flows through a wire of 10 m length when a potential difference of 4 volt is applied across its ends. [3]
(a) What is the resistance of that wire?
(b) What is the resistance per unit length of the wire?
(c) What is the resistance of 2 m length of the wire?
(iii) (a) What is forced vibration?
(b) Give an example of forced vibration.
(c) The amplitudes of two waves are same. Will both the wave have same picth? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) According to Lenz’s law, the direction of induced e.m.f is such that it opposes the cause which produces it. Thus, the polarity at the rightmost point of the solenoid would be South pole.
The magnet will be repelled. Because the nearest point of the solenoid would be North pole and North-North repelled.

(b) Bar shaped electromagnets are commonly used in relay or switching devices. Also it is used for magnetic experiments, in medical procedures, in electronic devices such as telephones, radios, televisions etc.

(ii) (a) Given, V = 4 V, I = 2 A, l = 10 m.
Thus the resistance of 10 m length of wire is, R = V/I = 4/2 = 2 ohm.
(b) The resistance per unit length of the wire is = R/l = 2/10 = 0.2 ohm m^-1.
(c) The resistance of 2 m length of wire is = resistance per unit length x length = 0.2 x 2 = 0.4 ohm.

(iii) (a) The vibrations of a body that occur under the influence of a periodic external force operating on it, is called forced vibrations.
(b) For instance, while a guitar is being played, the artist uses the guitar’s strings to create forced vibrations.
(c) We know that loudness can be determined by amplitude, but frequency can not be measured by amplitude. Hence, pitch cannot be determined as it is independent of its amplitude.

Question 4.
(i) The current flowing in the coil of wire coiled around the soft iron horse shoe core is depicted in the diagram above. [3]

(a) State the polarities developed at the ends A and B.
(b) State ways to increase magnetic field strength.
(ii) Two 4 ohm and 6 ohm resistors are connected in parallel. The circuit is powered by a 6 V battery with very low resistance: [3]

(a) What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
(b) What is the current flowing through the battery and 4 Ω resistor?
(iii) A metal with a mass of 400 g has a heat capacity of 200 J K^-1.
(a) How much heat energy does it take to raise the temperature by 5°C?
(b) What is the metal’s specific heat capacity?
(c) Is it possible for a pure substance, the particular latent heat of fusion to be the same as the latent heat of melting? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) Using the Clock rule, looking at the face of the loop it can be said that end A will develop south pole and end B will develop north pole.
(b) The magnetic field may be increased by,
1. increasing the current strength in the coil,
2. increasing the number of turns in the coil,

(ii) (a) The resistances are connected in parallel fashion.
Thus the equivalent resistance, 1/R_eq = 1/4 + 1/6,
Or, R_eq =12/5 = 2.4 0.

(b) The current flowing through the battery is I = V/R_eq = 6/2.4 = 2.5 A.
As the resistances are connected in parallel, the voltage across each resistor will be same.
So the current through 4 Ω resistor is = 6/4 = 1.5 A.

(iii) (a) The heat energy required to raise the temperature by 5 °C (5 °C = 278 K) is,
= heat capacity x temperature change = 200 J k^-1 x 278 k = 55600 J = 5.56 x 10⁴ J.

(b) Specific heat capacity = heat capacity/mass of the metal
= 200/0.4 = 500 J kg^-1K^-1.

(c) The thermal energy nedessary to melt a unit amount of ice at 0°C to water at 0°C without changing the temperature is known as the specific heat of melting of ice. The specific latent heat of fusion of ice, on the other hand, is the heat energy generated when a unit amount of water at 0°C freezes to ice at 0°C without a temperature change. Thus, for a pure substance latent heat of fusion is the same as the latent heat of melting.

Question 5.
Consider the following graphs and write which one represents alternating represents direct (DC)? [3]

(b) Write any two significant differences of AC and DC current.
(c) Which of these two (AC or DC) is the more dangerous?
(ii) (a) Define Intensity of a sound. What is its SI unit? [3]
(b) Write any two factors on which intensity of a sound depends?
(iii) 600 calorie of heat is required to raise the temperature of 0.060 kg of a substance from 0°C to 100°C. Calculate its specific heat capacity.
(a) In calorie kg^-1°C^-1.
(b) In J kg^-1°C^-1. [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) From graph B it can be said that the direction of the current is not changing, thus it is direct current. On the other hand graph A shows the periodical change in direction of the current with time, thus it is alternating current.

(B) Differences between AC and DC:
1. In direct current (DC), the electric current only flows in one direction. In alternating current (AC), on the other hand, direction changes periodically.
2. Power consumption in AC is significantly less compared to DC.

(c) Alternating current is five times as harmful as direct current. The major cause of this harmful effect on the human body is the alternating current’s frequency. Even a little voltage of around 25 volts may kill a human if the frequency of alternating current is approximately 60 Hz.

(ii) (a) The amount of sound energy travelling per second, across unit area, at a point of the medium is the intensity of a sound wave at that location. Its unit is watt per metre² (W/m²).

(b) The intensity of a sound wave depends upon the amplitude of vibrations, the frequency of vibrations, and the density of medium. It is proportional to the square of the amplitude of vibrations, the square of the frequency of vibrations, and the density of air.

(iii) (a) Rise in temperature (∆θ)
= (100 – 0)°C = 100°C
Q = mc ∆θ
600 = 0.060 x c x 100
c = \(\frac{600}{0.060 \times 100}\)
= 100 calorie kg^-1°C^-1

(b) C = 100 x 4.2 J kg^-1°C^-1
= 420 J kg^-1°C^-1.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which particle can be stopped by a led box? [1]
(a) α
(b) ß
(c) γ
(d) All of these
Answer:
(d) all of these
Explanation:
All alpha, beta, gamma (γ) particles can be stopped by a lead box. Whereas, Alpha (α) and Beta (ß) particles can easily be stopped by a paper and an aluminium sheet, respectively. But gamma rays are more penetrating and can be stopped only by lead box.

(ii) What is the boiling point of liquid hydrogen on the Fahrenheit scale if the boiling point of water on the Celsius scale is 5°C? [1]
(a) -11 F
(b) 27 F
(c) -27 F
(d) 41 F
Answer:
(d) 41F
Explanation:
We know, C/5 = (F-32)/9.
Here C = 5.
So, 5/5 = (F-32)/9.
Solving we get, F = 41° F.

(iii) In our houses, electrical appliances are connected in _______ with the mains. [1]
(a) Series
(b) Parallel
(c) Any of the Series and Parallel.
(d) It only depends upon the voltage supply at the mains.
Answer:
(b) Parallel
Explanation:
In our household, electrical appliances are connected in a parallel. It is done so as to ensure that all appliances operate at the same voltage. Because the resistance in a parallel arrangement is minimal, thus each appliance receives full voltage. When one appliance fuses, it has no effect on the operation of the other appliances.

(iv) Which of the following substance has highest specific heat capacity? [1]
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Water
(c) Lead
(d) Copper
Answer:
(a) Hydrogen
Explanation:
Among the given substance, hydrogen has the highest specific heat capacity of 14630 J kg^-1K^-1. Where is for water, Lead and oxygen it is, 4180,130, and 300 J kg^-1K^-1.

(v) Heat produced in a transmission wire is independent of _______. [1]
(a) The material of the wire
(b) The amount of current that flows through it
(c) The direction of current flow
(d) The resistance of the wire
Answer:
(c) The direction of current flow
Explanation:
Regardless of the direction of current flow, the amount of heat produced in the transmission wire (in general, a current carrying conductor) is determined by the amount of current flowing through it and the resistance of the conductor.

(vi) Which of the following statement is correct? [1]
(a) During absorption of latent heat by a body, the temperature of the body changes
(b) During absorption of sensible heat by a body, the temperature of the body do not change
(c) During absorption of latent heat by a body, the temperature of the body remain constant
(d) In an isothermal process pressure is constant everywhere
Answer:
(c) During absorption of latent heat by a body, the temperature of the body remains constant
Explanation:
During absorption of sensible heat by a body, the temperature of the body changes. During absorption of latent heat by a body, the temperature of the body remains constant. In an isothermal process, temperature is constant everywhere.

(vii) Emission of alpha (α) particle is alternatively referred as the emission of _______. [1]
(a) Helium
(b) Hydrogen
(c) Sodium
(d) Radium
Answer:
(a) Helium
Explanation:
Emission of alpha (α) particle is alternatively referred as the emission of helium. Both alpha (α) particle and helium has mass number of 4 and atomic number of 2.

(viii) What is the energy required to raise the temperature of 5 kg of water from 10 K to 50 K? [Specific heat capacity of water is 4184 J.kg^-1.K^-1.] [1]
(a) 836.8 J
(b) 836.8 kj
(c) 242.4 kj
(d) 242.4 J
Answer:
(b) 836.8 kj
Explanation:
Given: m = 5 kg; C_p = 4184 J.kg^-1K^-1; ∆t = (50 – 10) = 40 K.
Thus, required Energy (Q) = m x C_p x ∆t = 5 x 4184 x 40 = 836.8 kJ.

(ix) Why are hot water bottles used for fomentation? [1]
(a) Internal energy of water is very low.
(b) Specific heat capacity of water is very low.
(c) Specific heat capacity of water is very high.
(d) Density of the water is maximum at 4 degree centigrade.
Answer:
(c) Specific heat capacity of water is very high.
Explanation:
The reason for using hot water bottles for fomentation is that water does not cool quickly due to high specific heat capacity, so a hot water bottle provides more heat energy for fomentation over a longer period of time.

(x) Why are the radiators in the car and generator filled with water? [1]
(a) Water can extract more heat without raising its temperature significantly.
(b) Water can lower its temperature without taking much heat from outside.
(c) Specific heat capacity of water and radiators of cars are nearly same.
(d) None of the above.
Answer:
(a) Water can extract more that heat without raising its temperature significantly.
Explanation:
When water passes through a pipe surrounded by a hot part of the engine, heat energy is removed from those parts. Because water has high specific heat capacity, water in pipes may extract more heat from the environment without significantly raising its temperature. As a result, the car’s radiator and generator are both filled with water.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) A nucleus of an atom X has a mass number 48 and atomic number 18. [3]
(a) What is the number of neutrons in the nucleus? Write the symbol of atom X.
(b) If four proton are lost from the atom X, what will be the symbol of the daughter nucleus Y?
(ii) (a) In 30 seconds, a 5 kilowatt electric geyser elevates the temperature of 1 kg of water from 278 K to 328 K. What is the amount of energy supplied by the heater? [3]
(b) Is it safe to connect this electric geyser with the live wire?
(iii) Consider the given figure: [4]
Given: R₃ = R₂ = 4 Ohm and R₁ = 8 Ohm

(a) What is the equivalent resistance of the circuit?
(b) What is the current flowing through the battery?
(c) If all the resistors are connected in series, then current flowing through the battery is?
Answer:
(i) (a) Mass number A = number of protons + number of neutrons Atomic number Z = number of protons.
Number of neutrons = mass number A-atomic number Z = 48 -18 = 30.
The nucleus X can be written as, \({ }_{44}^{18} X\).

(b) After the loss of 4 protons, the mass number and the atomic number of the nucleus \({ }_{48}^{18} X\) will decrease by 4. Thus the new nucleus will be \({ }_{44}^{14} Y\).

(ii) (a) Time t = 30 sec
Temperature ∆T = 328 – 278 = 50 K
Mass of water (m) = 1 kg
So, energy supplied by the geyser (Q) = power x time = 5000 x 30 = 150000 = 1.5 x 10⁵ J.

(b) No, it is not safe to connect this electric geyser with the live wire. Because even if the switch is off, still the geyser will have access to current. Thus, it is dangerous to the users.

(iii) (a) The equivalent resistance is (1/R) = \(\frac{1}{4+4}+\frac{1}{8}\) Or, R = 4 ohm.
(b) Current flowing through the battery is = 10/4 = 2.5 A.
(c) If they are connected in series, then the equivalent resistance (R) = 4 + 4 + 8 = 16 ohm.
Current flowing through the battery will be = 10/16 = 0.625 A.

Question 3.
(i) (a) State Lenz’s law. [3]
(b) Can we find the direction of induced current using this law?
(c) Write the name of the device shown below?

(ii) An electric bulb is rated as 100 W-220 V. [3]
(a) What is the resistance of the filament?
(b) What is the safe current which can flow through the bulb?
(c) Is it safe to use 1 A current flow to this bulb?
(iii) (a) Define Latent heat.
(b) How Sensible heat is different from latent heat?
(c) When ice in a frozen lake start melting, its surrounding becomes very cold. Why? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) According to Lenz’s law, the direction of induced e.m.f is such that it opposes the cause which produces it.
(b) Yes, we can find the direction of induced current using Lenz’s law.
(c) The device shown in the figure is called ‘Toroid.’

(ii) (a) Resistance of the filament (R) = V²/P = (220)²/100 = 484 Ohm.
(b) Safe current (I) = Power rating/Voltage rating = 100/220 = 0.45 A.
(c) As the safe current is 0.45 A, thus using current more than 0.45 A is unsafe to use.

(iii) (a) During a constant-temperature process, latent heat is the energy emitted or absorbed by a body or a thermodynamic system. Changes in phase between liquids, gases, and solids are associated to t latent heat. ;

(b) The term “sensible heat” refers to energy that is transferred as heat and results in a temperature ; change in a body.

(c) When the ice in a frozen lake begins to melt, the area around it gets extremely chilly. This is due to the fact that melting the frozen lake requires a significant quantity of heat energy, which is absorbed from the surrounding environment. As a result, the ambient temperature drops and becomes very cold.

Question 4.
(i) You have been provided with a solenoid AB. [3]
(a) What is the polarity at end A?

(b) Give one advantage of an electromagnet over a permanent magnet.
(ii) (a) What is isotope? [3]
(b) Write any two isotopes of Carbon. Is there a radioactive isotope of carbon?
(iii) (a) Define Quality of a sound.
(b) Present two differences between Music and Noise.
(c) When a tuning fork is allowed to vibrate in the air, what type of vibration does it produce? [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) North pole.
(b) Electromagnet is a very strong magnet as compared to a permanent magnet.

(ii) (a) Isotopes are atoms of the same element with the same atomic number but different mass numbers.
(b) Carbon has three isotopes, viz. \({ }_{12}^{6} C\), \({ }_{13}^{6} C\) and \({ }_{14}^{6} C\). Among them \({ }_{14}^{6} C\) is a radio isotope and can be used to determine age of fossils.

(iii) (a) A sound’s quality is the characteristic that distinguishes two sounds of equal loudness and pitch, but produced by two distinct instruments.

(b) Difference between music and noise.
1. Music is produced by periodic vibrations, noise is produced by an irregular succession of disturbances.
2. In music the waveform is regular, whereas in noise the waveform is irregular.
3. Music is pleasant to ears, whereas Noise is unpleasant to ears.

(c) When the tuning fork is allowed to vibrate in the air, produces damped vibration.

Question 5.
(i) Consider the following figure of a solenoid with magnetic lines: [3]

(a) Can a soft iron increase the magnetic line density? How?
(b) If the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid is increased what will be the effect on magnetic line density?
(c) Resistance of the wire has no effect on the magnetic field line density. Correct or wrong?
(ii) Fleming’s left hand rule of current carrying conductor is represented in the figure below: [3]

(a) What the direction 1 indicates?
(b) What the direction 2 indicates?
(c) What is the angle between direction 1 and direction 2?
(iii) Consider the following figure: [4]

(a) What is amplitude of a wave? Which one in the figure has the highest amplitude?
(b) Which one has the lowest frequency?
Answer:
(i) (a) Yes, soft iron is an excellent material for increasing the density of magnetic lines. The magnetic field lines will be significantly increased if the soft iron rod is placed within the solenoid core.

(b) If the number of turns per unit length of the solenoid is increased, magnetic field lines will be significantly increased. By that it can have stronger magnetic field.

(c) This is a wrong statement. Because, if resistance of the wire of the solenoid is reduced, it will have positive effect on the magnetic field line density.

(ii) (a) As per Fleming’s left hand rule, the force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is indicated by direction 1.

(b) As per Fleming’s left hand rule, the direction of magnetic field for a current carrying conductor is indicated by direction 2.

(c) All the directions of force, magnetic field, and current are perpendicular to one another. As a result, the angle formed by the direction of force and the direction of magnetic field is 90 degrees.

(iii) (a) The amplitude of a wave is referred as the height of a wave, which is measured from the highest point on the wave to the lowest point on the wave.
Among the given figure, figure (b) has highest amplitude.

(b) As the number of waves that pass a fixed point in a given amount of time for figure (a) is the lowest, thus figure (a) has the lowest frequency.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physics Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only)
(i) Pendulums A, B, C and D are tied to a flexible string PQ and are at rest. Pendulum C is disturbed. Which of the following statements is true? [1]

(a) Only pendulum C will start vibrating.
(b) Pendulums A, B, and D will also start vibrating but A and D will vibrate with the maximum amplitude.
(c) Pendulums A, B, and D will also start vibrating.
(d) Vibrations of pendulum C are forced vibrations.
Answer:
(b) Pendulums A, B, and D will also start vibrating but A and D will vibrate with the maximum amplitude.
Explanation:
When pendulum C is disturbed, the other three pendulums begin to vibrate as well, but because pendulum A and D are vibrate with same natural frequency and due to resonance, pendulum A and D vibrate with the maximum amplitude.

(ii) Which of the following is not a characteristic of parallel combination of resistors? [1]
(a) If one resistor is fused, the circuit does not become open.
(b) The total resistance R is given by the formula \(\frac { 1 }{ R }\) = \(\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}+\frac{1}{R_{3}}\)
(c) The total resistance becomes less than the least resistor, present in the combination.
(d) The current through each resistor always remains the same.
Answer:
(d) The current through each resistor always remains the same.
Explanation:
When resistors are connected in series, the current flowing through the circuit is the same; however, when they are connected in parallel, the current through each resistor differs, but the voltage across all resistors is the same. If a resistor is removed from a parallel connection, current will continue flow across the circuits, whereas this is not the case with a series connection.

(iii) Which one of the following statements is correct? [1]
(a) Live wire has zero potential.
(b) Fuse is connected in a neutral wire.
(c) Potential of live and earth wire is always the same.
(d) Earth wire is used to prevent electric shock.
Answer:
(d) Earth wire is used to prevent electric shock.
Explanation:
The potential of the neutral and earth wires are always kept at zero. The live wire has definite potential. In an electrical circuit, a fuse is always connected to the live wire to ensure that the appliance is not live when it is switched off. The earth wire connects the electric appliances to the earth, allowing any excess current or leakage of electric current to be flown to the ground. Thus, it prevents any possible electric shock to occur.

(iv) The diagram below shows a free conductor AB is kept in a magnetic field and is carrying current from A to B. (To avoid confusion complete path of the circuit is not shown) The direction of the force experienced by the conductor will be: [1]

(a) Up
(b) Down
(c) Towards N
(d) Towards S
Answer:
(a) Up
Explanation:
Applying Fleming’s left hand rule, it can be said that the force on the current carrying conductor AB in the magnetic field will be in upward direction.

(v) The diagram below shows a magnet moved near a coil along its axis. Which of the diagram shows correct flow of current during this motion? [1]

Answer:

Explanation:
Applying the Lenz’s law in the given situation, the right end of the solenoid will develop the polarity which will resist the movement of the bar magnet. Thus, when the bar magnet is moving rightward, the right end of the solenoid will develop South Pole and a clockwise current will flow through the circuit.

