Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Answers

Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 19

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 19 Local Self-Government: Urban.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 19 Local Self-Government: Urban.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term ‘‘Urban area,.
Answer:
An urban area is regarded as one which is a town or a city.

Question 2.
Mention any two salient features of the Constitution (74th Amendment Act), 1992.
Answer:
The salient features of the Act are the following:

  1. The Act gives constitutional status to urban local bodies.
  2. The Act provides for direct election to all the local self¬government bodies.
  3. A fixed tenure of five years for the municipalities has been prescribed.
  4. 33 per cent of the seats should be reserved for women under each category’ of SC/ST/Backward Classes.

Question 3.
How is a Municipal Corporation set up ?
Answer:
The cities with a population of one lakh and above can have a Municipal Corporation. It is set up under a special statute passed by the State Legislative.

Question 4.
Who is known as Mayor ? State one of his most important functions ?
Answer:
Mayor is selected by the councillors and Aldermen as the representative of the city. One of his functions is to preside over the meetings of the Corporation.

Question 5.
Who is the Municipal Commissioner ? How is he appointed?
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner is the Chief Executive of the Corporation. He is appointed by the Governor usually for a term of 5 years.

Question 6.
Name one compulsory and one optional function of the Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Compulsory function—Provision of electricity water, sewage disposal.Optional function—Public housing through housing boards or other bodies.

Question 7.
What is known as Municipal Committee ? Who is its head?
Answer:
A Municipal Committee is set up for smaller Towns with a population between 20,000 to 3 lakhs. The Chairperson is its head.

Question 8.
Who is the Chief Executive Officer of a Municipal Committee ?
Answer:
Chief Executive officer is an appointee of the State Government. He looks after the administrative wing of the Municipal Committee.

Question 9.
Give two points of difference between a Municipal Committee and a Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Municipal Corporation

  1. It is meant for big cities with a population of more than 10 lakhs.
  2. The head is known as Mayor.

Municipal Committee

  1. It is meant for Towns with a population between 20,000 to 3 lakhs.
  2. The head is known as Chairperson. with respect to Education, Health, Engineering, Taxation etc.

Question 10.
State one important function of a Municipal Committee.
Answer:
It deals with the State Govemment through the District Administration

with respect to Education, Health, Engineering, Taxation etc.PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 11.
Name the self-government body in an area having military establishment.
Answer:
Cantonment Board.

Question 12.
What is the minimum age to be eligible to stand for Municipal Elections ?
Answer:
The minimum age should be 21 years.

Question 13.
Give one point of difference between a Town area Committee and the Notified Area Committee.
Answer:
Town Area Committee

  1. It is set up in Towns with population between 10,000 to 20,000.

Notified Area Committee

  1. It is set up in areas which are in Transition from rural to urban, mostly in the out skirts of big cities.

Question 14.
Where can you find a Cantonment Board ? How is a Cantonment Board set up ?
Answer:
It is an urban area, often on the outskirts of a large city with military establishment has a cantonment Board. It is set up by the Union Ministry of Defence for providing basic amenities to defense personnel and managing the local affairs of these areas.

Question 15.
What is known as Improvement Trust ?
Answer:
The Improvement Trust looks after the specialised functions of the city. This is a government body.

Question 16.
What are the functions of the Improvement Trust ?
Answer:
The functions of the Improvement Trust are to handle special activities related to medical facilities, Social improvement, national sports, big ceremonies transport etc. e.g. in big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Lucknow etc.

Question 17.
Differentiate between Local Self-Government and Local Government.
Answer:
Local Self-Government refers to “management of local affairs by the natives of the area itself or their representatives.” Local Self-Government is a “democratic government”. Local Government means, “administration of a locality by officials appointed by the government.

Question 18.
Mention any two advantages of Local Self-Government.
Answer:
Two advantage of Local Self-Government are :

  1. Effective Management of the Local Affairs.
  2. Good Training for running the Central and State Governments.

Question 19.
What is meant by Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj : Gram Panchayat at village level—Panchayat Samiti at the Block level—Zila Pari shad at the district level.

Question 20.
Name any two institutions of Local Self-Government in rural areas.
Answer:

  1. Gram Sabha.
  2. Gram Panchayat.

Question 21.
Explain the term‘Gram Sabha’.
Answer:
‘Gram Sabha’ is a body of all the adult members registered as Voters in the Panchayat area.

Question 22.
Mention any two functions of a Gram Sabha.
Answer:
Two functions of a Gram Sabha are :

  1. to approve the budget for the year.
  2. to review the audit report of the last year’s accounts of the Panchayat.

Question 23.
Who elects the members of a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The members of a Gram Panchayat are elected by the Gram Sabha.

Question 24.
What is the Head of a Village Panchayat called?
Answer:
The Head of a Village Panchayat is called the Sarpanch.

Question 25.
Name any two ex-officio members of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
The Pradhan (President) and the Vice-President of the Gram Sabha.

Question 26.
Mention any two Civic and Welfare functions of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Civic and Welfare functions of a Gram Panchayat are:

  1. provision of safe drinking-water which involves construction and maintenance of public wells and tanks.
  2. health care facilities for which the Panchayats set up dispensaries and health centers.

Question 27.
Mention any two Developmental functions of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Development functions of a Gram Panchayat are :

  1. minor irrigation schemes.
  2. preparation and execution of agricultural plans.

Question 28.
Mention any two Regulatory or General Administrative functions of a Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Reulatory or General Administrative-functions of a Village Panchayat are :

  1. registration of births, deaths and marriages.
  2. maintenance of watch and ward service (Chowkidars etc.)

Question 29.
What is the function of a Nyaya Panchayat? i
Answer:
The function of a Nyaya Panchayat is to secure speedy and inexpensive justice to the villagers.

Question 30.
Mention any two sources of income of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Gram Panchayat are :

  1. Panchayats have right to levy taxes on property, land, goods and cattle.
  2. Panchayats collect taxes on sale of goods in fairs and makeshift bazars (markets).

Question 31.
Name the intermediate level institution of the Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti.

Question 32.
Who are the ex-officio members of a Panchayat Samiti?
Answer:
All the Sarpanchas (President) of the Panchayats within the Block are the ex-officio members of a Panchayat Samiti.

Question 33.
Mention any two Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti are :

  1. Development of Cottage Industries.
  2. Functions relative to Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Fisheries.

