ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Location, Area, Political & Physical Features

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Location, Area, Political & Physical Features

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

THINK AND ANSWER

Why did Africa remain unexplored for a long time ?
Answer:
The equator passes through the middle of the continent and most of Africa lies within the tropics. It is, therefore, the hottest continent.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa. In the north, the Sahara, the world’s largest desert, was impenetrable due to severe heat and dry conditions. Most of Africa consists of undulating plateaus, so it was difficult to reach the interior from the coastal areas. The rivers of Africa have many rapids and waterfalls, and are not fit for navigation. The extensive equatorial forests and swampy lands teeming with dangerous tsetse flies and poisonous insects discouraged explorers from entering the heart of the continent.

Discuss

Deforestation rate in Africa is twice the average for the rest of the world with more than four million hectares of primary forest disappearing every year. What could be the reasons for this.
Answer:
The reasons would be :

  1. Conversion of forests for subsistenance and commercial agriculture.
  2. Deforestation done because of commercial logging
  3. Other activities such as cattle rattling, cash crop plantations, and the construction of dams, roads and mines.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

The Sahara Desert forms a large part of Africa. This desert extends from the Atlantic in the west to the Red Sea in the east.
Suppose you were going to the Sahara Desert. List the things you would take with you.
What kind of problems are you likely to face ?
How would you cope with them ?
Answer:
The things one should carry and the problems we can face are discussed below :
1. Preparing for Desert Emergencies —
(a) Wear clothing that minimizes sweat loss : Most of your body’s water loss happens through perspiration. Cover as much skin as possible with loose, light-weight clothing. This will trap the sweat against your skin, slowing evaporation and therefore water loss.
(b) Bring lots of extra water : Whenever you enter a desert, bring more water than you expect. While walking in sunshine and 40°C (104°F) heat, the average person loses 900 mL (30 oz) of sweat every hour. In an emergency situation, you’ll be thankful for any water you carried.

  1. Divide the water you’ re carrying among several containers. This minimizes the amount of water you can lose to one leak.
  2. Store the excess in a cool spot in your vehicle, away from direct sunlight.

(c) Bring food that packs the most nutrition in the least size and weight: Energy bars, pemmican, jerky, and trail mix are popular choices. Do your research, experiment beforehand, and be prepared. When wheeled vehicles break down, it’s just your two legs and the path to the next town, and you don’t want to be carrying anything nonessential.
(d) Pack survival equipment: Here are the bare essentials for a survival kit:

  1. Sturdy emergency blankets
  2. Cords or rope
  3. Water purification tablets
  4. First aid kit
  5. Fire starters
  6. Powerful flashlight or headlamp. LEDs last longest.
  7. Knife
  8. Compass
  9. Signal mirror
  10. Goggles and a dust mask or bandana (for dust storms)

2. Survival Tactics :
(a) Become nocturnal: In a desert survival situation, you do not want to be moving around during the day. The cooler night air enables you to travel farther and faster with minimum danger of heat exhaustion. In hot climates, this single decision will save your body about three liters (three quarts) of water per day.
(b) Stay in a shelter during the day: If you don’t have a shaded car to stay in, string cords between a pair of objects in a place that gets shade most of the day. Drape a sturdy emergency blanket over the cords. Place a few pieces of brush on top of the blanket, then cover it with another emergency blanket (this one can be a thin Mylar sheet). The gap of air between the two blankets insulates the shelter, keeping it cooler.
(c) Signal for help : Building a fire is a great way to make a signal, creating smoke during the day and light at night. While in transit, keep a signal mirror in reach to reflect light at passing aircraft or distant cars.
(d) Decide whether to stay in place : If you have a supply of water and someone knows where you are, staying in one place may be your best chance of rescue. Traveling to find help will exhaust you much faster than staying in place, and water loss will cut your survival time way down if you can’t find another supply. That said, if your water supplies are low, you will need to look for more. You cannot expect to survive more than a couple of days if you run out of water.
(e) Find water sources : If there’s been a rainstorm recently, you may find pockets of water in rock outcrops or flat stone surfaces. More often, you’ll need to search for areas with possible groundwater:

  1. Follow animal tracks leading downhill, birds circling around something, or even flying insects.
  2. Walk to the greenest vegetation you can see, especially large plants with wide leaves.

3. Recognizing Dangers
(a) Watch out for signs of dehydration : Many people make their journey much harder by underestimating their water needs. Trying to ration your supply is a mistake that can cost your life. If you notice any of the following symptoms, drink more water:

  1. Urine with a dark color or a noticeable smell.
  2. Dry skin
  3. Dizziness
  4. Fainting

(b) Rest if you experience heat exhaustion : If you feel lightheaded or nauseous, or if your skin feels cool and clammy, seek shade immediately. Rest and treat yourself as follows:

  1. Remove or loosen your clothing
  2. Sip a sports drink or slightly salty water (about 5 mL salt per liter water /1 tsp per quart).
  3. Apply wet cloth on your skin to aid cooling evaporation.

(c) Stay away from dangerous animals : Most mammals and reptiles will stay away from you, especially if they are alone. Follow the same practice and be aware of your surroundings to avoid accidentally cornering something.

EXERCISES

A. Choose the correct answer :

1. The strait that separates Europe from Africa is the

  1. Palk Srait
  2. Bering Strait
  3. Strait of Gibraltar
  4. trait of Magellan

2. A large portion of Africa lies in the

  1. desert
  2. tropics
  3. temperate region
  4. marshy land

3. The area in a desert where water can be found is called a/an

  1. pond
  2. well
  3. depression
  4. oasis

4. The Sudd is a

  1. lake
  2. swamp
  3. gulf
  4. cape

5. The largest lake in Africa is

  1. Lake Chad
  2. Lake Tana
  3. Lake Victoria
  4. Lake Tanganyika

B. Identify who I am

1. i am a country through which the Tropic of Capricorn passes: Namibia.
2. I am the southernmost tip of Africa: Cape of Good Hope.
3. I am a snow-capped mountain near the equator: Mt. Kilimanjaro.
4. I am the longest river of Africa: Nile.
5. I am a river that flows into Lake Chad: The Chari.
6. I am a lake that does not lie in the Great Rift Valley of Africa: Lake Victoria.
7. I am a river that flows through the Namib Desert: Okavango

C. Match the following:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 2

D. Give geographical reasons

Question 1.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa.
Answer:
It was difficult to explore Africa because of deserts like Sahara which have severe heat and dry conditions, the undulating plateaux, non-navigable rivers, extensive equatorial forests, swampy lands and poisonous insects.

Question 2.
The rivers of Africa are not very suitable for navigation in their lower course.
Answer:
The rivers have many rapids and waterfalls making them unfit for navigation.

Question 3.
The river Nile flows through a desert and yet has water throughout the year.
Answer:
River Nile has water throughout the year because its source is Lake Victoria which lies in the rainy equatorial region.

E. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Give the latitudinal extent of Africa and explain why it is mostly a tropical continent.
Answer:
Latitudinal extent of Africa is 37°N to 35°S. Africa is known as mostly tropical continent because a large portion of Africa lies in the Tropics, the Tropic of cancer (23 1/2° N) in the North and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2° S) in the South.

Question 2.
Name three great explorers connected with the African continent.
Answer:
David Livingstone, who discovered Victoria Falls in 1855. Mungo Park followed the course of the river Niger. Henry Morton Stanley traced the course of the river Congo from Lake Tanganyika to its mouth.

Question 3.
Name the major mountain ranges of Africa.
Answer:
The Atlas Mountains lie in north-western Africa. They are young fold mountains consisting of three parallel ranges—the Tell Atlas in the north, the High Atlas in the middle, and the Sahara Atlas in the south. The highest peak in the Atlas Mountains is Mt Toublkal, which remains snow-capped most of the year.

Question 4.
Name the lakes found in the Great Rift Valley.
Answer:
The lakes found in the Great Rift Valley are Lake Malawi, Lake Mobutu, Lake Edward and Lake Turkana.

Question 5.
How much time does it take the cocoa tree to yield cocoa pods ?
Answer:
An evergreen tropical plant, the cocoa tree grows to a height of 4 to 9 m. It begins to yield cocoa pods after about 5-7 years. Cocoa pods grow on the trunk and main branches. Each pod is about 18-25 cm long and contains pulp with beans.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
Elaborate on the achievements of the great explorers in opening up the continent of Africa.
Answer:
Explorers like David Livingstone discovered Victoria Falls. Mungo Park discovered the course of river Niger. Henry Morton Stanley traced the source of river Congo from Lake Tanganyika to its mouth.

Question 2.
Name the major physical divisions of Africa. Describe any one.
Answer:
Africa can be divided into the following physical divisions: the Atlas Mountains, the low central plateau, the high plateau of the south, the Great Rift Valley, the Nile and Congo-Zaire Basins, and the coastal plains.

  1. The Atlas Mountains lie in north-western Africa. They are young fold mountains.
  2. There are three parallel ranges – the Tell Atlas in the north, the High Atlas in the middle, and the Sahara Atlas in the south. The highest peak in the Atlas Mountains is Mt Toubkal, which remains snow-capped most of the year.
  3. The low central plateau extends from the Atlantic Coast in the west to the Nile Valley in the east. The Sahara Desert forms a part of this plateau. This desert extends from the Atlantic in the west to the Red Sea in the east, and covers an area of 8.6 million sq.km.
  4. The Great Rift Valley of Africa is a special physical feature of the southern plateau. It is a long narrow valley formed as a
    result of vertical cracks that developed because of the movements within the earth. It extends for a total distance of 5,000 km from Lake Malawi to the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aqaba to the Dead Sea in Jordan.

Question 3.
Describe the three important deserts found in Africa.
Answer:
The three important deserts are Sahara, The Namib, The Kalahari.
Sahara is part of the low Central Plateau. It is the largest desert in the world covering the area of 8.6 million square km.
The Namib, desert runs along the Western Coast in South-West Africa.
Kalahari desert lies in the Southern part of Africa forming part of High Plateau of South Africa.

Question 4.
What is a rift valley? How is it formed?
Answer:
The Great Rift Valley is a long narrow valley formed as a result of vertical cracks that developed because of movements within the earth. It extends for a total distance of5,000 km from Lake Malawi to Red Sea and the Gulf of Aqaba to Dead Sea in Jordan. Many freshwater lakes, such as Malawi, Tanganyika, and Turkana are found here.

Question 5.
Give an account of the major lakes of Africa.
Answer:
Lake Victoria is the largest lake of Africa. The river Chari flows into Lake Chad. Lake Tanganyika is one of the longest freshwater lake in the world. Other large lakes in Great Rift Valley are Malawi, Mobutu, Edward and Turkana.

G. Map work:
On a blank outline map of Africa, mark the following:

  1. The Cape of Good Hope
  2. The Drakensberg Mountains
  3. The Victoria Falls
  4. The Atlas Mountains
  5. The Nile River
  6. The Libyan Desert
  7. The Suez Canal

Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 3

H. Picture Study

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 4
This is a photograph of Victoria Falls.
Question 1.
Name the explorer who discovered it.
Answer:
David Livingstone discovered Victoria Falls in 1855.

Question 2.
On which river is this fall located ?
Answer:
Victoria Fall is located on Zambezi River.

LET’S DO SOMETHING

On a blank outline map of Africa

(a) Mark with brown lines the Atlas and the Drakensberg Mountains.
(b) Shade with yellow and label the Sahara Desert and the Kalahari Desert.
(c) Shade with light brown the plateau region of Africa, the Ethiopian and Adamawa Highlands.
(d) Colour with blue and label neatly all the surrounding water bodies, oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, and straits.

Answer:
Do it Yourself.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia: Climate and Natural Vegetation

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia: Climate and Natural Vegetation

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A few regions of South-west Asia receive winter rainfall from the temperate cyclones that originate over the Mediterranean Sea. (tropical cyclones, temperate cyclones, north-east winds, south-east winds)
  2. The Mediterranean climate is ideally suited growing citrus fruits, (equatorial, warm temperate east coast, Mediterranean, tropical monsoon).
  3. The tropical rain forests of Asia are dense and impenetrable, (steppes, mangrove forests, monsoon forests, tropical rain forests)
  4. About one-third of the land area of Asia is covered with forest.
  5.  Thermal electricity is produced by burning coal and petroleum.

B. Match the following

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 Asia Climate and Natural Vegetation 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 Asia Climate and Natural Vegetation 2

C. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
When does most of Asia receive maximum rainfall ? Give a reason for your answer.
Answer:
Most of the Asia receives maximum rainfall in the months of April, May and June. In summers, most of Asia has an average temperature of about 32°C. The hot air over the land rises and creates an area of low pressure. There is high pressure in the surrounding seas and oceans. So there is movement of warm moisture-laden onshore winds which are called monsoons. These winds cause heavy rainfall.

Question 2.
Name any two countries that experience Mediterranean climate.
Answer:
Syria, Turkey, Lebanon and Israel experience Mediterranean climate.

Question 3.
Explain how the climate of the cold temperate regions of Asia has affected the :

  1. Vegetation
  2. Wildlife

Answer:

  1. Vegetation of the cold temperate regions of Asia — These regions experience long severe winters with heavy snowfall and very short, cool summers with light rainfall. So the natural vegetation has adapted very well to the climate. The evergreen softwood trees of the region are conical in shape and have needle-like leaves. They are called coniferous trees as they have cones in which they bear their seeds. The common tree species are pine, fir, spruce, larch and cedar. The forests are also called as taiga.
  2. Wildlife — Several small to medium sized animals such as the fox, sable, bear, mink, lynx and squirrel are found here which have fur over their bodies to protect them from cold weather.

Question 4.
Name some wildlife species found in the taiga region, the tundra region, and the tropical deciduous forests of Asia..
Answer:
Wildlife species found in the taiga region are fox, sable, bear, mink, lynx and squirrel. Wildlife species found in the tundra region of Asia are polar bears, reindeer, foxes, seals and walruses.
Wildlife species found in the tropical deciduous forests of Asia are rhinoceros, elephants, bears, deer, apes, lions, tigers, leopards, etc.

Question 5.
Trees cannot grow of survive in the regions beyond the Arctic Circle in Asia. Why ?
Answer:
Trees or forests cannot grow or survive in the regions beyond the Arctic Circle in Asia because this region has long severe winters and the frozen subsoil which do not permit the growth of trees and this region is, therefore, devoid of forests.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
Identify the main factors that affect the climate of Asia. Explain any two of them.
Answer:
The Main factors that affect the climate of Asia are :

  1. Size and latitudinal extent — Asia is the largest continent with a large east-west extent. Also, it stretches across the torrid, temperate and frigid heat zones of the earth.
  2. Distance from the sea — Many parts of Asia are far away from the maritime influence of the seas and oceans and experience extreme conditions and continental climate. Places closer to the’Coasts enjoy equable or maritime climate.
  3. Relief features — like mountain ranges of Asia extend in the east-west direction and form barriers to the moisture laden winds and the cold winds.
  4. Wind — Moisture bearing winds from the south and cold winds of the north affect the climate of the places.
  5. Ocean Currents — The cold Oya Siwo and the warm Kuro Siwo ocean currents affect the temperatures of the coastal regions of Japan.

Question 2.
Describe the climatic conditions in Asia from October to March.
Answer:
From October to March, Asia experiences winter season as the northern hemisphere receives the slanting rays of the sun because of the tilt of the earth’s axis. The temperature falls to 0°C and even below freezing point in many parts of the northern Asia. The air over the land is cold and heavy and sinks causing high pressure. The surrounding oceans and seas ! have higher temperature and lower pressure so the cold air
moves from land (high pressure) to sea (low pressure). These winds are dry and hence most of the Asia receives no winter rainfall except South-East Asia, Japan, South-Eastern India i and parts of Sri Lanka, where the same winds cross the seas
and pick up moisture. A few regions of South-West Asia receive winter rainfall from the temperate cyclones that originate over the Mediterranean Sea.

Question 3.
Write about the Mediterranean climate experienced in Asia.
Answer:
The Mediterranean Climate in Asia is characterized by warm, dry summers and cool, wet winters.
Since these areas experience drought-like conditions in summer, the natural vegetation has adapted to the climate by developing long roots and spongy barks. The evergreen vegetation of oak, acacia, laurel, chestnut, walnut and olive trees is common. Orchards of citrus fruits such as lemons, and oranges, vineyards and farm grains have replaced the natural vegetation. In the absence of natural habitat, not much wildlife is found. Mostly domesticated animals such as donkeys, cattle and sheep are found.

Question 4.
Describe each of these forests :

  1. Tropical deciduous
  2. Equatorial rainforest.

Answer:

1. Tropical deciduous forests — They are found in tropical monsoon climate. These areas have hot wet summers with heavy rainfall and cool dry winters. Tropical deciduous forests are also called as monsoon forests. They have hardwood, broad-leaved trees which shed their leaves, in the dry season, usually in winter. Teak, Sal, shisham and mango are the common tree species. These thrive in regions of heavy rainfall. Grasses and thorny bushes grow in drier regions. Elephants, rhinoceros, bear, deer, apes, lion tiger, leopard, etc are some of the wildlife species found here.
Such forests are found in India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Thailand, Myanmar, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and Southern China.

2. Equatorial rainforest — Such forests are found in equatorial climate where the temperatures are high of about 28-30°C and rainfall occurs all year round. Such climatic conditions have resulted in dense, hardwood forests with broad-leaved tree species such as mahogany, ebony, rosewood, cinchona, coconut and rubber. There are lianas, creepers and climbers, tall grass, ferns and bamboos that grow between the tall trees, which makes the forests dense and impenetrable. The forests are dark and gloomy as very little sunlight reaches the ground owing to the tall trees whose branches spread out, forming a canopy. Mostly arboreal or tree-dwelling animals such as monkey, apes and colourful birds are found. Reptiles such as lizards, snakes, crocodiles and insects are found in the swampy floors of the forests. Large animals such as elephants and wild cats are only found in the outskirts as the forest interior is too dense.
Such forests are found in countries located close to the equator like Malaysia, Indonesia, and Southern Philippines.

Question 5.
How has modernization changed the natural vegetation of the Mediterranean and steppe regions ?
Answer:

  • Mediterranean region — Due to modernization, most of the natural vegetation has been replaced by grain farms, orchards of citrus fruits such as lemons and oranges and vineyards.
  • Steppes region (Temperate Grassland) —Vast areas of grasslands have been converted into rich farmlands that grow wheat, barley and other food grains.

Question 6.
How are forests useful to the people of Asia?
Answer:
About one-third of the land area of Asia is covered with forest. Some of these forests provide hardwood, bamboo, sandalwood and camphor. They also provide other valuable forest products such as lac, resin, turpentine, honey, medicinal plants and herbs. Natural rubber is obtained from the latex of the rubber tree. The evergreen rainforest of the equatorial region and the monsoon forests of the tropical regions of Asia are the chief sources of these products.
Softwood forests yield softwood for making paper, pulp, newsprint, matchsticks and synthetic fibers such as rayon. These are obtained from trees such as birch, pine, cedar and fir, which grow in the taiga or coniferous forests region of northern Asia, especially Siberia.

Question 7.
Give an account of the mineral resources of Asia.
Answer:
Asia has vast deposits of different types of minerals such as iron ore (India, Malaysia, China, Russia, Japan, the Philippines, North Korea), coal (China, India, Kazakhstan, Russia), bauxite (India, Indonesia, Russia), and petroleum (Saudi Arabia, United Arab Emirates, Bahrain, Kuwait, Iran, Iraq, Malaysia, Indonesia, China, Russia).