(vi) The meaning of the statement ‘Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 Jkg^-1K^-1 is: [1]
(a) Water needs 4200 J heat to raise its temperature by 1 kelvin.
(b) To raise the temperature of water 4200 J of heat is absorbed.
(c) 1 kg water absorbs 4200 J heat to increase its temperature by 1 kelvin.
(d) 1 kg Water needs 1 kelvin temperature to absorb 4200 J heat.
Answer:
(c) 1 kg water absorbs 4200 J heat to increase its temperature by 1 kelvin.
Explanation:
The amount of heat required to increase the temperature of a particular substance’s unit mass by one unit is referred as Specific heat capacity. Thus, Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 Jkg^-1K^-1 meaning, 1 kg of water requires 4200 J heat to increase its temperature by 1 K.

(vii) 200 g of ice at 0°C needs heat to melt. [Specific latent heat of ice = 336000 J kg^-1] [1]
(a) 6720 J
(b) 67200 J
(c) 672000 J
(d) 67.2 J
Answer:
(a) 6720 J
Explanation:
Energy required to melt 200 g of ice, Q = m x L = 0.2 x 336000 = 67200 J.

(viii) The radiation with maximum penetrating power is: [1]
(a) γ
(b) β
(c) X-radiation
(d) α
Answer:
(a) γ
Explanation:
Gamma rays (γ) are the most penetrating of the three types of radiation.

(ix) Resonance is: [1]
(a) A forced vibration in which amplitude remains constant.
(b) A forced vibration in which frequency of forced vibration is greater than the free vibrations of the body.
(c) A forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is equal to the free vibrations of the body.
(d) A forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is less than the free vibrations of the body.
Answer:
(c) A forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is equal to the free vibrations of the body.
Explanation:
When the frequency of an externally applied periodic force equals the natural frequency of a body, the body begins to vibrate with more amplitude. Resonance is the term for this phenomena. Resonance is a special type of forced vibration. In other words, it is one type of forced vibration, in which frequency of forced vibration is equal to the free vibrations of the body.

(x) The nuclear radiation which gets deflected towards negatively charged plate in an electric field is: [1]
(a) Gamma
(b) Ultraviolet
(c) Beta
(d) Alpha
Answer:
(d) Alpha
Explanation:
Because alpha particles are positive, they will be attracted to a plate that is negatively charged; and Beta particles are negatively charged, they are attracted to a positively charged plate.

Section-B[30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) (a) Calculate the total resistance across AB. [3]

(b) If a cell of e.m.f 2.4 V with negligible internal resistance is connected across AB then calculate the current drawn from the cell.
(ii) (a) Which will absorb more heat, 10 g of ice at 0° C or 10 g of water at 0° C? [3]
(b) For the same mass of ice and ice-cold water, why does ice produce more cooling than ice-cold
water?
(iii) The diagram below shows an insulated copper wire wound around a hollow card board cylindrical tube. Answer the questions that follow: [4]

(a) What are the magnetic poles at A and B when the key K is closed?
(b) State two ways to increase the strength of the magnetic field in this coil without changing the coil.
(c) If we place a soft iron bar at the centre of the hollow cardboard and replace the DC source by an AC source then will it attract small iron pins toward itself when the current is flowing through the coil?
Answer:
(i) (a) Resistors 3 Ω and 5 Ω are in series. The equivalent resistance of these two is 8 Ω.
Now, this 8 Ω is connected with another 8 Ω resistors in parallel. The equivalent resistance of these two is = (8×8)/(8+8) = 4Ω.
Thus, the total resistance across AB is 4 Ω.

(b) If a cell of e.m.f 2.4 V with negligible internal resistance is connected across AB then the current drawn from the cell is = Voltage (V)/ equivalent resistance (R) = 2.4/4 = 0.6 A.

(ii) (a) Latent heat of melting of 1 g ice at 0°C is 334 J. 10 g of ice at 0°C require 334 x 10 = 3340 J energy to melt down to 10 g of water at 0°C. Thus, this much additional energy 10 g ice can absorb as compared to 10 g water at 0°C.

(b) For the same mass of ice and ice-cold water, due to the absorption of latent heat by the ice, the ice produce more cooling than ice-cold water.

(iii) (a) As anticlockwise flow of current will occur at A, north pole will be produced at A; and as clockwise flow of current will occur at B, south pole will be produced at B.

(b) In order to increase the strength of the magnetic field in this coil, one can increase the number of turns on the coil and/or increase the current flow and/or placing an iron core inside the hollow card board cylindrical tube.

(c) If we place a soft iron bar at the centre of the hollow cardboard and replace the DC source by an AC source then there will be no attraction of small iron pins toward itself when the current is flowing through the coil. This is because AC will not create any magnetic effect, though it is a flow of free charged particles.

Question 3.
(i) The diagram below shows a cooling curve for 200 g of water. The heat is extracted at the rate of 100 Js^-1. Answer the questions that follow: [3]

(a) Calculate specific heat capacity of water.
(b) Fleat released in the region BC.
(ii) (a) Observe the diagram given below and state whether the bulb will glow or not when we switch on K. [3]

(b) Is it safe to handle the bulb when the switch is OFF?
(c) Give a reason for your answer in (b).
(iii) Two metals A and B have specific heat capacities in the ratio 2:3. If they are supplied same amount of heat then:
(a) Which metal piece will show greater rise in temperature given their masses are the same?
(b) Which metal piece will have greater mass if the rise in temperature is the same for both metals?
(c) If the mass ratio of metal A and metal B is 3:5 then calculate the ratio in which their temperatures rise.
(d) If specific heat capacity of metal A is 0.26 Jg1 °C_1 then calculate the specific heat capacity of metal B. [4]
Answer:
(i) (a) mass of water (m) = 200 g = 0.2 kg.
Rate of heat extraction = 100 J/s.
So, total heat extracted for curve AB is = 100 x 640 = 64000 J
Now, for curve AB we can write,
64000 = 0.2 x C_p x (353 – 273) [80°C = 273 + 80 = 353 K; 0°C = 273 + 0 = 273 K.]
Solving we get,
C_p = 4000 Jkg^-1K^-1.
Thus, specific heat capacity of water is 4000 Jkg^-1K^-1.

(b) From the figure it is clear that at point B and C is corresponds to time 640 s and 1312 s, respectively. Thus, heat released in region BC is = 100 x (1312-640) = 67,200 J.

(ii) (a) In the given figure it is observed that the bulb is connected with Live wire and the key is connected with Neutral wire. When the key or switch is ON, the path of current flow is completed, hence the bulb will glow.

(b) It is NOT safe to handle the bulb when the switch is OFF as bulb is directly connected to live wire.

(c) In the OFF position, the bulb remains connected to the high potential terminal through the live wire, but no current flows through the bulb, as the return path is incomplete. In this condition, it is not safe to touch the bulb even from outside. As a result, if the switch is connected to the neutral wire, it might be deceiving and even harmful to the user.

(iii) (a) It is given that, two metals A and B have specific heat capacities in the ratio 2 : 3. They are supplied same amount of heat.
Assuming, specific heat capacities of two metals A and B are 2 C and 3 C, respectively.
It is also given that, masses are same.
Let us take the heat amount is Q and masses are m.
So, for metal A,
Amount of heat (Q) = m x 2 C x ∆t_A;
AtA; and for metal B,
Amount of heat (Q) = m x 3 C x ∆t_B.
Now we can write, m x 2 C x ∆t_A = m x 3C x ∆t_B.
Simplifying, ∆t_A = 1.5∆t_B
Therefore, it can be said that metal A will show greater rise in temperature than metal B.

(b) In this case, rise in temperature is same (∆t) and masses are different.
So, for metal A,
Amount of heat (Q) = m_A x 2 C x At;
and for metal B,
Amount of heat (Q) = m_B x 3 C x At.
Now we can write, m_A x 2C x At = m_B x 3C x At.
Simplifying, m_A = 1.5m_B.
Therefore, it can be said that metal A will have greater mass than metal B.

(c) In this case mass ratio, m_A/m_B = 3/5.
we can write, m_A x 2 C x ∆t_A = m_B x 3 C x ∆t_B.
Or, ∆t_A/∆t_B = 3m_B/2m_A
= (3/2) x (m_B/m_A)
= (3/2) x (5/3) = 5/2.
Or, ∆t_A : ∆t_B = 5:2.
Therefore, it can be said that for metal A and metal B, the ratio in which their temperatures rise is 5:2.

(d) It is given that, ratio of specific heat capacities, CA/CB = 2/3 and CA = 0.26.
Calculating we get, C_B = 1.5 x 0.26 = 0.39.
Therefore, specific heat capacity of metal B is 0.39 Jg^-10C^-1.

Question 4.
(i) (a) Which one of the following graphs A or B shows free vibrations in vacuum and which one shows free vibrations in a medium?
(ii) (a) State the Faraday’s laws of electromagnetic induction [3]
(b) Name one electrical device which works on this principle.

(iii) A nucleus \({ }_{82}^{194} X\) emits an alpha particle [4]
(a) What will be the atomic number of the daughter nucleus Y?
(b) What will be the number of neutrons in the daughter nucleus Y?
(c) Write a nuclear reaction showing the emission of this particle.
Answer:
(i) (a) Graph A represents free vibration in vacuum and Graph B represents free vibration in medium, (b) For free vibrations in vacuum, there is no resisting force, thus the amplitude will remain the same with time. Whereas for free vibrations in a medium there is always a resistive force, thus the amplitude reduces with time due to this resistive force.

(ii) (a) Faraday formulated the following two laws of electromagnetic induction:
First law: Whenever there is a change in magnetic flux linked with a coil, an e.m.f is induced. The e.m.f. induced lasts so long there is a change in magnetic flux linked with the coil.

Second law: The magnitude of e.m.f induced is directly proportional to the rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the coil. If magnetic flux changes at a constant rate, a steady e.m.f. is produced.

(b) Transformers works on the basis of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.

(iii) (a) \({ }_{82}^{194} X\) emits an alpha particle.
We know, an Alpha particle consists of two protons and two neutrons (\({ }_{4}^{2} α\)). On emitting an alpha particle the atomic number will reduce by 2 and the mass number will reduce by 4.
Thus, atomic number of the daughter nucleus Y is = 82 – 2 = 80.
Mass number of the daughter nucleus Y is = 194 – 4 = 190.

(b) Number of protons in daughter nucleus Y is = 80.
Thus, number of neutrons in daughter nucleus Y is = 190 – 80 = 110.

(c) Nuclear reaction showing the emission of this particle is,

Question 5.
(i) (a) Name the electrical appliance shown in the diagram below. [3]

(b) Name the material of the wire used in this device.
(c) Name two important characteristics of this wire.
(ii) (a) Define pitch. [3]
(b) Two wires AB and CD of same length are stretched by same amount. Which wire will produce sound of greater pitch on plucking?
(c) Give a reason for your answer.

(a) Why is water used as a coolant in radiators of a car? [4]
(b) Name the radioactive isotope used to find the age of fossils. Name the radioactive radiation which it emits?
Answer:
(i) (a) The electrical appliance shown in the diagram is called ‘Fuse’.
(b) The material used in ‘Fuse’ wire is made up of alloy of lead (Pb) and tin (Sn) having low melting point of 250°C.
(c) Characteristics of Fuse wire:
1. It has high resistivity.
2. It has low melting point.
3. It prevents electrical appliances from being damaged by a surge of high voltage current.
4. It is made up of alloy of lead (Pb) and tin (Sn).

(ii) (a) Pitch is the characteristic of sound that distinguishes an acute (or shrill) note from a grave or flat
note.
(b) When both the wires are stretched by same amount, wire AB will produce sound of greater pitch on plucking.
(c) Pitch depends upon the frequency of the wave. More the frequency of the wave, higher is its pitch. In the given case, both the wires are of same length but wire AB is thinner than wire CD. So, wire AB will vibrate faster and have higher frequency than wire CD. Thus, pitch of wire AB is more compared to wire CD.

(iii) (a) When water passes through a pipe surrounded by a hot part of the engine, heat energy is removed from those parts. Because water has high specific heat capacity, water in pipes may extract more heat from the environment without significantly raising its temperature. As a result, the car’s radiator and generator are both filled with water.

(b) Carbon-14 is a radioactive isotope which is used to find the age of fossils. It is Beta (β) radiation. When Carbon-14 emits a beta particle, it becomes Nitrogen-14.

ICSE Class 10 Physics Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Sample Question Paper 6 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which of the following is not an excretory organ in human?
(a) Lungs
(b) Kidney
(c) Mouth
(d) Sweat glands.
Answer:
(c) Mouth
Explanation:
Excretion in humans is done through sweat glands, lungs, kidney organs. Mouth is not an excretory organ.

(ii) Organ of Balancing of sound is:
(a) Peripheral vestibular system
(b) Acoustic meatus
(c) Tympanic membrane
(d) Eustachian tube
Answer:
(a) Peripheral vestibular system
Explanation:
The peripheral vestibular system is organ of balance. The peripheral vestibular system is responsible for maintaining balance, coordinating the position of the head and eye movement. The system consists of sacs filled with endolymph, with the fibres of the vestibulocochlear nerve distributed on the walls of these sacs.

(iii) White blood cells are also called:
(a) Erythrocytes
(b) Leukocytes
(c) Thrombocytes
(d) Monocytes
Answer:
(b) Leukocytes
Explanation:
White blood cells are also called leukocytes because leuko means white. WBCs contain nucleus but do not contain haemoglobin.

(iv) Natural Reflex is:
(a) Voluntary reflex
(b) Experimental reflex
(c) Inborn reflex
(d) Differs in different individuals
Answer:
(c) It is Inborn reflex
Explanation:
It is one in which no previous experience or learning is acquired. This is inborn reflex. Example- Blinking, coughing, sneezing, swallowing.

(v) When lens of eye becomes foggy it cause:
(a) Astigmatism
(b) Glaucoma
(c) Cataract
(d) Amblyopia
Answer:
(c) Cataract
Explanation:
A cataract develops when the lens in your eye, which is normally clear, becomes foggy. For your eye to see, light passes through a clear lens. The lens is behind your iris. The lens focuses the light so that your brain and eye can work together to process information into a picture. When a cataract clouds over the lens, your eye can’t focus light in the same way. This leads to blurry vision or other vision loss (trouble seeing).

(vi) Which hormone promote the release of carbohydrate, fats and protein in human body?
(a) Androgen
(b) Calcitonin
(c) Thymopoietin
(d) Cortisol
Answer:
(d) Cortisol
Explanation:
Cortisol hormone controls the metabolism of carbohydrate, fat and protein in the blood. It promotes the glycogenesis in the liver. It helps in maintain blood pressure and blood glucose (sugar) level.

(vii) The range of blood platelets count in normal adult is:
(a) 200,000 to 450,000 per cu. mm
(b) 250,000 to 450,000 per cu. mm
(c) 250,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm
(d) 200,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm
Answer:
(d) 200,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm
Explanation:
Blood platelets are minute oval or round structure, non-nucleated, floating in blood. These are about 200,000 to 400,000 per cu. mm. of blood in an adult.

(viii) Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus are together known as:
(a) Proximal capsule
(b) Malpighian capsule
(c) Secondary capsule
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Malpighian capsule
Explanation:
Bowman’s capsule and Glomerulus together called as Malpighian capsule or just renal capsule.

(ix) Regulation of blood supply in muscle is function of which hormone:
(a) Oxytocin
(b) Thyroxine
(c) Adrenaline
(d) Insulin
Answer:
(c) Adrenaline
Explanation:
Adrenaline increases the blood supply to the muscle while decreasing it to skin and visceral organ.

(x) White matter mainly composed of:
(a) Myelinated Dendrites
(b) Myelinated Nerve cell bodies
(c) Myelinated Axons
(d) Unmyelinated Axons
Answer:
(c) Myelinated Axon
Explanation:
White matter is the tissue present at the centre of the brain. It is light in colour because of lipid(fatty substance) present in the myelin. It majorly composed of myelinated Axon. It is important because it allows messages to pass quickly between different area of gray matter. White matter continue to develop and peak in middle age.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) Name the organ which produce urea. What is osmoregulation? [2]
(ii) Who discovered ABO blood group and Rh factor? [2]
(iii) Given below is the diagram of an excretary system. Label the parts numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5. [3]

(iv) Briefly describe chambers of heart. [3]
Answer:
(i) Kidney is the organ where urea is produced. The kidney while removing urea from blood also regulate its composition i.e, the percentage of water and salts. This function is called osmoregulation.

(ii) ABO blood group system discovered by Karl landsteiner. Rh factor was discovered by Karl landsteiner and Wiener.

(iii) 1- kidney, 2-Aorta, 3-Ureter, 4-Urinary bladder, 5-Sphincter

(iv) The heart consists of four chamber- two atria on upper side and two ventricles on lower side. The atria also called auricles have thinner walls because their major function is to receive blood from the body and pump it into the very next ventricles. The ventricles have thick muscular walls because they have to pump blood to lungs and other body organs.

Question 3.
(i) Which neurotransmitters are used to communicate within the autonomic nervous system? [2]
(ii) Which hormone is secreted by pancreas? [2]
(iii) Differentiate between Motor nerve and sensory nerve. [3]
(iv) Draw labeled diagram of human brain with atleast 6 labels. [3]
Answer:
(i) The two neurotransmitters (Chemical Messengers) are used to communicate within the autonomic nervous system are Acetylcholine and Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine).

(ii) Pancreas as an endocrine gland secretes three hormone:
I. Insulin- regulates blood sugar level.
II. Glucagon- convert glycogen to glucose.
III. Somatostatin- regulates assimilation process.

(iii)

Sensory nerves	Motor nerves
Contain only sensory fibers.	Contain only motor fibers.
Bringing impulses from the receptors to the brain or spinal cord.	Carrying impulses from the brain or spinal cord to effector organs to bring them on action.
Example-Optic nerve arising from the eye and ending in the brain.	Example-a nerve arising from the brain and supplying the muscle of the eyeball for rotations.

(iv)

Question 4.
(i) What is insulin and how is it produced? [2]
(ii) What is fibrin? Describe its functions. [2]
(iii) Draw well labeled diagram of artery and veins. (At least 3 level). [3]
(iv) Describe term dialysis and reason of doing dialysis. [3]
Answer:
(i) Insulin is a protein chain or peptide hormone produce by the beta cells of the pancreatic islets of langerhans and it is considered to be the main anabolic hormone of the body. It regulates the metabolism of carbohydrates fats and proteins by promoting absorption of glucose from the blood into liver.

(ii) Thrombin in the presence of calcium ions, reacts with the soluble fibrinogen of the plasma to convert it into insoluble fibrin. Fibrin is a solid substance that form threads. These microscopic threads of fibrin are sticky and form a network at the wound.

(iii) Diagram of artery and vein:

(iv) When both kidney of a person are damaged or removed than we use artificial kidney called dialysis machine. Dialysis machine works as an artificial kidney. The patient’s blood is led from the radial artery in his arm through the machine where the urea and excess salts are removed and the purified blood is returned to a vein in the same arm. In case of permanent damage to the kidneys, dialysis is required to be repeated for about twelve hours a week.

Question 5.
(i) Differentiate between exocrine gland and endocrine gland. [2]
(ii) Describe the functions of semi-circular canal, Utriculus and saccules. [2]
(iii) Explain the figures: [3]

(iv) Describe conditional reflex. [3]
Answer:
(i)

Endocrine gland	Exocrine gland
Endocrine or internally secreting gland. They lack excretory ducts.	Exocrine Gland are duct glands. They have excretory ducts.
They secret products called hormones directly into the blood vessel.	They secrete their products, hormones into the a duct.
Example- pituitary gland, thymus gland, para-thyroid gland and adrenal gland etc.	Example- Lactic gland, Sweat gland, Mucous gland, Salivary gland.

(ii) Semicircular canals detect rotational head movements. Utriculus and saccules detect changes in the position of the head relating to gravity (linear acceleration) and head tilts on horizontal and vertical planes.