Question 34.
Mention any tw o Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti are :

  1. The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of the Gram Panchayats.
  2. The Samiti examines the Budget of the Panchayats and may make suitable modifications in it.

Question 35.
Give two sources of income of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Panchayat Samiti are :

  1. Grant given by the State Government.
  2. Income accruing from the taxes levied by the Samiti.

Question 36.
Name the highest organ of the Panchayati Raj institutions at the district level.
Answer:
Zila Parishad (To District Level).

Question 37.
Mention any two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad are :

  1. Construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges and culverts.
  2. Construction of parks.

Question 38.
Mention any two Supervisory functions of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two Supervisory-functions of a Zila Parishad are :

  1. The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of a Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.
  2. It co-ordinates the development plans prepared by the Panchayat Samitis in the District.

Question 39.
Give two sources of income of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Zila Parishad are :

  1. Share in the Land-Revenue.
  2. Taxes and ceses, licence fees and market fees.

II. Structured Questions :

Question 1.
With reference to Municipal Corporation, answer the following questions :
(a) State its composition.
(b) State the functions of the Mayor.
(c) State the functions of the Corporation.
Answer:
(a) A Municipal Corporation comprises the following.

  1. General Council formed of elected members known as Municipal Councillors.
  2. The Mayor : It is elected by councillors and the Aldermen,
  3. The Standing Committee : includes members of general council through elections.
  4. The Municipal Commissioner: It is appointed by the Governor usually for 5 years.

(b) The main functions of the Mayor of a Corporation are as follows :

  1. To preside over the meetings of the Corporation and to regulate the conduct of business in such meetings.
  2. To maintain decorum and discipline in the meetings.
  3. To act as the channel of communication between the Corporation and the State or the Union Government, as the case may be.
  4. To receive the foreign dignitaries visiting the city. The Mayor has access to all papers and records of the Corporation. Despite these powers, the Mayor is merely a figurehead if he is not elected directly by the people. Only a directly elected Mayor would have real power.

(c) The municipal Corporation deals with two types of functions, e.g.:

  1. Compulsory Functions: Provision of electricity, water sewage disposal etc, Public health, transport, education, births and deaths records, managing the disasters e.g. floods, earthquakes etc.
  2. Optional Functions: Public housing, Public parks, museums, libraries, children homes, orphanages, old age homes, rest houses, fairs and beautification of the city.

Question 2.
Give the role of each of the following in the Municipal Corporation.
(a) General Council of the Corporation
(b) Standing Committees.
(c) Municipal Commissioner.
Answer:
(a) General Council :The General Council consists of the Members elected by all the adult citizens registered as voters in the Municipal area. They are called as Councillors. Size of the Council depends on the population of the city. Seats would be reserved for SCs and STs in proportional to their population and l/3rd of the total number of seats shall be reserved for women. In addition to the elected members, the Council has a few Aldermen. They are usually elected by the Councillors. The General Council appoints many other officials except the Municipal Commissioner. It deals with various departments of Education, Health, Taxation etc.

(b) The role of the Standing Committees: The General Council performs different functions through the Standing Committees. These Committees deal with one or more of the subject like—Taxation, Finance and Preparation of Budget, Engineering, Health, Education Services, Plan for Economic;Development. Welfare Schemes for Weaker Sections etc.

(c) Following are the functions performed by the Municipal Commissioner :

  1. The Municipal Commissioner gives necessary directions to all other officers of the Corporation.
  2. He is responsible for the implementation of all rules, decisions and policies of the Corporation.
  3. He takes part in the meeting and deliberations of the General Council. He acts as Secretary to the Council and maintains a record of the things decided at its meeting.
  4. He prepares the budget-estimates and places the same before the General Council.
  5. He is the custodian of all records and personal files of all staff members.

Question 3.
With regard to the working of a Municipal Corporation answer the following questions.
(a) Giving examples, state how are compulsory functions distinguished from optional functions.
(b) What organisational system exists for carrying out these functions ?
Answer:
(a) From the following we can better understand the difference between the compulsory functions and optional functions.
Compulsory Functions:

  1. Public Health and Sanitation : It undertakes the responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten food-stuffs and adulterated milk etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply : It provides safe drinking- water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports : The Municipalities establish primary and secondary schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Public Works : The public works mainly include the construction of roads, shopping centers and community halls.
  5. Registration of Births and Deaths : The Municipals Boards maintain an account of births and death in the city.

Optional Functions :

  1. Transport Facilities : Local authorities may manage a bus service for carrying people from one place to another.
  2. Cultural Activities : The Municipal Corporations may establish libraries and museums. Cultural activities like— drama, music and painting are also encouraged by Municipal Corporations.
  3. Sports and Recreation : The Corporation organises fairs, exhibitions and wrestling events. Recreational facilities may also be provide.
  4. Welfare Services : Municipal Corporation are expected to launch family welfare schemes and to undertake poverty alleviation programmes. The Corporation can look after public distribution system too.

(b) For carrying out the above functions an organisation system that exists is known as Municipal Corporation. Which comprises of the following bodies.

  1. General Council
  2. The Mayor
  3. The Standing Committee
  4. AMunicipal Commissioner.

Question 4.
With regard to the Municipal Corporation :
(a) Distinguish between Municipal Corporation and Municipal Committee.
(b) Describe the three wings of the Municipal Committee.
Answer:
Municipal Corporation

  1. It is for cities with more than 10 lakh population
  2. The head is Mayor.
  3. It deals with the State Government directly)
  4. It has more powers and more sources of revenue

Municipal Committee

  1. It is for 20,000-3 lakh population cities.
  2. The head is Chairperson.
  3. It deals with state government through the District Administration
  4. It has comparatively less powers and fewer sources of revenue

(b) Three wings are :

  1. General body of the Municipal Committee : The members of the General Body of the Municipal Committee are called Councillors. They are elected from Municipal wards. The number of members depends on the population of the city.
  2. Chairperson/President : A Chairperson and a Vice-Chairperson are elected indirectly by the members from among themselves. The Chairperson of a Municipality enjoys vast powers. His functions are similar to those of the Mayor.
  3. Chief Executive officer : The Chief-Executive Officer is an appointee of the State government and usually belongs to the State Civil Services. He looks after the administrative wing of the Municipal Committee.
    General body is the main administrative body. Chairperson looks after every activity and programme and the Chief Executive Officer looks after the administrative wing of the Municipal Committee.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 5.
Give a brief account of each of the following local self-government bodies,
(a) Town Area Committee.
(b) Notified Area Committee,
(c) Cantonment Board.
Answer:
(a) Town Area Committee: It isset up in towns with population between 10,000 to 20,000 It looks after sanitation, water, electricity, health services, transport, shopping markets etc.