E. Map study
On an outline map of Asia, mark the following:

  • area affected by the monsoons
  • regions of equatorial climate
  • regions of Mediterranean climate
  • areas under the steppes

Answer:
(a) Area affected by the monsoons

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 Asia Climate and Natural Vegetation 3
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 Asia Climate and Natural Vegetation 4

F. Picture study

Question 1.
Identify the animal seen in the photograph.
Answer:
Yak

Question 2.
In which climatic region of Asia can you find this animal ?
Answer:
Temperate or mid-latitude Desert region of Asia.

Extra Questions

Question 1.
Write a short note on summer conditions in Asia.
Answer:
From April to June, the sun rays fall directly over the northern hemisphere. In June, it shines overhead the Tropic of Cancer, so most of the continent of Asia, except the extreme northern parts beyond the Arctic Circle is warm with an average temperature of 32°C. Most of the Asia receives maximum rainfall in these months.

Question 2.
Why is Siberia so sparsely populated ?
Answer:
Siberia is sparsely populated as the climate here is very cold. Winters are long and severe with heavy snowfall which the summers are short and cool.

Question 3.
Write a short note on the tropical or hot desert climate and the natural vegetation and wildlife found there.
Answer:
Tropical or hot desert climate prevails in Arabia, Iran and the Thar desert in India and Pakistan. These regions experience very hot dry summers and very cold winters. The daily and annual ranges of temperature are very high and the areas receive less than 25 cm of rainfall annually.
As climatic conditions are harsh, vegetation is scarce and only thorny bushes, shrubs, cacti and clumps of dry grasses are found scattered in the region which is largely bare and devoid of vegetation. Date palms are found in the oases. Camels, horses, mules, gazelles, insects and lizards are some of the wildlife species found in the deserts.

Question 4.
What type of climate do China, Japan and Korea experience?
Answer:
China, Japan and Korea experiences warm temperate eastern margin or China type climate. It is similar to monsoon type except that the winters are colder. Snowfall occurs in winters while rainfall occurs in summer.

Question 5.
Which is the most common domesticated animal in Tibet ? What kind of climate is found in the Plateau of Tibet and the Gobi Desert ?
Answer:
Yak is the most common domesticated animal in Tibet. Temperate (or mid-latitude) desert climate is found in the Plateau of Tibet and the Gobi Desert. Very little rainfall, very cold winters with temperatures below the freezing point and very hot summers is found.

Question 6.
What increases the commercial value of forests in cool temperature eastern margin climate ?
Answer:
Oak, beech, maple and birch are the main trees and their occurrence in almost pure stands and predominance of only a handful of species greatly increase the commercial value of these forests.

Question 7.
List the major types of climate of Asia.
Answer:
The major types of climate of Asia are :

  1. Equatorial climate
  2. Tropical monsoon climate.
  3. Tropical or hot desert climate. .
  4. Warm temperate eastern margin or China type climate.
  5. Temperate or mid-latitude desert climate.
  6. Mediterranean climate
  7. Cool temperate eastern margin climate
  8. Temperate grassland or steppe climate
  9. Cold temperate or taiga climate
  10. Arctic or tundra climate.

Question 8.
What are the different types of vegetation found in varied climatic conditions of Asia ?
Answer:
The different types of vegetation in Asian climate include dense evergreen hardwood forests, tropical deciduous forest, thorny bushes, coarse short grasses, evergreen softwood trees and mosses and lichens.

9. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The areas away from the coasts experience continental (extreme), climate while places closer to the coasts experience maritime (equable) climate.
  2. World’s highest surface temperature of 71°C has been recorded in Dasht-eLut in Iran.
  3. Mawsynram in Meghalaya receives the heaviest rainfall in the world.
  4. Verkhoyansk in Russia is the coldest region in Asia with an average temperature of-51 °C. ’
  5. Most of the Asia receives no rainfall in winter.
  6. Convectional rainfall occurs almost daily around 4 o’ clock in equatorial climate region of Asia.
  7. Latex is the milky sap of rubber tree which is collected and used to make rubber for commercial purposes.
  8. The equatorial (tropical) rainforests are different from the rainforests of the Amazon and Zaire basins because of their nearness to the sea.
  9. India has tropical monsoon climate and tropical deciduous (monsoon) forests.
  10. Date palms are found in the Oases in hot deserts.
  11. The Gobi Desert stretches across large parts of Mongolia and China.
  12. Yak is one of the most commonly domesticated animals in the temperature desert regions of Asia.
  13. The two-humped Bactrian camel is a well-known animal of temperate grassland or steppe.
  14. The temperate grassland region of Central Asia is called steppe.
  15. The forests of the cold temperate regions, have coniferous trees with needle like leaves.
  16. The coniferous forests in cold temperate climate are called as Taiga.
  17. The treeless plains in the Arctic climate are called Tundra.

Map Skills
On a physical map of Asia, show the different types of climate and natural vegetation
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 Asia Climate and Natural Vegetation 5

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – Rise of Kingdoms and Republics

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – Rise of Kingdoms and Republics

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics Chapter 7 Rise of Kingdoms and Republics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 History & Civics Geography Biology Chemistry Physics Maths

Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. More powerful territories in the 6th century were referred to as Mahajanapadas.
  2. In monarchy kingship was hereditary.
  3. Magadha emerged as the most powerful kingdom in North India in the sixth century BC.
  4. Alexander the Great invaded India in 326 BC.
  5. Porus impressed Alexander by his bravery and wisdom.
  6. A new school of art called Gandhara developed, as a result of Alexander’s invasion of India.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 3

III. Long Answer type Questions:

Question 1.
What were the main advantages that helped Magadha to emerge as the most powerful kingdom?
Answer:
With the help of following advantages Magadha emerged as the most powerful kingdom

  1. The presence of natural resources helped Magadha’s rise to power in the 6th century BC.
  2. Rich deposits of iron ore contributed to the making of effective iron weapons and agricultural tools.
  3. Due to strategic locations of both the capitals, Rajgriha (Rajgir) and Pataliputra, it was difficult for any rival to capture these cities.
  4. The Magadhan rulers had well-organised, efficient and powerful almies, which consisted of elephants, horses and chariots.
  5. The Magadhan territory being fertile, produced surplus food.
  6. The Magadhan rulers gained immensely from trade and commerce.
  7. The rivers like Ganga, Son, etc. provided waterways.

Question 2.
What policy did Bimbisara follow to extend his territories?
Answer:
Bimbisara extended his territories through conquests and marriages. He married the daughter of the king of Kosala and received the province of Kashi as dowry. The ruler of Kosala
thus became his friend. He also married the Lichchavi princess of Vaishali and thereby extended his friendship ties in this region. His third wife was the daughter of a chieftain of Punjab. Infact, Bimbisara was the first Indian king who brought a large part of Northern India under a unified political control.

IV. Short Answer type Questions:

  1. What is meant by the term Janapada ?
    Ans. The meaning of word ‘Janapada’ is the place where people put their pad or feet. The Janapada consisted of many villages and towns.
  2. Name the three most important Mahajanapadas.
    Ans. Kosala, Magadha, Avanti.
  3. Name the king who conquered Anga ?
    Ans. Bimbisara conquered Anga.
  4. Name the Magadhan king who killed his father ?
    Ans. Ajatashatru killed his father Bimbisara.
  5. Name a few towns that grew up in early days.
    Ans. Kasbi, Rajgriha, Vaishali, etc.
  6. Name the territories conquered by Bimbisara and Ajatashatru.
    Ans. Anga, Kosala, Vaishali, etc.

V. Give reasons why

  1. Bimbisara married princesses of his neighboring kingdoms.
    Ans. Bimbisara married princesses of his neighboring kingdoms to extend his territory.
  2. Deposits of iron in Magadha helped it become a powerful kingdom.
    Ans. Rich deposits of iron ore in Magadha contributed to the making of effective iron weapons and agricultural tools.

Textbook Keywords

  1. Janapadas: They were large states that grew in India as a result of wars and conquests. The word means the place where people place their feet.
  2. Mahajanapadas:  They were the powerful Janapadas. There were sixteen Mahajanapadas.
  3. Shakyas and Lichchhavis: They were the name of democratic republics ruled by representatives elected by the people.
  4. Gandhara School of Art: An Indo-Greek school of art that grew in India as a result of cultural contact with the Greeks.

Additional Questions

A. Fill in blanks.

  1. The pastoral Aryan tribes of the Early Vedic Period roamed about in search of new pastures. In the Later Vedic Period they began to cultivate the land.
  2. Large kingdoms were known as Janapadas and the more powerful among these were known as mahajanapadas.
  3. The four powerful kingdom in the Later Vedic Period were Vatsa, Avanti, Kosala and Magadha.
  4. The first important king of Magadha was Bimbisara.
  5. Alexander invaded India during the reign of the Magadha
  6. Dhana Nanda was overthrown by Chandragupta Maurya.
  7. Ambhi the ruler of Taxila, offered to help Alexander to defeat Porus.
  8. Alexander’s invasion led to the establishments of four different trade routes by land and sea.
  9. India’s cultural contact with the Greeks led to the development of a style of art known as the Gandhara School of Art.
  10. The power of the small states in north-western India was shattered by Alexander’s invasion.

B. Match the following.

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 4
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 5
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 6

C. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
State the reasons for the emergence of the mahajanapadas.
Answer:
Surplus production, increased prosperity and the desire to expand further are the reasons for emergence of the mahajanapadas.

Question 2.
How many mahajanapadas are mentioned in the religious texts of the 6th century BCE?
Answer:
There are sixteen manhajanpadas are mentioned in the religious texts of the 6th century BCE.

Question 3.
How did the conquest of Anga benefit Magadha?
Answer:
The conquest of Anga brought the river port of Champa under his control of Magadha. The rich deposits of iron or found in this region contributed to the development of a strong and stable economy for Magadha.

Question 4.
Why was Alexander unable to conquer Magadha?
Answer:
Alexander was unable to Conquer Magadha because his army refused to advance any further. The army was war-weary and homesick and was not willing to face the powerful army of Magadha.

Question 5.
Mention briefly the effects of Alexander’s invasion.
Answer:
The effects of Alexander’s invasion were following.

  1. His invasion led to the establishment of four different trade routes by land and sea.
  2. Alexander’s historians have left dated records of his campaigns.
  3. The cultural contact with the Greeks led to the growth of the Indo-Greek School of Art known as Grandhara school of Art.

D. State whether the following are true of false.

  1. Magadha belonged to the Iron Age.
    False
  2. Alexander was the king of Rome.
    False
  3. The capital city of Magadha was Pataliputra.
    True
  4. Mahapadma Nanda was the last king of the Nanda dynasty.
    False
  5. Ambhi and Porus were allies.
    False

F. Picture study.
This is a painting of two important kings who became friends after war.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Rise of Kingdoms and Republics 7

Question 1.
Can you identify the two rulers in this painting ?
Answer:
Alexander and Porus are the two rulers in the painting.

Question 2.
Give an account of the earlier developments that led to this event.
Answer:
Porus was the ruler of the area lying between the rivers Jhelum and Chenab. Ambhi offered to help Alexander to defeat Porus. Porus fought heroically but was defeated. Fie was captured and brought before Alexandar who asked him how he would like to be treated. Porus replied ‘As one king should treat another king’ Alexandar was so impressed with reply that he set Pours free and they became friends.

Question 3.
Name the most powerful kingdom in India during this time. Which dynasty ruled this kingdom?
Answer:
Magadha was the most powerful kingdom in India during this time. Nanda dynasty ruled this kingdom.

Question 4.
Who overthrew the last ruler of this dynasty ? Name the empire established by him.
Answer:
Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the last ruler of Nanda dynasty. He established Maurya Empire.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • The chain of justice is said to be a chain installed by Jahangir. It was made of pure gold with 60 bells attached to it, between the palace and the banks of the river Yamuna. Anyone could ring the bell and seek justice.
  • Engineer King is the name by which Shah Jahan is known, as his patronage of architecture is one of the most important characteristics of his reign.
  • Shahjahanabad was a new capital city build by Shah Jahan. Now, it is known as Old Delhi.

Time To Learn

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Taj Mahal, a symbol of love, shows a variety of cultural influences.
  2. Jahangir installed a chain of justice for the seekers of justice.
  3. The treaty of Purandhar was signed between Mughals and Rajput ruler Jain Singh.
  4. The original name of Nur Jahan was Mehrunnisa.
  5. Bijapur was annexed in AD 1686.
  6. Aurangzeb reimposed Jazia and pilgrimage tax.
  7. Guru Tegh Bahadur, ninth Sikh guru, was executed on Aurangzeb’s order.
  8. The Sikhs were organised into a military force called the Khalsa.

II. Match Column A with Columb B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 2

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 3

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. Jahangir left the administration in the hands of his queen,Nur Jahan.
    True.
  2.  Nur Jahan’s influence was good and lasting for theMughal Empire.
    False.
  3. Shah Jahan had to fight for the throne.
    True.
  4. Shah Jahan married Mumtaz Mahal, in whose memory the built the Taj.
    True.
  5. Shah Jahan died in AD 1666, as a captive in the fort of Agra.
     True.
  6. Aurangzeb had friendly relation with the Rajputs and theMarathas.
     False.
  7. The Sikhs were hostile to the Mughal Emperor after the execution of the ninth Sikh guru.
    True.
  8. Aurangzeb died in 1707 in the Red Fort at Delhi.
    False.
  9. Aurangzeb reimposed .
    True.

IV. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Jahangir is sometimes called a mixture of opposites. Discuss.
Answer:
Sometimes Jahangir was needlessly cruel and inflicted punishments disproportionate to the offence committed. For this combination of good qualities and bad qualities of his character some historian have rightly called him as ‘the mixture of opposites’.

Question 2.
How did Jahangir deal with the European traders? Name two travellers who visited Jahangir’s court.
Answer:
Jahangir was on good terms with the Portuguese traders. He gave them some trade concessions.Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe, visited Jahangir’s court.

Question 3.
The age of Shah Jahan is the Golden Age of Mughal rule. Do you agree? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
Yes, The age of Shah Jahan is the Golden Age of Mughal rule. The points describing are as follows:

  1. During the regin of Shah Jahan, there was undisturbed peace within the country. There were no foreign threats and Shah Jahan too devoted most of his time in maintaining peace and order in the country. Trade and commerce flourished bringing in lots of wealth. The land was fertile and revenue flowed into the treasury.
  2. Shah Jahan carried out many works of public welfare. Roads, canals, bridges, sarais, etc., were constructed for the welfare of the people. Similarly, during the famine and plague he did a lot to relieve the people of their sufferings.
  3. Shah Jahan had a natural love for magnificence, which was reflected in the buildings that he constructed. His reign is, in fact, called the Golden Age of the Mughal Architecture. One of the most important buildings constructed by him is the Taj Mahal, which was built in the memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal.

Question 4.
Describe the religious policy of Aurangzeb. What were its results?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s religious policy had two aspects i.e:

  1. To promote the tenets of Islam and to ensure that the people led their lives accordingly.
  2. To adopt anti-Hindu measures.

The religious fanaticism of Aurangzeb overshadowed his virtues. His reversal of Akbar’s policy of religious toleration resulted in weakening the entire structure of the Mughal empire. It led to several conflicts and wars in different parts of the country.
These conflicts were:

  1. Conflict with the Jats
  2. Conflict with the Satnamos
  3. Conflict with the Sikhs
  4. Conflicts with the Rajput’s
  5. Conflict with the Marathas.

All these rebellions destroyed the peace of the empire, disrupted its economy, weakened the administrative structure, diminished its military strength, led to the failure of Aurangzeb to make any impact. Ultimately all these contributed to the downfall of the Mughal enterprise.

Question 5.
Who were the Sikhs? How did they emerge as a political power?
Answer:
Khalsa’s were the sikhs.
Open wars started between the Sikhs and the Mughals after Ninth Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur was executed on Aurangzeb’s order. Aurangzeb and his successors had to face continous trouble from the sikhs. After Aurangzeb’s death, his successors failed to check the rising power of the Sikhs. The Sikhs gradually emerged as a political power.

Question 6.
Briefly describe aurangzeb’s clash with : (a) the Rajputs, (b) the Marathas, (c) the Sikhs.
Answer:
(a)
The Rajputs were not well treated by Aurangzeb. Raja Jai Singh and Raja Jaswant Singh were kept away from the court at Delhi. Raja Jai Singh was a loyal general but he was suspected and insulted after the escape of Shivaji.
(b)
Conflicts started between the Mughals and the Marathas over the conquest over the conquest of Bijapur.
(c)
The relations between the Sikhs and the Muslims were already strained because of Guru Arjan Dev’s execution at the hands of Jahangir for helping his rebel son. From then onwards, the Sikhs had become the enemies of the Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Guru and son of Guru Tegh Bahadur, continued the policy of his father. He organised the Open wars started between the Sikhs and the Mughals.

Question 7.
Why do you think Aurangzeb reimposed some taxes?
Answer:
Aurangzeb reimposed Jazia and pilgrimage tax because of his othodox relious policies.

Question 8.
Explain the factors responsible for the decline of the Mughal empire.
Answer:
The factors responsible for the decline of the Mughal empire are:

  1. Aurangzeb’s Faulty Policies: Aurangzeb followed an orthodox religious policy. He reimposed Jazia and pilgrimage tax. Thus, he antagonised not only the Hindus but also the Muslims. He also made enemies of communities like the Jats, Sikhs and the Marathas.
  2. Aurangzeb’s Deccan Policy: The conquests of Bijapur and Golconda made the empire too big to be administered efficiently. Moreover, Aurangzeb’s long stay in the Deccan (almost 25 years) neglected the administration of his empire in the North. His absence also helped the rise of the Maratha power.
  3. Weak Successors: Aurangzeb’s successors were incompetent and weak, and they could not suppress the revolts or control the nobles. They become too ambitious, and independent. Eventually, the governors of the Deccan, Awadh and Bengal declared themselves as independent rulers.
  4. Empty Treasury: Aurangzeb maintained a large standing army. But his long wars in the Deccan caused a big drain on the state treasury. Thus, after the death of Aurangzeb (AD 1707), the treasury became empty and the later Mughal rulers were unable to pay the soldiers and officers and meet their expenses.

V. Write a short note on 

Question 1.
Aurangzeb’s Deccan Campaigns
Answer:
Aurangzeb wanted to crush the growing powers of the Maratha’s. As these people were very strong and courageous and they also did not accept the over lordship of the ruler. This empire was also very vast and prosperous, so Aurangzeb wanted to have it under his control.

Question 2.
Abdali’s invasion on India
Answer:
Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded India several times between 1747 and 1767. He gave a crushing defeat to the Marathas in 1761 in the third Battle of Panipat. The Marathas could not regain their past power ever again.

Additional Questions
(Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Nur Jahan became the virtual ruler of the Mughal empire.
  2. During the final years of Jahangir’s reign, there was a power struggle between Nur Jahan and Shah Jahan.
  3. Shah Jahan’s reign is often referred to as the Golden Age of the Mughal empire.
  4. Aurangzeb spent the first half of his reign in the North and the second half in the Deccan.
  5. Aurangzeb spent the last twenty six years of his reign fighting against the Marathas and the Sultanates of Bijapur and Golconda.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 6

 

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The foundations laid by Akbar/Babur/Humayun were so strong that Jahangir did not have any major problems maintaining the empire.
Ans. The foundations laid by Akbar were so strong that Jahangir did not have any major problems maintaining the empire.

2. Shah Jahan built the magnificent Agra Fort/Taj Mahal/ Red Fort in the memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.
Ans. Shah Jahan built the magnificent Taj Mahal in the memory of his wife Mumtaz Mahal.