(iii) Stereo vision is the computation of depth based on the binocular disparity between the images of an object in left and right eyes (Figure). This requires matching up features in the two eyes, that is, identifying features in the left and right retinas that are both images of the same point in the visual scene.

(iv) Ivan Petrovich Pavlov (I. P. Pavlov) is Russian scientist who given term “Conditional reflex” also know as Acquired Reflex. Conditional reflex is one which develops during lifetime due to experience or learning. It is involuntary, spontaneous automatic response brought about due to a previously learned experience. Example familiar tasty food resulting in watering of mouth.

Question 6.
(i) Write the full form of: [2]
(a) LH (b) GH
(ii) Describe the function of: [2]
(a) Macula: …………… (b) Cochlea: ……………
(iii) Briefly define Blood pressure. [3]
(iv) Fill in the blank: [3]

Source gland cells	Hormone produce
Beta cells of Islets of Langerhans	(a) ……………………….
(b) ……………………….	Thyroxine
(c) ……………………….	Growth hormone

Answer:
(i) (a) LH – Luteinizing Hormone (b) GH – Growth Hormone

(ii) (a) The most sensitive part of the retina is a small area called the macula, which has millions of tightly
packed photoreceptors (called cones). The high density of cones in the macula makes the visual image detailed, just as a high-resolution digital camera has more megapixels.

(b) Sound vibrations when they enter the ear it gets converted to vibration after eardrum. This vibration causes vibration in fluid which is present inside cochlea.

(iii) Blood pressure is the pressure which the blood flowing through the arteries exerts on their walls. When blood is pushing through the artery due to contraction of the heart called systolic pressure. When this pressure is at lower point is called diastolic pressure. The normal blood pressure of the adult is 100-140mm (systolic) and 60-80 mm (diastolic). A rise in blood pressure above 140/90 is known as hypertension.

(iv) (a) Insulin
(b) Follicular cell
(c) Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland

ICSE Class 10 Biology Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Sample Question Paper 5 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, write the correct answer only.)
Which of the following is the characteristic of artery?
(a) Thin muscular wall
(b) A narrow lumen
(c) Blood flow uniformly
(d) Carry blood from organ to heart
Answer:
(b) A narrow lumen
Explanation:
An artery is a vessel which carries blood away from the heart towards any organ. It has thick muscular wall a narrow lumen (the central bore), and the blood in it flows in spurts which correspond to the ventricular contractions of the heart.

(ii) Sheet of fiber that connects two cerebral hemisphere called:
(a) Thalamus
(b) Medulla oblongata
(c) Corpus callosum
(d) Pons
Answer:
(c) Corpus callosum
Explanation:
Corpus callosum (hard body) is a sheet of fibres connecting the two cerebral hemisphere. It’s function is to transfer information from one hemisphere to other.

(iii) Sensory neuron is not needed in _________.
(a) Involuntary action
(b) Controlled reflex action
(c) Voluntary action
(d) Uncontrolled reflex action
Answer:
(a) Involuntary action
Explanation:
Sensory nerve is only needed when there is voluntary action is going on not when there is involuntary action. Sensory nerve is present around sensory organs.

(iv) Body temperature is regulated by:
(a) Thalamus
(b) Hypothalamus
(c) Cerebellum
(d) Medulla
Answer:
(b) Hypothalamus
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is part of brain (Fore brain). It controls the hormonal secretions from endocrine glands. Hormone secreted from posterior pituitary gland secrete through it. This is the centre of hunger, thirst, body temperature control, love, hate etc. Blood pressure, metabolism of water, sweat, anger, joy etc. Are controlled by it.

(v) Information is first acquired at _________.
(a) Nerve Ending
(b) Cell body
(c) Dendrite
(d) Axon
Answer:
(c) Dendrite
Explanation:
Information acquired at the end of the dendritic tip of the nerve cell sets off a chemical reaction that creates an electrical impulse.

(vi) Which of the gland have duct?
(a) Mucous Gland
(b) Pituitary Gland
(c) Thyroid Gland
(d) Parathyroid Gland
Answer:
(a) Mucous Gland
Explanation:
Exocrine Gland are duct glands they have excretory ducts. Exocrine gland secrete their products, hormones into the a duct. The major gland of the exocrine system include Lactic gland, Sweat gland, Mucous gland, Salivary gland, etc.

(vii) Diseases cause by deficiency of Thyroxin Hormone _________.
(a) Goitre
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Diabetes
(d) (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Diseases cause by deficiency of Thyroxine hormone:
1. Goitre: Iodine is essential for the synthesis of Thyroxine. Deficiency of Iodine in food causes Goitre. In this disease the shape of thyroid gland enlarges abnormally.
2. Myxoedema: It effects metabolism of youth due to which there is reduction in blood pressure and heart beat.
3. Cretinism: Disease effects the children and cause mental and physical retardness.
4. Hypothyroidism: This is due to chronic deficiency of thyroxine. Normal reproduction is not possible in this category. Due to this humans become dumb and deaf.

(viii) Lens is used for remedy of Astigmatism _________.
(a) Diverging Lens
(b) Converging Lens
(c) Cylindrical Lens
(d) Bifocal Lens
Answer:
(c) Cylindrical Lens
Explanation:
1. Diverging lens: It is used as a remedy for Myopia or shortsightedness. Can see near objects clearly while the far object can’t see clearly.

2. Converging lens: It is used as a remedy for Hyperopia or Hypermetropia or Longsightedness. Can see the distant object clearly but not near object.

3. Cylindrical lens: It is used as a remedy for Astigmatism. This arises due to difference in the radius of curvature of cornea in the different planes.

4. Bifocal lens: It is used as a remedy for presbyopia. It is generally found in elderly person. Both distant and nearby object can not be seen clearly.

(ix) Middle part of kidney tubule called:
(a) Bowman’s Capsule
(b) Loop of Henle
(c) Distal Convoluted tubule
(d) Proximal Convoluted tubule
Answer:
(b) Loop of Henle
Explanation:
Middle part of kidney tubule contains U-shaped structure called loop of Henle. It is shaped like a hair¬pin; it is not convoluted. It runs in medulla to turn back and to re-enter the cortex to continue into the next convoluted region of the tubule.

(x) Which part of kidney tubule absorbs chloride ions?
(a) Bowman’s Capsule
(b) Loop of Henle
(c) Glomerulus
(d) Proximal Convoluted tubule
Answer:
(d) Proximal Convoluted tubule
Explanation:
Glomerulus: Ultrafiltration
Bowman’s capsule: Receives glomerular filtrate.
Proximal convoluted tubule: Reabsorbs most water (about two third) and much of glucose and sodium and chloride ions.
Loop of Henle: Some absorption of water and sodium ions.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) Explain the term ‘Antidiuretic hormone’. What happens due to deficiency of this hormone? [2]
(ii) What is the function of Capillary? [2]
(iii) Differentiate between Arteries and Veins. [3]
(iv) Given below is the diagram of a human eye. Label the parts numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6. [3]

Answer:
(i) Antidiuretic hormone (ADH), also called vasopressin, constricts blood vessels with rise in blood pressure. It also acts on the kidney tubules. Deficiency of ADH causes diabetes insipidus (water diabetes) in which urination is frequent and copious, resulting in loss of water from the blood and the person becomes thirsty.

(ii) Capillary is a very narrow tube (about 8 micrometers in diameter); its wall consists of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells (endothelium), and has no muscle.
Function of capillaries:
1. To allow outward diffusion of oxygen into intercellular fluid and from there into the tissue.
2. To allow inward diffusion of carbon dioxide from the intercellular fluid.
3. To allow inward and outward diffusion of substance.

(iii)

Arteries	Veins
Blood vessels which carry blood away from the heart and into an organ.	Blood vessels which carry blood away from an organ and towards the heart.
Have thick and more muscular walls.	Have thin and less muscular walls.
It carries fully oxygenated blood (except pul-monary artery).	It carries partially deoxygenated and CO2 laden blood (except pulmonary vein).

(iv) 1-cornea, 2-retina, 3-pupil 4- lens, 5-Iris, 6-Optic nerve

Question 3.
(i) What does the term double circulation means? [2]
(ii) Differentiate between Renal cortex and Renal medulla. [2]
(iii) Explain the sequence of cardiac cycle. [3]
(iv) Draw the labeled diagram of reflex arc. [3]
Answer:
(i) Blood flows twice in the heart before it complete one full round. First, the short pulmonary circulation- circulation from lungs to heart. Second, long systematic circulation- circulation in general body. For this reason the blood circulation in body also called “double circulation”.

(ii)

Renal cortex	Renal medulla
It is granular outer dark layer.	It is smooth inner light layer.
It consist of Glomerulus and convoluted tubules.	It consists of loop of henle and the collecting tubules.

(iii) Cardiac cycle is who process of one heart-beat. It starts with contraction of atria followed by the contraction of ventricle. This contraction phase called systole. Contraction phase followed by relaxing or expansion phase. Relaxation of atria and ventricle called diastole. When both atria and ventricle relax state it complete one cycle.

(iv)

Question 4.
(i) What is the synapse? [2]
(ii) What is difference between central nervous system and peripheral nervous system? [2]
(iii) Draw a diagram of a Axon and label at least three parts of the diagram. [3]
(iv) Explain the Ultra-filtration steps in urine formation. [3]
Answer:
(i) A neuron is an electrically excitable cell that communicates with another cell via specialized connection called synapse. Synapse allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cell, such as muscle cells or gland.

(ii)

Central nervous system	Peripheral nervous system
Central Nervous System (C.N.S) is the part of Nervous system of human which keeps control on the whole body and on nervous systems.	Peripheral nervous system connects the central nervous system with other body part of the body. It carries signal arise from (C.N.S).
It is made up of two parts i.e., Brain and Spinal cord.	It includes nerves arise from the Spinal cord and Brain.

(iii)

(iv) The blood flows through the glomerulus under great pressure which is much greater than the capillaries elsewhere. This huge pressure (hydrostatic pressure) causes the liquid part of the blood to filter out from the glomerulus into the renal tubule. This filtration under huge amount of force is called ultra-filtration.

Question 5.
(i) Identify diagram A and B. [2]
(ii) Name three principal fluids circulate in our body. [2]
(iii) Differentiate between a simple and an acquired reflex. [3]
(iv) Which endocrine gland secretes Thyroxine hormone? Name the effects of its oversecretion and under secretion. [3]

Answer:
(i) Diagram “A” shows Myopia defect because image forms before the retina and focal length fall short of retina.
Diagram “B” shows Hyperopia defect because image form after the retina and focal length fall of retina.

(ii) Three principal fluids which circulate in our body are Blood, Tissue fluid and Lymph.

(iiii)

Simple Reflex	Acquired Reflex
Inborn (inherited) requiring no previous experience.	Developed by previous experience.
Directly related to the stimulus.	It acquired according to the condition.
Similar action among all individuals.	Differs in different individuals on the basis of previous experience.

(iv) Thyroid gland secretes thyroxine hormone. Thyroxine hormone regulates vital body functions, including differentiation, breathing, heart rate, body temperature, central and peripheral nervous system etc.

Insufficient secretions of thyroxine hormone are called hypothyroidism. It leads to diseases like simple goitre, cretinism and myxoedema.
Excess secretion of thyroxine hormone is called hyperthyroidism. It leads to disease like exophthalmic goitre.

Question 6.
(i) What is meant by Stereoscopic vision? [2]
(ii) What is full form of the following abbreviation? [2]
(a) ACTH (b) WBC
(iii) What is the function of Eustachian tube and which part of the ear is called organ of hearing? [3]
(iv) Filling in the blanks (a) to (c):
Eardrum, cochlea, ear ossicles, pinna, Utriculus, oval window
(a) External ear: ……………..
(b) Middle ear: ……………..
(c) Internal ear: …………….. [3]
Answer:
(i) Stereoscopic vision is defined as the simultaneous focussing of an object in both eyes which enables us to percieve the depth and distance of that object. The overlapping of their images in the brain gives a three dimentional effect of the image.

(ii) ACTH: Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone WBC: White Blood Cell

(iii) Eustachian tube is present in ear which equalises pressure between middle ear and outer atmosphere. Its connect middle ear to pharynx. The inner ear houses the cochlea (organ of hearing). The organ of Corti is located on the lower membrane (basilar membrane) of the scala media and consists of cells with hair-like projections, connecting with the terminal end of the auditory nerve.

(iv) (d) External ear: Eardrum, pinna
(e) Middle ear: Ear ossicles, oval window
(f) Internal ear: Cochlea, Utriculus

ICSE Class 10 Biology Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Sample Question Paper 4 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Heart is covered by a membranous covering called:
(a) Myocardium
(b) Chordae tendinae
(c) Pericardium
(d) Papillary muscles
Answer:
(c) Pericardium
Explanation:
Heart is protected by a double walled membranous covering called pericardium. It contains pericardial fluid which reduces friction during heartbeat.
Chordae tendinae are tendinous cords arising from the ventricular walls.
The muscles of the heart are termed as myocardium.
Papillary muscles are muscular projections of the ventricle wall.

(ii) __________ are the breakdown products of the haemoglobin of the dead RBCs.
(a) Uric acid
(b) Urea
(c) Ammonia
(d) Bile pigments
Answer:
(d) Bile pigments
Explanation:
The old and Weak red blood cells destroyed in the spleen, liver and bone marrow; their iron part is retained in the liver while the rest is excreted as bile pigment (bilirubin).

(iii) Give reason for the following:
The urine is slightly thicker in summer than winter.
(a) Due to consumption of more water
(b) Water is lost through sweat during summer
(c) During summer more water is reabsorbed
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
During summer water is lost from the body through sweat, more water is reabsorbed from proximal and distal convoluted tubule to maintain balance. Hence urine is slightly thicker in summer than in winter.

(iv) Longest cell in human body:
(a) Stem cell
(b) Muscle cell
(c) Liver cell
(d) Nerve cells
Answer:
(d) Nerve cells
Explanation:
Nerve cell is the longest cell in human body. It transmit signal between different part of the body.

(v) Electric Impulse travels through part of neuron from start
(a) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon
(b) Axon → Cell body → Dendrite
(c) Dendrite → Nucleus → Axon
(d) Dendrite → Nucleus → Nerve ending
Answer:
(a) Dendrite → Cell body → Axon
Explanation:
Electrical impulse travels from the dendrite to the cell body and then along the axon to its end.

(vi) Peripheral nervous system consists of __________.
(a) Cranial nerve
(b) System nerve
(c) Spinal nerve
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (c)
Explanation:
Peripheral nervous system consisting of cranial nerves arising from the brain and spinal nerve arising from the spinal cord.

(vii) Which neurotransmitters are used to communicate with in the autonomic nervous system?
(a) Adrenaline
(b) Acetyicholine
(c) Noradrenaline
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Answer:
(d) Both (b) and (c)
Explanation:
The two neurotransmitters (Chemical Messengers) are used to communicate with in the autonomic nervous system are Acetylcholine and Noradrenaline (Norepinephrine).

(viii) White matter mainly composed of:
(a) Myelinated Dendrites
(b) Myelinated Nerve cell bodies
(c) Myelinated Axon
(d) Unmyelinated Axon
Answer:
(c) Myelinated Axon
Explanation:
White matter is the tissue present at the centre of the brain, it is light in colour because of lipid(fatty substance) present in the myelin. It majorly composed of myelinated Axon. It is important because it allows messages to pass quickly between different areas of gray matter. White matter continue to develop and peak in middle age.

(ix) Aqueous humour is present between the:
(a) lens and retina
(b) iris and lens
(c) cornea and iris
(d) cornea and lens
Answer:
(d) cornea and lens
Explanation:
Aqueous chamber is the front chamber between the lens of cornea. It is filled with clear watery liquid called aqueous humour.

(x) Which hormone aids in regulation of thyroid secretion?
(a) STH
(b) ACTH
(c) ADH
(d) TSH
Answer:
(d) TSH
Explanation:
Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) aids in the regulation of thyroid secretion.

Section-B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) Give any 2 general properties of hormones. [2]
(ii) Write about origin and functions of Red Blood Corpuscles. [2]
(iii) The diagram alongside represents the simplified pathway of the circulation of blood. Study the same and answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the blood vessels labelled 1 and 2.
(b) State the function of blood vessels labelled 5 and 8.
(c) What is the importance of the blood vessel labelled 6? [3]
(iv) Explain the terms : (a) Sensory nerve, (b) motor nerve, and (c) mixed nerve. [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) Hormones are secreted by the endocrine glands.
(b) Hormones are specific in function.
(c) Hormonal effects are long lasting.
(d) Hormones are required in very minute quantities.
(e) They are secreted independent of one another.
(f) They act as chemical co-ordinators or chemical messengers.
(g) They are protein or steroid in nature.
(h) They are secreted in response to specific stimuli.

(ii) Origin: In the early childhood stage, RBCs are formed in the liver, spleen and thymus. In the later stages, red bone marrow starts producing RBCs.
Function: They help in the transportation of oxygen and carbon dioxide to the different parts of body.

(iii) (a) 1. Anterior vena cava.
2. Aorta

(b) Blood vessel 5 supplies oxygenated blood to the liver.
Blood vessel 8 brings deoxygenated blood from lower parts of the body to heart.

(c) It brings all the digested food and deoxygenated blood from parts of alimentary canal to liver.
(a) A sensory nerve is one which sends nerve impulses from a receptor (sense organs) to the central nervous system.
(b) A motor nerve is one which carries the impulses from the central nervous system to an effector.
(c) A mixed nerve is one which carries both sensory and motor fibres. For example, a spinal nerve.

Question 3.
(i) Difference between Diastole and Systole. [2]
(ii) State the location and function of Tissue Fluid. [2]
(iii) The diagram shows the Excretory System of a human being. Study the same and then answer the questions that follow:

(a) Name the parts labelled 1, 2, 3, and 4.
(b) Give the main function of the parts labelled 5, 6, 7 and 8. [3]
(c) Name the endocrine gland which could be added in the diagram and state its location/position.
(iv) Write constituents of urine. [3]
Answer:
(i)

Diastole	Systole
(i) It is the condition of the heart when the chambers relax.	It is the condition of the heart when the chambers of the heart contract.
(ii) It is the condition when the blood enters the chamber, e.g., when left atrium relaxes, blood enters from the pulmonary vein under low pressure.	It is the condition when the blood is pumped out of the heart, e.g., when the left ventricle contracts, the blood is pumped to the body under high pressure.

(ii) When blood flows in the capillaries of tissues, plasma and leukocytes leak out through their walls. This fluid bathes the cells and is called tissue fluid or intercellular fluid or extracellular fluid. From this fluid the cells absorb oxygen and other required substances, and in turn, give out carbon dioxide and other wastes back out.

(iii) (a) 1 – Inferior vena cava 3 – Renal artery
2 – Aorta 4 – Renal vein

(b) (5) Ureter-Carry urine to the bladder.
(6) Urinary bladder-Store urine.
(7) Sphincter muscle-Control the voiding of urine
(8) Urethra-Release urine periodically.
(c) Adrenal gland-At the top of each kidney.

(iv) Constituents of urine: The normal human urine consists of about 95% of water and 5% of solid wastes dissolved in it. The percentage of the solid wastes may slightly vary according to the food taken and according to the time after taking food but usually these are approximately as follows :

Organic Constituents in (g/L)	Inorganic Constituents in (g/L)
Urea – 2.3	Sodium chloride – 9.0
Creatinine – 1.5	Potassium chloride – 2.5
Uric acid – 0.7	Sulphuric acid – 1.8
Others – 2.6	Ammonia – 0.6
	Others – 2.5

Besides the normal constituents, the urine may pass out certain hormones and medicines like the antibiotics and the excess vitamins.