(b) Notified Area Committee : It is set up in areas in transition from rural to urban areas. The functions are similar to town area committee.

(c) Cantonment Board : It is an urban area at the out skirt of a large city, with military establishment has a Cantonment Board. It is significant for the safety and welfare of the city.
The head is an Army officer. It looks after health, cleanliness, electricity recreation for the residents of the area.

Question 6.
With regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality, answer the following questions :
(a) What are the functions of a Municipal Committee?
(b) What are the sources of income of a Municipality?
Answer:
The above questions with regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality are answered as below:
(a) The functions of a Municipal Committee :

I. Obligatory Functions :

  1. Public Health and Sanitation : It undertakes the responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten food-stuffs and adulterated milk etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply : It provides safe drinking- water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports : The Municipalities establish primary and secondary schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Public Works : The public works mainly include the construction of roads, shopping centers and community halls.
  5. Registration of Births and Deaths : The Municipals Boards maintain an account of births and deaths in the city.

(b) Discretionary Functions : Municipalities establish libraries and reading rooms, constructing stadiums for sport activity, organising fairs and exhibitions, providing, transport facilities and other amenities for peoples, convenience. Under Nehru Rozgar Yojana, financial assistance was given to small artisans for self-employment. There was also a provision for housing and slum clearance programmes.

(c)  The sources of income of a Municipality are :

  1. Income from Taxes : It includes tax on property, tax on vehicles, tax on advertisements and entertainment tax.
  2. Cases Rates : The citizens are required to pay cess on consumption water and electricity and licence fees for various vocations. Other such cases are octroi duty and toll tax.
  3. Grants-in-Aid : Grants from State Government constitute an important source of funding.
  4. Remunerative Enterprises : The Municipal Committee may set up commercial complexes or establish other remunerative enterprises.

Question 7.
There are many defects in the working of local self-government institutions. Analyse them under the following headlines :
(a) Role of Money in Elections
(b) Paucity of funds.
Answer:
Following are the defects regarding the concerned headlines in the working of local self-government institutions :
(a) Role of Money in Elections : In the heat of the election- campaign, the rich farmers and traders squander a lot of money, usually in a wasteful way. This tendency gives a severe set-back blow to the electoral prospects of the capable candidates who are not in a position to spend much on elections.

(b) Paucity of Funds : The most serious confronting the rural and the urban bodies is the shortage of funds. These institutions have been entrusted with the responsibility of preparing plans for economic and social development, rural electrification, poverty alleviation’slum improvement and urban forestry. To undertake such onerous tasks, the local bodies are yet to start functioning with independence and sufficient resources. Panchayats and urban bodies can become responsive to the local needs through effective participation of the people and sufficient funds at their command.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 18

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 18 Local Self-Government: Rural.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 18 Local Self-Government: Rural.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Name one difference between local government and local self-government unit.
Answer:
Local-government Local-self-government

  1. The administration of a locality is looked after by the officials appointed by the state.

Local-self-government

  1. It is an institution of locally elected representatives managing the affairs of the locality and providing them with basic amenities.

Question 2.
Give two advantage of having the local self-government.
Answer:
The local self-government play an important role in the functioning of democracy at grass roots level, because it makes possible for local people to take interest in their own affairs.

Question 3.
Name the three tier institutions of the Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
The three-tier system comprises the following :

  1. Gram Panchayats at Village level.
  2. Panchayat Samiti at block level or middle level.
  3. Zila Parishad at District level.

Question 4.
What is a Gram Sabha ?
Answer:
The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by the Gram Sabha. In essence Gram Sabha (the group of the village people) functions as the general body of the Gram Panchayat.

Question 5.
What did the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 provide for in respect of organisation
of Panchayats ?
Answer:
The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act. 1992 relating to Panchayats and Part IX A relating to Municipalities provide for among other things a uniform and fixed term of 5 years for both the rural and urban local bodies.

Question 6.
What was the view of Gandhiji on Panchayats ?
Answer:
Gandhiji gave stress on the composition of Panchayats for the welfare of the villages. India’s larger part lives in the villages Gandhiji’s dream of a village-republic has become true.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Village Panchayat ?
Answer:
‘Sarpanch’ is the head of the Village Panchayat.

Question 8.
Under the system of local self-government which local body discharges judicial functions in a rural area ?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayats also called Panchayati Adalats. There is usually one such body for every three or four Gram Panchayats. These Panchayats exist only in some states and perform only judicial functions.

Question 9.
What is known as the Panchayat Samiti ?
Answer:
Panchayati Raj System at block or middle level is called Panchayat Samiti.

Question 10.
Who is the head of the Panchayat Samiti ? How is he appointed ?
Answer:
The head of the Panchayat Samiti is called Chairman. He is appointed by his own members.

Question 11.
Who is the head of local government at the district level?
Answer:
Chairperson is the head of local government at the district level.

Question 12.
What is Nyaya Panchayat ? Mention two of its function
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat also called Panchayati Adalat is set up for every three or four Gram Panchayats. These Panchayats exist only in some States and perform judicial functions.
The chief functions of Nyaya Panchayats are the following:

  1. They ensure quick and inexpensive justice to villagers.
  2. They can impose a fine of up to Rs. 100.

Question 13.
State two points of importance of having local-self-government.
Answer:
Local self-government in villages as Panchayat and in urban areas as Municipal Board, provides basic leadership qualities promotion and direct and easy solutions of the local problems.

Question 14.
Point out two differences between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Both are complementary, as Gram Panchayat is selected by Gram Sabha which functions as the general body oV Gram Panchayat. Gram Panchayat is a body of a few selected member for the judgment of the local people, while Gram Sabha is a larger body including eminent persons of the villagers.

Question 15.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Samiti ?
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti does coordination of the working Panchayats under it, management of schools and colleges, maintenance of hospitals and health services and development of agriculture.