3. Shah Jahan built a new city called Fatehpur Sikri/ Daulatabad/Shahjahanabad.
Ans. Shah Jahan built a new city called Shahjahanabad.

4. Aurangzeb’s reign can be roughly divided into four/ three/two
Ans. Aurangzeb’s reign can be roughly divided into two periods.

5. One of the most serious challenges faced by Aurangzeb came from the Sikhs/Marathas/Rajputs in the Deccan.
Ans. One of the most serious challenges faced by Aurangzeb came from the Marathas in the Deccan.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Jahangir defeated the Rana of Mewar.
     True.                                                                              ’
  2. Jahangir is said to have installed a chain of justice.
    True.
  3. The Peacock Throne was taken to Persia by Nadir Shah.
    True.
  4. The Jama Masjid is said to be the most perfect of Jahangir’s buildings.
    False. Correct: The Jama Masjid is said to be the most perfect of Shah Jahan’s buildings.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Why did Jahangir not face any major problems in maintaining his large empire?
Ans. The foundations laid by Akbar were so strong that Jahangir did not have any major problems maintaining the empire.

2. Name Jahangir’s son who rebelled against him.
Ans. The rebellion of his eldest son, Khusrau.

3.Why is Shah Jahan known as the Engineer King?
Ans.Shah Jahan is known as Engineer King due to his work in the field of architecture. During his time magnificent buildings were constructed which are remembered still now. Some of the finest examples of monuments during his reign are — the magnificent Taj Mahal at Agra, the Moti Masjid at Agra Fort and the dignified Jama Masjid at Delhi.

4. Which fort did Shah Jahan build in the new city of Shahjahanabad?
Ans.Red Fort.

5. Who succeeded Shah Jahan as the Mughal emperor?
Ans.Shah Jahan’s third son, Aurangzeb.

6. State any one major cause of the decline of the Mughal empire.
Ans.He spent too much money on military expeditions and building magnificent monuments which drained the royal treasury.

7. What was the nature of Aurangzeb’s Rajput policy in the early years of his reign?
Ans.During the early years of his reign, Aurangzeb followed Akbar’s policy of friendship with the Rajputs. He granted the Rajput rulers high mansabs and tried to win their support.

8. What were the objectives of Aurangzeb’s Deccan policy?
Ans.Aurangzeb wanted to crush the growing powers of the Maratha’s. As these people were veiy strong and courageous and they also did not accept the overlordship of the ruler. This empire was also very vast and prosperous, so Aurangzeb wanted to have it under his control.

9. Why did the annexation of Bijapur and Golconda prove harmful for the Mughal empire?
Ans.It became too vast and unwieldy and brought the Mughals into direct contact with the Marathas.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Jahangir fulfilled Akbar’s unrealized imperial dreams by conquering Mewar. Explain.
Answer:
Jahangir sent an expedition against Rana Amar Singh of Mewar who, like his father, Rana Pratap Singh, had refused to acknowledge the overlordship of the Mughal emperor. The Rana of Mewar was defeated. He pledged his loyalty to Jahangir, who treated him with courtesy. He allowed the Rana to retain his territory and appointed his son, Kama, as a military commander in the imperial army. The submission of Mewar established the paramountcy of Mughal authority in Rajputana and marked the fall of the last bastion of Rajput resistance.

Question 2.
To what extent were Jahangir’s Deccan campaigns successful?
Answer:
Jahangir sent an expedition under Prince Khurram who managed to recapture the fort of Ahmadnagar. Prince Khurram was honoured with the title of Shah Jahan (Lord of the World). The war continued and by the end of Jahangir’s reign, Ahmadnagar reasserted its independence and remained outside Mughal control.

Question 3.
What qualities did Nur Jahan possess to make her worthy of her name?
Answer:
Nur Jahan means-light of the world and according to her name she possessed all the qualities like she was intelligent, beautiful, educated and cultured. She was a good poet and designer too. She designed new varieties of fabrics and jewellery. She was also strong and courageous and helped Jahangir to take decisions in matters related to the government.

Question 4.
Nur Jahan was very ambitious and eventually became the power behind the throne. Explain.|
Answer:
Nur Jahan was ambitious and soon became the power behind the throne. Jahangir consulted her on all matters concerning the affairs of the government. Nur Jahan soon became the virtual ruler of the Mughal empire. Graudally, Jahangir left the administration in her hands and spent his time indulging in his addiction to wine and opium. Coins began to be issued jointly in the name of Jahangir and Nur Jahan. Nur Jahan used her positioin and influence to appoint her father, brother and other relatives to important posts in the administration. Her niece, Mumtaz Mahal, was married to Jahangir’s third son, Khurram (Shah Jahan).

Question 5.
Shah Jahan’s reign was an age of splendour and cultural brilliance. In this context, discuss:
(a) Taj Mahal
(b) Red Fort
Answer:
(a) Taj Mahal: It took more than 20 years to complete the Taj Mahal, at a cost of one crore rupees at that time. It is made of pure white marble and is lavishly decorated with semi-precious stones and lace-like screens. It is an octagonal monument with a splendid dome and four slender minerals, set in a beautiful garden,
(b) Red Fort: This building is made of red sandstone. There are many splendid buildings inside the Red Fort. The Diwan-i-Khas is the most impressive. Its ceiling is made of silver. Its walls are made of marble and decorated with gold and semi-precious stones.

Question 6.
Why did Aurangzeb’s Deccan campaign against the Marathas prove to be a ruinous misadventure? What were the long-term consequences of this campaign?
Answer:
The Deccan campaign proved to be a ruinous misadventure that showed lack of political wisdom.
Suspicious by nature, he did not trust his sons and nobles. His officials were like puppets on strings. Aurangzeb’s supervision of every department often bordered on interference. His policy of discrimination between his subjects on grounds of faith also made him unpopular. He was a man of unshakeable convictions and tried very hard to reach his goals by doing what he thought was right. As he lay on his deathbed, he wrote several letters to his son. In one letter he wrote, ‘I know not who I am or why I came into the world … I have not done well for the country or its people . . . I know what punishment will be in store for me to suffer.’ During the first half of the 19th century ce, the great Mughal empire decayed and disintegrated. The Mughal emperors lost their power and glory and their vast empire finally shrank to a few square miles around Delhi.

Question 7.
Why did Aurangzeb fail as a ruler?
Answer:
Aurangzeb possessed qualities of an ideal man but he was failure as a ruler. Like his father he was not able to follow the policy of religious tolerance and friendship. His list of enemies not only included Rajput’s but also Sikhs and the Marathas. He was also very suspicious by nature, which was not liked by his officials. His policy of discrimination with his subjects also made him an unpopular ruler.

Question 8.
Briefly explain the negative aspects of Shah Jahan’s reign that eventually led to the decline of the Mughal empire.
Answer:
The policy of religious tolerance and friendship with the Rajputs was continued by Shah Jahan.Behind the glamour and the glitter of Shah Jahan’s reign, however, lurked some disturbing shadows.

  1. Shah Jahan’s military expeditions to Central Asia and Kandahar and the extravagant building projects drained the royal treasury.
  2. To improve the country’s financial resources, heavier taxes were imposed on the peasantry.
  3.  According to Bernier, the French traveller, many villages were mined and left desolate. This setback to agriculture became a major cause of the decline of the Mughal empire.
  4.  The failure of military campaigns during this period was an indication of the decline of the military might of the Mughals.
  5. The administrative machinery had grown in size but corruption had crept in.

G Picture study:

This is a picture of a 17th century-CE monument, built in red sandstone by a Mughal emperor.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Jahangir, Shah Jahan and Aurangzeb 7

Question 1.
Identify the monument.
Answer:
Red Fort.

Question 2.
Where is it located?
Answer:
Old Delhi.

Question 3.
Who built this monuments?
Answer:
ShahJahan.

Question 4.
Name two important buildings inside this monument.
Answer:
(a) Diwan-i-Khas
(b) Diwan-i-Aam

Question 5.
Mention its important features.
Answer:
Important features are as:
The Diwan-i-Khas is the most impressive. Its ceiling is made of silver and its walls are made of marble decorated with gold and semi-precious stones.
Diwan-i-Aam was Shah Jahan’s Peacock Throne. It had a canopy supported by twelve emerald pillars, each bearing two peacocks studded with gems. This golden throne, which took 7 years to complete, was taken to Persia by Nadir Shah in 1739 ce.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

DISCUSS

Collect rainfall data from the website of Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) for Mumbai, Chennai, Delhi and Kolkata and discuss how rainfall patterns have changed in the last 5 years.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 4 Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming 1
Mumbai receives maximum rainfall in 2016 and minimum rainfall in 2012.
Chennai receives maximum rainfall in 2013 and minimum rainfall in 2012.
Delhi receives maximum rainfall in 2013 and minimum rainfall in 2014.
Kolkata receives maximum rainfall in 2013 and minimum rainfall in 2014.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS :

We need to understand that global warming, climate change, acid rain and ozone depletion are all happening because of our dependence on fossil fuels and CFC-based technologies. Therefore, the need of the hour is to reduce
our dependence on them.
What can you do in this regard ?
Answer:
The ways to reduce our dependency on them are :

  1. By using materials such as bamboo, recycled metal and organic paints in construction of buildings.
  2. By using solar energy to heat and light homes and offices.
  3. By using clean fuel like CNG and unleaded petrol to run vehicles.
  4. By making changes in everyday practices such as
    (a) choosing to travel in public vehicles, biking, walking or using a car pool.
    (b) buying energy efficient household appliances.
    (c) replacing light bulbs with CFL bulbs.

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks.

1. Carbon dioxide and methane, nitrous oxide, water vapour and CFCs are examples of greenhouse gases.
2. Global Warming is a major cause of climate change.
3. The increase in earth’s temperature is called global warming.
4. The layer of atmosphere where ozone is found is called stratosphere.
5. The ozone layer protects us from the ultraviolet rays of the sun.

B. Write True or False.

1. Aeroplanes flying in the sky cause global warming.
Answer. True.

2. Forest fires do not cause global warming.
Answer. False.
Correct : Forest fires do cause global warming.

3. Ozone is found in the troposphere.
Answer. False.
Correct : Ozone is found in the stratosphere.

4. The ozone layer is harmful for humans and animals.
Answer. False.
Correct : The ozone layer is not harmful for humans and animals.

5. CFCs and BFCs protect the ozone layer.
Answer. False.
Correct : CFCs and BFCs deplete the ozone layer.

C. Choose the correct option.

Question 1.
Oxygen/Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas.

Question 2.
Use of fossil fuels/hydroelectricity causes global warming.
Answer:
Use of fossil fuels causes global warming.

Question 3.
Cattle release methane / CFCs.
Answer:
Cattle release methane.

Question 4.
Global warming will reduce/increase climate change.
Answer:
Global warming will increase climate change.

Question 5.
The ozone layer is found between 20 and 40/40 and 60 km above the earth’s surface.
Answer:
The ozone layer is found between 20 and 40 and above the earth’s surface.

D. Match the following

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 4 Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming 2
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 4 Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming 3

E. Answer the following questions in brief 

Question 1.
Why do we call carbon dioxide a greenhouse gas?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide is called greenhouse gas because it absorbs
Infrared radiations. A greenhouse gas is a gas in an atmosphere that absorbs and emits radiation within the thermal infrared range.

Question 2.
Name two more greenhouse gases.
Answer:
Methane and water vapour are other greenhouse gases.

Question 3.
How will countries like Bangladesh and Thailand be affected by global warming?
Answer:
Climate change will cause melting of polar ice caps with huge chunks of icebergs several kilometres across breaking off from the mainland. This is already taking place around the Arctic and in Antarctica. The result will be an increase in the volume of ocean waters. Countries like Bangladesh, Thailand and Malaysia and the Southeastern parts of USA like the States of Florida and Louisiana would be swamped by flood water along its shores.

Question 4.
What is responsible for causing a hole in the ozone layer?
Answer:
The release of large amount of CFCs or chlorofluorocarbons and BFCs or bromofluorocarbons by industries are responsible for the formation of holes in the ozone layer.

Question 5.
Name some diseases that are caused due to exposure to ultraviolet rays of the sun.
Answer:
Exposure to UV rays can cause sunburn, cataract, hair loss, skin cancer and birth deformities.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs 

Question 1.
How is the greenhouse effect created?
Answer:
The ‘greenhouse effect’ takes place when the ‘sun’s rays heat the earth. This heat is absorbed by the surface of the earth and some of it is radiated back into the atmosphere. However, a part of this heat is trapped in the atmosphere by gases such as water vapour, carbon dioxide and methane while the rest escapes into space. These gases let in light from the sun but prevent the heat from escaping like the glass walls of a greenhouse. They also act like a mirror and reflect back to the earth some of the trapped heat energy. The more greenhouse gases (GHGs) are present in the atmosphere, the more heat is trapped, subsequently making the earth warmer.

Question 2.
State three causes that have led to an increase in greenhouse gases in the atmosphere.
Answer:
The causes that have led to the increase in greenhouse gases (GHGs) are:

  1. Increase in industries
  2. Increase in deforestation
  3. Increase in atmospheric pollution due to emissions from chimneys of factories
  4. Increase in natural disasters like floods, volcanic eruptions and earthquakes that release large amounts of smoke, dust and gases into the atmosphere
  5. Increase in the methane content of the atmosphere because of large-scale cattle rearing, since cattle release methane
  6. Expansion of cies and towns

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘global warming’?
Answer:
The greenhouse gases in the atmosphere trap a part of the heat radiated back by the earth, increasing its temperature. The increase in the earth’s temperature is called global warming.

Question 4.
State some anthropogenic (man-made) causes of global warming.
Answer:
Man-made causes of global warming ‘include burning of fossil fuels, cutting of forests, using refrigerators, air conditioners, aerosols, factories belching smoke, increase in methane content of the atmosphere because of large-scale cattle rearing, expansion of cities and towns.

Question 5.
Global warming does not augur well for our planet earth. State at least three reasons to support this statement.
Answer:
Global warming is not good for our planet as

(a) It will worsen climate changes leading to food shortages.
(b) Many forms of wildlife are now’ at risk and since climate change and deforestation are causing disappearance of their habitat.
(c) Climate change will cause melting of polar caps resulting in the increase in the volume of ocean waters.

G. Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 4 Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming 4

Question 1.
Which region of the world is seen in the picture?
Answer:
Antarctica and Arctic Poles.

Question 2.
How is it going to be affected by global warming?
Answer:
Global warming causes melting of polar ice-caps with huge chunks of icebergs several kilometres across breaking off from the mainland resulting in increase in volume of ocean waters. The increase in the volume of ocean waters will result in rising of sea levels. Countries like Bangladesh, Thailand and Malaysia and the Southeastern parts of USA like the States of Florida and Louisiana would be swamped by flood water along their shores.

LETS DO SOMETHING

Question 1.
Imagine that you are an active member of the Greenpeace. Write a two-page appeal addressed to the Prime Minister of India stating why you think that increasing number of vehicles on roads will be disastrous to the nation in the long run.
Answer:
August 25, 2017,
Mr. Narendra Modi,
Prime Minister of India
Dear Prime Minister Modi,

It is with great optimism and hope that we are following news about the meeting you will have with U.S. President Trump, at this critical time in our planet’s future. 2017 is the year for making decisive commitments towards tackling climate change together. As the elected leader of the world’s largest democracy, and a country with much to lose from run away climate change, the hopes of 1.3 billion Indian citizens rest on you. Along with them, and the millions of people worldwide who will inevitably be affected by decisions made this year, we hope you will successfully push the United States, and the developed world, towards an ambitious and equitable global agreement to rein in climate change.

We congratulate you on setting new and ambitious renewable energy targets, and urge a focus on decentralized renewable energy as the fastest, most cost-effective way to tackle India’s energy poverty challenge. At the same time, we believe that continued growth in coal power is not in the interests of common Indians as it imposes a significantly higher cost on people’s health, livelihood of communities and the environment, and will prove far more expensive than renewable energy. We hope you will secure much-needed support from global partners, civil society and investors – including the United States administration – to realize these renewable energy goals.

Being the member of the Greenpeace, I would like to bring in your kind notice that I found that the number of vehicles has increased considerably in India in the past five years, which is one of the sources of pollution. In the recently released World Health Organization (WHO) report on pollution, the situation of the city is not so encouraging in terms of pollution in the air.
Due to increase in number of vehicles over the years, the city roads witness frequent traffic congestions, but above all, the vehicles emitting pollutants are affecting environment badly. The recently-released WHO report shows that India has 2.5 microns of diameter (PM2.5) concentration of 68 micrograms particulate matter per meter cube. However, the WHO guideline values for particulate matter is 10 microgram per meter cube for PM2.5.

“The air pollution consists of many pollutants, among other particulate matter. These particles are able to penetrate deeply into the respiratory tract and therefore constitute a risk for health by increasing mortality from respiratory infections and diseases, lung cancer, and selected cardiovascular diseases,” says the WHO report.

New patients with respiratory problems are constantly being reported in hospitals. Recently, the many big cities are witnessing a flow of traffic on city roads consisting high end cars too. Moreover, as far as public transport is concerned, the government-owned low floor buses could be seen plying on the road emitting black smoke causing problems for pedestrians, bikers and other roadside vendors. Mr. Avinash Chowdhry senior member of Greenpeace took out a rally of school children at Statue

Circle (Mumbai) on the eve of World Environment Day said, “Men’s health is determined by his environment. He is greatest enemy of his own health. Environmental pollution is one of the reasons of cardiovascular diseases, hypertension and diabetes.”
Collaboration between the government and civil society is essential to secure a bright future for India and the planet. Greenpeace looks forward to working with the Indian government on our common objective of ensuring clean, affordable renewable energy for all.

Sincerely,
VeenuGopal,
Interim Executive Director, Greenpeace

Question 2.
Make a collage using pictures or a chart to show the various causes and consequences of global warming.
Answer:
You can take idea from the picture given below and can make a collage of your own.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 4 Greenhouse Effect and Global Warming 5

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Minerals and Ores

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Minerals and Ores

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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POINTS TO REMEMBER

  • Minerals are substances that are naturally present in the earth and are not formed from animal or vegetable matter.
  • An ore is a naturally occurring solid material from which a mineral, generally a metal, can be profitably extracted.
  • Minerals are generally classified as metallic and non-metallic minerals.
  • Metallic minerals include iron ore, uranium, bauxite, manganese, gold, silver and copper.
  • Non-metallic minerals include limestone, mica, coal and petroleum.
  • Mining is the process of taking out minerals and other substances from the earth.
  • There are two types of mining—surface mining and underground mining.
  • It is important to conserve minerals as they take thousands of years to form.

IMPORTANT TERMS

Ferrous minerals : Minerals which contain iron, such as iron ore, manganese and chrome.
Non – ferrous minerals : Minerals that do not contain iron, such as gold, silver, copper and lead.
Ore : A naturally occurring solid material from which a particular mineral, usually a metal, can be profitably extracted.

THINK AND ANSWER

How would our life be affected if coal, petroleum and natural gas were exhausted in the next 30 years ?
Answer:
If all the exhaustible natural resources are exhausted by human activities, then the survival of living beings would not be possible. Actually, fossil fuels are the most important source of energy for us today.
They are concentrated source of energy and give offheat and light on burning. The heat can be used to cook food or to run engines such as automobile engines. It can be used to generate electricity as in powerhouse where the most common fuel used is coal. Everything will not be available.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Conventional energy resources—coal and petroleum— are very important for a country. Therefore, we need to be careful while using them.
Can you suggest some ways by which we can reduce the use of conventional energy resources ?
Answer:

  1. Use more energy efficient by using energy saver products like LED lights etc.
  2. Use Bicycles for shorter distances instead of cars or bikes.
  3. Switch off the lights when not required.