Question 4.
(i) Veins have valves at intervals in their inner lining whereas the arteries do not have valves give suitable reason for supporting the statement. [2]
(ii) Give the location of pancreas. [2]
(iii) Name the hormones released by pancreas, and write the function of any one of them. [3]
(iv) Name the blood vessels entering the heart and leaving the heart. [3]
Answer:
(i) In arteries, blood flows with pressure but in veins the pressure falls considerably, so the back flow of blood is possible which is prevented by the valves present in veins.

(ii) Between the stomach and the duodenum.

(iii) Pancreas release 3 hormones, namely, Insulin, glucagon and somatostatin. The function of insulin is to promote glucose utilisation by the body cells, thereby lowering the blood sugar level in blood and it stimulates the deposition of extra glucose of the blood as glycogen in liver and muscles.

(iv) Blood vessels entering the heart: The auricles receive blood from three large vessels:
(i) Anterior vena cava
(ii) Posterior vena cava
(iii) Pulmonary vein.

Blood vessels leaving the heart: Arising from the ventricle are two large blood vessels:
(i) The pulmonary artery
(ii) The aorta

Question 5.
(i) How does an impulse travel across a synapse? [2]
(ii) What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye? Name the muscles of the eye responsible for the same. [2]
(iii) The diagram given below represents the spinal cord of a mammal, seen in a transverse section together with the nerves. Study the diagram and then answer the questions given below: [3]

(a) Label the parts 1-8 indicated by guidelines.
(b) What do the arrows indicate? What is the pathway indicated termed?
(c) What type of nerve is shown in the diagram?
(iv) Classify the following as endocrine or exocrine gland, (a) Salivary gland (b) Liver (c) Thyroid gland (d) Pancreas (e) Adrenal. [3]
Answer:
(i) When the impulse reaches the end of one neuron, it triggers the neuron to release some chemicals in the synapse. These chemicals diffuse across the synapse and bind with receptor molecules of the next neuron. In this way, a path is created between two neurons for the continuous transmission of impulse.

(ii) The power of accommodation of the eye is the process of adjusting the focal length of the lens according to the near or distant objects so that the image can be focused on the retina clearly. The ciliary muscles attached to the lens control its curvature and alter its focal length.

(iii) (a) 1. White matter
2. Gray matter
3. Dorsal root
4. Ventral root
5. Dorsal root ganglion
6. Sensory neuron
7. Spinal nerve
8. Synapse

(b) The sensory nerve fibre bring sensory impulses from the receptor organ to the central nervous system. The motor nerve fibre relay the motor impulses from the central nervous system to the effector organ. The pathway indicated is termed as reflex arc.

(c) Sensory or Afferent nerve.

(iv) (a) Salivary glands: Exocrine gland
(b) Liver: Exocrine gland
(c) Thyroid gland: Endocrine gland
(d) Pancreas : Has acinar cells which act as exocrine glands and the Islets of Langerhans act as endocrine glands
(e) Adrenal: Endocrine gland.

Question 6.
(i) What are the functions of tears? [2]
(ii) Give the full forms of the following abbreviations and their other names: [2]
(a) ADH (b) GH
(iii) Name the following:.
(a) A colourless fluid found in brain and spinal cord.
(b) The fluid which conveys the vibrations of sound in the cochlea and semicircular canal.
(c) The most sensitive region of the retina. [3]
(iv) Name the hormone produced by the following glands and also give one function for each, (a) Thyroid (b) Pancreas (c) Adrenal medulla. [3]
Answer:
(i) The functions of tears are:
(a) To lubricate the surface of eye.
(b) To wash away dust particles.
(c) To kill the germs.
(d) To communicate emotions.

(ii) (a) ADH- Anti Diuretic Hormone, also known as Vasopressin
(b) GH- Growth Hormone also known as Somatotropin

(iii) (a) Cerebrospinal fluid
(b) Endolymph
(c) Fovea centralis

(iv) (a) The thyroid secretes thyroxine. It controls basal metabolic rate (BMR), growth and differentiation of the body.
(b) Pancreas secretes insulin and glucagon. These hormones control blood glucose level. Insulin decreases while glucagon increases blood glucose level.
(c) Adrenal medulla secretes adrenaline. It controls heartbeat and blood pressure and helps in providing glucose to the body in order to overcome emergency situations. It is also called the emergency hormone.

ICSE Class 10 Biology Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Erythrocytes and leucocytes are cellular components of human blood. The structural difference between erythrocytes and leucocytes are:
(a) Both have nucleus and haemoglobin
(b) Erythrocytes have nucleus and haemoglobin, and leucocytes have only nucleus
(c) Leucocytes have only nucleus and haemoglobin is absent
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(c) Leucocytes have only nucleus and haemoglobin is absent
Explanation:
Erythrocytes transport respiratory gases and consists of respiratory pigment, haemoglobin. They do not divide and hence lack nucleus.
Leucocyte’s function is body defence hence they are devoid of respiratory pigment. Nucleus is present for cell division.

(ii) Brain is covered by membrane called .
(a) Scalp
(b) Meninges
(c) Cranium
(d) Archnoid
Answer:
(b) Meninges
Explanation:
Brain is protected by 3 layers of membranous coverings called meninges (meninx) which continue backwards on the spinal cord.
(i) Dura matter: The outermost tough fibrous membrane.
(ii) Arachnoid: Thin delicate middle layer giving a web-like cushion.
(iii) Pia matter: Inner most highly vascular membrane, richly supplied with blood.

(iii) Aqueous humour is present between the:
(a) lens and retina
(b) iris and lens
(c) cornea and iris
(d) cornea and lens
Answer:
(d) cornea and lens
Explanation:
Aqueous chamber is the front chamber between the lens and cornea. It is filled with clear watery fluid called aqueous humor.

(iv) Relay neuron also known as ______________.
(a) Communication neuron
(b) Efferent nerves
(c) Inter neuron
(d) Motor neuron
Answer:
(c) Inter neuron
Explanation:
Relay neuron also known as intemeuron because it acts as intermediate between sensory neuron and motor neuron. It is not present in receptor or effector side.

(v) The muscle which controls urination is:
(a) Circular muscle
(b) Sphincter muscle
(c) Smooth muscle
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(b) Sphincter muscle
Explanation:
A sphincter guards the opening of the bladder into the urethra at the time of urination.

(vi) Water is reabsorbed maximum in:
(a) Proximal and distal convoluted tubule
(b) Collecting tubule
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
(d) None of these
Answer:
(c) Proximal convoluted tubule
Explanation:
Reabsorption of water takes place in proximal convoluted tubule, distal convoluted tubule, and loop of Henle. About two- thirds of water is reabsorbed in proximal convoluted tubule.

(vii) Spinal Nerve is:
(a) Nerves which exit from spinal cord
(b) Mixed nerve
(c) It is part of central nervous system
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Answer:
(d) Both (a) and (b)
Explanation:
Spinal Nerves are those nerves which exit from spinal cord. It is a mixed nerve consisting of both sensory nerve and motor nerve, and it autonomic signal between spinal cord and the body. In human body there are 31 pairs of spinal nerves.

(viii) ________ hormone is known as growth hormone.
(a) Soma totropin
(b) Gonadotropin
(c) Oxytocin
(d) Hepatocrinin
Answer:
(a) Somatotropin
Explanation:
Somatotropin (STH) is also known as Growth hormone(GH). It controls the general growth of the body.

(ix) Nerve cell communicate with another cell via ________.
(a) synapses
(b) plasma membrane
(c) dendrite
(d) nerve ending
Answer:
(a) synapses
Explanation:
A neuron is an electrically excitable cell that communicates with another cell via specialized connections called synapses. Synapse allows delivery of such impulses from neurons to other cell, such as muscle cells or gland.

(x) Which organ help to equalize the air pressure?
(a) Pinna
(b) Malleus
(c) Eardrum
(d) Eustachian tube
Answer:
(d) Eustachian tube
Explanation:
Eustachian tube is present in ear. Its function is to equalise pressure between middle ear and outer atmosphere. It connects middle ear to pharynx.

Section – B [30 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this section)

Question 2.
(i) What is a hormone? What is the chemical nature of hormone? [2]
(ii) State the location and function of sino- auricular node. [2]
(iii) The figures given below are cross-sections of blood vessels. [3]

(a) Identify the blood vessels A, B and C.
(b) Name the parts labelled 1-4.
(c) Mention two structural difference between A and B.
(d) Name the type of blood that flows :
(1) Through A
(2) Through B.
(iv) Give biological terms for the following: [3]
(a) The point of contact between the two nerve cells.
(b) Hormones which regulate the secretion of other endocrine glands.
Answer:
(i) A hormone is defined as a chemical substance produced by the endocrine glands situated in one part of the body and carried by the blood to some other parts of the body in order to exert its regulation and co-ordination effect on the cells of a specific organ or tissue. Chemically, hormones may be proteins, amino acids or steroids i.e., they are of different chemical nature. They may be proteins like insulin, polypeptides like parathyroid hormone and epinephrine or steroids as oestrogen, testosterone etc.

(ii) Sino- auricular node or Sino- atrial node is located in the walls of the right auricle. It’s function is to give rise to the impulse or command which starts the heart beat. The impulse generated is relayed to the ventricles with the help of special conducting fibres. It is also known as the “Pace maker”. It is situated near the opening of the superior vena cava.

(iii) (a) (A) Artery (B) Vein (C) Capillary.

(b) 1. External Layer
2. Lumen
3. Middle Layer
4. Internal layer

(c) Two structural differences between arteries and veins are:
1. Arteries are thick-walled and veins are thin-walled.
2. There are no valves in arteries while valves are present in veins.

(d) 1. Oxygenated blood flows through A.
2. Deoxygenated blood flows through B.

(iv) (a) Synapse
(b) Tropic Hormones

Question 3.
(i) Blood plasma and Serum. [2]
(ii) State the location and function of Bundle of His. [2]
(iii) Sketch and label the ultrastructure of nephron. [3]
(iv) Describe in short about different body parts that perform excretion in mammals. [3]
Answer:
(i)

Blood Plasma	Serum
Plasma is a straw-coloured, liquid component of the blood in which blood cells are suspended.	Serum is an amber coloured, protein rich liquid, which separates when blood coagulates.

(ii) Location: Begins from the AVN and extends to the interventricular septum.
Function: They carry the wave of excitation from atrio-ventricular node to the ventricles.

(iii)

(iv) (a) Kidneys: Kidneys play a vital role in the process of excretion and are responsible for removal of nitrogenous metabolic waste from the body in the form of urine.

(b) Sweat glands: Primary function of sweat glands is thermoregulation (cooling). Sweat secreted by these glands consists of nitrogenous wastes in small quantities and is passed out only when cooling is required.

(c) Lungs: They help in the excretion of carbon dioxide during exhalation.

Question 4.
(i) Explain the term Diapedesis. [2]
(ii) Give the location of Thyroid gland. [2]
(iii) Name the hormones secreted by the thyroid gland and their functions. [3]
(iv) Give reason why it is necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion of blood. [3]
Answer:
(i) Diapedesis: The passage of white blood corpuscles through the unruptured walls of blood vessels is known as diapedesis. It helps in engulfing the germs and also protects the body from getting infected.

(ii) Thyroid gland is a butterfly shaped bilobed gland situated in front of the neck just below the larynx. The two lobes are joined by a narrow isthmus.

(iii) (a) Thyroxine- It regulates the basal metabolism, that is, the rate of cellular oxidation resulting in heat production at rest. It also influences the general growth of the body, ossification of bones, body temperature, mental development etc.

(b) Calcitonin- promotes movement of calcium ions from blood to bones.

(iv) In blood transfusion, it is necessary that the type of blood to be transfused should be matched with the type of blood of the receiving person. Otherwise, the RBCs of the donor blood will stick to each other and block the passage of blood vessels of the receiver, leading to death. Hence, it is necessary to know the blood groups before giving transfusion of blood.

Question 5.
(i) Give the functions of spinal cord. [2]
(ii) What is meant by power of accommodation of the eye? Name the muscles of the eye responsible for the same. [2]
(iii) The diagram given below represents longitudinal section of human brain. Label its parts 1-9 as shown with guidelines. [3]

(iv) Give reason why: Adrenaline is also known as emergency hormone’. Give reason in support of the statement. [3]
Answer:
(i) It controls all the reflex actions.
It conducts sensory impulses from skin to the brain and motor impulses from brain to the muscles of trunk and limbs.

(ii) The power of accommodation of the eye is the process of adjusting the focal length of the lens according to the near or distant objects so that the image can be focused on the retina clearly. The ciliary muscles attached to the lens controls its curvature and alters its focal length.

(iii) 1. Cerebrum
2. Gray matter
3. White matter
4. Mid-brain
5. Cerebellum
6. Spinal cord
7. Medulla oblongata
8. Hypothalamus
9. Pituitary gland.

(iv) Adrenaline is secreted at the time of emergency (stress or strain) and prepares the body for fight or flight. So, it is also known as emergency hormone. The functions of Adrenaline include:
1. It increases heart beat accompanied by an increase in blood pressure.
2. It increases blood supply to the muscles while decreasing it to skin and visceral organs.
3. More glucose is released into the blood by the liver.

Question 6.
(i) Give the location of: [2]
(a) Corpus callosum
(b) Lacrimal gland
(ii) Give full forms of the following: [2]
(a) TSH
(b) LH
(iii) Name the part of the ear associated with (a) static balance, (b) hearing and (c) dynamic balance. [3]
(iv) Complete the table given below by filling in the blanks numbered (i) to (viii). [3]

Gland	Hormone Secreted	Effect on Body
(i)	(ii)	Regulates basal metabolism
Pancreas (P-cells)	(iii)	(iv)
(v)	(vi)	Increases heart beat
(vii)	Thyroid stimulating hormone	(viii)

Answer:
(i) Corpus callosum- Near the centre of brain.
Lacrimal gland- Above the lateral end of the eye.

(ii) (a) TSH- Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
(b) LH- Luteinizing Hormone

(iii) (a) Utriculus and Sacculus, (b) Cochlea, (c) Semi circular canals.

(iv) (i) Thyroid
(ii) Thyroxine
(iii) Insulin
(iv) Controls blood sugar level
(v) Adrenal
(vi) Adrenaline
(viii) Pituitary
(ix) Stimulates the production of thyroid hormone

ICSE Class 10 Biology Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Biology Sample Question Paper 1 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 40
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

General Instructions

• Answers to this Paper must be written on the paper provided separately.
• You will not be allowed to write during the first 10 minutes.
• This time is to be spent in reading the question paper.
• The time given at the head of this Paper is the time allowed for writing the answers.
• Attempt all questions from Section A and any four questions from Section B.
• The intended marks for questions or parts of questions are given in brackets [ ].

Section-A [10 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Name the following by choosing the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) A muscular wall is absent in:
(a) Capillary
(b) Vein
(c) Venule
(d) Arteriole
Answer:
(a) Capillary
Explanation:
Capillary is a very narrow tube (about 8 pm in diameter), it’s wTall consist of a single layer of squamous epithelial cells, and muscles are absent. The functions of capillaries involve:
(i) Outward and inward diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide respectively.
(ii) To allow inward and outward diffusion of substances like glucose, amino acids, urea, hormones etc.

(ii) The outermost layer of meninges:
(a) Piamater
(b) Arachnoid layer
(c) Grey matter
(d) Duramater
Answer:
(d) Duramater
Explanation:
The brain is protected by three membranous coverings called meanings which continue backwards on the spinal cord. It has three layers:
Duramater: outermost tough fibrous membrane
Arachnoid: Thin delicate middle layer giving a cells like cushion.
Piamater: Innermost highly vascular membrane, richly supplied with blood.

(iii) Tear gland is also called:
(a) Gastric gland
(b) Lacrimal gland
(c) Salivary gland
(d) Sebaceous gland
Answer:
(b) Lacrimal gland
Explanation:
Tear glands or lacrimal glands are located at the upper sideward portion of the orbit. Six to twelve ducts of the gland pour the secretion over the front surface.
→ Tear gland spreads the liquid which serves as a lubricant.
→ Tears keep front surface clean by washing away dust particles.

(iv) Which one of the following is not a simple reflex?
(a) Coughing
(b) Blinking
(c) Eating
(d) Swallowing
Answer:
(c) Eating
Explanation:
Blinking, coughing, sneezing are protective simple reflex actions.
Salivation, swallowing, peristalsis are simple reflections which provide functional efficiency. Eating is an example of voluntary action.

(v) Loop of Henle lies in:
(a) Medulla
(b) Cortex
(c) Pelvis
(d) Ureter
Answer:
(a) Medulla
Explanation:
Loop of henle is the middle U-shaped part shaped like a hairpin, it is not convulated. If runs in medulla to turn back and re-enter the cortex to continue into next convulated region of tubule.

(vi) The pigment that gives colour to urine:
(a) Haemoglobin
(b) Chlorophyll
(c) Urochrome
(d) Melanin
Answer:
(c) Urochrome
Explanation:
Urine is clean yellow in colour because of the pigment urochrome.

(vii) The number of spinal nerves in human:
(a) 12 pairs
(b) 23 pairs
(c) 31 pairs
(d) 10 pairs
Answer:
(c) 31 pairs
Explanation:
Spinal nerves emerge from the spinal cord. There are thirty-one pairs:
8 pairs in neck 5 pairs in sacral
12 pairs in thorax 1 pair in coccygeal region.
5 pairs in lumbar region

(viii) The mineral element needed for the functioning of the Thyroid gland:
(a) Sodium
(b) Potassium
(c) Magnesium
(d) Iodine
Answer:
(d) Iodine
Explanation:
Thyroid gland is a bilobed (butterfly-shaped) structure situated is front of the neck just below the larynx secretes two hormones-thyroxine and calcitonin. Undersecretion of thyroxine leads to goitre, cretinism and myxoedema the undersecretion of thyroxine is majorly due to deficiency of iodine in diet.

(ix) The part of the brain concerned with memory:
(a) Cerebrum
(b) Cerebellum
(c) Pons
(d) Medulla Oblongata
Answer:
(a) Cerebrum
Explanation:
The cerebrum is a part of the fore brain, it is a seat of intelligence, memory, consciousness, will power, voluntary actions.

(x) The pigmented circular area seen in front of the eye:
(a) Cornea
(b) Lens
(c) Iris
(d) Ciliary muscles
Answer:
(c) Iris
Explanation:
Iris (Latin: rainbow) is an extension of choroid, partially covering the lens and leaving a circular opening in the centre, the pupil, the blue, brown or black colour of the eye refers to the colour of the iris.

Section-B[40 Marks]
(Attempt any three questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Explain the term ‘Tropic hormone’. Give one example of a Tropic hormone. [2]
(ii) Give the location of Pericardial fluid. What is its function? [2]
(iii) Given below is the diagram of a human blood smear. Label the parts numbered 1, 2 and 3. [3]

(iv) Give the biological terms for the three ear ossicles. [3]
Answer:
(i) The term “tropic hormone” refers to those hormones which stimulate other endocrine glands to produce their specific hormone such as gonadotropic hormones secreted by anterior pituitary and also stimulate gonads to produce certain hormones.
Examples of these hormones include:
→ Thyroid stimulating hormone (stimulates thyroid to secrete thyroxine)
→ Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)-(Stimulates Adrenal cortex)
→ Gonadotropic hormones (Regulate activities of gonads, i.e., testes and ovaries)

(ii) The heart is protected by a double walled membranous covering called ‘pericardium’. It contains lubricating pericardial fluid which reduces friction during heart beat and protects it from mechanical injuries.

(iii) 1. RBC’s-Red Blood Cells (Erythrocyte’s)
2. WBC’s- White Blood Cells
3. Platelets

(iv) The three ear ossicles are:
Hammer (Malleus) Anvil (Incus) Stirrup (stapes).