Question 16.
Briefly state the composition of Zila Parishad.
Answer:
ZilaParishad is composed of Deputy Commissioner, BDOs and Chairmen of Deputy Commissioner, MLAs, belonging to the district, including40-60 members.

II. Structured Questions :

1. With reference to local self-government today, answer the following questions :
Question 1(a).
Name important local self-government institutions in rural areas.
Answer:
In rural areas the local self government institutions is known as Panchayat. It consists of elected representatives. They receive government grants for their activities like sanitation, providing elementary education and settling elementary education and settling disputes.

Question 1(b).
What is the significance of self-government institution?
Answer:
The Local Self-Government has multi-dimensional significance. Local people can effectively manage the local affairs like sanitation, electricity, water supply, education, public works and other utilities. Local Self-Government provides opportunity to the people to govern themselves. Local bodies provide a good training to manage national or State affairs later on in life. Most people who reached great heights, began their public career as a member of local bodies. Local Institutions relieve State Administration of some of its burden. Hence, it can concentrate better on matters like—public order, criminal law, police, prisons and trade and commerce within the State. This ensures efficiency  at all levels—national, regional and local. Moreover, this system is extremely Economical. These bodies consist of honorary members, serving without pay or very little emoluments.

Question 1(c).
Mention any three salient features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
Answer:
Three salient features of the Constitution are as follows :

  1. To provide three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States having population of over 20 lakh.
  2. To hold Panchayat elections regularly every five years.
  3. To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women.
  4. To appoint State Finance Commissions to make recommendations on financial powers of the Panchayats.

2. With respect to Panchayat Raj System answer the following questions :
Question 2(a).
How did the Panchayats come to be set up on a uniform basis all over the country ?
Answer:
The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to Panchayats provide for among other things a uniform and fixed term of 5 years. On the basis of Gandhiji’s dream and recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee of 1956, a three-tier system of Local-self Government for rural areas came into effect in April 1993.

Question 2(b).
Describe the common features of the three-tier Panchayat Raj System.
Answer:
Common features are :

  1. Member should be a citizen of India and atleast 21 years of age.
  2. He must be registered voter.
  3. He should not be a convict.
  4. He should not hold any other government service.

Question 2(c).
Mention any two achievements of the Panchayati Raj System.
Answer:
The achievements of the Panchayati Raj System are :

  1. Panchayati Raj system now ensures effective coordination between Government programmes and those of voluntary agencies.
  2. The District Rural Development Agencies in close cooperation’ with Zila Parishadas release funds to Gram Panchayats under— the Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojna.

Question 3.
With reference to the Gram Panchayat, state the following.
(a) It composition
(b) Its Function
(c) Important office bearers.
Answer:
(a) The composition of Gram Panchayat is as follows:
Sarpanch : He is the head of the Gram Panchayat. In some states a Sarpanch is elected directly and in others indirectly by members of the Gram Panchayat. A Vice-Sarpanch from amongst its own members is also elected.

Members : Number of members of the Panchayat is.fixed by the State. The membership of a Village Panchayat is between 5 to 31. In most of the States a Village Panchayat has 5 to 9 members. One-third of the seats of the Panchayat are reserved for women. Seats are also reserved for Scheduled Castes/Tribes in proportion to their population in the village. The members are elected on the principle of Adult Franchise.

Office Bearers: The Sarpanch and Vice-Sarpanch are honorary members. They are not paid salary. A paid Secretary to the Panchayat and a Treasurer, if the Panchayat is large, are also appointed by the State Government through the district authorities.

(b) Function: The Gram Panchayat performs the folIowing functions:
(1) Administrative functions :

  1. All public works and public welfare functions like construction, repair and maintenance of village roads, cart tracks, bridges, drains, tanks and wells.
  2. Upkeep of cremation and burial grounds.
  3.  Sanitation, health, setting up of health centers and dispensaries.
  4. Providing primary education.
  5. Arranging irrigation facilities, seeds, fertilisers.
  6. Registration of births and deaths.
  7. Maintaining records of common village property, their sale and purchase and land grants.

(2) Social and economic functions : These functions are not obligatory and can be performed according to the availability of funds. These functions include:

  1. Construction of guest houses, libraries, marriage halls, etc.
  2. Organising regular village meals, fairs and exhibitions.
  3. Planting of trees, parks, gardens and playground for recreation.
  4. Establishing fair price shops, Cooperative Credit Societies.

(3) Judicial functions: These are discussed under Nyaya Panchayats.

(c) Officer bearers : The Sarpanch and Vice-Sarpanch are honorary members. They are not paid salary. A paid Secretary to the Panchayat and a Treasurer, if the Panchayat is large, are also appointed by the State Government through the district authorities.

Question 4.
With reference to the Panchayat Samiti, write short notes on the following :
(a) Composition of the Panchayat Samiti.
(b) Its functions
Answer:
(a) Composition of the Panchayat Samiti : It has the representatives of Panchayat and some others as its members as given below:

  1. Sarpanchs of all Panchayats concerned.
  2. Members of Legislative Assembly of the State from the area.
  3. Members of Parliament belonging to the area.
  4. Block Development Officers of the block or the area served by them.
  5. Co-opted members (provisional) representing women, Scheduled Castes/Tribes.
  6. Representatives of Cooperative Societies (only in certain States).
    The Samiti appoints various Standing Committees to undertake specialised works. These committees may have outside members as well.

(b) Functions :

  1. To supervise and coordinate the working of Gram Panchayats.
  2. To conduct higher education (higher secondary level and above) for a group of villages or at block level.
  3. To provide hospital and health services with various
    facilities at community block level.
  4. To pay special attention to development of agriculture through undertaking minor irrigation sphemes, distribution of quality seeds and fertilisers.
  5. To approve buildingplans, undertake other development works including roads and bridges within the circle of Panchayats.
  6. To provide drinking water and execute other community development programmes/schemes.
  7. To act as a link between the Gram Panchayat and Zila Parishad.