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. All rocks are composed of minerals.
  2. Minerals are obtained by a process called mining.
  3. Metallic minerals are generally found in igneous rocks.
  4. Ferrous minerals contain iron.
  5. Peat has very little carbon.

B. Write true or false

1. Metals can be profitably extracted from ores.
Answer. True.

2. Metallic minerals are generally found in sedimentary rocks.
Answer. False.
Correct — Metallic minerals are generally found in igneous rocks.

3. Bauxite is the lightest metal.
Answer. True.

4. Bituminous coal has the highest carbon content.
Ans. False.
Correct — Anthracite coal has the highest carbon content.

5. Mica is a metallic mineral.
Ans. False.
Correct— Mica is a non-metallic mineral.

C. Match the columns
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Minerals and Ores 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Minerals and Ores 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Minerals and Ores 3

D. Answer the following questions in brief:

Question 1.
What is a mineral ?
Answer:
Minerals are substances that are naturally present in the earth and are not formed from animal or vegetable matter.

Question 2.
Name a few minerals.
Answer:
Diamonds, quartz, topaz, gypsum, iron, copper, bauxite, zinc, gold, silver, manganese, etc.

Question 3.
What is an ore ?
Answer:
An ore is a naturally occurring solid material that contains a large amount of a particular material, using a metal which can profitably extracted, eg. iron ores, copper ores, bauxite (from which aluminium is extracted) zinc, etc.

Question 4.
What is the main difference between a ferrous and a non- ferrous mineral ?
Answer:
Ferrous minerals :

  1. These minerals contain iron.
  2. They have high tensile strength.
  3. Examples: Iron ore, manganese and chrome.

Non-ferrous minerals :

  1. These minerals does not contain iron.
  2. They have low tensile strength.
  3. Examples: Gold, silver, copper and lead.

Question 5.
Mention any two characteristics of iron ore.
Answer:
The most important mineral in the world is iron ore. It is known for its hardness, strength and ductility (it can be made or stretched into a thin wire).

Question 6.
Mention the different types of iron ore.
Answer:
There are four different types of iron ores-haematite, magnetite, limoniteandsiderite.

Question 7.
What is surface mining ?
Answer:
When the top layer of soil is removed and the rocks that lie underneath are extracted with the help of heavy machinery is called surface mining. Surface mining is done to extract minerals that are found close to the surface such as coal and some kinds of sedimentary rocks like limestone and mica.

Question 8.
Mention any three uses of coal.
Answer:
Coal is used for various purposes like cooking, heating and producing electricity, and in various industries.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
Differentiate between metallic and non-metallic minerals.
Answer:
Metallic Minerals :

  1. These minerals contain metals, which are hard substances.
  2. These minerals found in igneous rocks.
  3. Examples: Iron ore, bauxtie, manganese and copper, etc.

Non-metallic Minerals :

  1. These minerals does not contain extractable metals.
  2. These minerals found in sedimentary rocks.
  3. Examples: Coal, potash, limestone, gypsum, mica, etc.

Question 2.
Give an account of iron ore production in the world.
Answer:
Iron is the main metal used for making steel, which is used in almost all industries. The main producers of iron are China (42%), Australia (22%), Brazil (10%), South Africa, etc. India produces about 4% of total iron ore. Main states in India are Odisha, MP, Jharkhand, AndhraPradesh, Tamil Nadu.

Question 3.
Give any three uses of copper.
Answer:
Uses of copper are :

  • Copper is mainly used in making electric and telephone wires.
  • It is also used in making pipes and coins.
  • Alloys such as brass and bronze are made using copper.

Question 4.
What are the two types of mining ? Elaborate on the differences between the two.
Answer:
The two types of mining are:

  1. Surface mining — It is the removal of top layer of soil and rocks, to extract the minerals lying underneath is called surface mining. Surface mining is done to extract minerals that are found close to the surface such as coal and some kinds of sedimentary rocks like limestone and mica.
  2. Underground mining — It is the one in which a shaft is dug which is long, narrow passage and vertically deep into the ground and then people or heavy machinery is sent down, the tunnels are blasted using dynamite to extract the minerals, eg. gold, silver, etc.
    In surface mining, the top layer of the soil is removed, large pits or holes are dug and the rocks that lie underneath are extracted with the help of heavy machinery. These pits are called open cast mines or quarries. Open cast mining is a common form of coal mining in India.
    In surface mining, trees and other natural vegetation are destroyed. Surface mining is done to extract minerals that are found close to the surface such as coal and some kinds of sedimentary rocks like limestone and mica.
    Underground mining: In underground mining, a shaft, which is a long, narrow passage, is dug vertically deep into the groud. People and machinery are then sent down through this shaft. Sometimes, after after descending into the shaft, tunnels are blasted into the earth with the help of dynamite. Then the men and machines move about through these tunnels to take out things such as coal, gold, silver, tin, lead and copper. Underground mining causes sinking of the land, underground water pollution and surface water pollution, among other things.

Question 5.
Describe the importance of minerals.
Answer:
Minerals play an important role in our daily lives. A number of things of our daily use such as door knobs, latches, window grills, utensils, etc. are made of minerals. Iron and its alloy, steel, is used in making bridges, buildings, and wide range of machines and tools, which have made our life simpler and easier. Copper wires are used in our electrical and electronic gadgets. Copper tools and utensils are also widely used. Gold and silver are used in making our jewellery. Aluminium extracted from bauxite is used to make aeroplanes, our fastest means of transport. Mica is used in electrical goods and limestone is used as cement in constructing houses and buildings.
Coal, petroleum and natural gas are important energy or power resources. Coal is used for various purposes like cooking, heating and producing electricity, and in various industries. Once petroleum is refined, we obtain different products such as petrol, diesel, kerosene, cooking gas, etc. Vehicles such as cars, trucks, trains, etc. run on petrol and diesel. Kerosene is used for cooking and other purposes. Products such as plastics and cosmetics are also made from petroleum. Natural gas is used as a fuel in cars, buses, etc. and hence are important for the agricultural sector as well.

Question 6.
Why is it important to conserve minerals ?
Answer:
Minerals are important for every country for its development and they need to be conserve because :

  1. Minerals are non-renewable resources which once used can’t be obtained again as it takes thousands of years to form.
  2. Workable minerals are in insufficient quantities (just 1 % of the earth’s crust)
  3. We are rapidly consuming mineral resources that requires millions of years to be renewed.
  4. Industry and agriculture depend upon minerals and the substances manufacture from them.

F. Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Minerals and Ores 4
Look at this picture of the inside of an iron and steel industry and answer the following questions

Question 1.
Which are the major producers of iron and steel in Asia?
Answer:
China produces almost 45 per cent of the total world production of Iron and Steel.

Question 2.
Which states in the south of India produce a large quantity of iron and steel ?
Answer:
Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu are the major iron-producing states.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia — Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia — Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A mountain range in South-west Asia that separates Asia from Europe : Caucasus mountains.
  2. I am a plain formed by the rivers Ob, Yenisei, and Lena :Great Siberian Plain or Northern Lowlands.
  3. An area of inland drainage into which the Amu Darya and, Syr Darya drain : Turan Plain.
  4. I am a small zone from which several mountain ranges appear to radiate out: Pamir Knot.
  5. A plateau that lies between the Alborz and Zagros mountain ranges : Plateau of Iran.

B. Match the following

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 2

C. State whether the following are true or false

1. Together with Europe, Asia is often referred to as Eurasia.
Answer. True.

2. Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War I.
Answer. False.
Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War II.

3. Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean are the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Yamuna.
Answer. False.
Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean are the Ob, the Yenisei and the Lena.

4. The Karakoram Range is a short range, which extends south-eastwards from the Pamir Knot between the Kunlun and the Himalayas.
Answer. True.

5. The Deccan Plateau of India lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
Answer. True.

D. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Name the geographical features that border Asia in the north, south, east, and west.
Answer:
To the West of Asia are Ural mountains and the Caspian Sea. To the South-West are the Caucasus Mountains. To the North of Asia lies Arctic Ocean. To East lies the Pacific Ocean and to the south of Asia is Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term ‘archipelago ? Give two examples from the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Archipelago means a group of islands. Two examples in the Pacific Ocean are Japan and Philippines.

Question 3.
Name the rivers of the Great Siberian Plain.
Answer:
Rivers Ob, Yenisei and Lena have together built the Great Siberian Plain.

Question 4.
What kind of plateau is the Plateau of Tibet ?
Answer:
The Plateau of Tibet is an inter-mountain plateau, i.e., a plateau located between mountain ranges. It lies between the Kunlun and the Himalayas. The Plateau of Tibet, is also called the ‘Roof of the World’ as it is the highest flat land in the world.

Question 5.
In which country of Asia are the Mesopotamian plains situated ?
Answer:
The Mesopotanian plains are situated in Iraq.

E. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Describe the location of Asia.
Answer:
Asia lies almost wholly in the northern and eastern hemisphere. It is separated from Europe by the Ural Mountains and the Caspian Sea in the west and the Caucasus Mountain in the South-West. The Arctic Ocean lies to the north of Asia, the Pacific Ocean to the east and the Indian Ocean to the South of Asia.
Latitudinally, Asia extends from 10°S to 80°N, (8690 km). It east-west extent is 9,700 km, from 25°E to about 170°W. There are 48 independent countries in Asia. They vary in size from Russia, China and India which are the largest to Singapore, the Maldives and Bahrain which are the smallest. Some countries consist of group of islands like Japan, Philippines and Indonesia.

Question 2.
Describe the Northern Lowlands of Asia.
Answer:
The Northern Lowlands of Asia extend from the Ural Mountains in the west up to the Bering Strait in the north-east. These lowlands are traingular in shape and widest in the west. Lying between the Arctic Ocean in the north and the Central Mountains in the south,they form the world’s greatest continuous plains. Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean — Ob, Yenisey and Lena, have together built this plain. These marshy and swampy lowlands are also called as the Great Siberian plain. The lower courses and mouths of the rivers freeze in winter. So, water coming from the upper courses in warmer latitudes spreads out over large part of the plains. Another low lying land exists south of the Siberian Plains in Central Asia called as the Turan Plain. This plain is an area of inland drainage and is drained by rivers AmuDarya and SyrDarya.

Question 3.
Explain why the Pami Knot is called so. Write briefly about the mountain ranges that radiate from the Pamir Knot.
Answer:
Pamir Knot is called so because many mountain ranges appear to radiate outwards in different directions from this small zone. To the east of the Pamir Knot extend the Kunlun mountains and to the north extend the Tien Shan mountains. The Himalayas emerge from the Pamir Knot towards south-east direction. The Karakoram Range extends south-eastwards from the Pamir Knot between the Kunlun and the Himalayas. To the west of the Pamir Knot lies the Hindu Kush Range
and to the south-west radiates the Sulaiman Range.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the Arabian Plateau and the Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
The Arabian Plateau in Asia is steeper in the west but gently slopes eastwards towards the Persian Gulf. It is a dry plateau as it is in the region of low rainfall and has no rivers. It grew in importance to the rest of the world after petroleum reserves were discovered here.
The Deccan Plateau of India lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats. It is steeper and higher along the Arabian Sea in the west but slopes gently towards the Bay of Bengal in the east. A number of rivers flow across this plateau like Godawari, Indravati, Krishna, Kaveri.

Question 5.
Describe the river valleys of Asia.
Answer:
The snow-fed and perennial rivers from the mountains form the river valleys which are very fertile and densely populated. Some of the river valleys of Asia are :

  1. The Mesopotamian plains in Iraq consist of the land between the two rivers – Tigris and Euphrates.
  2. The Ganga – Brahmaputra plains spread across north India and Bangladesh. It is built by the rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra.
  3. Plains in China are built up by the three big rivers — Huang He, Chang Jiang and Si Kiang.
  4. The Manchurian Plain is formed by river Amur.
  5. Plains of Indo-China are formed by the rivers Mekong and Menam.
  6. Large plain in Myanmar is formed by river Irrawaddy.
  7. Plains of Pakistan and Punjab are built by the river Indus and its five tributaries.

F. Picture study
The mountain peak seen in the picture is the highest peak in the world.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 3

Question 1.
What is the height of this peak ?
Answer:
8850 m

Question 2.
In which mountain range does it lie ?
Answer:
Himalayas

G Map study
On an outline map of Asia, mark and name the following

  1. Rivers — Amur, Ob, Chang Jiang
  2. Gulfs — Persian Gulf, Gulf of Martaban
  3. Straits — Bering Strait, Strait of Malacca
  4. Seas — Arabian Sea, Caspian Sea, Sea of Japan
  5. Oceans — Arctic, Pacific, Indian
  6. Mountain ranges — Himalayas, Urals, Hindukush
  7. Write ROOF OF THE WORLD and GREAT SIBERIAN PLAIN in appropriate places on the map.

Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 4

Extra Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Eurasia ?
Answer:
The land mass of Europe and Asia as a whole is called Eurasia. (Europe + Asia—Eurasia)

Question 2.
What are perennial rivers ?
Answer:
Perennial rivers are rivers that flow throughout the year, even in the dry season.

Question 3.
Name the five physical regions of Asia
Answer:
Asia is broadly divided into five physical regions

  1. The Northern Lowlands (The Great Siberian Plain)
  2. The Central Fold Mountains and Inter-mountane Plateaux.
  3. The Southern Plateaux
  4. The Great River Valleys
  5. The Island Chains

Question 4.
Which mountain range has some of the world’s highest peaks ?
Answer:
The Karakoram Range

Question 5.
Name the plateaux (plural of plateau) of the Southern Plateaux of Asia.
Answer:
The Southern Plateaux include the Arabian Plateau, the Deccan Plateau, the shan plateau and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 6.
Name the rivers that have built the Great River Valleys of Asia.
Answer:
The Great River Valleys of Asia have been built by the rivers Tigeris, Euphrates, Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Chao Phraya or Menam, Chang Jiang or Yangtze, Huang He and Si Kiang. Small Plains have been formed along the rivers Irrawaddy, Salween, MeKong and Amur.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Island Chains of Asia.
Answer:
A series of island chains lies to the east and south-east of mainland Asia forming archipelagoes (group of islands) in an arc shape. The islands from the tip of the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Pacific Ocean are the Kuril Islands, the Japanese Islands (Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu), the Rhyukyu Islands, the Philippines, and the Indonesian Islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Sri Lanka, the Maldives and the Lakshadweep Islands are in South Asia.

Question 8.
Which is the largest and the smallest country in Asia ?
Answer:
Largest country in Asia — Russia
Smallest country in Asia — The Maldives

Question 9.
Name the following (in Asia)

  1. Most industrialized country –
  2. Highest elevation
  3. Highest Plateau
  4. Lowest point
  5. Deepest sea
  6. Deepest lake
  7. Longest strait
  8. Coldest Place
  9. Warmest place
  10. Number of countries in Asia

Answer:

  1. Japan
  2. Mount Everest (8,850 m)
  3. The Plateau of Tibet (‘THE ROOF OF THE WORLD’)
  4. The Dead Sea (400 m below sea level)
  5. The South China Sea
  6. Lake Baikal
  7. The strait of Malacca
  8. Verkhoyansk, Russia (-70°C)
  9. Dasht-e Lut (Iran)
  10. 48

Question 10.
What are the six regional divisions of Asia ?
Answer:
The six regional divisions of Asia are :

  1. East Asia — It consists of China, North Korea, South Korea, Japan, Taiwan and Mongolia.
  2. North Russia — It includes the Asian part of Russia (Siberia and the Russian far East).
  3. Central Asia — It consists of several landlocked countries like Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyztan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Afghanistan.
  4. South-East Asia — The countries of South-East Asia fall into two different sections. The northern part consists of Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand and Myanmar. The Southern part consists of the island countries of Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Indonesia, East Timor and the Philippines.
  5. South Asia — It consists of India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh and the island country of Maldives. ‘
  6. West Asia — It comprises of Armenia, UAE (United ArabEmirates), Yemen, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Lebanon, Oman, Cyprus, Syria, Turkey, Georgia, Iran, Israel, Jordan, Kuwait, Qatar and Saudi Arabia.

Question 11.
Name some important cities of East Asia.
Answer:
East Asia has some of the world’s busiest cities such as Tokyo, Beijing, Shanghai and Hong Kong.

Question 12.
Which are the two main rivers of Central Asia and why are they important ?
Answer:
The two main rivers of the Central Asia are the Amu Darya and the Syr Darya. The rivers are very important to the Central Asian countries as the region remains quite dry for most of the year. 60% of Central Asia is deserts.

Question 13.
Write a short note on South Asia.
Answer:
South Asia refers to the Southern Asian countries of India, Pakistan, Nepal, SriLanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh and the island country of Maldives. This region is home to about one fifth of the world’s population and is the most densely population region in the world. It is bounded in the north by the Himalayan mountains, to the east by the Bay of Bengal, to the West by the Arabian Sea and to the South by the Indian Ocean. South Asia has a wide variety of natural vegetation and wildlife.

Question 14.
Why is West Asia not densely populated ?
Answer:
West Asia is not densely populated because of its inhospitable climate.

Question 15.
Why is the Plateau of Tibet called the ‘Roof of the World’?
Answer:
The Plateau of Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the World’ as it is the highest flat land in the world at an average height of 4,880 m above sea level.

Question 16.
Which is the highest and the second highest peak in the world and where are they situated ?
Answer:
Mt. Everest (8,850 m) in the Himalayas is the highest peak in the world and Mt K2 or Godwin Austin (8,611 m) in the Karakoram Range is the world’s second highest peak.

Question 17.
Name few glaciers found in Himalayas and Karakoram range of mountains.
Answer:
Siachen glacier Baltoro glacier

Question 18.
Name few passes in the Central Fold Mountains and Inter – Montane Plateaux which allow the movements of goods and people across the mountains.
Answer:
Khyber pass, Bolan pass and Solan pass.

Question 19.
Why did the Arabian Plateau become important to the rest of the world ?
Answer:
The Arabian Plateau became important to the rest of the world after petroleum reserves were discovered here in the 20th century.

Question 20.
Why are the fertile river valleys and plains of Asia and such as the Mesopotamian Plains, the Indo-Gangetic Plains and the Great Plains of China called the cradles of civilization ?
Answer:
This is because the earliest civilization developed along these river banks.

Question 21.
What makes Asia a continent of contrasts ?
Answer:
The outstanding feature of the geography of Asia is the great variety and diversity in physical, cultural and economic characteristics. This makes it a continent of contrasts.

22. Fill in the blanks

  1. Asia lies wholly in the northern and eastern hemispheres.
  2. Together with Europe, Asia is called as Eurasia.
  3. Pacific Ocean lies to the east and Indian Ocean to the south of Asia.
  4. There is a time difference about 11 hours between the Anatolian Plateau (Asia Minor) in the west and the Pacific Coast in the east of Asia.
  5. There are 48 independent countries in Asia.
  6. Asia is the largest continent in the world.
  7. Asia occupies one-third of the total land area and three-fifths of the total population of the world.
  8. USSR broke up into several independent republics in 1991, some of which are in Europe and some in Asia now.
  9. North Asia is divided by a long mountain range known as the Ural Mountains.
  10. Siberia lies in the East of Ural Mountains.
  11. The two main rivers of Central Asia are the Amu Darya and the SyrDarya.
  12. South Asia is the most densely populated region in the world.
  13. The Northern Lowlands (the Great Siberian Plain) are the world’s greatest continuous plains.
  14. The Himalayas emerge from the Pamir Knot in south-east direction.
  15. Mt Everest, the world’s highest peak lies on the border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  16. The Arabian Plateau is a dry plateau as it is in the region of low rainfall and no rivers.
  17. Punjab is also called as the land of five rivers.
  18. The Chang Jiang (Yangtze) is Asia’s longest river.
  19. The Lakshadweep Islands and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in South Asia.
  20. The Maldives is the smallest country in Asia.
  21. The zone from where the mountain ranges appear to radiate outwards in different directions in the Central Fold mountains in Asia is called Pamir Knot.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics Chapter 3 The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 History & Civics Geography Biology Chemistry Physics Maths

Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Indus Valley Civilisation was the Earliest civilisation of India.
  2. Harappa is situated in Sahiwal district in Pakistan.
  3. The Indus Valley Civilisation stood on the bank of river Indus
  4. The largest building discovered at Mohenjodaro is Great Granary.
  5. Bronze metal was used by the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
  6. Indus people used Burnt bricks for constructing buildings.
  7. The Harappan culture came to an end by 1500 BC.