Question 3.
(i) Mention two structural differences between an artery and a vein. [2]
(ii) Where is Bicuspid valve located? What is its function? [2]
(iii) Draw a neat diagram of a Malpighian capsule and label any two parts. [3]
(iv) Define the term ‘Excretion’, Which are the two main organic wastes present in urine? [3]
Answer:
(i) Structural difference between artery and vein.

Artery	Vein
It has thick muscular walls.	It has thin muscular walls
Valves are absent	Valves are present
lumen Narrow	lumen Wide
Contains oxygenated blood	Contains deoxygenated blood
Carries blood away from heart	Brings blood toward heart

(ii) Bicuspid valve: The Bicuspid valve is located between left auricle and left ventricle. It has 2 leaf like flaps. Its function is to prevent the reverse flow of blood from left ventricle to left auricle.

(iii)

(iv) The process of removal of chemical wastes (Mainly Nitrogenous) from the body is known as “excretion”. It plays an important role in maintaining the homeostatic (steady state) condition of the body.
Two main organic wastes present in the kidney are urea (2.3 g/L), creatinine (1.5 g/L) and uric acid (10.7 g/L)

Question 4.
(i) Name the substance that initiates blood clotting. What is the mineral element essential to form a blood clot? [2]
(ii) Give the exact location of Adrenal gland. [2]
(iii) Mention any three functions of Adrenaline. [3]
(iv) What is the contraction phase of auricles called? Name the two valves that open during this phase. [3]
Answer:
(i) Blood platelets play a pivotal role in the clotting of blood. At the site of injury, platelets disintegrate to release a chemical substance thrombokinase which initiates the process of clotting of blood.

The mineral element essential for blood clotting is calcium. Calcium ions help thrombokinase to convert Prothrombin (in active) x
\(\frac { Ca ions }{ Thrombokinase }\) Thrombin (active)

(ii) Adrenal glands are like caps, above the kidneys (ad-near; renal-kidney). Each adrenal gland has two parts:
1. a central medulla
2. a peripheral cortex

(iii) Adrenaline hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla. It prepares the body to meet any emergency situation for “fight”- i.e., to face danger, or for “flight” to run away from it.
Its functions are:
→ It increases heart beat accompanied by an increase in blood pressure.
→ It increases blood supply to the muscles while decreasing it to the skin and visceral organs.
→ More glucose is released into the blood by the liver (like putting more fuel into the engine)

(iv) The contraction phase of auricles is known as atrial systole.
The opening of vena cava and pulmonary vein close, and the blood enters the ventricles by crossing through tricuspid and bicuspid valve. The semilunar valves at the roots of pulmonary artery and aorta are closed producing the sound “DUBB” to prevent back flow of blood into ventricles.

Question 5.
(i) How are cytons and axons arranged in the spinal cord? [2]
(ii) We cannot distinguish colours in dim light. Explain by giving a suitable reason. [2]
(iii) Given below is a diagram depicting a defect of the human eye. Answer the questions that follow: [3]
(a) Give the scientific term for the defect.
(b) Mention one possible reason for the defect.
(c) What type of lens can be used to correct the defect? [3]

(iv) What are hormones? Name any two hormones secreted by the Pituitary gland.
Answer:
(i) Spinal cord extends from the medulla of the brain down almost the whole length of the backbone to the end at the second lumbar vertebra and lies within the neural canal of the vertebrae.

The arrangement of white matter (axons) and grey matter (cytons) is the reverse of the brain. Gray matter (cytons) and association neurons lie on the inner side and white matter (axons) are present on the outer side.

(ii) Rods are abundantly found in the retina and are sensitive to dim light. Rods also detect changes in the intensity of light across the field of vision and thus aid in the perception of movement. Rods do not play a role in distinguishing colour, and cones are insensitive to dim light. That is why colours can’t be seen in dim light.

(iii) (a) Myopia (short sightedness)
(b) There are two possible reason for myopia one is the eyeball is lengthened from front to back and other is the lens is too curved. Both these reasons might as well occur together.
(c) Myopia can be corrected by using a suitable concave (diverging) lens which causes the light rays to diverge before they strike the lens of the eye.

(iv) Hormone is a secretion from some glandular part of the body, which is poured into the blood and acts on the target organs or cells of the same individual, Pituitary gland is known as the “master gland” because it seems to control practically all other endocrine glands. Some important hormones secreted by the pituitary gland includes:

Growth hormone (GH) – somatotropin:

• Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
• Gonad Stimulating Hormone
• Adreno Cortico Tropic Hormone (ACTH)
• Anti Diuretic Hormone (ADH)
• Oxytocin

Question 6.
(i) From where the following nerves arise: [2]
(a) Optic nerve
(b) Auditory nerve
(ii) Give the full form of the following abbreviations: [2]
(a) TSH
(b) A D H
(iii) What are the three main parts of the membranous labyrinth? [3]
(iv) Complete the following table by filling in the blanks (a) to (c): [3]

Gland	Hormone Secreted	Effect Of Oversecretion
Pancreas	(a)  __________	Hypoglycemia
Thyroid	(b) __________	(c) __________

Answer:
(i) (a) Optic nerve – Diencephalon
(b) Auditory nerve – sensory cells present in cochlea

(ii) (a) TSH – Thyroid Stimulating Hormone
(b) ADH – Anti Diurectic Hormone.

(iii) The bony labyrinth is a membranous structure and is divided into three parts:

• The semicircular ducts
• Two sac like structures – the saccule and the utricle (in the vestibule)
• The cochlear duct (the only part of the ear involved in hearing)

(iv)

Gland	Hormone Secreted	Effect Of Oversecretion
Pancreas	(a) Insulin	Hypoglycemia
Thyroid	(b) Thyroxine	(c) Exophthalmic goitre

ICSE Class 10 Biology Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Sample Question Paper 3 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

CRICKET
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Cricket owes its present popularity to:
(a) Radio
(b) Video
(c) Television
(d) Print Media
Answer:
(c) Television

(ii) Cricket has a large viewership in:
(a) China
(b) Asia
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(d) India

(iii) Cricket fundamentally remained true to its origins in rural England because
(a) the tools used in the game are made up of natural materials
(b) the tools used in the game are handmade
(c) the tools used in the game are made up of pre-industrial materials
(d) all of the above
Answer:
(d) all of the above

(iv) Paris started to play cricket:
(a) due to their proximity to the Britishers
(b) due to its simplicity
(c) as a pastime
(d) due to its popularity
Answer:
(a) due to their proximity to the Britishers

(v) Indian cricket originated in:
(a) Mysore
(b) Chennai
(c) Calcutta (Kolkata)
(d) Bombay (Mumbai)
Answer:
(d) Bombay (Mumbai)

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) Enumerate any six duties of a leg Umpire. [2]
(ii) State any three variations of pace bowling. [2]
(iii) What is meant by the term Bad-Light? [3]
(iv) Explain the term “Hitting the ball twice” in Cricket. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three duties of leg umpire are:
1. No ball’ if it is over than the height of shoulder of batsman.
2. ‘Run Out’ if the bat of batsman has, not touched the popping crease.
3. ‘Wide ball’ if the ball goes over the head of a batsman or wide of the wicket.
4. Stumping decisions
5. To see the run out
6. To give decision on Hit wicket

(ii) Three variations of pace bowling:
1. Out swing: Outswing is defined as a delivery, delivered to a right-handed batsman in which the ball is moving far to the off side while in flight, generally outwards from his body. To a right-handed batsman an outswing can be delivered by aligning the seam narrowly to the left towards the slips and placing the roughened side of the ball on the left.

2. In swing: Inswing is defined as a delivery delivered to a right-handed batsman in which the ball is moving in to the leg side while in flight, generally inwards towards his body. To a right-handed batsman an inswing can be delivered by aligning the seam narrowly to the right and placing the roughened side of the ball on the right.

3. Leg cutter: A leg cutter is a type of delivery in the sport of cricket. It is bowled by fast bowlers. A bowler releases a normal spin delivery with the wrist locked in position and the first two fingers positioned on top of the cricket ball, giving it spin about a horizontal axis perpendicular to the length of the pitch.

(iii) Bad Light: When the light is not sufficient to play it is known as bad light. The Umpire judge that light is too poor to allow the game to continue in safety. A batsman can appeal if he feels it is too dangerous to play on.

(iv) Hitting the ball twice: A batsman hits a delivery with his bat and then deliberately hits the ball again for any reason other than to defend his wicket from being broken by the ball. If the ball is bouncing or rolling around near the stumps, the batsman is entitled to knock it away so as to avoid being bowled, but not to score runs.

Question 3.
(i) State the difference between a Dot-ball and a Dead-ball. [2]
(ii) What is the importance of the thirty yard circle? [2]
(iii) Explain the term Bump-ball. [3]
(iv) List any four protective equipment used in a game of Cricket. [3]
Answer:
(i) When no run is scored on the ball it is called Dot ball the reason why it is called a dot ball is that in the scorebook if a batsman did not score any runs, it is recorded with a single dot, hence, the name dot ball whereas when the ball is not in play it is called Dead ball.

(ii) Thirty yard circle: In the limited over match thirty yard circle is used for the restriction of fielding. In mandatory power play two fielders remain outside and in batting power play three fielders remain outside thirty yard circle. The ‘close-infield’ comprises of two semi-circles of 15 meters in diameter and they sit within the 30-yard circle. This is used to delineate where those fielding in close proximity to the batsmen, including slips and those in ‘silly’ positions can be found.

(iii) Bump ball: A ball after playing with bat bounces under the bat, very close to batsman’s foot is called bump ball. It appears to have come directly from the bat without ground contact. Since the bounce on the pitch is imperceptible to many spectators, some may think the batsman is out if the ball is caught in the air.

(iv) Protective equipment’s in the game of cricket are:
1. Helmet: A head gear for the batsman/keeper while batting or wicket keeping behind the stumps. It is a mix of metal and hard plastic. It has a metallic grill in the front to protect the face.

2. Gloves: Typically consisting of a leather palm and back made of nylon or another synthetic fabric. This glove is smaller and softer on the outer part when compared to keeper glove. It is used to hold the bat firmly. The finger part of glove has extra protection with hard sponge on the outer area.

3. Pad: They are made with cloth and leather. The front portion of the pads is very hard as there is hard plastic or wood sticks beneath. The rear portion is spongy and soft to soothe and comfort legs. Keeper pads are little shorter than batsman pads.

4. Chest guard and Elbow guard are used in order to protect the body during the play so that the damage from the fast moving ball can be minimised.

Question 4.
(i) What do you mean by ball tampering? [2]
(ii) What is the difference between a hook shot and a pull shot? [2]
(iii) Define the term “The danger-area”. [3]
(iv) What is Clean-bowled? [3]
Answer:
(i) It is an action in which a fielder illegally alters the condition of the ball. The primary motivation of ball tampering is to interfere with the aerodynamics of the ball. Few ways of ball tampering are rubbing the ball on the ground. Polish with substance like hair gel, lip balm.

(ii)

Hook Shot	Pull Shot
The term hook shot is used when the shot is played against a ball bouncing at or above chest high to the batsman.	A pull is a cross battled shot played to a ball bouncing around waist height by swinging the bat in a horizontal area in front of the body.

(iii) The danger area (or protected area) is the central portion of the pitch – a rectangle running down the middle of the pitch, two feet wide, and beginning five feet from each popping crease. Under the Laws of Cricket, a bowler must avoid running on this area during his follow-through after delivering the ball. During the course of a game, a bowler’s follow through will create rough. This is a natural element of cricket and, towards the end of a cricket match that rough can aid the spin bowlers.

Rough will naturally occur outside of off or leg stump but, if it is too central, then the bowlers are considered to have an unfair advantage. Bowlers could intentionally create rough by following through too close to the middle stump and that’s why the protected area is in place. Towards the end of an innings, batsmen could also transgress on the danger area to give their bowlers an unfair advantage later on.

(iv) If the batsman misses the ball and its hits and breaks the wicket directly from the bowler’s delivery then it is known as clean bowled, with variations of this being bowled through the gate, where the ball travels between the bat and pad, or bowled around the legs, where the ball goes behind (to the leg side of) the batsman and hits the stumps.

FOOTBALL
Sectlon-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 5.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Who has scored the most goals ever in football history?
(a) Ronaldo
(b) Meradona
(c) Pele
(d) Zidane
Answer:
(c) Pele

(ii) Which football club does David Beckham play for?
(a) Manchester United
(b) Liverpool
(c) Real Madrid
(d) Montevideo Wanderers
Answer:
(c) Real Madrid

(iii) Who won the 1998 Football World Cup Final?
(a) France
(b) Brazil
(c) Portugal
(d) Wales
Answer:
(a) France

(iv) What is the main color of Brazil’s national team shirt?
(a) Red
(b) Black
(c) Pink
(d) Yellow
Answer:
(d) Yellow

(v) How many minutes are usually played in a football match?
(a) 30
(b) 45
(c) 90
(d) 200
Answer:
(c) 90

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 6.
(i) Mention any three circumstances where the referee awards an indirect free kick against the goalkeeper. [2]
(ii) State any two conditions when the ball is called ‘out of play’. [2]
(iii) What should be the width of the goal line, touchline and goalpost? [3]
(iv) Define a direct free kick. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three instances against the goal keeper for awarding Indirect free kick are:
1. Takes more than 6 seconds while controlling the ball with his hand.
2. Touches the ball again with his hand after it has been released, from his possession and has net touched any other player.
3. Touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate.

(ii) Two conditions when the ball is called ‘out of play’ are:
1. It has wholly crossed the goal line or has touched the line.
2. Play has been stopped by the referee.

(iii) Width of:
1. Goal line – 5 inches
2. Touch line – 5 inches
3. Goal post – 5 inches

(iv) A direct free kick or penalty kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits any of the following offences in a manner considered by the referee to be careless, reckless or using excessive force:
1. Kicks or attempts to kick an opponent.
2. Trips or attempts to trip an opponent.
3. Jumps at an opponent.
4. Charges at an opponent.
5. Strikes or attempts to strike an opponent.
6. Pushes an opponent.
7. Tackles an opponent

Question 7.
(i) What procedure may be adopted if the ball is damaged or becomes defective during the course of play? [2]
(ii) Mention three circumstances when time is lost or wasted during the course of play and that is added at the end of each playing session. [2]
(iii) Define an indirect free kick. [3]
(iv) What colour warning cards are shown by a referee during the course of play in a football match? What does the colour of a warning card indicate? [3]
Answer:
(i) When the ball is damaged in the match. Referee stops the game and changes that ball and restarts it from the place where the ball was damaged. If the ball becomes defective at a kick-off, goal kick, comer kick, free kick, penalty kick or throw-in, the restart is re-taken.

(ii) Three circumstances when the time is lost or wasted during the course of play and that is added at the end of each playing session are:
1. Substitution: To replace a player by a substitute, the referee must be informed before any proposed substitution is made.

2. Foul: A foul is an unfair act by a player, deemed by the referee to contravene the game’s laws that interferes with the active play of the game. It occurs while the ball is in play; It is committed against an opponent (for fouls concerning contact or conduct between players).

3. Injury: Injuries occur during football games and practice due to the combination of high speeds and full contact. While overuse injuries can occur, traumatic injuries such as concussions are most common. The force applied in either bringing an opponent to the ground or resisting being brought to the ground makes football players prone to injury anywhere on their bodies, regardless of protective equipment.

(iii) An indirect free kick is awarded to the opposing team if a goalkeeper, inside his own penalty area, commits any of the following four offences :
1. Controls the ball with his hands for more than six seconds before releasing it from his possession.
2. Touches the ball again with his hands after it has been released from his possession and has not touched any other player.
3. Touches the ball with his hands after it has been deliberately kicked to him by a teammate.
4. Touches the ball with his hands after he has received it directly from a throw-in taken by a teammate.

(iv) The referee has the authority to take disciplinary sanctions from the moment he enters the field of play until he leaves the field of play after the match ends. Only a player, substitute or substituted player may be shown the red or yellow card.
1. Yellow card: This card is used to communicate that a player, substitute or substituted player has been cautioned.
2. Red card: This card is used to communicate that a player, substitute or substituted player has been sent off.

Question 8.
(i) State the three methods of restarting a game in football. [2]
(ii) Mention four instances for which a direct free kick is awarded. [2]
(iii) State any three types of fouls committed by a player that may invite a red card from the referee. [3]
(iv) Explain the term “Corner arc” in football. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three methods of restarting the game in football are:
1. Throw in: A throw-in is a method of restarting play. A throw-in is awarded to the opponents of the player who last touched the ball when the whole of the ball crosses the touch line, either on the ground or in the air.

2. Comer kick: A corner kick is a method of restarting play. A comer kick is awarded when the whole of the ball, having last touched a player of the defending team, passes over the goal line, either on the ground or in the air and a goal is not scored according to the rule.

3. Dropped ball: A dropped-ball (or drop-ball) is a method of restarting play .It is used when play has been stopped due to reasons other than normal gameplay, fouls, or misconduct. The situations requiring a dropped-ball restart are outlined in Law 8 and Law 9 of the Laws of the Game; Law 8 also contains the dropped-ball procedure.

(ii) A direct free kick or penalty kick is awarded to the opposing team if a player commits any of the following offences in a manner considered by the referee to be careless, reckless or using excessive force. Direct free kick is also awarded to the opposing team if a player commits any of the following three offences:
1. Holds an opponent.
2. Spits at an opponent.
3. Handles the ball deliberately (except for the goalkeeper within his own penalty area).
4. Jump at an opponent.
5. Charge an opponent.
6. Push an opponent.
7. Strike or attempt to strike an opponent.

(iii) Three fouls committed by a player (to show Red Card) are:
1. Is guilty of serious foul play.
2. Is guilty of violent conduct.
3. Spiting at an opponent or any other person.

(iv) Corner arc: It is a quarter circle with a radius of 1 m (lyard), from each corner flag post and is drawn inside the fields of play.

HOCKEY
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 9.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which among these is the highest governing body of Hockey?
(a) International Hockey Federation
(b) World Hockey Federation
(c) Federation of Intematioanl Hockey
(d) International Hockey Association
Answer:
(d) International Hockey Association

(ii) The shooting circle in Hockey field is:
(a) 16 yards from the baseline
(b) 18 yards from the baseline
(c) 17 yards from the baseline
(d) 15 yards from the baseline
Answer:
(a) 16 yards from the baseline

(iii) The limit on numbers of substitutions per game is:
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 9
(d) No limit
Answer:
(d) No limit

(iv) No. of field empires in a match is:
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4
Answer:
(b) 2

(v) Each half in a hockey game consist of:
(a) 30mins
(b) 35mins
(c) 40 mints
(d) 45 mints
Answer:
(b) 35mins

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 10.
(i) The length and breadth of the play field. [2]
(ii) The duration of the game for Men and Women players of Hockey. [2]
(iii) Give the dimensions for the following: [3]
(a) The weight of the ball.
(b) The distance of the Penalty mark from the Goal line.
(c) The dimension of the Goal Post
(d) The dimension of the Shooting Circle.
(iv) What is meant by a ‘centre-pass’? [3]
Answer:
(i) Length of play field: 100 yards and the Breadth of play field : 60 yards

(ii) Duration of game for men: 35 minutes of two duration with 5 to 10 minutes rest and the Duration of game for women: 35 minutes of two duration with 5 to 10 minutes rest.

(iii) 1. Weight of the ball: 156 g-163 g
2. Distance penalty mark from goal line: 6.40 metre.
3. Dimension of goal post: 7 feet high and 12 feet wide.
4. Dimension of shooting circle: 16 yards.

(iv) Centre pass: Is a pass or hit made in any direction, to start the game or to restart the game after a goal has been scored from the centre of the play field. The first puck used during outdoor hockey in the 1800’s was made of frozen cow dung.