Question 5.
Name the apex body of the Panchayat Raj System State its composition, functions and sources of income.
Answer:
With regard to the Zila Parishad, the given questions are answer as under :
Composition : The Zila Parishad is an apex body under the Panchayati Raj. It co-ordinates the activities of the various Panchayat Samitis. It consists of

  1. Pradhans of the Panchayat Samitis of the District;
  2. Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislature from that district;
  3. One representative of each of the co-operative societies of the district;
  4. Representative of women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes;
  5. Chairpersons of the Municipalities in the district. In some states, the District Magistrate is empowered to attend the meetings of the Zila Parishad, but he does not have the right to vote. Zila Parishads shall have to uniform 5-year term as per the norms and conditions of the new Panchayati Raj Acts. Each Zila Parishad has a Chairperson who is elected by the members of the Parishad. In proportion to their population in the State, Chairpersons shall be reserved in favour of SCs and STs l/3rd of the offices are reserved for women.

The main functions of the Zila Parishad are :
(1) Civic Facilities and Welfare Functions : These consist of

  1. Construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges and culverts;
  2. Construction of parks;
  3. To implement programmes concerning agriculture;
  4. To develop the land, water and human resources of the area;
  5. To establish libraries, educational institutions and dispensaries;
  6. To promote the welfare of weaker sections of society;
  7. To provide relief in times of distress, drought and scarcity.

(2) Coordinating and Supervisory Functions : The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of the Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats. It coordinates the developmental plans prepared by the Panchayat Samitis in the District. The Zila Parishad examines and approves the budgets of the Panchayat Samitis.

(3) Advisory and Financial Functions : The Zila Parishad renders advice of the State-Government regarding needs of the people in rural areas. It receives funds from the Union or State-Government, which it distributes among the Panchayat Samitis.

(4) Developmental functions : It undertakes developmental functions such as irrigation schemes, rural electrification, poverty alleviation programmes and public distribution system etc. The District Board is expected to strive for yet more efficiently for the development of its area and people. The main sources of income of the Zila Parishad are :

  1. Share in the Land Revenue.
  2. Taxes and cases, licence fees and market fees.
  3. Grants from the the State Government.
  4.  Income from the property of the Zila Parishad.
  5.  Funds alloted by the Center under Centrally-sponsored Schemes.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 6.
Using the following points, explain the eactors (reasons) responsible for the emergence of Regional Parties :
(a) Ethnic and Cultural factors.
(b) Fear concerning North’s domination.
(c) Center-State relations.
(d) Organisational weakness of the Congress.
Answer:
Following are the factors responsible for the emergence of Regional Parties :
(a) Ethnic and Cultural factors : India is a country of enormous size and diversities—ethnic and linguistic. There are regions which are far away from the National Capital. People dominating some of the regions, blame the national parties for not knowing their problems. Consequently, their attachment to the regional parties is quite natural. They believe the regional parties like—Biju Janata Dal, Goa People’s Congress, Mizo National Front and Telugu Desam Party could voice their aspirations in a well to do manner.

(b) Fear concerning North’s domination : Some of the leaders of the South India had been against the domination of North India. The DMK and All-India Anna DMK were the parties being fed on anti-North and anti-Hindi stance. But now, the two Southern parties are getting rid of their old prejudicies.

(c) Center-State relations : By 1970s the Center-State relations began to attenuate. A movement for real State autonomy arose in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and North¬eastern regions.
The main demands of the regional parties are :

  1. Regional imbalances should be done away with,
  2. President’s rule should not be imposed in State to promote partisan interests, and
  3. The States should have a better share in Central revenues.

(d) Organisational weakness of the Congress : When the Congress was strong in organisation, regional parties were practically non-existent. As the Congress weakened, regional parties gained the upper hand in some of the States.

Question 7.
Regional parties have captured governmental power in many States. In this context, answer the following questions :
(a) What is the criteria for a party’s recognition as a Regional or State Party?
(b) how are the Regional Parties different from All-India
(National) Parties?
Answer:
Regional parties have captured governmental power in many States in this context the given questions are answered below :
(a) The criteria for a party’s recognition as a Regional or State Party : A minimum of 6 per cent of votes at an election either to the Lok Sabha or the Assembly of votes at an election either to the Lok Sabha or the Assembly of the concerned State and atleast two sets in the Assembly, Alternatively, 3 per cent of seats in Assembly or a minimum of three seats, whichever is more.

(b) National parties have influence over the country or in many States of India. The influence of the Regional parties extends to one State or a few regions. National parties are more concerned with national interests, whereas regional parties protect and promote mainly regional interests. The Regional parties concern themselves with the local or regional matters. National parties have to harmonise many conflicting regional interests. The Regional parties usually stand for greater autonomy for States. An exclusive symbol is reserved for a national party throughout the country. In case of a Regional party a symbol is reserved for it in the State or the Union Territory in which it is recognised.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 17

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 17 Elections.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 17 Elections.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by the term election ?
Answer:
Election is a procedure whereby persons are chosen, by voting, to represent the voters for running the government.

Question 2.
Under which method of elections are the elections to Lok Sabha held ?
Answer:
The elections to Lok Sabha are held directly. People of India directly elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
Name the system of election to the office of the President ofIndia.
Answer:
The system of election to the office of the President of India is Indirect.

Question 4.
What is meant by a by-election ?
Answer:
When a seat held by any member of the Legislative Assembly in the Center or States falls vacant due to death or resignation of the member, before completion of the term, to fill up this vacancy the election is called By-Election.

Question 5.
Who allots the symbols to political parties ?
Answer:
Election Commission allots the symbols to political parties.

Question 6.
When is a mid-term election held ?
Answer:
This type of election is held when a State Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its full term (5 years).

Question 7.
Who appoints the Election Commissioners ?
Answer:
The Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.

Question 8.
What is the normal term of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners ?
Answer:
The normal term is of 6 years, but the retirement age is 65.

Question 9.
Name two important powers and functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The Election Commission has given wide range of power as: Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996. The functions and power of the Election Commission with respect to the conduct of elections to are given below:
(a) Preparation of Electoral Rolls and Photo Identity Cards.
(b) Registration and Recognition of Political Parties.
(c) Allotment of Symbols etc.

Question 10.
Name one advisory function of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The Election Commission also advises the President or the Governors of the State in respect of Electoral matters.

Question 11.
What is known as the Voters List ? Who prepares it ?
Answer:
The Commission identifies eligible voters in each constituency and prepares the list of eligible voters. This is called ‘Voters List’.