II. Match Column A with Column B
Column A                                                           Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 2

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 3

III. Answer the following questions?
Question 1.
Who discovered the Indus Valley Civilisation and when?
Answer:
Mr. Daya Ram Sahni discovered the ruins of Harappa in 1921. Next year, in 1922 Dr. Rakhal Das Bannerjee discovered the ruins of Mohenjodaro.

Question 2.
What does civilisation mean? Give four characteristics of a civilisation.
Answer:
The stage of development when man looks for more than just fulfillment of his basic needs, is called civilisation.
Characteristics of a civilisation:

  1. Surplus food production
  2. Flourishing of many arts and crafts
  3. Law and order exists
  4. Presence of a government.

Question 3.
Why did the earliest civilisations grow up near rivers?
Answer:
The earliest civilisations grew up on the banks of rivers because of the following reasons.

  1. The rivers provided abundant supply of water for various purposes all through the year.
  2. The lands near the rivers were very fertile, hence good for growing crops.
  3. Rivers provided means of transport and communication.

Question 4.
Name the different sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
Various sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation were —The river valleys had warm and pleasant climate which favoured permanent settlement of population. Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Lothal, Kalibangan, Ropar, Alamgirpur, Banwali, Sutkagendor and others.

Question 5.
Describe the town planning and the drainage system of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
The cities were divided into two parts. The upper part called ‘citadel’ was built on a raised ground. It was inhabited by the upper class and had public buildings such as granaries. The lower part was inhabited by the common people. Each house had a courtyard, several rooms around it, a toilet and a well. All the buildings were built of burnt bricks. Large blocks of houses were built along both the sides of streets.The roads were wide and straight and cut each other at right angles. Smaller streets led to bigger streets. The streets had lamp­ posts. The drainage system was of the highest order ; even many of our present towns do not have such excellent drainage system. House drains were connected to the street drains which joined the main drains which emptied outside the city limits. The drains were covered with stone slabs and had manholes at regular intervals. They were cleaned regularly.The Indus people were veiy conscious of hygiene and sanitation.

Question 6.
Describe the Great Bath. Where has it been found? What was it used for?
Answer:

  1. The Great Bath was a sort of modem swimming pool, discovered at Mohenjodaro. It is an example of excellent engineering’work. It was built of burnt brick. It measures 11 .-88 x 7.01 metres
  2. The lands near the rivers were very fertile, hence good for growing crops.
  3. Rivers provided means of transport and communication.
  4. The river valleys had warm and pleasant climate which favoured permanent settlement of population.

Question 7.
Describe the Great Granary. Where has it been found?
Answer:
The Great Granary was found at Mohenjodaro and it was the largest building discovered there. It was used for storing grains in huge quantities for lean periods. Brick platforms have been found near the granaries which were used for threshing grain. Many two-room shelters have also been found nearby which were perhaps used by labourers. Granaries were built close to river banks to facilitate easier transportation of grains during emergencies.

Question 8.
Describe the religion of Indus Valley Civilisation
Answer:
The Harappans worshiped the pipal tree and humped bull which have been found on hundreds of seals. They also worshiped Mother Goddess which were beautifully depicted as terracotta figurines. The Harappans also worshiped ‘Shiva’ or ‘Pashupati’. A three-faced figure with horns has been found sitting in the posture of a yogi. He is surrounded by a tiger, a rhinoceros, a buffalo, and an elephant. But no temple or any other religious building has been found so far. The Harappans believed in life after death and buried the dead with his belongings.

Question 9.
Name the three social classes of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
The three social classes were:

  1. Rich merchants and priests e. the ruling class.
  2. Small merchants, artisans and craftsmen.
  3. Peasants and labourers.

Question 10.
What were the probable causes which could have brought about an abrupt end to the Indus Valley  Civilisation?
Answer:
There are many reasons attributed to the fall of the Indus Valley Civilisation.

  1. The Harappan cities were destroyed by invaders who were probably the Aryans.
  2. Natural calamities such as floods, earthquakes and epidemics might have destroyed the civilisation.
  3. River Indus might have changed its course and turned the region into a desert.

IV. Give reasons why we say that the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation —

  1. Had a good sense of cleanliness
  2. Carried on trade with Mesopotamia
  3. Produced surplus grains
  4. Had an idea of metallurgy

Answer:

  1. The arrangement of drains, wide roads and houses with toilets and drains attest to their sense of cleanliness.
  2. Mesopotamian seals have been found in Harappan cities and Harappan seals have been discovered in cities of ancient Mesopotamia.
  3. Big granaries and existence of towns prove the fact that they produced surplus food grains.
  4. A bronze figure of a dancing girl has been found. Several other images, weapons, utensils and tools of copper and bronze have also been found. Jewellery made of gold and silver has been found at various sites.

Textbook Keywords

  1. Dwelling houses are buildings, that people live in and but do not use as offices, trading places, etc.
  2. Public building These buildings are used by all the people and are not privately owned.
  3. Granaries were the store houses where the people of Indus valley civilization stored their extra grain. The Great Granary was discovered at Harappa.
  4. Great Bath was a big tank at Mohanjodaro that was probably used by the general public during religious ceremonies. Drainage system It is a process by which water or liquid waste is drained out from an area.
  5. Terracotta It is a reddish-brown clay that has been baked. Seals are the clay tablets used by Harappan merchants to stamp their goods.
  6. Mother Goddess was the female deity worshiped by the people of the Indus Valley civilization. Many smoke- stained clay figures of the Mother Goddess have been found

Additional Questions

A. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The main river of the Harappan civilization was Ravi.
  2. The Great Bath is located in Mohenjodaro.
  3. The main occupation of the Harappan were farming.
  4. The rich wore ornaments made of gold, silver and ivoiy.
  5. The Harappan seals are made of clay, soapstone and copper.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 4
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 5

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The Harappan civilization belongs to the Mesolithic/ Neolithic/Bronze
Ans. The Harappan civilization belongs to the Bronze Age.

2.Lothal/Ropar/Harappa was the first city to be discovered in the Indus Valley region.
Ans. Harappa was the first city to be discovered in the Indus Valley region.

3. The Assembly Hall is in Mohanjodaro/Lothal/Harappa.
Ans. The Assembly Hall is in Mohanjodaro.

4. Wheat/Fish/Barley was the staple food of the Harappans.
Ans. Wheat was the staple food of the Harappans.

5. The neem/banyan/pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred by the Harappans.
Ans. The pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred by the Harappans.

D. State whether the following are true or false.

1. The Harappan cities had an elaborate drainage system.
False.
Correct: The Harappan cities had well planned system.
2. Domestication of animals was the main occupation of the Harappans.
 False.
Correct: Farming was the main occupation of the Flarappans.
3.The Harappans decorated their pottery with various designs.
True.
4.The Harappans built strong boats.
True.
5. The Indus Valley civilization was governed by kings and queens.
False.
Correct: The Indus Valley civilization was not governed   by kings and queens

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What discoveries proved that India had a 4,500-year old urban civilization?
Answer:
The excavations carried out at various sites prove that around 4,500 years ago highly civilized people lived in this region and gave to the world its earliest cities, its first town planning, its first architecture in stone and clay and its first example of sanitary engineering and drainage system.

Question 2.
Why is the Indus Valley Civilization also called the Harappan civilization?
Answer:
The Indus Valley civilization is also called the Flarappan civilizations because the things found in all the sites were very much like the articles found at Harappa.

Question 3.
Why did the Indus Valley people build granaries close to the river bank?
Answer:
All the granaries were built close to the river bank so that the grains could be easily transported with the help of boats.

Question 4.
Give one example to prove that the Indus Valley bronzesmiths were skilled craftspeople.
Answer:
The bronzesmiths made tools, weapons and metal sculptures such as the famous figure of the ‘dancing girl’. They were also engaged in other crafts like brick laying, boat making, stone cutting, masonry and carpentry.

Question 5.
How do we know that the Harappans had trade relations with the Mesopotamians?
Answer:
Trade relations with Mesopotamia have been proved with the discovery of Mesopotamian seals in the cities of the Indus Valley Civilization and Harappan seals in the ancient cities of Mesopotamia.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
How were the Harappan cities planned? Explain briefly the main features of their dwelling houses.
Answer:
The Harappan cities were well-planned. The main streets ran parallel to each other, cut at right angles by smaller, streets, dividing the cities into rectangular blocks. The main roads were straight and very wide. The streets were often paved with baked bricks.Dwelling houses were building that people live in. They were in different sizes. They were made of baked bricks of very good quality. But they not used as office, trading place etc.

Question 2.
With reference to the engineering skills of the Indus Valley people, explain briefly the features of
(1)The Great Bath and
(2) the drainage system
Answer:

  1. The Great Bath: It was important building at Mohenjodero. This building resembled a large swimming pool, It had six entrances,central bathing pool, galleries and dressing rooms. It was probably used by the general public during religious ceremonies.
  2. The drainage system: The people of the Indus valley had an excellent, well-planned drainage system. The Kitchens and the bathrooms had drains connected to the street drains. The street drains ran along the side of the streets and were usually covered. They had manholes at regular intervals. The drainage system proves that the Indus Valley people paid great attention to sanitation and cleanliness.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of

  1. Great Granary
  2. Assembly Hall

Answer:

  1. Great Granary: The Great Granary at Harappa was a large building. Historians believe that it was used to store surplus food grains. There were two rows of granaries. Each row had six granaries.
  2. Assembly Hall: The Assembly Hall was another striking building found in Mohenjodaro. It was a pillared hall with thick walls and 20 pillars made of burnt or baked bricks. This may have been and assembly hall, a prayer hall or a palace.

Question 4.
Describe

  1. The dress and
  2. Ornaments of the Indus Valley people.

Answer:

  1. Dress: People wore cotton and woolen garments. Two- piece dresses were worn by both men and women. The men wore a garment similar to the dhoti while the women wore skirts. The upper garments was a shawl worn around the shoulder.
  2. Ornaments: Both men and women wore ornaments. They wore necklaces, amulets and finger rings. The women also wore a headdress, earrings, bangles, girdles, bracelets and anklets. The rich wore ornaments made of gold, silver and ivory. The poor wore shell, bone and copper jewellery.

Question 5.
Describe the occupation and crafts of the Harappan people.
Answer:
The main occupation of the people of the Indus Valley was farming. Farmers gr«w wheat, barley, fruits and vegetables. They also cultivated cotton. The land was fertile. The second occupation of the people of the Indus Valley was domestication of animals like goat, sheep, buffaloes, elephants, bulls, dogs and cats.The Indus Valley people were excellent potters and skilled crafts people. They made pottery of various shapes and sizes. They also made terracotta. The goldsmiths made gold and silver jewellery, copper smiths made utensils and the bronze smith made tools, weapons and metal sculptures. The people were also engaged in other crafts like brick laying, boat making, stone cutting, masonry and carpentry. Spinning and weaving were important occupations.

Question 6.
Write short notes on the following:

  1. Trade
  2. Seals of the Indus Valley

Answer:

  1. Trade: The Indus Valley people carried on flourishing trade both within and outside India. They traded with countries like Mesopotamia, (Iraq), Persia (Iran) and Afghanistan. Trade was carried on both by land and sea routes. Bullock carts, boats and ships were probably used for transport. A dockyard has been discovered at Lothal.
  2. Seals of the Indus Valley: More than 2,000 seals have been unearthed from various sites. They are generally small, flat, rectangular or square in shape and made of clay, soapstone and copper. They are skillfully carved with figures of humans and animals such as the unicorn, humped bull, goat, tiger, elephant, etc. These seals were probably used by merchants and traders to stamp goods.

Question 7.
The study of objects and artifacts found in the ruins of the Indus Valley cities help us us to form an idea of Harrapan religion. Explain.
Answer:
Some of the objects found in the ruins help us to form an idea of the religion of the Harappans. No temples have been found. Numerous smoke-stained clay figures of a female deity have been found. This was probably the Mother Goddess. A three­ faced figure, seated in a yogic posture and surrounded by various animals is engraved on some seals. The pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred and worshiped. The discovery of a large number of amulets suggests that people probably wore them as lucky charms to ward off evil spirits.

Question 8.
How did the Harappan civilization end?
Answer:
These are some causes of the decay of the Harappan civilization.

  1. The Harappan might have been destroyed by natural calamities like earthquakes, floods.
  2. The climate also began to change and the region became more and more dry like a desert.
  3.  Perhaps the Aryans attacked their cities and destroyed them.
  4. An epidemic or some terrible disease might have killed the people.

G Picture study.

This picture on the right-hand side shows a well-planned ancient city located on the banks of a river.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 6

1. Identify the civilization from the ruins in the picture.
Ans. This picture is about Harappa Civilization.

2. When and by whom were these ruins discovered?
Ans. These ruins were discovered by Dayaram Sahni in 1921.

3.These ruins are an important source of information about the
(a) town planning and
(b) drainage system of this period. Explain.
Ans.
(a) Town planning— The Indus Valley cities were very well- planned. The streets were quite broad varying from a feet to 30 feet in breadth. The streets and roads were straight and they cut one another at right angles. The streets had rounded comers to enable the heavy carts to take a turn easily. Every street had a lighting system. Such a system of town-planning was not to be found at that time anywhere in the world.

(b) Drainage system— The people of the Indus valley had an excellent, well-planned drainage system. The kitchens and the bathrooms had drains connected to the street drains. The street drains ran along the side of the streets and were usually covered. They had manholes at regular intervals. The drainage system proves that the Indus Valley people paid great attention to sanitation and cleanliness.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Europe: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Forest, Minerals & Power Resources

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Europe: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Forest, Minerals & Power Resources

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

THINK AND ANSWER

Why is London at 51°N not so cold in winter as New York at 41°N ?
Answer:
Ans. In the winter, London is wanned by prevailing winds from the south west, warmed by warm water from the Caribbean by the gulf stream, whilst new york has a more continental winter.

Discuss

Discuss the importance of ocean currents and winds for the climate of Europe.
Answer:
Ocean currents : The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds : The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Several factors affect the climate of a place. Similarly, several factors affect the personality and nature of human beings.
Can you name a few factors that affect the nature and personality of people ?
Do you think people can remain unaffected by their surroundings ?
Answer:
(a) The factors that affect the nature and personality of people are:

  1. Environment
  2. Heredity
  3. Culture
  4. Particular experiences

(b) No, people remain affected by their surroundings.
People change their personality and nature according to their surroundings.

EXERCISES

A. Write true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Eastern Europe receives rainfall throughout the year.
Answer. False.
Western Europe receives rainfall throughout the year.

2. Softwood trees such as pine, fir, and spruce are found in the taiga belt.
Answer. True.

3. Mixed forests consist of grass, moss, softwood trees, hardwood trees, and thorny vegetation.
Answer. False.

4. Only mosses, lichens, and small colourful flowers grow in the steppes of Eurasia.
Answer. False.
Only mosses, lichens, and small colourful flowers grow Tundra Vegetation.

5. Wild cats and large fur-bearing animals are not found anywhere in Europe.
Answer. False.
Wild cats and large fur-bearing animals are found in Tundra region.

B. A list of names of wildlife and vegetation species has been provided. Write them in the appropriate columns
given below.
pine, oak, lynx, lichen, myrtle, olive, squirrel, seal, moss, spruce, beech, laurel, penguin, short grass
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 2

C. Choose the correct answer.

1. An ocean current that keeps the coasts of northern Europe frost-free in winter:

  1. Labrador Current
  2. Canary Current
  3. North Atlantic Drift
  4. North Pacific Drift

2. A major part of Europe has moderate climate because it is located in :

  1. the torrid zone
  2. the temperate zone
  3. the frigid zone
  4. none of these

3. Onshore winds that bring rainfall in winter to the countries around the Mediterranean Sea :

  1. the North-Westerlies
  2. the South-Westerlies
  3. the North Polar Easterlies
  4. the North-East Trade Winds

4. A region of extensive evergreen trees, with needle-like leaves and home to small fur-bearing animals :

  1. tundra
  2. Steppes
  3. Taiga
  4. Desert

5. A region well-known for olives, oleander, and orange trees:

  1. western Europe
  2. northern Europe
  3. eastern Europe
  4. southern Europe

D. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
How does the climate of Europe change from :

(a) east to west
(b) north to south

Answer:

(a) east to west — Winters and summers are more severe in the east than in the west. The annual rainfall is highest in the west and decreases steadily eastwards.
(b) north to south — North European countries experience longer, colder winters and shorter, cooler summers than south European countries.

Question 2.
List the factors that affect the climate of Europe.
Answer:
Factors Affecting the Climate of Europe :
Latitude — Most of Europe lies within the temperate latitudes, which are neither too hot nor too cold. Only a small part of the continent lies north of the Arctic Circle in the frigid zone.
Nearness to Water Bodies — Except for eastern Europe, all other parts of Europe are close to the sea. There are oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, straits, and even lakes which have a moderating effect on the climate.
Relief Features — The east-west arrangement of most highlands, especially the Alps, allows the rain-bearing winds to enter places in the interior and cause rainfall there.
Ocean Currents — The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds — The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

Question 3.
How is the vegetation of the Mediaterranean region able to withstand the summer drought conditions ?
Answer:
Mediterranean Vegetaion: The vegetation which consists mainly of trees with thick spongy barks and leaves, and long roots as well as shrubs and bushes with small, waxy leaves and thorns. The long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark help the trees survive in dry summers.

Question 4.
What changes have human beings brought about in the temperate grasslands of Europe ?
Answer:
As large parts of the forest of this region was cutted down and now used for the cultivation of wheat and other cereals. As land development drives animal away from populated areas and changes the condition of environment.

Question 5.
Name a few minerals found in large quantities in Europe.
Answer:
Europe has fairly large deposits of iron ore, coal, petroleum, natural gas, bauxite, zinc, copper, lead, nickel, and manganese.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
Explain how relief features, winds, and ocean currents affect the climate of Europe.
Answer:
The following factors affect the climate of europe:
Latitude — Most of Europe lies within the temperate latitudes, which are neither too hot nor too cold. Only a small part of the continent lies north of the Arctic Circle in the frigid zone.
Nearness to Water Bodies — Except for eastern Europe, all other parts of Europe are close to the sea. There are oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, straits, and even lakes which have a moderating effect on the climate.
Relief Features — The east-west arrangement of most highlands, especially the Alps, allows the rain-bearing winds to enter places in the interior and cause rainfall there.
Ocean Currents —The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds — The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

Question 2.
What is the difference between maritime and continental climates ?
Answer:
Continental climate :
As the name suggests, this climate is experienced in the eastern parts of Finland, Poland, Russia, the Baltic states, the Czech Republic, and Slovakia. Great variations in summer and winter temperatures and low amount of summer rainfall are features of this type of climate. Thus, it is also called the continental climate.
Mediterranean Climate :
As the name indicate, this climate is mainly experienced in the regions bordering the Atlantic Ocean. Since these regions are near the sea, they have warm summers and cool winters, with rainfall through – out the year.