A centre pass is taken:
1. To start the match by a player from the team winning the toss if they choose this option, otherwise by a player from the opposing team.
2. To re-start the match after half-time by a player of the team which did not take the centre pass to start the match.
3. After a goal by a player of the team against which the goal was scored or awarded.

Question 11.
(i) State any six responsibilities of an Umpire in a game of Hockey. [2]
(ii) Mention three situations when a penalty stroke is awarded. [2]
(iii) State any three situations when a penalty comer is said to be complete. [3]
(iv) What is meant by a ‘manufactured foul’ in the game of Hockey? [3]
Answer:
(i) Duties of umpire:
1. To signal the start time and stop time of play.
2. To warn a player who is bullying.
3. To signal when a goal is scored and keep a written record.
4. Each umpire makes decision in one half of the field for the entire duration.
5. Each umpire makes decision on free hit in the circle, penalty comer etc., in one half of the field.
6. To control the match, apply the rules and judgement of fair play.

(ii) Penalty stroke is awarded:
1. An offence by a defender in the circle which prevents the scoring of a goal.
2. An intentional offence in the circle by the defender against an opponent who has possession of the ball.
3. For defenders persistently crossing over the back line before permitted during the taking of penalty comer.

(iii) Three situations when a penalty comer is said to be complete are:
1. When a player on defence intentionally hits the ball out of bounds over his teams back line.
2. When a defensive player commits an international foul inside the 22 meter line, but outside of the shooting circle.
3. When a defensive player commits an unintentional foul on an offensive player who does not have the ball or an opportunity to play the ball.

(iv) Manufactured foul means when intentionally player creates a foul and takes advantage from an opponent. For example, as he hits a ball in an opponent’s leg, he will get a foul. Hockey is a type of a sport in which two teams play in opposite by trying to send a ball into the opponent’s goal using a hockey stick. In hockey, play can be interrupted too many times during a game. Some of these interruptions, result from offenses which have been manufactured so that the opponent has been forced into unintentionally offending. This is known as manufactures foul in hockey.

Question 12.
(i) What is the basic compulsory equipment required by a player? [2]
(ii) What is the duration of the game and interval? [2]
(iii) When is the ball considered to be out of play? [3]
(iv) What decisions will be given in the following situations?
(a) When the goalkeeper commits a breach and hinders an opportunity to score a goal.
(b) When the ball crosses over the goal line to be finally touched by a forward player.
(c) When the goalkeeper catches the ball or it lodges itself in his pads. [3]
Answer:
(i) Basic compulsory equipments required by a player are:
1. Uniform, footwear.
2. Shin, ankle and Mouth protection.
3. Gloves but it should not increase the size of the hand.

(ii) Duration of Game: 35 minutes of two halves and the Duration of Interval: 5-10 min rest/interval.

(iii) Ball is considered to be out of play when, it passes completely over the side line or back line.
1. The ball is out of play when it passes completely over the side-line or back-line.
2. Play is restarted by a player of the team which was not the last team to touch or play the ball before it went out of play.
3. When the ball travels over the side-line, play is re-started where the ball crossed the line and the procedures for taking a free hit apply.
4. When the ball is played over the back-line then no goal is scored:

(iv) The decisions will be:
(a) Penalty stroke is given.
(b) A penalty stroke is awarded.
(c) Penalty stroke is given.

BASKETBALL
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 13.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) How many teams do the NBA have?
(a) 30
(b) 29
(c) 28
(d) 21
Answer:
(a) 30

(ii) Who invented basketball?
(a) Dr. James Naismith
(b) Abner Doubleday
(c) William Gilbert
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Dr. James Naismith

(iii) What is the height of the basketball hoop?
(a) 10 feet
(b) 11 feet
(c) 9 feet
(d) 12 feet
Answer:
(a) 10 feet

(iv) Which ancient game of South America is similar to basketball?
(a) Pak-Tapak
(b) Pok-Tapok
(c) Pik-tapik
(d) All of the above
Answer:
(b) Pok-Tapok

(v) When was FIBA formed?
(a) 1933
(b) 1936
(c) 1932
(d) 1931
Answer:
(a) 1933

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 14.
(i) How does a team advance with the ball in an attempt to score? When is the clock stopped during a game of Basketball? [2]
(ii) Explain the situations of a basket interference. [2]
(iii) State four occasions when a ball becomes dead during play. [3]
(iv) List four duties of a Scorer. [3]
Answer:
(i) The team advances by dribbling the ball and closely guarding the ball. They should try to pivot the ball into the basket by a tall player. The clock is stopped during a game of basketball when the ball is dead.

(ii) Basket interference is the violation of:
1. Touching the ball or any part of the basket while the ball is on the rim of the basket or within the cylinder extending upwards from the rim.
2. Reaching up through the basket from below and touching the ball, be it inside or outside the cylinder.
3. Pulling down on the rim of the basket so that it contacts the ball before returning to its original position.

(iii) Four occasions when a ball becomes dead during play are :
1. Intentional foul
2. Double foul
3. Technical foul
4. Personal foul

(iv) Four duties of a scorer are:
1. Keep a record of team by entering the names and numbers of the players.
2. Running summary of points scored.
3. Notify the officials of the next time out.
4. Effect substitutions.

Question 15.
(i) What duties are performed by a 24 Second Operator? [2]
(ii) What is meant by the term ‘Charging’?
(iii) List any four types of match equipment. [3]
(iv) What do you understand by the term “Blocking”. [3]
Answer:
(i) The duties performed by a 24 second operator are:
1. He stops and resets the device to twenty-four seconds, with no display visible, as soon as an official blows his whistle for a foul or violation.
2. Reset to twenty four seconds with the display visible and restarted as soon as the team gains control of a live ball on the playing court.
3. Stopped, but not reset to 24 seconds, when the same team that previously had control of the ball is awarded a throw-in as a result of :
(a) A ball having gone-out-of-bounds.
(b) A player of the same team having been injured.
(c) A jump ball situation.
(d) A double foul.
(e) A cancellation of equal penalties against the teams.

(ii) Charging: It is the most difficult call to make in a basketball game. If a defensive player is not stationary, does not have both feet firmly planted on the floor, or does not have established position before the offensive player is by him, he will be charged with a blocking foul. The referee has a split-second to determine which player arrived at the spot first when the contact is made. Moreover, in the NBA and in Euro leagues, the defensive player needs to be outside of a semi-circle four feet from the basket. Otherwise, he will be charged with a blocking foul.

(iii) Four types of match equipment are:
1. Backstop unit: There will be 2 backstop units, one placed at each end of the playing court and each consisting of the following parts:
(a) One backboard
(b) One basket ring with a ring mounting plate.
(c) One basket net
(d) One basket support structure.

2. Ball: The ball shall be spherical it shall be made of a rubber bladder covered with a case of leather, rubber or synthetic material. The ball shall be inflated to an air pressure such that when it is dropped onto a solid wooden floor from a height of about 1.80m, measured to the bottom of the ball, it will rebound to a height, measured to the top of the ball, of not less than about 1.20m nor more than about 1.40m.

3. Game Clock: The main game clock shall:
(a) Be a digital countdown clock with an automatic signal sounding for the end of the period, as soon as the display shows zero (00:00).
(b) Have the ability to indicate time remaining in minutes and seconds and tenths (1/10) of seconds at least during the last minute of the period.
(c) Be placed so that it is clearly visible to everyone involved in the game, including the spectators.
(d) The clock is stopped during a game of basketball when the ball is dead.

4. Team foul markers: The two team foul markers provided for scorekeeper shall be of red colour. It is used to indicate the number of team fouls up to five and to show that a team has reached the team foul situation.

(iv) Blocking: In basketball, a block or blocked shot occurs when a defensive player legally deflects a field goal attempt from an offensive player to prevent a score. The defender is not allowed to make contact with the offensive player’s hand (unless the defender is also in contact with the ball) or a foul is called. In order to be legal, the block must occur while the shot is traveling upward or at its apex.

A deflected field goal that is made does not count as a blocked shot and simply counts as a successful field goal attempt for shooter plus the points awarded to the shooting team. For the shooter, a blocked shot is counted as a missed field goal attempt. Also, on a shooting foul, a blocked shot cannot be awarded or counted, even if the player who deflected the field goal attempt is different from the player who committed the foul.

Question 16.
(i) Give the six rules and regulations related to the game of basketball. [2]
(ii) What are duties of the Basketball coaches? [2]
(iii) Write a short not on the status of the ball when the ball becomes: [3]
(a) Live
(b) Dead
(iv) Write a short note on “No charge semi-circle areas”. [3]
Answer:
(i) 1. Backcourt: The backcourt represents half of the court that the team with the ball advances the ball from into the frontcourt. Once possession changes, the frontcourt becomes the other team’s backcourt and vice-versa.

2. Lines: All lines shall be drawn in white colour and should be clearly visible.

3. Boundary lines: The playing court shall be limited by the boundary line, consisting of the endlines and the sidelines. These lines are not the part of the playing court. Any obstruction including seated team bench personnel shall be at least two 2 m from the playing court.

4. Centre lines: It is a line midway between and parallel to the baseline that divides the court into halves. The centre line shall be marked parallel to the endlines from the mid-points of the sidelines. The centre line is part of the backcourt.

5. Centre Circle: The centre circle shall be marked in the centre of the playing court and the radius is measured to the outer edge of the circumference. If the inside of the centre circle is painted, it must be the same colour as the restricted areas.

6. Semi-circles: The semicircles shall be marked on the playing court and the radius is measured to the outer edge of the circumference and with their centres at the midpoints of the free-throw line.

(ii) The duties of the basketball coaches are:
1. At least 10 minutes before the game is scheduled to begin, each coach shall confirm his agreement with the names and corresponding numbers of his team members and the names of the coaches by signing the score sheet. At the same time, he shall indicate the 5 players to begin the game. The coach of team ‘A’ shall be the first to provide this information.

2. The coach or the assistant coach may go to the scorer’s table during the game to obtain statistical information only when the ball becomes dead and the game clock is stopped.

3. Either the coach or the assistant coach, but only one of them at any given time, is permitted to remain standing during the game. They may address the players verbally during the game provided they remain within their team bench area. The assistant coach shall not address the officials.

4. When the captain leaves the playing court, the coach informs an official about the number of the players who would act as captain on the playing court.

5. The coach shall designate the free-throw shooter of his team in all cases where the free-throw shooter is not determined by the rules.

(iii) The status of the ball when the ball becomes
(a) Ball becomes Live when:
1. During the jump ball, the ball is legally tapped by a jumper.
2. During a free throw, the ball is at the disposal of the free-throw shooter.
3. During a throw-in, the ball is at the disposal of the player taking the throw-in.

(b) Ball becomes Dead when:
1. Any field goal or free throw is made.
2. An official blows his whistle while the ball is live.
3. It is apparent that the ball will not enter the basket on a free throw which is to be followed by another free throws or a further penalty (free throw or throw-in).
4. The twenty-four second device signal sounds while a team is in control of the ball.
5. The game clock signal sounds for the end of the period.

(iv) The no-charge semi-circle areas are drawn on the playing court for the purpose of designating a specific area for the interpretation of charge or block situations under the basket. On any penetration play situation into the no-charge semi-circle area a contact caused by an airborne offensive player with a defensive player inside the no-charge semicircle shall not be called as an offensive foul, unless the offensive player is illegally using his hands, arms, legs or body, when:
1. The offensive player is in control of the ball whilst airborne.
2. He attempts a shot for a field goal or passes off the ball.
3. The defensive player has both feet inside the no-charge semi-circle area.

VOLLEYBALL
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 17.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) In what year was the indoor game introduced in the Olympics?
(a) 1964 – Tokyo
(b) 1972-Munich
(c) 1968- Mexico City
(d) 1976- Montreal
Answer:
(a) 1964 – Tokyo

(ii) Who invented volleyball?
(a) James Naismith
(b) Thomas F. Ryan
(c) Abner Doubleday
(d) William G Morgan
Answer:
(d) William G Morgan

(iii) You are playing a game and the official has held up both hands high above his head. What rule violation has happened?
(a) A back row person has tried to block.
(b) Your teammate was called for a double hit.
(c) A back row person has illegally attacked.
(d) You stepped over the line on a serve.
Answer:
(a) A back row person has tried to block.

(iv) What is it called when a player passes up a spike from their opponent?
(a) Set
(b) Slide
(c) Shoot
(d) Dig
Answer:
(d) Dig

(v) Where is the Volleyball Hall of Fame located?
(a) Kansas City, Kansas
(b) Cooperstown, N.Y.
(c) Holyoke, Mass
(d) Canton, Ohio
Answer:
(c) Holyoke, Mass

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 18.
(i) What is the procedure adopted to start a game? [2]
(ii) How many contacts are permitted in returning the ball over the net? Explain the procedure. [2]
(iii) Difference between: [3]
(a) Attack Line and Back-Line
(b) Ace and a Floating-Service
(iv) Explain the following terms: [3]
(a) A Rotation
(b) A Side-out
(c) A Penalty Carrying the
(d) Ball
Answer:
(i) 1. The game starts with the toss. The first referee carries out a toss in the presence of the two team captains.
2. Team winning the toss chooses side or service. The loser takes the remaining choice.
3. The match begins with service. The ball may be served by hitting it with arm or hand. The service must fall in opposite court and pass over the net and between the antennas.

(ii) A team is entitled to a maximum of 3 contacts of a team contacts the ball more than 3 times without returning the ball to the opposing team, a 4 hits fault occurs. A player may not contact the ball two times consecutively. Two or three players may touch the ball at the same moment. When two or more teammates touch the ball simultaneously, it is counted as one contact.

(iii)

(a) Attack line	(a) Back line
Attack line is drawn parallel to the net and divides the playing area into back row and front row.	The back line is line going left to right (the length). Also known as second 10 foot line
(b) Ace	(b) Floating service
A serve that hits the floor in bounds, is shanked or cannot be handled by receiving team, immediately resulting in appoint for the serving team.	When the ball moves through the air without any spin, giving it the appearance of floating in the air.

(iv) Explain the following terms:
(a) A Rotation
(b) A Side-out
(c) A Penalty
(d) Carrying the Ball.
Answer:
(iv) (a) Rotation: Rotation is done in clockwise direction one position every time a player get the ball to serve.
(b) A side out: When the live ball crosses the side line and touches the ground is called side out.
(c) A Penalty: When any player commit a foul intentionally referee shows the yellow card and ball is given to opponent for service.
(d) Carrying the ball: When the ball is not rebound from the hit and it stays for some time with the player.

Question 19.
(i) State any three duties of a coach. [2]
(ii) List any six service faults. [2]
(iii) What is pass and what are its types? [3]
(iv) Explain the following terms : [3]
(a) Change of court
(b) A Penetration-Fault
(c) A Misconduct
(d) A Blocking
Answer:
(i) Three duties of coach are:
1. The coach records or checks the name and number of player.
2. Signs the score sheet
3. Makes the substitution accordingly.

(ii) Service faults are:
1. When the ball touches the ground.
2. When the ball passes under the net.
3. When the server touch the court outside the service zone.
4. When server start service before whistle.
5. When the ball touches the ground outside the side line.
6. When the ball hit the net and fall in same side.

(iii) Pass is usually set up by the setter of the game. It is used in order to take the ball and give it to the other players on your own team. They will then have the ability to put the ball to the other side like they want to. You can either pass by the forearm or by hitting the ball overhead.
1. Underarm pass: Underarm pass is also known as bump pass. Underarm pass is a pass performed by the use of united forearms to pass or set a ball in an underhand manner.

2. Overhead pass: Overhead pass is a pass performed with both hands open, conducted by the fingers and thumbs, played just above the forehead.

3. One Arm Pass: The ball is played on the underneath by sweeping the arm forwards and upwards. It involves stretching the body as far as possible towards the ball and running to the side of the ball.

(iv) (a) Change of court: After each set the team change court and in deciding set leading team reach 8 point. Team will change court.
(b) A penetration fault: Involves moving a back row setter into the front court in order to perform a set. A front court setter can then act as a third smasher and he made or committed a foul.
(c) A Misconduct: When the player not following the rules and playing unsportsman spirit (abusing, hitting etc.) is a misconduct.
(d) A Blocking: Blocking refers to the action taken by the player standing at the net to stop or alter an opponent’s attack.

Question 20.
(i) Write a short note on” Block”. [2]
(ii) What is FIVB? [2]
(iii) Write short note on Super Challenge Cup [3]
(iv) Answer the following questions:
(a) When is the ball considered “out”?
(b) What is the maximum number of time outs and substitutions per set for a team?
(c) Explain the term ‘four hits’.
(d) List two conditions when a team is compelled to substitute a player. [3]
Answer:
(i) Blocking refers to the action taken by the players standing at the net to stop or alter an opponent’s attack. Only the front-row player performs a block by jumping and reaching to penetrate with one’s arms and hands over the net.
1. Single block: When only one player takes part in the block. It is essential to select a place to make a jump for the block.

2. Double block: A double block happens in volleyball when two defensive players approach the net and jump together to block or deflect an attack performed by the hitter back onto the opponent’s side of the net.

3. Triple block: When three players take part in a block, all the hands should be raised at one time and level. It raises a wide screen over the net.

(ii) The Federation Internationale de Volleyball (International Federation of Volleyball), commonly known by the acronym FIVB, is the international governing body for the sports of indoor, beach and grass volleyball with activities involving worldwide planning and organization of volleyball events, sometimes in conjunction with other international governing bodies such as the IOC. It was founded in the year 1947, with its headquarter located at Lausanne, Switzerland.

(iii) The Super Challenge Cup is the third top official competition for men’s Volleyball clubs of Europe. It takes place annually. It was started in the 1980-81 season under the name CEV Cup. In 2007, it was renamed CEV Challenge Cup. The Super Women’s Challenge Cup, formerly (from 1980 to 2007) known as CEV Women’s Cup, is the third official competition for women’s volleyball clubs of Europe and takes place every year.

It is organized by the Confederation Europeenne de Volleyball (CEV) and was created as CEV Women’s Cup in 1980 to allow more clubs to participate in European competitions. In 2007, it was renamed CEV Challenge Cup following a CEV decision to rename its second official competition.

(iv) (a) Ball is considered ‘out’ when the part of ball which contacts the floor is completely outside the
boundary lines.
(b) Maximum number of time out in a set is ‘two’ time outs and substitution per set is 6 players.
(c) Four hits: If the team touches or hits the ball four times. Team commits the faults of ‘Four hits’. A team is entitled to a maximum of three hits.
(d) Two conditions when team is compelled for substitution :
(1) An injured player who cannot continue to play must be legally substituted.
(2) An expelled player must be changed through a legal substitution.

BADMINTON
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 21.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Each game is played up to how many points?
(a) 11
(b) 15
(c) 21
(d) 31
Answer:
(c) 21

(ii) Which of the following feather lengths would not be legal in a shuttle?
(a) 73mm
(b) 64mm
(c) 70mm
(d) 67mm
Answer:
(a) 73mm

(iii) The interval between games of a match in badminton cannot exceed how many minutes:
(a) Four
(b) Three
(c) Two
(d) One
Answer:
(c) Two

(iv) What is the least amount of points a player must lead by to win the match?
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four
Answer:
(b) Two

(v) How many times can a player strike a shuttlecock before it flies over the net?
(a) Thrice
(b) Once
(c) Twice
(d) None of these
Answer:
(b) Once

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 22.
(i) Explain the scoring system in badminton. [2]
(ii) Explain the singles match in badminton and how is scoring and serving done in those matches. [2]
(iii) When the game is suspended in badminton? [3]
(iv) Explain any five duties of the umpire in the game of badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) Matches consists of best of three games for both men’s and women’s where each game shall consist
of 21 points. The game is played in rally point system, the side first scoring 21 points will be winning
the game. In case of 20-all the side which gains a two point lead first, shall win the game. If the score
becomes 29-all, the side scoring the 30th point shall win that game.