Question 12.
What is the need for elections ?
Answer:
Elections are the lifeline of democracy. We need elections for the following reasons:

  1. It is the best way by which representatives of the people can be chosen and sent to legislatures.
  2. When there is a contest between different candidates for the same position, it gives the voters a greater choice of selection and makes it easy to elect candidates by casting their vote.
  3. Elections help the people to put a check on the activities of the government because political parties know that they will be ousted from power if they do not perform according to the expectations of the people.
  4. By contesting elections, either as members of a political party or as an independent candidate, people get a chance to form the government and make laws and policies for the welfare of their people and their country.

Question 13.
Define the term Constituency. Name the types of constituencies.
Answer:
The division of country or a State into a number of representative areas is called constituencies. So, a constituency is a fixed area with a body of voters or residents with voting rights. The types of constituencies are the Parliamentary Constituency and tire Assembly Constituency.

Question 14.
What is the main purpose of allotting symbols to political parties ?
Answer:
Political parties are allotted reserved common symbols, while the independent candidates may select them from the list of free symbols. Main purpose is that these symbols may be easily recognised by illiterate people.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 15.
Mention two functions of the Returning Officer.
Answer:
The Returning officer has to scrutinies the nomination papers and has authority to reject the nomination papers.

Question 16.
What is meant by the term ‘election by secret ballot’ ?
Answer:
This means that the voter chooses the candidates of his choice secretly.

Question 17.
What is called the ‘simple majority’ ?
Answer:
The person who gets ‘the highest number of vote’s or the ‘simple majority’ is declared the winner.

Question 18.
When is a vote declared invalid and not counted ?
Answer:
The ballot paper which is not properly stamped or bears more than one stamp is declared invalid.

Question 19.
What is meant by election petition ?
Answer:
In case any defeated candidate has a reasonable doubt about rigging of elections, voter or a defeated candidate can file a petition in the court of law.

Question 20.
When is repoll at a booth held ?
Answer:
The Election Commission orders are poll within two or three days after the first polling, in case there is a threat to voters security or other genuine reasons prevailing.

Question 21.
State one limitation of democracy in respect of elections.
Answer:
One limitation of democracy in respect of elections is the‘Proportionate Representation i.e. a system in which parties in an election gain seats in proportion to the number of votes cast for them.,

Question 22.
Name one important duty of an enlightened electorate.
Answer:
An enlightened electorate works out the election procedure keeping in view all the basic rules fixed for the election, in a disciplined manner with honesty and peace.

Question 23.
What is meant by Elections? Mention any one principles according to which elections are conducted in a democracy.
Answer:
An election is an organised process in which people vote of choose the persons who shall represent them in Parliament or the State Legislature. Elections are also held to elect those persons who hold a constitutional position, such as the President or the Vice-President of India.
Elections in a democracy are conducted according to the following principles :
(a) Universal Adult Franchise,
(b) the Secret Ballot, and
(c) electoral choice offered by competition between political parties or between many candidates.

Question 24.
Who can become a Voter in India?
Answer:
The Constitution of India permits every person, who is a Citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law, is eligible to become a Voter in India.

Question 25.
Mention any one advantage of Elections.
Answer:
People Elect their Rulers : It is through elections that Parliament and the State legislatures are constituted. The party or the parties which get the verdict in their favour form the government. The elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies elect the President of India. The Prime Minister and other ministers are appointed by the President. They are held responsible to the Lok Sabha. Thus it is through elections that various government structures are established and made functional.

Question 26.
What is a General Election? .
Answer:
The Lok Sabha election is said to be a General Election.

Question 27.
What is a By-Election?
Answer:
A By-Election is held to choose a member of the Lok Sabha or that the State legislature “to replace a previous member who has resigned suddenly or died.”

Question 28.
What is meant by Midterm-Election?
Answer:
A midterm-poll that is held in consequence to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha or the State Assembly before its term is over is called as Midterm-Election.

Question 29.
What is meant by Direct Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters directly choose their representatives to the legislatures is known as Direct Election.

Question 30.
What is Indirect Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters do not directly elect their representatives to the legislatures or Head of State, but elect an intermediate body which finally proceeds to elect the representative or the President, such an election is called as Indirect Election.

Question 31.
Name two bodies whose members are elected by Indirect Election.
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad (State Legislative Council) are the two bodies, whose members are elected by Indirect Election.

Question 32.
Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of Direct Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Direct Election : It stimulates the interest of the people in elections.
Disadvantage of Direct Election : The masses, under the influence of emotions or religious leaders, may reject someone who is rational and is able to think clearly.

Question 33.
Mention one main advantage and one disadvantage of Indirect Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Indirect Election : It reduces the heat of the election campaign.
Disadvantage of Indirect Election : It may lead to horse-trading or evil practices such as bribery, because fire final electors are very few in number.

Question 34.
What is meant by a Single-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Single-Member Constituency is one, which returns only one representative from each area.

Question 35.
What is a Multip-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Multi-Member Constituency is one, which elects more than one representative.

Question 36.
What is meant by a Reserve Constituency?
Answer:
It was the Scheme of Communal Electorates that falls under Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced by the British Government. The Act provided for separate representation of the Muslim Community at the Center as well as in Provincial Legislatures. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended this privilege to the minorities such as the Sikhs, the Anglo- Indians, Europeans and the Indian Christians. In due course of time, the Constitution of India abolished Communal Electorates.

Question 37.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners?
Answer:
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

Question 38.
Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission.

Question 39.
What is the term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years.

Question 40.
How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 41.
Mention any two powers (functions) of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Two powers (functions) of the Election Commission are :

  1. Preparation of the Electoral Rolls.
  2. Conduct of Elections.

Question 42.
Mention any two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign begins.
Answer:
Two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign are :

  1. Nomination of Candidates
  2. Scrutiny of Nominations.

Question 43.
Mention any two techniques of Election Campaign.
Answer:
The two techniques of Election Campaign are :

  1. Public meetings and rallies are organised.
  2. The candidates do door-to-doot canvassing.

Question 44.
What is an Election Manifesto?

OR

What is the use of an Election Manifesto?
Answer:
An Election Manifesto is a formal statement of the programme and objectives of a political party. The Manifesto contains programmes and promises for all sections of the society.

Question 45.
Mention any two reasons why a Ballot Paper becomes invalid.
Answer:
A ballot paper becomes invalid when

  1. It is not marked at all.
  2. The voter indicates his choice for more than one candidate.

Question 46.
What is the maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest?
Answer:
The maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest amounts at Rs. 15 lacs.