Question 3.
With the help of two examples from Europe, show how the vegetation of Europe is closely related to climate.
Answer:
Though a small continent, Europe has a great variation of climate. The main types of climates are Arctic and Sub-Arctic, west European or maritime, central European, east European, desert, and Mediterranean climates.
The main vegetation types of Europe include tundra vegetation, taiga or coniferous vegetation, mixed vegetation, temperate grasslands or the steppes, and Mediterranean vegetation.

Question 4.
What do the terms ‘tundra’, ‘taiga’, and ‘steppes’ refer to ? Explain each of the terms and state where each is found.
Answer:
Tundra : A vast, flat, treeless Arctic region of Europe, Asia and North America in which the sub soil is permanently frozen.
Taiga : Taiga is the largest terrestrail biome on earth: It extends in a broad band across Europe, North America and Asia to the Southern border of the arctic tundra.
Steppes : A large area of flat unforested grassland in South¬East Europe or Siberia.

Question 5.
How has the wildlife of the tundra adapted to the climate?
Answer:
The wildlife of tundra specially reindeer has wonderfully adopted to the extreme cold. Its thick hair protects it from the cold. Its long, flat hoofs are suited for walking over snow and for digging in the snow to look for buried vegetation.

Question 6.
Why has the area under forest in Europe dropped from 80 per cent to 30 per cent in recent years ?
Answer:
The area under forest in Europe dropped from 80 per cent to 30 per cent in recent years because of cutting down of trees to make and available for cultivation and industries as the continent has high population density. Today there are only three main forested areas—the Scandinavian mountain region, the Alpine mountain region, and the taiga region of Russia. A few mixed forests and Mediterranean forests are also found in southern Europe.

F. Map work.
On the blank outline map of europe do as directed.

  1. Use different colours to show the various climatic regions of Europe.
  2. Mark the areas that have (i) Steppes and (ii) Mediterranean forests.

Answer:

  1. See map on page 104 (Europe: Climate) of your textbook.
  2. See page 106 (Europe : Vegetation) of your textbook.

G Picture study.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 3

Question 1.
In which vegetation belt is this bird mostly found?
Answer:
Temperate Grasslands

Question 2.
Name two other animals from this vegetation belt.
Answer:
Roe dear and the saiga antelope.

Let’s Do Something

Collect pictures and information on the natural vegetation and wildlife of Europe from encyclopaedias and the Internet, and make a scrapbook.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Struggle for Freedom (I)


ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Struggle for Freedom (I)

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The British shattered the self sufficient village economy.
  2. The controversial Ilbert Bill incident took place in 1883.
  3. The Arms Act forbade the Indians from possessing arms.
  4. The President of the first session of the Congress was W.C. Bannerji.
  5. Bal Gangadhar Tilak raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright”.
  6. The three prominent leaders of the Radical Nationalists group were Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal.
  7. Mahatma Gandhi was bom on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar.
  8. Gandhiji’s method of agitation were Satyagraha, boycott and strikes.
  9. The incident at Chauri Chaura took place on 5th February 1922.

II. Match the contents of Column A with those of Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 2

III. State whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. The Congress was started in 1885.
    True.
  2. Unification of India as one political unit was achieved by the Indians themselves.
    False.
  3. The British treated the Indians at par with themselves.
    False
  4. A prominent leader of the Early Nationalist groups was S.N. Bannerjee.
    True.
  5. The religious and social reform ^movement divided the Indians.
    False.
  6. The Home Rule League was formed under the leadership of Tilak.
    True.
  7. Chauri Chaura is a place in Madhya Pradesh.
    False.
  8. Rowlatt Act was passed in 1923.
    False.

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How did unification of India help to bring about a feeling of nationalism among the Indians?
Answer:
Political and administrative unification of India helped in the rise of nationalism. Under the British rule India was united as one political unit. The uniformity in laws and administration gave rise to a feeling of oneness among the people.

Question 2.
How did modern education bring about unity among Indians?
Answer:
Indians who received modem education could now read western thought and literature. They were exposed to the revolutionary changes taking place in the west – the American and French Revolutions. They became aware of the ideas of democracy, equality and nationalism. The reform movement also played an important role. All this brought the people together and created unity among them.

Question 3.
Name two early all-India associations.
Answer:

  1. British Indian Association, 1851.
  2. The Bombay Association, 1852.

Question 4.
Why was the need for establishing an all-India organisation, representing Indian opinion, an urgent necessity?
Answer:
The need for an all India Organisation representing Indian opinion had been felt for a long time, but the immediate reasons which saw its birth, were the repressive policies of the British in the 1870s and the 1880s. In 1883 the controversial Ilbert Bill incident took place. According to it a British or a European in India could be tried by an Indian Judge. The Bill was withdrawn because of the opposition by the British.These events made the need for establishing an all-India organisation, representing Indian opinion an urgent necessity.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the methods of Early Nationalists and Radical Nationalists.
Answer:
The Early Nationalists had faith in the British system of administration and believed that India could develop by staying within the British Empire. They did not demand complete independence but dominion status i.e., autonomy or Swaraj within the British empire. 1905 onwards new trends began to appear in the nationalist movement. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat .Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal were the leaders who brought about this change. They said the aim of Indians should be ‘Swaraj’. They criticised the policies of the Early Nationalists and said people have to rely on their strength rather than “Prayer and Petition”. Tilak raised the famous slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I must have it”.
The methods they suggested to achieve it were:

  1. Involvement and participation of the masses
  2. Reviving popular Festivals to spread Political awakening among people.
  3. New methods of agitation such as hartals and boycott of foreign goods and services.

Question 6.
Which factors contributed to the building up of the feeling of nationalism in India?
Answer:
There are several factors responsible to the building up of the feeling of nationalism in India.
They are :

  1. Discontentment against British Rule.
  2. Political and Administrative Unification.
  3. Economic changes.
  4. Spread of modem education.
  5. Role of newspapers and the press.

Question 7.
List down the aims of the Muslim League.
Answer:
Aims of Muslim League:

  1. To promote loyalty to the government
  2. To protect and advance the interest of the muslims
  3. To ensure that Muslims do not develop the feelings of hostility towards other communities in India.

Question 8.
Describe the provisions of the Government of India Act (1919).
Answer:
The Provincial Legislative Councils were enlarged and a majority of their members were to be elected. A new system called Dyarchy was introduced in the provinces. Under this system some subjects, such as finance, law and order were called reserved subjects and remained under the direct control of the Governor. Other subjects such as education, public -health, local self government were called ‘transferred’ subjects and were to be controlled by ministers responsible to the provincial legislature,

Question 9.
Describe the constructive programme introduced by Gandiji.
Answer:
The social reforms and the constructive programmes introduced by Gandhiji changed the character of the national movement to a mass movement. He worked towards removing untouchability. He also worked for the upliftment of the people living in the villages. He said that the majority of India’s population lived in the villages and hence our country could progress only if there was development in the villages. He encouraged setting up small scale industries in villages. He also popularised Khadi. The Charkha became an important symbol. Gandiji believed that Independence was meaningless without social and economic equality.

V. Picture Study:

(A) This picture shows three Radical Nationalist leaders.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 3

  1. Identify and name them.
    Ans. They are Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal.
  2. Write about the methods which they suggested.
    Ans. They suggested idea of boycott and Swadeshi. They insisted on involvement of the masses.
  3. What was the famous slogan raised by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
    Ans. “Swaraj is my birthright and I must have it.”

(B) Look at the given picture.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 4

  1. Identify and name him
    Ans. Lord Curzon
  2. When did the partition of Bengal take place
    Ans. 1905
  3. What was the real reason behind the partition.
    Ans. To weaken the freedom movement and to create Hindu-Muslim enmity and disunity.
  4. What excuse did the British give?
    Ans. Bengal was too large a province to be governed efficiently.

Additional Questions

Rise of Indian Nationalism
EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Modem Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenge of Foreign domination.
  2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became subtle and systematic.
  3. The Kukas Rebellion was an armed rebellion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.
  4. The English language acted as a link language among the educated Indians.
  5. A.O. Hume laid the foundation of the Indian National Congress in December 1885.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 5

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. ‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Swami Vivekananda/Raja Ram Mohan Roy/Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.
Ans. ‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.

2. Lord Ripon/Lord Lytton/Lord Dalhousie approved the Hbert Bill.
Ans. Lord Ripon approved the Ilbert Bill.

3.The Indian National Congress was established in 1883/1885/ 1890.
Ans. The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.

4.The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 62/72/82
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 72 delegates.

5. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by C. Bannerjee/Surendranath Banerjea/A.O. Hume.
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by W.C. Bannerjee|

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Revolt of 1857 had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
    True.
  2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians togethe
    False.
    Correct : Western education and modem ideas bring the Indians together.
  3. Racial arrogance and racial discrimination by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
    True.
  4. The Ilbert Bill had to be amended as the European reacted violently to it.
    True.
  5. O. Hume was not supported by nationalist Indian leaders.
    False.
    Correct: A. O. Hume was supported by nationalist Indian leaders.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Define nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism may be defined as a devotion and loyalty to one’s own nation, patriotism. It is also the policy or doctrine of asserting the interest of one’s own nation vie .ved as separate from the interests of others nations or common interest of all nation.

Question 2.
Name any two Western scholars who researched the Indian past and rediscovered its rich heritage.
Answer:
European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Prinsep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage.

Question 3.
How did the British economic policies in India transform India into an agricultural colony.
Answer:
British economic policies in India had deliberately transformed India into an agricultural colony. India had become a supplier of British raw materials and a market for British manufactured products.

Question 4.
Why was the Ilbert Bill introduced and by whom?
Answer:
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which proposed that Indian judges be allowed to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes.

Question 5.
When and where was the first session of the Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) in December 1885.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
There were many factors that led to the rise of nationalism in India. In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
(b) What changes did Western education bring about in the traditional Indian outlook?
(c)The English language acted as a link language among the Indians. Explain.
Answer:
(a)
Exploitation after Revolt of 1857, was subtle and systematic.
The impact of exploitation was felt by almost all sections of Indian society, but it took several decades to comprehend the true nature of British rule and establish the link between British polices and India’s growing poverty. Several armed revolts took place after 1857. The Kuka rebellion was one such revolt. It was a protest against the deliberate policy of the British to create a rift between the Hindus and the Muslims.
(b)
The British had introduced Western Education in India to create a class of loyal clerks and Anglicized buyers of British goods. Western education did that and much more. It opened the floodgates of modem knowledge and rational thinking. New ideas of humanism, nationalism and democracy transformed the traditional outlook of the people. A new class arose-English-educated Indians-small in number but who in course of time, would produce, leaders and organizers of a national movement.
(c)
The English language acted as a link language between the educated Indians and various parts of the country. Thus, it played a very significant role in fostering feelings of unity among educated Indians from different provinces and linguistic regions of the country. The barriers of language now broke down as the English language became the common medium of communication. Educated middle class Indians who spoke different language could now express their views and exchange ideas among themselves in English. A common language fostered a sense of oneness and understanding of their Indian identity.

Question 2.
In the context of the causes of the rise of Indian nationalism,answer the following questions:
(a) How did the British administrative system indirectly create conditions favourable for the growth of Indian nationalism.
(b) Examine the role of modern transport and communication in fostering unity and nationalism among the people.
(c)How did the rediscovery of India’s glorious past prepare the ground for the growth of the national spirit among the Indians.
Answer:
(a)
The British transformed a fragmented India into a united whole under their rule. They introduced a uniform and modern system of government throughout the British provinces. Uniform laws were applied to all British subjects. People from different provinces and from different communities and castes now followed the same laws and regulations. They gradually realized that they all belonged to the same country and shared a common national identity as Indians.
(b)
This growing sense of unity and nationalism was further strengthened when the British introduced a new network of roads, railways and the post and telegraph system. Social mobility and interaction increased. Caste barriers broke down. People from different parts of the country grew closer to each other. They realized that they shared common problems, common aspirations and common goals. They belonged to one nation.
(c)
The rediscovery of a past was great and glorious. It was a past that could boast of the intellectual richness of Vedic philosophy, the political unity and administrative wisdom of the Mauryas, the Golden Age of the Guptas and the cultural brilliance of the Mughals. These discoveries were made by European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Princep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage. These revelations instilled in the Indians feelings of national pride and self-confidence and inspired them to dream of a new resurgent India.

Question 3.
With reference to the rise of Indian nationalism, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the role of vernacular press and literature in the rise of Indian nationalism?
(b) How did the British economic policies lead to the growth of Indian nationalism?
(c) Mention the discriminatory British policies that were greatly resented by the Indian intellectuals.
Answer:
(a)
The vernacular press played a vital role in spreading modern ideas and creating national awareness. Nationalist leaders, the best among the educated middle-class intellectuals, used the press to criticize British policies and expose the evils of foreign rule. The ideas of democracy and responsible government were popularized through the press. Indians were asked to unite and work for the welfare of the nation. National literature also inspired the spirit of nationalism among the people. Novels, essays and patriotic poems written by well-known authors and poets fired the imagination of the common people and gave rise to powerful patriotic feelings. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya’s ‘Vande Mataram’ continues to evoke strong patriotic emotions among Indians even to this day.
(b)
The drain of India’s wealth to Britain, the impoverishment of the masses, industrial decay, grinding poverty, frequent famines, and the indifference and apathy of the British government produced a nationalistic reaction. The educated Indians realized the gravity of the situation and the need to have some control over economic policies.
(c)
Discriminatory policies adopted by the British:

  1. Indians were debarred from using parks, clubs, hospitals, libraries and railway coaches reserved exclusively for the British.
  2. All important positions in the administration were also reserved for the British. (Surendranath Banerjee was dismissed from the Indian Civil Service on flimsy grounds) Nominated Indian members in the Legislative Councils were not given any powers.
  3. British economic policies sacrificed Indian interests to those of the British. Lord Lytton’s discriminatory policies caused great resentment among the educated Indians.

Question 4.
In the context of the Indian National Congress, answer the following questions:
(a) Briefly discuss the Ilbert Bill controversy and show how it hastened the establishment of the Indian National Congress.
(b) What role did A. O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
(c) Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Answer:
(a)
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which allowed Indian judges to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes. The violent reaction of the Europeans and Anglo-Indians to this proposal shocked the Indian nationalists. The Bill had to be amended. This incident blew the lid off the racial arrogance of the Europeans. It served as an eye-opener and drove home the urgent need to form an organized national bod to protect the interest and dignity of the Indians. In 1883, Surendranath Banerjee held the Indian National Conference, and within 2 years, the Indian National Congress was formed.
(b)
O. Hume was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress, a political party that was later lead to Indian Independence Movement. Hume took the initiative and it was in March 1885, when the first notice was issued convening the First Indian National union to meet at Poona in December. Founded in 1885 with the objective of obtaining a greater share in government for educated Indians, Indian National Congress was initially not opposed to British rule. The Congress met once a year during December. A. O. Hume is known for prominent figure of Indian Independence Movement activisim and reorganizing and leading the Indian National Army in World War II.
(c)
The main aims of the Congress were:

  1. To promote friendly relations among nationalist workers in different parts of the country.
  2. To develop and strengthen feelings of national unity throughout the country.
  3. To formulate popular demands and to place them before the government.
  4. To train and organize public opinion in the country

G Picture study:

This is a picture of a person who was dismissed from the Indian Civil Service by the British on flimsy grounds
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 7

  1. Identify the person in the picture
    Ans. Surendranath Banerjee
  2. Name the conference that he held in 1883.
    Ans. Indian National Conference
  3. What was the outcome of the conference?
    Ans. Indian National Congress was established in 1885, as a result of the conference in 1883.
  4. What were the main aims of the Indian National Congress?
    Ans. Refer Ans. F-4 (c) above.

Additional Questions

The Indian National Movement (1885-1916)
 EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The early nationalists spread political awareness among the people.
  2. The assertive nationalists believed that British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse.
  3. After the partition of Bengal, the assertive nationalists adopted the methods of boycott, swadeshi and national education to achieve the goal of swaraj.
  4. Separate electorates meant that the Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives.
  5. Gandhi spent about 22 years in South Africa as a practising lawyer.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 9

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 10

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three/four/five
    Ans. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three phases.
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak/Dadabhai Naoroji/Surendranath Banerjea was an important assertive nationalist leader.
    Ans. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an important assertive nationalist leader.
  3. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal/Punjab/Gujarat on communal lines.
    Ans. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal on communal lines.
  4. The Muslim League was established in 1905/1906/1913.
    Ans. The Muslim League was established in 1906.
  5. Gandhiji studied law’ in England/South Africa/France.
    Ans. Gandhiji studied law in England.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The early nationalists believed in the sense of justice and fair play of the British.
    True.
  2. The early nationalists presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
    False.
    Correct: The early nationalists presented their grievances to the British in the form of meetings, lectures and the press.
  3. The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were the same as those of the early nationalists.
    False.
    Correct: The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were different as those of the early nationalists.
  4. The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists.
    True.
  5. Tilak knew that the British would concede to the demand of swaraj easily without any struggle.
    False.
    Correct : Tilak knew that the British would never concede to the demand of Swaraj easily without any struggle.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Mention two leaders of the early nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the early nationalist phase were Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjea and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Question 2.
Mention two leaders of the assertive nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the assertive nationalist phase were Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai and Aurobindo Ghosh.

Question 3.
Why were the assertive nationalists disillusioned with the leadership of the early nationalists?
Answer:
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. They knew that the British would never concede to the demand for swaraj without a struggle. So they have to adopt a method of active opposition to government Swaraj would have to be achieved through a political, anti-government agitation and with the involvement and support of the masses. The Congress would have to be transformed from a platform for debates among the westernized, Indian intelligentsia into a regiment of freedom fighters-united, determined, confident and willing to make sacrifices.

Question 4.
When and why was Bengal partitioned?
Answer:
The British partitioned Bengal in 1905 in pursuance of their policy of divide and rule.

Question 5.
Where and under whose leadership was the Muslim League established?
Answer:
The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

Question 6.
Mention two objectives of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Objectives of Muslim league:

To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.

  1. To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims.
  2. To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

Question 7.
Why was the introduction of separate electorates a death blow to national unity?
Answer:
Separate electorates refers to the voting population of the country, divided into different electorates based on the factors like religion, caste, occupation etc. For example, it meant that Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives. The introduction of separate electorates sounded the death knell of national unity. It was the first definite step on the road to the partition of India.

Question 8.
Why did the Indian nationalists support the war effort of the British when the First World War broke out ?
Answer:
Initially, there was an outburst of loyalty and the Indian nationalist leaders supported the British government with men and money. More than a million Indian soldiers were sent overseas to join the British army and a hundred million pounds were given to the British government.

The British and their allies declared that they were fighting the war to make the world ‘safe for democracy’ and to promote the right of all nations to form self-governments. This led the Indian nationalists to believe that a grateful Britain would reward India’s loyalty and fulfil its demands for self-government.