(ii) Singles
1. At the beginning of the game (0-0) and when the server’s score is even, the server serves from the right service court. When the server’s score is odd, the server serves from the left service court.

2. In a rally, the shuttle may be hit by the server and the receiver alternately, from any position on that player’s side of the net, until the shuttle ceases to be in play.

Scoring and serving
1. If the server wins a rally, the server shall score a point. The server shall then serve again from the alternate service court.

2. If the receiver wins a rally, the receiver shall score a point. The receiver shall then become the new server. They serve from the appropriate service court-left if their score is odd, and right if it is even.

(iii) Suspension of Play
1. When necessitated by circumstances not within the control of the players, the umpire may suspend play for such a period as the umpire may consider it necessary.

2. Under special circumstances, the Referee may instruct the umpire to suspend play.

3. If play is suspended, the existing score shall stand and play shall be resumed from that point.

(iv) Duties of the Umpire
1. The role of the umpire is to keep the score. The umpire announces the match’s score to the players and audience throughout the match. He must announce the score after each point.
2. He/She has the power to overrule any decisions made by the service judge or line judges.
3. The umpire also records any incidents of misconduct and reports them to the referee.
4. The umpire is the person ensuring that the badminton game is run smoothly and prevent any players from delaying the game play.
5. Whenever a player requests to change the shuttle, the umpire will need to approve that the changes could be made.

Question 23.
(i) What are the duties of the service judge? [2]
(ii) Explain briefly underarm forehand and backhand stroke. [2]
(iii) Write shot note on the Thomas Cup. [3]
(iv) Explain the term “Administration of breach” in the game of badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) The service judge is responsible in making a ‘service fault’ call and to provide shuttles to the players.
1. To see that the server shall not serve before the receiver is ready.
2. To see that there is no undue delay in the delivery of the service.
3. In doubles the partners are ready and have taken positions which do not unsight the other players.

(ii) 1. Underarm forehand stroke: The badminton underarm forehand stroke is performed when the
player takes a shuttle in front. It is fairly easy to inject power into underarm strokes (compared to overhead strokes). Therefore, the player need not to worry about failing to generate the sufficient strength into the underarm strokes.

2. Underarm backhand stroke: The badminton underarm backhand stroke is fairly easy to perform compared to other badminton strokes. This stroke is usually performed when the opponent hits a badminton drop shot to the backhand area at the front of the court.

(iii) The Thomas Cup, sometimes called the World Men’s Team Championships, is an International Badminton competition among teams representing member nations of the Badminton World Federation (BWF), the sport’s global governing body. The championships have been conducted every two years since the 1982 tournament, amended from being conducted every three years since the first tournament held in 1948-1949. The final phase of the tournament involves twelve teams competing at venues within a host nation and is played concurrently with the final phase of the world women’s team championships, the Uber Cup (first held in 1956-1957). Since 1984 the two competitions have been held jointly at the various stages of play.

(iv) Administration of Breach
The umpire shall administer any breach of Laws (iii), (iv) and (v) by:
1. Issuing a warning to the offending side.

2. Faulting the offending side, if previously warned. Two such faults by a side shall be considered to be a persistent offence.
In cases of flagrant offence, persistent offences or breach of Law (i) the umpire shall fault the offending side and report the offending side immediately to the Referee, who shall have the power to disqualify the offending side from the match.

Question 24.
(i) Explain the sequence of serving. [2]
(ii) Briefly explain the service court errors. [2]
(iii) Explain the duties of the referee. [3]
(iv) Explain the term Forehand grip. [3]
Answer:
(i) In any game, the right to serve shall pass consecutively:
1. From the initial server who started the game from the right service court.
2. To the partner of the initial receiver.
3. To the partner of the initial server.
4. To the initial receiver.
5. To the initial server and so on.
(a) No player shall serve or receive out of turn, or receive two consecutive services in the same game, except as provided in Laws of (service court errors.)

(b) Either player of the winning side may serve first in the next game, and or the player of the losing side may receive first in the next game.

(ii) A service court errors have been made when a player:
1. Has served or received out of turn.
2. Has served or received from the wrong service court.
3. If a service court error is discovered, the error shall be corrected and the existing score shall stand.

(iii) Duties of the Referee are:
1. To determine who gets the point.
2. The referee of a badminton game ensures fair and unbiased game play and to make the game as fair as possible.
3. The referee is directly in the middle of the court and watches out to see if the players touch the net with their racket or if someone hits it when it is on the other player’s side with their racket over the net or to determine which side the shuttle lands on.

(iv) Forehand Grip: Hold the racket by the shaft in the left hand with the face of the racket perpendicular to the floor and shake hands with the grip. Slide your hand down so that the fatty part rest comfortably against the butt of the handle. There will be a V shape of the thumb and index finger. Grip the handle lightly, with fingers spread slightly. The thumb wraps around the handle on the left side. The grip should be relaxed when the player is not stroking the shuttle. Tighten the grip when the player is ready to stroke the shuttle.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Papers with Answers

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Sample Question Paper 2 with Answers

Maximum Marks: 50
Time: 1 1/2 Hours

CRICKET
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions from this Section)

Question 1.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) The ‘Laws of Cricket’ were drawn up in:
(a) 1740
(b) 1744
(c) 1741
(d) 1742
Answer:
(b) 1744

(ii) Cricket differs from other games:
(a) due to the equipment
(b) due to the pitch
(c) as it takes the longest time to
(d) as it takes the shortest duration complete
Answer:
(c) as it takes the longest time to

(iii) The length of the pitch is:
(a) twenty yards
(b) twenty two yards
(c) twenty one yards
(d) twenty three yards
Answer:
(b) twenty two yards

(iv) The world’s first Cricket Club was formed:
(a) in Australia
(b) in Melbourne
(c) in Africa
(d) in Hambledon
Answer:
(d) in Hambledon

(v) Cricket is originally an/a:
(a) Indian Game
(b) American Game
(c) British Game
(d) Arabian Game
Answer:
(c) British Game

Section – B
(Answer any four questions from this Section)

Question 2.
(i) When is a ball deemed ‘lost’ during play? What procedures are then adopted in case the ball is declared ‘lost’? [2]
(ii) State three instances when the ball is considered a ‘dead ball’. [2]
(iii) Mention three situations when a team’s innings is said to be complete. [3]
(iv) Identify the colour of the cricket ball used in test and one day matches. What is the reason behind using coloured balls? [3]
Answer:
(i) In the game of cricket if a ball in play cannot be found or recovered any fielder may call it a lost ball. When “lost ball” is called the batting side fixes a penalty that would have been in fact run before the call of lost ball was made.

(ii) Three instances when a ball is considered as a dead ball are:
1. The umpire is satisfied that, with adequate reason, the batsman is not ready to receive the ball and makes no attempt to play it.
2. When batsman is declared out.
3. When the ball crosses the boundary line.

(iii) Three situations when a team’s innings is said to be complete are:
1. When over or days get over.
2. When the batsman of batting team are all out.
3. When the choosing team completes the score of batting team.

(iv) In test matches, the uniform worn by the players is of white colour thus the red coloured ball becomes more visible in the play for everyone. One day matches are usually held overnight, under flood lights, thus making the white coloured ball visible at night.

Question 3.
(i) Mention any three instances when a bowler does not get credit for wickets being taken. [2]
(ii) State any three situations where a batsman can be declared out even when a ‘no ball’ has been bowled. [2]
(iii) What is meant by ‘extra runs’? Give two examples of extra runs. [3]
(iv) State any two conditions due to which a pitch may be changed. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three instances of batsman being out when bowler gets no credit are:
1. Run out: A run out usually occurs when the batsmen are attempting to run between the wickets, and the fielding team succeed in getting the ball to one wicket before a batsman has crossed the crease line near the wicket.

2. Hit wicket: If, in attempting to hit a ball or taking off for a first run, the batsman touches and breaks the wicket. This includes with the bat or dislodged pieces of the batsman’s equipment – even a helmet or spectacles.

3. Timed out: If a new batsman takes longer than two minutes, from the time the previous wicket falls, to appear on the field.

(ii) Batsman out on a no ball:
1. Run out: If a batsman is attempting to take a run, or to return to his crease after an aborted run and a fielder breaks that batsman’s wicket with the ball while he is out of the crease. The fielder may either break the wicket with a hand which holds the ball, or with the ball directly.

2. Hits the ball twice: If a batsman hits a delivery with his bat and then deliberately hits the ball again for any reason other than to defend his wicket from being broken by the ball. If the ball is bouncing or rolling around near the stumps, the batsman is entitled to knock it away so as to avoid being bowled, but not to score runs.

3. Obstructs the field: If a batsman deliberately interferes with the efforts of fielders to gather the ball or affect a run out. This does not include running a path between the fielder and the wicket so that the fielder cannot throw the stumps down with the ball, which is quite legal, but does include any deliberate attempt to swat the ball away.

(iii) Runs which are added in team score but not in batsman’s score are called extra runs. Extras are runs scored by means other than when the ball is hit by a batsman. Extras are not credited to any batsman, and are recorded by the scorer separately. The total number of runs for the innings is equal to the sums of the individual batsmen’s scores and the extras. Example: Leg bye, Bye and No ball

(iv) Two conditions due to which the pitch can be changed are:
1. When the ball is bouncing very high or uneven.
2. When the condition of pitch is not good for playing.

Question 4.
(i) Briefly explain the term an overthrow. [2]
(ii) When is a ‘follow on implemented during the course of a test match? [2]
(iii) What is the umpire’s decision in the following cases:
(a) When a batsman obstructs a fielder trying to catch the ball?
(b) When a batsman hits the ball intentionally twice in succession? [3]
(iv) Mention the length of the cricket pitch. [3]
Answer:
(i) An overthrow is an extra run scored by a batsman as a result of the ball not being collected by a fielder near the pitch area and the ball continues into the outfield again, the batsman may take more runs, If the ball reaches the boundary on an overthrow, four runs are scored in addition to the runs taken before the overthrow occurred.

(ii) Follow on: In a two-innings match of 5 days or more the side which bats first and leads by at least 200 runs shall have the option of requiring the other side to follow their innings.
The team which bats first and leads by:
1. 200 runs in – 5 or more days match
2. 150 runs in – 3 days match
3. 100 runs in – 2 days match

(iii) Umpires decision:
(a) Out – Obstruction to the fielder.
(b) Out – Hit the ball twice.

(iv) Length of pitch is = 66 fts. (22 yards)
In the game of cricket, the cricket pitch consists of the central strip of the cricket field between the wickets. It is 22 yards (20.12 m) long (1 chain) and 10 ft (3.05 m) wide.

FOOTBALL
Section-A [5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 5.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which Country’s Balls were used for 2018 FIFA World Cup?
(a) Pakistan
(b) India
(c) Srilanka
(d) Thailand
Answer:
(a) Pakistan

(ii) How many Players are there on a Football Team?
(a) 10 players
(b) 12 players
(c) 11 players
(d) 13 players
Answer:
(c) 11 players

(iii) Which Team got 3rd Position in FIFA World Cup 2018?
(a) France
(b) England
(c) Croatia
(d) Belgium
Answer:
(d) Belgium

(iv) Which Pakistani teenager tossed the coin in FIFA World Cup 2018?
(a) Ahmed Raza
(b) Ali Raza
(c) Muhammad Ahmed
(d) Ahmed Ali
Answer:
(a) Ahmed Raza

(v) Durand Cup is associated with the game of:
(a) Football
(b) Squash
(c) Volleyball
(d) Table Tennis
Answer:
(a) Football

Section-B 
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 6.
(i) Weight and Circumference of the ball. [2]
(ii) Minimum and maximum number of players to begin the match. [2]
(iii) State the full form of ‘FIFA.’ Write a short note on it. [2]
(iv) Answer the following:
(a) The distance of the Penalty Point from the Goal line.
(b) The Height of the Corner flags. [3]
Answer:
(i) The standard FIFA regulation football ball that we use today is quite a matured version. It stands as a benchmark of scientific progress. The better the football ball, the better the flight; the better the flight, the better the efficiency; the better the efficiency, the better the fun. The football ball, although it has seen a transformation in its look and functionality – right from an era of being a wrapped-up animal sinew to being the construction being made of synthetic rubber – its “Sizes” has remained the same and will remain the same in the future.
1. Weight of ball: 410 g – 450 g.
2. Circumference: 68 cm – 70 cm.

(ii) Minimum players – 07; maximum players – 11

(iii) Full form of FIFA is “Federation de International Football Association”. FIFA is an international governing body that governs, manages and promotes association football, futsal and beach soccer. It is responsible for organizing all major football tournaments like Football World Cup (FIFA World Cup) and FIFA Women’s World Cup. Since 1930, it is organizing FIFA World Cup and since 1991, it is organizing Women’s World Cup. FIFA was founded on 21 May 1904; Belgium, France, Denmark, Netherlands, Sweden, Spain and Switzerland were the founding members of FIFA. Its goal is the constant improvement of football. It is headquartered in Zurich and is governed by Swiss law, 211 national associations are members of FIFA. As of July 2017, Gianni Infantino is the president of FIFA.

(iv) (a) Distance of Penalty point from goal line: 11 metre.
(b)Height of the comer flags: T5 metre (5 feets).

Question 7.
(i) Under what three situations is a player not considered off-side? [2]
(ii) State the position of the following during the execution of a penalty kick in a game of football: [2]
(a) The ball.
(b) The defending goal keeper.
(c) The players.
(iii) State any three duties of an Assistant Referee. [3]
(iv) Explain the term “A goal scored”. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three situations when a player is not considered off-side are:
1. At the time of penalty kick.
2. When the ball is in central of defending team.
3. When the player is in his own half of the field of play.

(ii) 1. The ball: On the penalty mark.
2. Defending goal keeper: In his goal area in front of goal line in between goal post.
3. The players: In the field away from the penalty arc.

(iii) Three duties of an Assistant Referee are:
1. When a substitution is requested.
2. In case of any misconduct.
3. Which team is entitled to a corner kick, goal kick or throw in.

(iv) A Goal scored: When the ball crosses the goal line under the cross bar in between the goal posts under the crossbar, provided that no offence has been committed by the team scoring the goal. If the goalkeeper throws the ball directly into the opponents’ goal, a goal kick is awarded.

Question 8.
(i) What is the procedure of resuming the game from a comer kick? [2]
(ii) Name three places from where the ball is passed to an offside player but an offside is not given. [2]
(iii) List any three offences for which a Red Card is shown to a player.
(iv) What decision will the referee give when the goal is scored unintentionally by the centre referee?
Answer:
(i) After a goal has been scored, the game is resumed in the same manner like in the beginning of the game but it is done by the player of the team losing the goal.
1. The ball is placed inside the comer are at the nearest comer flag post.
2. Opponents move at least 10 yds. away from the comer arc until the ball is in play.
3. The ball is kicked by the player of attacking team.
4. As the ball comes in play, the kicker does not play the ball a second time until the player has touched another player.

(ii) Three places where the ball is passed to an offside player but an offside is not given are:
1. In the opposing team’s half of the field.
2. Player is in front of the ball.
3. There are fewer than two opposing players and opposing goal line.

(iii) Three offences for which a Red Card is shown to a player are:
1. Serious foul play.
2. Violent conduct.
3. Spitting at an opponent or any other person.

(iv) The decision of the referee would be that the goal would be counted but the centre referee would not be a referee in match again.

HOCKEY
Section-A[5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 9.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) The distance between the penalty spot and the goal is:
(a) 6 yards
(b) 5 yards
(c) 8 yards
(d) 7 yards
Answer:
(d) 7 yards

(ii) Total number of players playing on the pitch in a hockey match is:
(a) 22
(b) 16
(c) 20
(d) 18
Answer:
(a) 22

(iii) Which player is allowed to touch the ball with his feet during a Hockey match?
(a) Goalkeeper
(b) Defender
(c) Centre-forward
(d) Winger
Answer:
(a) Goalkeeper

(iv) The dimensions of a Hockey field are:
(a) 91.4m x 55m
(b) 92m x 55m
(c) 92.5m x 56m
(d) 91.4m x 56m
Answer:
(a) 91.4m x 55m

(v) What are the dimensions of the goal at each end of the hockey field?
(a) 2.14m x 3.66m
(b) 2.15m x 3.66m
(c) 2.15m x 3.7m
(d) 2.14m x 3.7m
Answer:
(a) 2.14m x 3.66m

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 10.
(i) What is meant by a Tong comer’? [2]
(ii) What is an ‘advantage ‘in a game of hockey? [2]
(iii) What will the referee’s decision be if a player enters the field before completion of a 5 minute suspension and a goal is scored by his/her team simultaneously during that duration of play? [3]
(iv) Give two instances when the ball is declared out of play in a game of hockey. [3]
Answer:
(i) Long Comer: A long comer is a result of an unintentional play, over the backline by a defender, or a goal keeper in the play. A free hit for the offense on the side-line five yards from the backline. These are awarded to the offense when a defender accidently hits the ball over the backline.

(ii) Advantage: Extending one arm high from the shoulder in the directions in which the benefiting team is playing. Playing hockey involves the coordination between the hands and the eyes. It also improves the spontaneous responses and reactions of the players during the game. Practicing this game aids in developing coordination abilities, improves hand-eye reflexes and improves agility.

(iii) If a player enters the field before the completion of a 5 minute suspension and a goal is scored by his/ her team, goal will not be counted and player will be sent out of the field (game).

(iv) The ball is out of play when it passes completely over the side-line or back-line.
1. Play is restarted by a player of the team which was not the last team to touch or play the ball before
it went out of play.
2. When the ball travels over the side-line, play is re-started where the ball crossed the line and the procedures for taking a free hit apply.
3. When the ball is played over the back-line then no goal is scored.

Question 11.
(i) What is the height of the flag posts placed on the hockey field? Write a short note on Flag Post. [2]
(ii) State the full form of FIH. Explain FIH in brief. [2]
(iii) What decision will the referee take if the ball is hit outside the backline intentionally by the defender? [3]
(iv) Briefly explain the warning cards used in a game of hockey. [3]
Answer:
(i) Height of the flag post 1.20 and 1.50 metres.
Flag-posts are placed at each corner of the field at a distance of 1 yard from the centre line and it must not be dangerous at the top. It must be made of metal except they are attached to a spring base. 10 flag- posts are required in the field of play.

(ii) FIH is Federation International de Hockey. The Federation International de Hockey commonly known by the acronym FIH is the international governing body of field hockey and indoor field hockey. Its headquarters are located in Lausanne, Switzerland. FIH is responsible for field hockey’s major international tournaments, notably the World Cup. FIH was founded on 7 January 1924 in Paris by Paul Leautey, who became the first President, in response to field hockey’s omission from the programme of the 1924 Summer Olympics.

First members complete to join the seven founding members were Austria, Belgium, Czechoslovakia, France, Hungary, Spain and Switzerland. In 1982, the FIH merged with the International Federation of Women’s Hockey Associations (IFWHA), which had been founded in 1927 by Australia, Denmark, England, Ireland, Scotland, South Africa, the United States and Wales. The organisation is based in Lausanne, Switzerland since 2005, having moved from Brussels, Belgium.

(iii) When the ball is hit outside the backline intentionally by the defender a long corner will be awarded to the attacking team. A long corner is awarded if a defender accidentally puts the ball over the back line. Long comers are taken approximately 20m back from the goal line and in-line with the point at which the ball crossed the goal line and cannot be hit directly into the circle.