Question 47.
Mention any two measures that ensure that elections are free and fair in India.
Answer:
The two measures that ensure free and fair elections in India are :

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.

Question 48.
Mention any one measure that has been taken to discourage non-serious candidates from jumping into the election fray.
Answer:
For election to the Lok Sabha the Security Deposit was raised in 1996 from Rs. 500 to Rs. 10,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. For Assembly elections it was raised from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 125 to Rs. 2,500 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. The security deposit of such candidates as have obtained less than one- sixth of the total number of votes is forfeited.

II. Structured Questions :

Question 1.
With reference to Democracy and Elections, answer the following questions :
(a) Distinguish between two types of elections.
(b) What type of elections are direct and what type are indirect in a Parliamentary Democracy ?
(c) How are elections of the President and Vice-President of India held ?
Answer:
(a)
Direct Elections

  1. People vote directly for their representatives.
  2. Law regulates the eligibility of voters and officials.
  3. Every adult holds right to vote.
  4. There is a very large body of voters called electorate,
  5. M.L.A. and M.P.’s are elected directly.

Indirect Elections

  1. People elect their representatives indirectly through their elected representative
  2. AU elected representatives are treated as perfect.
  3.  Every elected representative hold right to vote.
  4. There is very small body of voters.
  5. The members of State Legislative Councils, Members of Rajya Sabha the President and the Vice-President are 4 elected indirectly.

(b) Direct elections are held for electing M.L.A. and M.P. Indirect elections are held for M.L.C., members of Rajya Sabha, the President and Vice-President.

(c) The President of India is elected by a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote by the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the M.L.A. ’s of the States. The Vice-President is elected by members of both House of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting.

Question 2.
With reference to types of elections, answer the following:
(a) What is known as General Elections ?
(b) State two points of difference between a by-election and mid-term elections.
(c) When were the last General Elections held in India?
Answer:
(a) The elections held to elect the members of the Lok Sabha after expiry of the normal term of five years are called the General Elections.

(b) Mid-Term Election : is held when a State Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its full term (5 years)

By -Election when a seat held by any member of the Legislative Assembly in the Center or State falls vacant due to death or resignation of the member before the completion of his/her term.

(c) The Last General Elections were held in India in the year 2009 in April and May.

Question 3.
With reference to terms of office and conditions of service of the Election Commission, answer the following questions.
(a) Who is the head of the Election Commission ?
(b) How is he appointed ?
(c) State any two functions of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(a) Chief Election Commissioner is the head of the Election Commission.
(b) The Chief Commissioner is appointed by the President of India and is done at the behest of the Prime Minister
as per Article 74.
(c) The two functions are :

  1. Preparation of Electoral rolls
  2. Sole authority for superintendence and conduct of elections.

4. With reference to powers and functions of the Election Commission, answer the following :
Question 4(a).
Explain the role of the Election Commission in fixing the dates for elections and conducting the elections.
Answer:
The Election Commission fixes dates for elections. Under the Constitution, the Government decides as to when the elections should be held. The fixing of exact dates rests with the Election Commission.

Question 4(b).
How does the Election Commission ensure free and fair elections ?
Answer:
The Election Commission tries to ensure free and fair elections through prescribing code of conduct, central observers, countermanding, severe punishment for booth capturing etc.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
Question 5.
With reference to Election procedures, answer the following questions.
(a) State the procedure for allotment of symbols, state its advantages.
(b) State the nomination procedure. What happens when a nomination paper is incomplete ?
(c) State the procedure by secret ballot ?
Answer:
(a) The allotment of symbols is done much before the election by the Election Commission. The symbols help the illiterate to identify their candidate by the symbol, to avoid confusion of duplicate names and to carry elections systematically.

(b) The candidate who intend to contest the elections either as individual candidate or from a political party have to fill in a form called Nomination paper. If it is incomplete, the Returning officers have the authority to reject the Nomination Paper.

(c) Secret ballot: It is the method of stamping ballot paper secretly and then placing the ballot paper in a sealed box or casting a vote on the Electronic Voting Machine by pressing a button.

Question 6.
With reference to elections, answer the following question:
(a) State the difference between secret ballot and open ballot.
(b) What is known as Election Petition ?  State the procedure of filling an election petition,
(c) When is a repoll ordered ?
Answer:
Secret Ballot

  1. It is the method of stamping ballot paper secretly.
  2. This process is conducted by Election Commission
  3. It is safe and does not create jealousy.

Open Ballot

  1. It is the method of raising hands by the voters.
  2. This process is done in certain cases.
  3. It creates the feeling of jealousy against the voter.

(b) If the defeated candidate has any doubt regarding unjust elections, he can file a petition in a court of law especially in High Court. He may be declared winner on the basis of merits of the case; however, litigation have always a final choice to appeal to the Supreme Court.

(c) The Election Commission on its own can countermand an
election. It can also suspend polling when it fears a threat to voter’s security or other genuine reasons. Then the Election Commission orders a repoll which takes place within two or three days after the first polling.

Question 7.
What is the need for Elections? What are the comparative advantages and disadvantages of Direct and Indirect Elections?
Answer:
It is generally said, ‘No elections, no democracy’. This saying is not without meaning, it simple words it devotes that without the elections a democratic government cannot be set up.

  1. People Elect their Rulers : It is through elections that Parliament and the State legislatures are constituted. The party or the parties which get the verdict in their favour form the government. The elected members of Parliament and State Legislative.
  2. People Exercise Control over their Representative :
    Representatives are elected for a fixed tenure and they have to seek fresh mandate from the people at regular intervals. In 2002 the Congress and the PDP (People’s Democratic Party) had formed a coalition government in Jammu and Kashmir. But in 2008 the people voted for a change. Oman Abdullah led the National Conference.
  3. Protection of Human Freedoms : A government based on the consent of the citizens is relatively more secured than one in which people have no right of participation. In complete democracy no one can complain that he has not a chance to be heard.

Question 8.
With reference to the composition of the Election Commission, explain the following :
(a) Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.
(b) Their Terms pf Office and Conditions of Service.
Answer:
Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners :
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are appointed by the President.

(b) Terms of Office and Conditions of Service of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner shall hold office for a term of six years. However, if the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner has attained the age of 65 years, the shall vacate office on the date on which he attains the said age.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are paid a salary equal to the salary of a judge of the Supreme Court i.e., Rs. 30,000 per month. On retirement, they are entitled to a pension.
  3. If the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election commissioners differ in opinion on any matter, such matter shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority.