Question 9.
What was the main aim of the Home Rule Leagues ?
Answer:
The main aim of the Leagues was to achieve self-government within the British empire after the war.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
With reference to the early nationalists, discuss the following:
(a) Beliefs of the early nationalists
(b) Methods of the early nationalists
(c) Important contributions made by the early nationalists to the national movement?
Answer:
(a)
The early nationalists believed that British rule had conferred several benefits on India. They felt that at that stage of history it was in their own interests to remain under the British since they were not yet ready to govern themselves. The early nationalists were convinced that the British could be persuaded to introduce necessary reforms and the government could be transformed to suit the interests of the Indian subjects.
(b)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give into their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings, lectures and the press. They also sent delegations to England to persuade the British government to introduce necessary reforms.
(c)
Contribution of the early nationalists:

  1. The early nationalists established a solid foundation which served as a base for a more radical approach in later years.
  2. They spread political awareness among the people and instilled in them a sense of national unity. The people began to think of themselves as a members of one single nation the Indian nation. The path for a united national struggle was laid.
  3. The Congress under the early nationalists trained the Indians in political affairs. They educated them in political matters and familiarized them with ideas of freedom, government, democracy, secularism nationalism, etc. This knowledge and training in political affairs helped Indian nationalists to organize and raise the national movement to the next stage of development.

Question 2.
With reference to the rise of the assertive nationalists within the congress, discuss:
(a) The beliefs of the assertive nationalists
(b) The objectives of the assertive nationalists
(c) How the methods of the assertive nationalists differed from those of the early nationalists?
Answer:
(a)
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the British sense of justice and fair play. They believed that the British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse. They were convinced that the British had no honest intentions of introducing reforms for the welfare of the Indians. They realized that the British interests were different and clashed with the Indian interests. India could never grow and progress under British rule.
(b)
The goal of the assertive nationalists was not self­government in ‘gradual’ stages but immediate freedom (Swaraj) from British rule.
(c)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give in to their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings, lectures and the press. But the assertive nationalists on the other hand, had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. Twenty years of prayers, petitions, appeals and resolutions and representations had failed to yield any concrete results.

Question 3.
With reference to the Lucknow Session of the Congress of 1916, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the Lucknow Pact ?
Ans. The Lucknow Pact was an agreement signed by the Muslim League and the Congress to pave the way for a joint scheme of political reforms in India.

(b) What was the objective of the Lucknow Pact
Ans. Under the Lucknow Pact, the League jointly with the Congress put forward the demand for a Dominion Status for India. This was an important step towards Hindu-Muslim unity.

(C) What were the results of Lucknow Pact ?
Ans. The unity between the Muslim League and the Congress, on the one hand and the early nationalists and the assertive nationalists, on the other, aroused great political enthusiasm and strengthened the national movement.

G Picture study:

This is the picture of a national leader.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 11

1.Identify the person in the picture.
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

2.Which political organization did he join and when ?
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the Muslim League in 1913.

3.When and by whom was this organization founded ?
Ans. The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

4.What were the objectives of this organization ?
Ans.
The main objectives of the Muslim League were as follows:

  • To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.
  • To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims.
  • To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Interpreting Topographical Maps

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Interpreting Topographical Maps

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A contour line is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same height above sea level.
  2. In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run vertically are called eastings.
  3. Contour lines do not intersect one another.
  4. The contour lines of a hill are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.
  5. Houses or huts in scattered settlement are far apart from one another.

B. Match the following columns

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 1

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 2

C. Choose the correct answer

1. The contour lines for this feature are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.

  1. conical hill
  2. plateau
  3. ridge
  4. saddle

2. The contours for this feature are oval with contours close to each other indicating steepness.

  1. conical hill
  2. plateau
  3. ridge
  4. saddle

3. This feature can be identified by a drop in height of the contours.

  1. conical hill
  2. ridge
  3. col
  4. gap

4. The green area in a topo sheet contains

  1. settlement
  2. barren land
  3. cultivated land
  4. vegetation

5. On the topographical map these water bodies are shown in black colour.

  1. Dry Nadi
  2. Tank
  3. Settlement
  4. River

D. State whether the following are true or false 

1. A contour line is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same temperature.
Answer. False.
A contour lines is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same height.

2. The lines that run vertically are called nothings.
Answer. False.
The lines that run vertically are called eatings.

3. Contour lines are drawn at fixed intervals.
Ans. True.

4. A gap is a low lying depression or a valley which cuts through a range of hills.
Answer. True.

5. The spot height is indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.
Answer. False.
The triangulated stations is indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.

E. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What do topographical maps show ?
Answer:
Topographical maps are large scale maps that show both natural features (such as mountains, hills, rivers, plateaus, ridges, etc) and human-made features (such as roads, railway tracks, temples, bridges, buildings, etc).

Question 2.
What is a contour line ?
Answer:
A contour line is an imaginary line on a map connecting points at the same height above sea level.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 3

Question 3.
Distinguish Vertical Interval and Horizontal Equivalent.
Answer:
The difference in height between two adjacent contour lines is known as the Vertical Interval (V.I.). Whereas the distance between any two adjacent contour lines is called the Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.). The Horizontal Equivalent is calculated with the help of the scale of the map. The value of the H.E. is less when the slope is steep and more when the slope is gentle.

Question 4.
What is a ridge ? How do you identify a ridge on a topo sheet ?
Answer:
A ridge is a long and narrow elevation that has steep slopes on either side and stands out from the surrounding lowlands. It also acts as a watershed to rivers that flow down narrow
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 4
valleys on both of its sides. A ridge could also have several peaks of various elevations.
On a toposheet, the contours of a ridge are oval with contour close to each other indicating steepness.

Question 5.
What is a saddle ? Draw a diagram to show a saddle.
Answer:
A saddle is a shallow depression at a high elevation between two peaks or ridges. The depression is formed by streams or by glaciers flowing close to each other. A saddle need not have a river or stream flowing through it.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 5

Question 6.
What is a linear settlement ? Where would you normally find a linear settlement ?
Answer:
Linear settlements are those settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centres. Examples:

  1. If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
  2. hen located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhabas, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
  3. On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

Question 7.
How would you recognize a metalled road and an un metalled one on a topographical map?
Answer:
Vehicles such as trucks, buses, cars, jeeps, and other modem means of transport move over metalled roads. There are also cart tracks, pack tracks and footpaths, which are unmetalled roads. Cart tracks and pack tracks connect small village settlements in rural areas.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
What is a cliff and how can we identify it on a toposheet ? Draw a diagram to show a cliff.
Answer:
A cliff is a vertical or near vertical land feature. The landform rises vertically from the lower ground. On a contour map, the contour lines are very close together or merge into a single line in other words, contour lines overlap. This indicates a cliff.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 6

Question 2.
How is waterfall formed? Draw a diagram to show it.
Answer:
A waterfall is formed when there is a sudden drop in the river valley. It is like a cliff where the drop is almost perpendicular. Waterfalls are formed in the upper regions of river valleys. When contours on a map are very close to one another or sometimes touch each other as they cross a river or stream, it indicates the presence of a waterfall.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 7

Question 3.
Where are V-shaped valleys and U-shaped valleys formed? How can these be identified on a topo sheet?
Answer:
V-shaped valleys : V-shaped valleys are found in the upper course of a river where the slopes on either side of the river are steep. A V-shaped valley is easily identified on a contour map with the contour lines close to each other and a very dominant V.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 8
U-shaped valleys : U-shaped valleys are found in regions where the action of ice (or glaciers) has widened the valleys so that the valleys take the shape of a “U” These are also found in the lower regions of a river where the erosion of valley walls by the river widens the valley to make them look U-shaped. The contour lines of these valleys are bent in a distinct U-shape.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 9

Question 4.
What are the different factors that determine the location and the type of settlements?
Answer:
Many factors determine the location and the type of settlements:

  1. Settlements grow in areas that are flat and where the land is cultivable. Settlements do not grow on steep hillsides or marshy lands.
  2. Settlements grow in places where water is available in plenty for both agricultural and domestic purposes. Settlements, therefore, also grow on the confluence of rivers or the banks of rivers.
  3. Settlements also thrive on a plateau because of the flat surface of the plateau and the availability of land for cultivation.
  4. They develop and grow in places where the climate is suitable or pleasant to live in. Extremely hot, cold, wet or dry places are not attractive settlement sites.
  5. Settlements are formed where there are prospects for employment. Mines and industries in the area are potential sources of employment and encourage growth of settlements. Such places are usually near places of abundant raw materials for the growth of industries.
  6. They develop in places that are easily accessible by various kinds of roads, rivers, and railway lines. Easy access to and from the settlements will allow movement of people and goods from one place to another.

Question 5.
How can transport and communication of an area be inferred directly from a topographical sheet?
Answer:
On a topographical map you will notice some black lines that cross the map. These lines are symbols of roadways and railway tracks and indicate the type of communication in the area. They depict the various modes of transport being used in the area.
Communication and transport lines indicate the importance of a place. When many roads and railway lines converge in a village or a town, it indicates the importance of a place. It could be for several reasons such as the economic activity of the region or the region could be a tourist hot spot of it could be because of the presence of industries and factories leading to plenty of job opportunities.
Airports are also an important form of travel and communication but airports are confined to large cities only. The conventional sign of an aeroplane indicates the presence of an airport or an airstrip.

G Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 10

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlement shown in the picture.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements

Question 2.
Write two characteristics of this type of settlement.
Answer:

(i) Linear settlements — Linear settlements are those
settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centers.
Examples:

(a) If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
(b) When located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhaba’s, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
(c) On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 11

(ii) Scattered settlements — They are also known as dispersed settlements. Houses or huts in this type of settlement are far apart from one another. On map, such settlement is indicated by long distances between houses. Such areas show sparse population and the absence of proper roads. Houses or huts are usually connected by cart tracks or paths. Cattle rearing is common as each household has cattle that is allowed to graze in the open fields. The land is not very fertile to support big populations.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 12

Let’s Do Something
Identify the relief features shown by the following contour diagrams:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 13
Answer:

(a) A Ridge
(b) A conical hill
(c) A Saddle
(d) A Plateau
(e) A Gap
(f) A Pass

Extra Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by eastings and northings in a topographical map ?
Answer:
In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run vertically across a topographical map are called eastings. They are measured eastwards from the origin of the grid.
In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run horizontally across a topographical map are called northings. They are measured eastwards from the origin of the grid in northerly direction.

Question 2.
Mention features of a grid system of a topo sheet.
Answer:
Features of the grid system :

  1. The lines that run vertically are called eastings and those that run horizontally are called northings.
  2. Eastings and northings cross each other to form a square called as a grid square.
  3. The starting point or the reference point is the exteme south-west grid or the one at the bottom left corner.
  4. The numerical value of eastings increases eastwards beginning from the south-west corner. Similarly, the numerical value of northings increases northwards.
  5. Eastings and northings are always given in two digit numbers. Even 0 is read as 00. (For example, 01, 02, 03, 98, 99.)
  6. When referring to a grid, eastings are always stated first.
  7. Eastings and northings on a topo sheet drawn on a scale of 1 : 50,000 are always 2 cm apart, which means they represent a distance of 1 km on the ground. So, the area of 2cm × 2cm on the map represents 1 km × 1 km on the ground.
  8. There are two types of grid references :

(a) The four – figure reference
(b) the six-figure reference.

Question 3.
Explain the two types of grid references.
Answer:
There are two types of grid references —

  1. The four-figure reference : The four-figure reference is used to locate places that fall within the numbered grid square, for example, the grid reference for the shaded square in the diagram below is 1705.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 14
  2. The six-figure grid reference :
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 15
    A church shown with the help of a six-figure grid reference The six-figure grid reference is used to locate an object such as wells, post offices, milestones or temples within the square with greater accuracy. In the six-figure grid reference, the first three figures are the eastings while the last three are the northings. To get the six-figure grid reference, we need to divide the grid square on the topo sheet into ten equal parts vertically and horizontally. These figures will give us the third figure for the eastings and the sixth figure for the northings, for example, the grid reference for the church in the diagram is 213052.

Question 4.
Which is the most common method of showing relief or elevation on topo sheets ?
Answer:
Contour lines.

Question 5.
List some basic characteristics of contour lines.
Answer:
Some basic characteristics of contour lines are :

  1. Contour lines are drawn at fixed intervals, for example 20 m. This is called Vertical Interval (V.I).
  2. Contour lines do not intersect each other. They could meet and touch but not cross one another.
  3. On a topographical map, every fifth line is accentuated or drawn thick. This is known as contour index.
  4. The spacing between the contour lines determines the nature of the slope. Close contour lines indicate steep slope and far apart indicate gentle slope of land. Contour lines drawn at equal intervals indicate that the slope is neither steep nor gentle but is a uniform slope.

Question 6.
How are topo sheets prepared for India ?
Answer:
Topo sheets are prepared three mainly in groups in India :

  1. The million sheet, where the scale of the sheet is 1:1,000,000 or 1 cm : 10 km ; there are total of 36 of these sheets covering the entire country.
  2. The quarter inch sheet has a scale of 1: 250,000 or 1 cm : 2.5 km, each of these sheets is numbered separately from A to P.
  3. The one inch sheet has a scale of 1 : 50,000 or 2 cm : 1 km.

Question 7.
How would you identify the following on a topo sheet:

  1. Gentle slope and steep slope
  2. Plateau
  3. Hill
  4. Col
  5. Pass
  6. Gap

Answer:

  1. Gentle slope and steep slope — In a steep slope, the contours are drawn close to one another while in a gentle slope they are wide apart.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 16
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 17
  2. Plateau — A plateau or a table land is an uplifted piece
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 18
    of flat land with slopes on all sides. On a contour map, plateaus are marked by contour lines very close to each other on all sides while there are none or very few lines at the centre.
  3. Hill — A hill is of a lower elevation than a mountain. It has uniform steepness on all sides. The contour lines of a hill are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 19
  4. Col — A col is formed when land has been cut considerably between two streams in a watershed. A col can be identified by a drop in height of the contours.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 20
  5. Pass — Passes are low valleys or opening lying between two peaks in a range of hills. A pass is indicated by a drop in height of contours.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 21
  6. Gap — A gap is a low lying depression or a valley which cuts through a range of hills It is often occupied by a river.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 22

Question 8.
What do you mean by settlements ? Explain temporary and permanent settlements.
Answer:
Settlements are groups of houses, usually in villages or towns, where people live. The size of settlements depends on the availability of roads, railways, hospitals, police station, administrative buildings, etc. Settlements grow over a period of time. A settlement can be permanent or temporary.
Temporary settlements : Settlements that are constructed and occupied for a short time are called temporary settlements. They are built by people engaged in hunting and gathering, shifting cultivation and transhumance. Tents and huts are the most common forms of shelter in temporary settlements. In urban area, it is built next to a construction site such as a bridge or a flyover. A temporary settlement can become permanent with time.
Permanent Settlements : In this, people build permanent houses. With time, several such structure develop and form a settlement. The availability of water and land for cultivation are important reasons for such settlements growing. Other factors are communication lines such as roads and railways, police stations, post office, hospital, market, health center, etc.

Question 9.
What are the three main types of settlement patterns on a topo sheet ?
Or
Explain types of settlements.
Answer:
The three main types of settlement patterns on a topo sheet are:

(i) Nucleated settlements — In such settlements, buildings and huts are in a compact cluster. They are usually found in plains or valleys. This kind of settlement indicates that the community is living on an area where the land is fertile and good for agriculture. Such settlements generally have a well- knit and large community. Apart from houses, essential facilities like hospitals, police stations, post offices, schools and administrative buildings are found. They are also known as clustered settlements.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 23
(ii) Linear settlements—Linear settlements are those settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centres.
Examples :

(a) If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
(b) When located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhaba’s, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
(c) On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

(iii) Scattered settlements — They are also known as dispersed settlements. Houses or huts in this type of settlement are far apart from one another. On map, such settlement is indicated by long distances between houses. Such areas show sparse population and the absence of proper roads. Houses or huts are usually connected by cart tracks or paths. Cattle rearing is common as each household has cattle that is allowed to graze in the open fields. The land is not very fertile to support big populations.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 24

Question 10.
Compare Nucleated settlement and scattered settlement.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement :

  1. The buildings and huts are in compact cluster.
  2. These are mostly found in plains or river valleys.
  3. These are also called as clustered settlements.
  4. The land is fertile and good for agriculture.
  5. The generally have a well- knit and large community.
  6. They have dense population.
  7. Essential facilities like hospitals, schools, police stations, post offices, etc are found
  8. Proper communication lines such as roads and railways lines are present.

Scattered settlement :

  1. The houses and huts are far apart from one another.
  2. These are mostly found in hilly areas, thick forests and regions of extreme climate.
  3. These are also called as dispersed settlements.
  4. The land is not very fertile.
  5. They don’t have a very close-knit large community.
  6. They have sparse population.
  7. Essential facilities like school hospital, police station, etc. are not found.
  8. Proper roads are absent houses are connected by cart tracks or paths.

Question 11.
List the aspects that you should keep in mind while studying a topographical map.
Or
Name some elements of a topo sheet or topographical maps.
Answer:
Some of the elements of a topo sheet are :

  1. Sheet number — This number refers to a specific geographical area. It is written on the top of the sheet.
  2. Scale — The scale is not the same for all maps. It can be 1 : 10,00,000 1 cm : 10 km], 1 : 250,000 [i.e. ; 1 cm = 2.5 km] or 1 : 50,000 [i.e. 2 cm = 1 km] It is written at the bottom of the sheet.
  3. Grid — The sheets have grid lines in red called eastings and northings which help in locating places easily.
  4. Direction on map sheet — The top half of a topographical map is always the north and the bottom half is the south. The right hand is the east and left hand is the west. The eastings and northings are read from the southwest corner.
  5. The eastings and northings — Their numbers should be remembered before reading a map.
  6. Four-figure grid reference and six-figure grid reference squares — The four-figure grid reference will have four digits and six-figure grid reference will have six digits.
  7. Legend and keys — Legends contain conventional signs and symbols in the form of keys. They provide the vital information to interpret the map correctly.
  8. Contour interval — (Vertical interval) It is the vertical distance between two consecutive contour lines. It remains same for a given scale of topo sheets.
  9. Spot heights — These indicate the actual elevation of a spot above mean sea level.
  10. Triangulated stations — These also indicate the height on maps. They are indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.
  11. Contour index — Every fifth contour line is bolder than the other lines for easy identification of contour lines.
  12. Places marked with letters DEP (depression) indicate land at a lower level than the surrounding area.
  13. Dry and wet streams — On the map, black streams are dry and blue streams have water.
  14. Contour features — Like saddle, hill, pass, gentle and steep slope, ridge, etc can be seen on topo maps.
  15. Colours — Green coloured area contains vegetation and forests, yellow coloured area is cultivated land and white portion is barren land.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Vertical Interval (V.I.) in a topo sheet ?
Answer:
The vertical distance between two consecutive contour lines on a topographical map is called as Vertical Interval (VI). They are drawn at fixed intervals and do not change on the map. This interval depends on the scale of the map and the range of elevation in the area of the map.
Example : VI in all topo sheets of 1 : 50,000 is 20 m.

Question 13.
Mention what do the following indicate on a topographical map —

  1. Black stream
  2. Blue stream
  3. Green area
  4. Yellow area
  5. White area

Answer:

  1. Black stream — It indicates that the stream is dry and has no water.
  2. Blue stream — It indicates that the stream has water.
  3. Green area — I indicates vegetation, mainly forests.
  4. Yellow area — It indicates the area of cultivated land.
  5. White area — It indicates barren land. No crops are grown in this land.