(iv) Three cards used in a hockey game are:
1. Green card: A warning is indicated by the green card.
2. Yellow card: Temporarily suspension for a minimum of 5 minimum of playing time is indicated by the yellow card.
3. Red card: Permanent suspension from the current game is indicated by a red card.

Question 12.
(i) List any three Fundamental skills of Hockey. [2]
(ii) Explain the term Corner Push. [2]
(iii) Explain the execution of Dribbling in Hockey. [3]
(iv) Explain the term” A Suspension”. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three fundamental skills in hockey are:
1. Passing: Passing is more frequently to be used than dribbling. The pass is the soul of hockey game. It means to send the ball from one’s control to the control of the team-mate by using any stroke with the aim of gaining ground or to beat a defender directly or indirectly. Through passes are to be preferred when the opposition of marking closely, but short inter-passirig is more appropriate where there is strong defence.

2. Trap: A defensive tactic in which the defending team clogs up the rink’s neutral zone, making it difficult for the puck-carrying team to skate through the neutral zone and penetrate the attacking zone. The trap is often called the neutral zone trap because this is the section of the ice it occurs on. It takes place when the opposition has the puck in their own end and are attempting to carry it through the neutral zone and then into the attacking zone.

3. Shooting: A shot is any attempt made by a player to score a goal. Shooting is easily the most common way for goals to be scored. It is done using the feet, using the head, i.e. heading the ball, is the second most common way in which goals are scored. The player, regardless of his playing position on the field, must be playing the ball in such a manner that his actions could result in his scoring on the opposing team’s goal. Where he is on the field, the speed of the shot, and the placement of the other players, both on his team and the opposing team, are irrelevant – as long as he can legally score a goal from his spot on the field.

(ii) Comer push: It is a technique of attack with in the hockey field when the ball is pushed involving the penalty comers. The ball is dragged or pushed over the playing surface by the hockey stick for some
distance and then released in the direction of the trapper. The trapper then propels the ball back into the circle for phase three to commence.

(iii) Dribbling: It is running with the ball while shifting it right and left and keeping it in perfect control so as to pass it at any time or change its direction to beat a player. Keep the left hand at the top and right hand at the middle of the stick. The left hand grip is firm and the right hand grip is loose. Body forward bending and the body weight on the right foot. Tap the ball with the middle portion of the blade diagonally towards left and bring the left foot forward in the left hand and loosen the right hand grip.

(iv) A suspension: When the player commits an intentional foul, referee asked him to leave the play. It is of two types – Temporary and full game. When necessitated by circumstances not within the control of the players, the umpire may suspend play for such a period as the umpire may consider it necessary.
1. Under special circumstances, the Referee may instruct the umpire to suspend play.
2. If play is suspended, the existing score shall stand and play shall be resumed from that point.

BASKETBALL
Section-A[5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 13.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which country has the highest number of Olympic titles for men’s basketball?
(a) USA
(b) Spain
(c) Canada
(d) UK
Answer:
(a) USA

(ii) How is ‘scoring a point’ usually called?
(a) The basket
(c) Home-run
(b) Touchdown
(d) Home touchdown
Answer:
(a) The basket

(iii) How many players form the basketball team along with substitutes?
(a) 7
(b) 5
(c) 12
(d) 13
Answer:
(c) 12

(iv) Who is the tallest player in the international basketball?
(a) Suleiman Ali Nashnush
(b) SimBhullar
(c) Manute Bol
(d) None of these
Answer:
(a) Suleiman Ali Nashnush

(v) Which country won the first women’s world championship?
(a) USA
(b) China
(c) Russia
(d) India
Answer:
(a) USA

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 14.
(i) Mention three important duties of the officials before the start of the match. [2]
(ii) What is a Team Foul? [2]
(iii) What is the procedure adopted to decide the winner if the match ends in a tie? [3]
(iv) Define the term “Blind pass”. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three important duties of the official before the start of the match are :
1. To check the different equipment used in the game to make sure there are no hazards to players during the game.
2. Not to permit players to play with any type of hand, arm, face, nose, ear, head or neck jewellery.
3. To interpret rules on the court of play.

(ii) A team is in a team foul penalty situation, when it has committed 4 team fouls in a period. All team fouls committed in an interval of play shall be considered as being committed in the extra period.

Rule:
1. When a team is in a team foul penalty situation, all subsequent player personal fouls committed on a player who is not in the act of shooting shall be penalised by 2 free throws, instead of a throw- in.

2. If a personal foul is committed by a player of the team in control of the live ball, or of the team entitled to the ball, such a foul shall be penalised by a throw-in for the opponents.

3. When the ball is played over the back-line then no goal is scored.

(iii) If the score is tied at the end of playing time for the fourth period, the game shall continue with as many extra periods of 5 minutes as is necessary to break the tie.

If an extra period is required as a result of this free throw(s) then all fouls that are committed after the end of playing time shall be considered to have occurred during an interval of play and the free throw(s) shall be administered before the beginning of the extra period.

(iv) A blind pass: The blind pass is performed when a player looks in one direction but passes the ball to his target in another direction. They are risky and infrequently attempted, but when done correctly, can confuse the defence. It is also known as no look pass.

Question 15.
(i) Mention any three occasions when the ball is considered dead. [2]
(ii) Differentiate between a Cut-in and a Throw in. [2]
(iii) Differentiate between a Foul and a Violation. [3]
(iv) Explain the term “Substitution”. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three occasions when the ball is considered dead are:
1. When ball crosses the side line.
2. When any foul is committed.
3. When Basket is converted (after goal).

(ii) Cut in: It is down when the ball is live and player trying to go for basket. Most fouls occur as a result of illegal personal contact with an opponent and/or unsportsman like behaviour. Fouls can result in one or more of the penalties.

Throw in: It occurs when the ball crosses the side line and ball is dead. During a throw in, the referee gives the ball to an offensive player who is standing out of bounds either on the side lines or baselines. The referee blows his whistle and the ball becomes live.

(iii) Foul is counted when the ball goes out of boundary or intentionally whereas Violation is when the player does not play according to rules.

(iv) A Substitution: A team may substitute a player during a substitution opportunity. It is a player who is in playing field to play on place of a player who have problem to play. Players that are substituted into the game must be on the team roster and the active list. There is no limit to the number of substitutions a team can make during a game.

Question 16.
(i) Mention three situations when the ball is considered live’ in a game of basketball. [2]
(ii) Mention any three duties of a scorer in a basketball match. [2]
(iii) Explain in brief the term ‘jump shot’. [3]
(iv) How many time-outs can a team avail during a basketball match? What is understood by the term ‘dunk’ in basketball? [3]
Answer:
(i) Three situations when the ball is considered live :
1. During the jump ball, the ball legally tapped by umpire.
2. During a free throw, the ball is at the disposal of the free throw shooter.
3. During a throw-in, the ball is at the disposal of the player taking the throw in.

(ii) Three duties of a scorer in a basketball match are:
1. To keep a record of the names and numbers of players.
2. To indicate the number of fouls committed by each player.
3. To effect substitution.

(iii) Jump shot: A jump shot or jumper is an attempt to score a basket by jumping, usually straight up, and in mid-jump, propelling the ball in an arc into the basket. It is accomplished by the player bringing his or her elbow up until it is aligned with the hoop, then sent towards the hoop in a high arc. It is considered the easiest shot to make from a distance. The purpose of the jump are to make it more difficult for the defender to block, and to put more power behind the shot.

(iv) A team can avail four time outs during a match. A Dunk shot is called the Dunk-shot when a player jumps high enough to get the ball up and over the ring to press it forcefully into the ring. The ball is pushed into the basket with a great force from the top of the ring and goal is scored.

VOLLEYBALL
Section-A[5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 17.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) How many players are on the court at one time?
(a) 8
(b) 12
(c) 9
(d) 10
Answer:
(b) 12

(ii) Which player should touch the ball every time your team has the ball?
(a) Outside hitter
(b) Libero
(c) Middle hitter
(d) Setter
Answer:
(d) Setter

(iii) Which country was the first to win three consecutive gold medals in women’s volleyball?
(a) Russia
(b) Cuba
(c) Japan
(d) USA
Answer:
(b) Cuba

(iv) In what year was beach volleyball introduced into the Olympics?
(a) 1992 – Barcelona
(b) 2000 – Sydney
(c) 1996-Atlanta
(d) 2004 – Athens
Answer:
(c) 1996-Atlanta

(v) How many time-outs is a team allowed during a game?
(a) 4 or 5
(b) 2 or 3
(c) 1
(d) as many as the coach wants
Answer:
(b) 2 or 3

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 18.
(i) Write the dimensions and characteristics of the ball used in a game of Volley ball. [2]
(ii) How is a point scored in the game of Volleyball? [2]
(iii) Enumerate the duties of A first reference. [3]
(iv) Explain briefly the term” Rotation”. [3]
Answer:
(i) The circumference of the ball used in the game of Volleyball is 65-67 cm. The weight of the ball is 260-280 g. It is spherical, made of flexible leather of synthetic leather case with a bladder inside made of rubber or a similar material. Its colour may be a uniform light colour, or a combination of colours. It’s inside pressure shall be 0-30 to 0-325 kg/cm².

(ii) A team scores a point:
1. By successfully grounding the ball on the opponent’s court.
2. When the opponent team commits a fault then the point will go to the other team.
3. When the opponent team receives a penalty.
4. The opponents are unable to return the ball within three hits.
5. The opponents hit the ball out of bounds.
6. If there is a net violation a point will go to the other team.
7. If the ball is sent over either by a hit, pass, set, tip or anything else and the ball is not returned the other team will get a point.

(iii) The duties of the First Referee are:
1. Inspects the conditions of the playing area, the balls and other equipments.
2. Performs the toss with the team captains.
3. Controls the teams’ warming-up.
4. Request timeout.
5. To issue warnings to the teams.
6. To sanction misconduct and delays.
7. At the end of the match, he/she checks the score sheet and signs it.

(iv) Rotation: The rotation order as recorded on the score sheet at the beginning of each set must remain the same throughout that set. When the team receiving the serve wins the rally or the opponent commits a fault, and the players must be rotated one position clockwise. A different rotation order for each new set may be used by the team and any player recorded on the score sheet may be registered in the new starting line-up.

Question 19.
(i) Define the ball under the following headings: [2]
(a) Weight
(b) Circumference
(c) Air pressure
(ii) List the responsibilities of the Linesman during the match. [2]
(iii) List any four responsibilities of the Coach of the team. [3]
(iv) Explain the term: “A double touch”. [3]
Answer:
(i) The dimensions of the ball:
(a) The weight of the ball should be 260 to 280 g.
(b) The circumference of the ball should be 65 to 67 cm.
(c) The air pressure of the ball is 0-3-0-325 /cm2.

(ii) The responsibilities of the linesman during the match are :
1. To catch the ball in or out whenever the ball lands near their lines.
2. Foot fault occurs by sever or another player.
3. To signal if the server moves outside of the service position in violation of the rules.
4. To signal if the ball passes outside or strikes the antenna when being returned to the other side.

(iii) Four responsibilities of the coach of the team are:
1. The coach conducts the play of his / her team from outside the playing court.
2. He / she selects line ups, the substitutes and takes time-outs.
3. Prior to the match, the coach records or checks the names and numbers of his / her players on the score-sheet and then signs it.
4. During the match, the coach, prior to each set, gives the 2nd referee or the scorer the line-up sheet(s) duly filled in and signed.

(iv) A double contact, or double hit, occurs in volleyball when a player touches the ball twice in a row, or if the ball touches two parts of the player’s body in succession. This does not apply for when setting a ball as long as the player’s hands are together and touch the ball at the same time. At higher levels of competition, it will often be difficult to detect a double hit because they may happen so quickly. The referee has to make a judgment call based on their view and the reaction that the ball has from the contact(s). Many doubles are called at first contact off of the service. Double hits are usually accidental as the player attempts to make a normal pass, but inadvertently makes contact with the ball with another part of their body.

Question 20.
(i) Briefly explain the following terms: [2]
(a) A service zone
(b) A substitution zone
(c) An attack line
(d) A substitution
(ii) When is the ball considered in and out of play? [2]
(iii) What do you mean by expulsion? [3]
(iv) Explain how a set and a match is won by a team. [3]
Answer:
(i) (a) A service zone: This is the area of the court that the server from. The service zone is a 9 m wide area behind each end line. It is laterally limited by two short lines, each 15 cm long, drawn 20 m behind the end line as an extension of the sidelines. Both short lines are included in the width of the service zone. In depth, the service zone extends to the end of the free zone.

(b) A substitution zone: The substitution zone is limited by the extension of both attack lines up to the scorer7s able. Once the player enters the substitution zone, he/she becomes an eligible substitute.

(c) An attack line: On each court, an attack line, whose rear edge is drawn 3m back from the axis of the centre line, marks the front zone.

(d) A substitution: A substitution is the act by which a player, other than the Libero or his/her replacement player, after being recorded by the scorer, enters the game to occupy the position of another player, who must leave the court at that moment. Substitution requires the referee’s authorization.

(ii) Ball in Play: The ball is in play from the moment of the hit of the service authorized by the first referee. Ball out of Play: The ball is out of play at the moment of the fault which is whistled by one of the referees; in the absence of a fault, at the moment of the whistle.

(iii) Extremely offensive conduct results in the red and yellow cards held together, expulsion from the remainder of the game. Expelled players must leave the playing court and remain seated in the penalty area until the start of a new game. This is known as expulsion.

(iv) The set and match is won by a team in the following ways:
1. To win a set: A set (except the deciding, 5th set) is won by the team which first scores 25 points with a minimum lead of two points. In the case of a 24-24 tie, play is continued until a two-point lead is achieved (26-24; 27-25; …).

2. To win the Match: The match is won by the team that wins three sets. In the case of a 2-2 tie, the deciding set (the 5th) is played to 15 points with a minimum lead of 2 points.

BADMINTON
Section-A[5 Marks]
(Attempt all questions)

Question 21.
Choose the correct answers to the questions from the given options. (Do not copy the question, Write the correct answer only.)
(i) Which of these is a fault when serving?
(a) Hitting the feathers of the shuttle first.
(b) The racquet point downwards at the moment of hitting the shuttle.
(c) Hitting the cork of the shuttle first.
(d) Hitting the shuttle below the waist.
Answer:
(a) Hitting the feathers of the shuttle first.

(ii) How many feathers should be in a shuttle?
(a) 12
(b) 26
(c) 16
(d) 20
Answer:
(c) 16

(iii) Which of the following combinations do not exist in badminton?
(a) Women singles
(b) Mixed singles
(c) Women doubles
(d) Mixed doubles
Answer:
(b) Mixed singles

(iv) In which year did Badminton become an Olympic suport?
(a) 1989
(b) 2000
(c) 1996
(d) 1992
Answer:
(d) 1992

(v) Which of the tennis Grand Slam tournaments does not share the same name as an international badminton tournament?
(a) US Open
(b) Wimbledon
(c) Australian Open
(d) French Open
Answer:
(b) Wimbledon

Section-B
(Attempt any two questions from this Section)

Question 22.
(i) Mention any three skills of a badminton player. [2]
(ii) When is a shuttle not in play? [2]
(iii) What are the types of games in badminton? [3]
(iv) Explain the term short serve in Badminton. [3]
Answer:
(i) Three skills of a badminton player are:
1. Grip: It is of the following type:
(a) Forehand Grip: Hold the racket by the shaft in the left hand with the face of the racket perpendicular to the floor and shake hands with the grip. Slide your hand down so that the fatty part rest comfortably against the butt of the handle. There will be a ‘v’ shape of the thumb and index finger.

(b) Backhand Grip: For backhand grip, turn the top edge of the racket frame over slightly to the right and put the thumb along and parallel to the wide side of the handle. This grip allows a longer reach, more power and better accuracy.

2. Footwork: The pattern of movement for covering the corners inside the court.

3. Serves: It is of the following type:
(a) High (Long) serve: This is basic single’s serve and directs the shuttle high and deep. The shuttle should turn over and fall as close to the back boundary line as possible.

(b) Low (Short) serve: In this serve, we use little or no wrist action, contact bird at thigh level push or guide the shuttle low, close to the net and finishes with racket following line of the bird’s flight and the hips and shoulders rolling around.

(ii) The shuttle is not in play when:
1. A shuttle is not in play when it strikes the net or post and starts to fall towards the surface.
2. It is not in play when it hits the surface of the court.
3. It is not in play when a ‘fault’ or a ‘let’ has occurred.

(iii) The game involves the two opponents hitting the shuttlecock over the net into the other person’s side. The rally ends when the shuttlecock touches the ground. Only one stroke is allowed to pass it over the net. One badminton match is made up of three games, of 21 points each. Professional badminton games are of five kinds: Men’s singles, Men’s doubles, Mixed doubles, Women’s singles and Women’s Doubles.

(iv) In the short serve, the player uses little or no wrist action, contact bird at thigh level push or guide the shuttle low, close to the net and finishes with racket following line of the bird’s flight and the hips and shoulders rolling around.

Question 23.
(i) Explain the back hand grip in Badminton. [2]
(ii) Write the full form of BWF and BAI and briefly explain them. [2]
(iii) Explain the term ‘lobbing’ in Badminton. [3]
(iv) Explain the term “Carry”. [3]
Answer:
(i) In the Backhand grip turn the top edge of the racket frame over slightly to the right and put the thumb along and parallel to the wide side of the handle. This grip allows a longer reach, more power and better accuracy.

(ii) The full form of BWF and BAI are:
(a) BWF- Badminton World Federation: The Badminton World Federation (BWF) is the governing body of the sport of badminton recognized by the International Olympic Committee (IOC). The BWF serve to regulate, promote, develop and popularise the sport of badminton across the globe and to organise and run the highest level international events.

(b) BAI- Badminton Association of India: Badminton Association of India (BAI) is the governing body for badminton in India. Based in Lucknow, BAI is an association registered under the Societies Act. It was formed in 1934 and has been holding national-level tournaments in India since 1936. BAI has 33 State Associations and 4 other organizations as its members that conduct badminton tournaments in the country.

(iii) Lobbing: It is a stroke executed at the player’s baseline, hitting the ball far to the back of the opponent court. Any good lob should be over the opponent’s reach at mid court, hence pushing them to the back of the baseline.

(iv) A Carry: A return that is caught on the racket face and is slung or thrown over the net. It is sometimes referred to as a sling or a throw. This is a legal return as long as it is a continuation of the player’s normal stroke and is not a double hit.

Question 24.
(i) State any three duties of the referee in Badminton. [2]
(ii) What is forecourt and backcourt in Badminton? [2]
(iii) When do the players change the court in a Badminton game? [3]
(iv) Explain the term” Fallow throng”. [3]
Answer:
(i) Duties of the Referee are:
1. To determine who gets the point.
2. The referee of a badminton game ensures fair and unbiased game play and to make the game as fair as possible.
3. The referee is directly in the middle of the court and watches out to see if the players touch the net with their racket or if someone hits it when it is on the other player’s side with their racket over the net or to determine which side the shuttle lands on.

(ii) The front area of the court, usually considered in between the net and the short service line is known as the forecourt whereas Back area of the court is known as the Backcourt.

(iii) The service courts are changed by the servicing side only when a point is scored. In all other cases, the players continue to stay in their respective service court from where they played previous rally. This shall guarantee alternate server.

(iv) Follow-through: The smooth continuation of a stroke after the racket has contacted the bird. The player’s body should face sideways, not the front. The arm of the racket should move towards the back and extend the player’s chest to the widest extent possible to ensure he can do a full swing. The player should lift up his non-racket arm as he stretches his racket arm towards the back. The non-racket arm plays an important role in maintaining body balance. Without good balance, there’s no way he can execute the correct technique for this stroke.

ICSE Class 10 Physical Education Question Papers with Answers