14. Fill in the blanks

  1. Eastings and northings cross each other to form a square known as a grid square.
  2. When referring to a grid, eastings are always stated first.
  3. Using contours is the most common method of showing relief or elevation on topo sheets.
  4. On a topographical map, every 5th line is drawn thick and known as the contour index.
  5. If contour lines are drawn close together, it indicates steep slope of the land and if they are drawn far apart, it indicates gentle slope.
  6. Settlements are groups of houses where people live, such as villages or towns.
  7. Tents and huts are the most common forms of shelter in temporary settlements.
  8. Nucleated or clustered settlement indicates that the large community is close knit and living on a fertile land.
  9. Linear settlement develop in a line on either side of a road or a railway track.
  10. scattered or dispersed settlement is indicated by long distances between houses on map.
  11. Triangulated stations are indicated on the topo sheet with a small triangle followed by the number.
  12. Settlements are always shown by red squares.
  13. The grid on the south-west corner of a topographical map is always the reference point or the starting point.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Medieval Europe – Rise and Spread of Christianity

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Medieval Europe – Rise and Spread of Christianity

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ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • Medieval comes from a Latin word which means ‘time in the middle’. The Medieval Period is the period between the Ancient and the Modem periods.
  • The Messiah is a liberator of an oppressed people or country/ the promised deliverer of the Jews.
  • The Christ is the Messiah/the title given to Jesus.
  • The Old Testament constitutes the first major part of the Bible. It is traditionially divided into the categories of law, history, poetry (or wisdom books) and prophecy.
  • Baptism is the Christian rite of sprinkling water on a person’s forehead or immersing him/her in water, symbolizing purification and admission to the Christian church.
  • Resurrected means to be returned to life after death.
  • The Gospels are the first four books of the New Testament (the second part of the Bible) that tell the story of Christ’s life and teachings.
  • The Goths, the Vandals and the Franks were European tribes which invaded the Roman and Greek empires in the Early Medieval Period.
  • Crusades were the holy wars waged by the Christians against the Turks, who had captured the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople and Jerusalem (the holy land of the Christians).

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Christianity was founded by Jesus Christ. He began preaching at the age of thirty.
  2. Jesus criticised all harmful activities and evils.
  3. Galerius Constantine recognised Christianity.
  4. Constantine established a new capital at Byzantine in AD 330.
  5. The last Roman emperor, Romulus Augustus was deposed in AD 476.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 2

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. Paul spread the teachings of Christ in Greece and Rome.
     True.
  2. Emperor Charlemagne recognised Christianity in AD 313.
    False.Emperor Constantine embraced Christianity in AD 313.
  3. The head of the Roman Church, the Pope, was considered the representative of Christ on Earth.
    True.
  4. Constantinople fell in AD 1453.
    True.
  5. Crusades were fought between Hindus and Christians.
    False Crusades were fought between Islam and Christians.

IV. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Where was Christ born? Why was he crucified?
Answer:
Jesus Christ was born in Bethlehem, a small village of Jerusalem. His father Joseph and mother Mary were Jews. Jesus was bom in about 4 BC. Jesus emphasised on one God and gave immense importance to love, brotherhood and compassion. He fearlessly criticised all harmful activities and evils. This made the rich and powerful among the Romans his enemy. They complained to Pontius Pilate, the Roman Governor of Palestine, accusing Jesus of calling himself the king of Jews and thus encouraging people to rebel against Roman rulers. Jesus was arrested and crucified. The cross became a sacred symbol of the Christians.

Question 2.
Describe the teachings of Christ.
Answer:
Jesus preached his message in simple words, in the form of stories that the common man could understand.
Some of his main teachings were:

  1. All men are brothers as we are the children of the same God.
  2. God is one, so worship of various gods is of no use.
  3. God is so kind that he forgives even the sinner if he repents.
  4. God will love us if we are kind to our fellowmen.
  5. Hate the sin and not the sinner.
  6. Refrain from worldly evils like greed, avarice and vanity.
  7. Jesus called himself the ‘Son of God’ who had been sent by God to guide man to attain salvation.
  8. Kingdom of God could be built by man, purified by the love of God.

Question 3.
Discuss the contribution of emperor Constantine in spread of Christanity.
Answer:
Constantine the Roman Emperor, defeated all his rivals who came in way of spreading Christianity and declared himself as the undisputed emperor. He made Christianity a legal religion and in this way persecution of Christians came to an end. Later on Christianity become the official religion of the Roman empire.

Question 4.
Describe the emergence and fall of Constantinople.
Answer:
The Roman emperor Constantine established a new capital at Byzantine in AD 330. This city became famous as Constantinople, named after Constantine. The Byzantine empire with Constantinople as its capital prospered for a thousand years until AD 1453. It had close relations with countries of the east, including India. The Byzantines built beautiful churches with lavish decorations. Constantinople became the largest city in Europe, the most splendid and prosperous.
The Fall of Constantinople
The capital of Constantinople had been under attack many times before, and all have failed, all but one. The Ottoman Turks, who were Muslims and under the lead of Sultan Mehmed 11, had an army of 100,000 to 150,000, while the army for Constantinople had 10,000. The siege lasted for about fifty days. The army of Constantinople tried to use every tactic that worked before, but they were greatly outnumbered, which hurt their chances. As well as trying to take over the city, the Turks were fighting and trying to take over the seas and ports. On Tuesday, May 29, 1453, the army of Constantinople surrendered and left, letting the Ottomans take over the city.

Question 5.
Discuss the reasons for the decline of the Roman empire.
Answer:
The barbarian invasions penetrated deep into the Roman territory and plundered and ravaged it. Even the magnificent city of Rome was not spared. These tribes gradually settled down and assumed control of the western part of the Roman empire which lead to its decline.

V. Picture Study : Study the picture and answer the following questions.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 3

  1. Identify and name the painting.
    Ans. The last supper.
  2. Name the Painter.
    Ans. Leonardo da Vinci.
  3. Describe the theme of the painting.
    Ans. A painting of Jesus with his disciples.

Additional Questions
(Rise of Christianity)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. In the middle of the 1st century bce the Romans conquered Palestine, the homeland of the Jews.
  2. Jesus was believed to the son of God. He was born to Mary.
  3. For three years, Jesus travelled throughout Galilee, preaching, teaching and healing the sick.
  4. Jesus taught that there was one God who was compassionate, loving and forgiving.
  5. Towards the end of the 4th century ce. Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 4

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. Jesus grew up in Bethale/iem/Jerusalem/Nazareth, where he studied Jewish scriptures.
    Ans. Jesus grew up in Nazareth, where he studied Jewish scriptures.
  2. Jesus taught that God loved and forgave/hated/ignored
    Ans. Jesus taught that God loved and forgave sinners.
  3. Jesus was sentenced to death by Maxentius/Pontius Pilate/Constantine.
    Ans. Jesus was sentenced to death by Pontius Pilate.
  4. The teachings of Jesus were spread most actively in Palestine by John/Mark/Peter.
    Ans. The teachings of Jesus were spread most actively in Palestine by Peter.
  5. For almost 300 years after the death of Jesus, Christians were treated will/given special rights/oppressed and persecuted in the Roman empire.
    Ans. For almost 300 years after the death of Jesus, Christians were oppressed and persecuted in the Roman empire.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Jesus had the power to heal the sick.
    True.
  2. Jesus taught that we should harm only those who harm us.
    False.
    Correct: We should help the needy and do good even to those who harm us.
  3. Jesus’s interpretation of Jewish law was the same as that of other Jewish religious leaders.
    False.
    Correct: Jesus’s interpretation of Jewish law clashed with the ideas of the Jewish religious leaders.
  4. In the 4th century CE, Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.
    False.
    Correct: In the 2nd century CE, Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.
  5. The Pope became the spiritual head of Christians all over the world.
    True

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Explain the Latin origin of the term ‘medieval’.
Ans. Medieval comes from a Latin word which means ‘time in the
middle’. The Medieval Period is the period between the Ancient and the Modem periods.

2. Who conquered Palestine in the middle of the 1st century BCE?
Ans. In the middle of the 1 st century bce, the Romans conquered Palestine, the homeland of the Jews.

3. Where was Jesus born?
Ans.
Jesus was bom around 6-4 bce, in a small village of Bethlehem in Judea. He was believed to be the son of God, was bom to Maty.

4. Who was King David?
Ans. King David was Israel’s most famous king who had liberated Israel from foreign rule 1,000 years ago.

5. How many disciples did Jesus have?
Ans. Jesus gathered around him a band of 12 disciples.

6. Mention two fundamental principles of Christianity.
Ans.
The two fundamental principles of Christianity are:

  1. Unconditional love for God.
  2. True love for one’s neighbour.

7. Why were the Jewish religious leaders angry with Jesus?
Ans. Due to Jesus intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity large crowds were attracted towards him. This greatly enraged the Jewish religious leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity.

8. Where are the life and teachings of Jesus Christ recorded?
Ans. The life and teachings of Jesus Christ were recorded in the Gospels by four of his disciples—John, Mathew, Mark and Luke.

9. Who is described as the ‘foundation rock’ of Christianity?
Ans. Peter is described as the ‘foundation rock’ of Christianity.

10. Who prepared the grounds for transforming Christianity into a world religion? –
Ans. Paul, a convert to Christianity became one of the most powerful and enthusiastic exponents of Christianity. He travelled extensively throughout the Roman empire, preparing the grounds that would transform Christianity into the world religion in the future.

11. What is the importance of St Peter’s Church in Rome?
Ans. St Peter’s Church in Rome is the religious headquarters of the Christian world.

12. Who became the spiritual head of the Christians?
Ans. The Bishop of St Peter’s Church, the Pope, became the spiritual head of Christians all over the world, and was acknowledged as the representative of Christ on earth.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Give an account of the early life on Jesus in Nazareth. What happened after his baptism?
Answer:
Jesus grew up in Nazareth, in northern Palestine, where he studied the Jewish scriptures. He realized that traditions and practices which violated the Law of Moses were being followed by certain Jewish religious groups, such as the Pharisees.
After baptism a divine revelation convinced Jesus that the time had come for him to fulfil his mission of freemen from the bondage of evil and guiding them on the path that would lead to the victory of good over evil.

Question 2.
The teachings of Jesus were simple, yet revolutionary. Explain.
Answer:
The teachings of Jesus were simple, yet revolutionary.
He established a code of conduct for men and women based on:

  1. Unconditional love for God
  2. True love for one’s neighbour

Jesus taught that there was one God who was compassionate, loving and forgiving. As children of God, we should mould ourselves in the image of God. We should love our neighbours, including the poor, the sinners and even our enemies; we should help the needy and do good even to those who harm us; we should forgive our enemies and win them over with our love. Since God loved sinners and forgave them, we should do the same. Jesus completely rejected the ‘eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ principle.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons and events leading to the crucifixion of Jesus.
Answer:
Jesus attracted large crowds wherever, he went through his intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity. This greatly enraged the Jewish religions leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity. They convinced the Roman Governor, Pontius Pilate, that Jesus was also a threat to the political authority of the Romans. Due to which Jesus was put on trial and was later on crucified.

Question 4.
The enemies of Jesus had crucified him but Jesus would live on. Explain.
Answer:
This statement is hue that enemies of Jesus had crucified him but Jesus would live in the hearts and minds of his followers throughout the world. His teachings will be followed by the people they will walk on the path shown by him.After baptism a divine revelation convinced Jesus that the time had come for him to fulfil his mission of freemen from the bondage of evil and guiding them on the path that would lead to the victory of good over evil.

Question 5.
Give a brief account of the spread of Christianity by its followers.
Answer:
The spread of Christianity in Palestine was actively done by Peter the follower of Jesus. Another follower Paul travelled extensively throughout the Roman Empire and spread Christianity which later on in future turned into a world religion ‘

Question 6.
What role did Emperor Constantine play in the establishment of Christianity in Europe?
Answer:
Constantine the Roman Emperor, defeated all his rivals who came in way of spreading Christianity and declared himself as the undisputed emperor. He made Christianity a legal religion and in this way persecution of Christians came to an end. Later on Christianity become the official religion of the Roman empire.

G Picture study:
The picture depicts the crucifixion of the founder of a religion.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 7

Question 1.
Name (a) the founder and (b) the religion.
Answer:
(a) the founder — Jesus Christ
(b) the religion — Christianity

Question 2.
Mention the circumstances and the reasons that led to the crucifixion.
Answer:
Jesus attracted large crowds wherever, he went through his intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity. This greatly enraged the Jewish religions leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity. They convinced the Roman Governor, Pontius Pilate, that Jesus was also a threat to the political authority of the Romans. Due to which Jesus was put on trial and was later on crucified.          –

Question 3.
Mention four important principles of the religion.
Answer:
Four important principles of the religion are:

  1. We should love our neighbour, the poor, the sinners and even our enemies.
  2. We should forgive our enemies and win them over with our love.
  3. Unconditional love for God.
  4. Not to follow the principle of ‘eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’.

Question 4.
Name the two best-known followers of the founder. What part did they play in spreading his teachings.
Answer:
Peter and Paul are two best known disciples of Jesus. They; did a great work in spreading the teachings of Jesus in Palastine and throughout the Roman Empire. Due to them Christianity is accepted as a world religion.

Additional Questions
(Spread of Christianity)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The great Roman empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century ce.
  2. One important reason for the fall of the Roman empire was the repeated attacks by the Germanic tribes.
  3. In 395 ce, the Roman empire was divided into two parts- eastern and western.
  4. By 900 ce, Christianity had become the state religion in every European state.
  5. The Crusades or holy wars were fought between the Christians and the Turkish Muslims, between the 11th and 13th centuries ce.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 9
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 10

C. Choose the correct answer

  1. The mighty Turkish/Roman/Greek empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century
    Ans. The mighty Roman empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century ce.
  2. The capital of the Byzantine empire wasRome/ Jerusalem/Constantinople.
    Ans. The capital of the Byzantine empire was Constantinople.
  3. The orders built great monasteries, where monks/kings/ soldiers stayed and pursued their missions.
    Ans. The orders built great monasteries, where monks stayed and pursued their missions.
  4. In the 11th century ce, the Goths/Turks/Vandals invaded the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople.
    Ans. In the 11th century ce, the Turks invaded the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople.
  5. The Crusaders learned the use of gunpowder and guns from the Greeks/Franks/Turks.
    Ans. The Crusaders learned the use of gunpowder and guns from the Turks.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The invaders who attacked the Roman empire were semi-civilized tribes.
    True.
  2. In the confusion and disorder that followed the disintegration of the Roman empire, the only unifying factor was Christianity and the Roman Church.
    True.
  3. The spread of Christianity was one of the most important developments in the Early Medieval Period.
    True.
  4. By the end of the 5th century ce, Christian churches had been established in almost every town and city.
    True.
  5. The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What were the ‘barbarian invasions’?
Answer:
The repeated attacks and raids by various Germanic tribes such as the Goths, the Vandals and the Franks are referred to as the ‘barbarian invasions’.

Question 2.
Name the capital of the eastern Roman empire.
Answer:
Capital of eastern Roman empire was Constantinople (modem Istanbul).

Question 3.
What effect did the barbarian invasions have on the Byzantine (eastern Roman) empire ?
Answer:
The Byzantine empire was attacked by the barbarian tribes but it proved to be more resilient than its western counterpart. It successfully withstood the onslaughts and preserved some of the great legacies of the glorious Roman empire.

Question 4.
What were the Crusades?
Answer:
Crusades were the holy wars waged by the Christians against the Turks, who had captured the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople and Jerusalem (the holy land of the Christians).

Question 5.
How did the Crusades pave the way for the Renaissance?
Answer:
In the course of their travels to the holy land, the crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks and Muslims. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of revival of western education and learning and paved the way for the Renaissance.

Question 6.
How did the Crusades lead to the decline of feudalism?
Answer:
The Crusaders learnt the use of gunpowder and guns from the Muslims. These two discoveries contributed to the decline of feudalism. The armoured knights had outlived their usefulness and their services were no longer required.

Question 7.
Where did the Christian monks live?
Answer:
They lived in monasteries and did not marry.

Question 8.
Name two arts that flourished in monasteries.
Answer:
Architecture, mural painting, wood carving and stained glass painting developed and flourished in the monasteries.

Question 9.
Name one internationally renowned university that evolved from a Christian monastery.
Answer:
The University that evolved from a Christian monastery of Oxford in England is know as Oxford University in the English­speaking world.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Briefly discuss the causes of the decline of the mighty Roman empire?
Answer:
The barbarian invasions penetrated deep into the Roman territory and plundered and ravaged it. Even the magnificent city of Rome was not spared. These tribes gradually settled down and assumed control of the western part of the Roman empire which lead to its decline.

Question 2.
The Crusades brought about significant changes in medieval Europe. In this context, discuss the following:
(a) Advent of the Renaissance
(b) Economic prosperity.
Answer:
(a) Advent of the Renaissance: In the course of their travels to the holy land, the Crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks and the Turks. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of the revival of Western education and learning, paving the way for the Renaissance.
(b) Economic prosperity: The Crusaders got a taste of the luxurious lifestyle of the East. To meet the demand for luxury items, European traders began to establish trade links with the East. As trade increased, the economy of Europe flourished.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following:
(a) Monks and nuns
(b) Life in a monasteries
Answer:
(a) Monks: They were priests who devoted their lives to the services of God and humanity. They lived in monasteries and did not marry.
Nuns: They were the women who devoted their lives to the service of God and humanity. They lived in nunneries and did not marry.

(b) Monasteries: These were the places where the monks lived. They were located iru isolated places, far away from human habitation. Life in these monasteries was simple and orderly.

Question 4.
Describe a monastery. What did the monks and nuns do for the welfare of the people?
Answer:
A monastery was usually a large, strong and simple building, surrounded by gardens, fruit orchards, fields and ponds. Insidethe abbey was a small church, living quarters for the monks and nuns, a kitchen and storerooms. Attached to most monsteries were hospitals, schools and libraries. Monasteries played a very important role in medieval Europe. The nuns educated children and treated the sick and wounded. The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education. Some of these monasteries later developed into famous secular universities, such as the universities of Oxford and Cambridge. Besides the religious texts, secular subjects such as history, philosophy, medicine, law and astrology were also taught in these universities. The printing press and paper had not yet been invented, so the monks wrote books by hand on parchment. Most of the books were copies of the Bible and prayer books, and copies of Latin and Greek books on secular subjects. These books were a very useful source of knowledge of the ancient and medieval civilization in Europe.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of the monasteries in the field of education?
Answer:
The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education. Some of these monasteries later developed into famous secular universities, such as the universities of Oxford and Cambridge. Beside the religious texts, secular subjects such as history, philosophy, medicine, law and astrology were also taught in these universities.

G.Picture study:

This is a picture of a renowned English university built by the Christian Church .
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 11

Question 1.
Identify the university.
Answer:
Oxford University.

Question 2.
What part did the Church play in the field of education?
Answer:
The Christian Church played an important role in the field of education. These Churches become great centres of  scholarship, art, literature and religious studies. Educational institutions like the internationally renowned Cambridge and Oxford Universities were built by the Church.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for the rapid spread of Christianity in Europe between 400 ce and 900
Answer:
The conversion of a king or feudal lord was usually followed by mass conversion of his subjects. As Christianity spread, the power and wealth of the Church multiplied.Christian monks, fired by religious fervour, organized themselves into religious orders

Question 4.
In what way did the increase in wealth and power influence the policies of the Church?
Answer:
As the wealth and power of the Church increased, it became increasingly conservative and authoritarian, demanding from every Christian unqualified obedience, loyalty and total submission to its dictates.

Question 5.
What does the term ‘Crusades’ mean? How did the Crusades contribute to the revival of learning and pave the way for the Renaissance in Europe?
Answer:
Crusades were the holy wars of the Christians against the Turkish Muslims. In the course of their travels to the holy land, the Crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks (Byzantium) and Muslims. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of the revival of Western education and learning and paved the way for the