Question 9.
What measures have been taken to ensure Independence of Election Commission?
Answer:
The Election Commission’s independence is secured by the following provisions :

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. The other commissioners can not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. Their conditions of service shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.
  3. It is the duty of the President or the Governor of a State to make available to the Commission such staff as may be necessary for the conduct of elections.

Question 10.
With reference to the powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following :
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll
(b) Recognition of Political Parties
(c) Allotment of Symbols
Answer:
The given headlines with reference to the powers and functions of the Election commission are discussed below:
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll: The Constitution lays down that there shall be one ‘General Electoral Roll’ for every territorial constituency. The Lok Sabha or any of the Assemblies may be dissolved before its terms of five years has expired. Therefore, the electoral rolls will have to be kept up-to-date all the time so that the new election may take place without any difficulty.

(b) Recognition of Political Parties : The Election Commission grants recognition to the political parties for Election Commission grants recognition to the political parties for Election purposes. These national parties are Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP), Indian National Congress (INC) (Cong. I), the CPI (M), the Communist Party of India (CPI), Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).

(c) Allotment of Symbols : The National and State level parties can have a reserved symbol for all the candidates nominated by them. The independent candidates, can select any symbol out of a list of ‘Free Symbols’.
The purpose behind alloting symbols is that illiterate masses can not read the names of the candidates of their parties. It is easy for them to identify the symbols for electing candidates of their choice. Secondly ‘reserved symbols’ become so popular that the parties do not have to do canvassing for their candidates.

Question 11.
With reference to powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following :
(a) Conduct of Elections
(b) Ensuring Free and Fair Elections
Answer:
(a) Conduct of Elections : The Commission conducts all elections to Parliament and the State Legislature. Besides, it supervises and directs elections to the offices of the
President and Vice-President Exact dates or polls and finalised after consultations with the Election Commission.

(b) Ensuring Free and Fair Elections : The Commission takes the following measures to ensure free and fair elections :

  1. the Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. the Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.
  3. the Commission creates conditions for a free and fair poll. Recent amendments to the Representation of the People Act provide severe punishment for booth-capturing.

Question 12.
Write a detailed note on the nomination of candidates and the Scrutiny of Nominations.
Answer:
Nomination of Candidates and the Scrutiny of Nominations : In order to be chosen a member of the Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative Council, a person must be not less than 30 years of age. For election to the Lok Sabha or the State Legislative Assembly a person should have attained an age of 25 years. A person is disqualified for being a member of any House on a number of grounds, such as being of unsound mind or holding of an office of profit.

On the date fixed for scrutiny, the Returning Officer examines the nomination papers. He may reject any nomination if the candidates is not qualified for being chosen to fill the seat.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 16

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 16 Salient Features of the Constitution—II.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 16 Salient Features of the Constitution—II.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
What are known as Directive Principles of State Policy?
Answer:
The Directive Principles are the guidelines to be followed by the government of the country.

Question 2.
In which part of the Constitution are Directive Principles incorporated ?
Answer:
Article 39 to 51 contain the Directive Principles.

Question 3.
Name one important source of Directive Principles.
Answer:
The ideas of Mahatma Gandhi are one of the important source of Directive Principles.

Question 4.
When the Directive Principles are not enforceable by law courts why have they been incorporated in the Constitution.
Answer:
Some Directive Principles are not enforceable by law courts; but these are incorporated in the constitution to deal with exceptional cases.

Question 5.
What happens in case of any conflict between the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights ? Give reason to support your answer.
Answer:
In case of any conflict between the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights, the former shall prevail. This is because the welfare of the people as a whole is of paramount importance over that of an individual. However, the Directive principles are not enforceable by any court of law in the country. This in effect means that the citizens cannot move the courts of law if the government fails to implement these directives. But on moral grounds both the government and the courts have to take cognizance of these directives.

Question 6.
Name any two measures taken by the Government towards implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:

  1. To provide free and compulsory education to children up to the age of 14 in all government and government aided schools.
  2. Five-Year Plans to focus on the progress of weaker section of the society.

Question 7.
Mention two Directive Principles based on Gandhian Principles.
Answer:
Two Directive Principles based on Gandhian Principles are :

  1. To establish Village Panchayat.
  2. To promote cottage industries.

Question 8.
Mention one important point in favour of Directive Principles for the governance of our country.
Answer:
Directive Principles provide a solid framework, of political social and economic programmer for a modem democratic state to enable the ruler to govern the nation properly.

Question 9.
Mention two Directive Principles which aim at the establishment of a socialist pattern of society.
Answer:
Directive Principles which aim at the establishment of a socialist pattern of society are :

  1. Article 39 (a): To provide adequate means of livelihood for all citizens.
  2. Article 43: To secure for all workers, employment, wages and decent standard of living.

Question 10.
Explain the term Welfare State.
Answer:
Welfare State is a system under which the state undertakes to protect the health and well being of its citizens through various means including legislation.

Question 11.
Answer:
Article 46, under Gandhian or Socialist Principles, promotes and protects the interest of weaker sections of the people and in particular, of Scheduled castes and protect them against social injustice and exploitation.

Question 12.
Mention the Directive Principle of State Policy regarding local self-government.
Answer:
Article 40, deals with the establishment of local self-government or village panchayats. This principle has since been transformed into reality through the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 which provided for a three tier Panchayati Raj system in the country.

Question 13.
How do the Directive Principles reflect the ideals stated in the Preamble ?
Answer:
The Article 39 to 51 contain Directive Principles, which are based on the introductory part of the Preamble along with the guidelines of proceedings.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 14.
How is spirit of the Directive Principles reflected in the Five Year Plans ?
Answer:
Five Year Plans are mainly focused on welfare of society and development of the weaker sections ; so these are ideal source of application of the Directive Principles.

Question 15.
In which Part of the Constitution are the Directive Principles of State Policy laid down?

OR

Which part of the Constitution provides for the establishment of a Welfare State in India?
Answer:
In Part-IV of the Constitution are the Directive Principles of State Policy laid down.

Question 16.
From where did the inspiration to include Directive Principles in the Constitution come?
Answer:
The inspiration to include Directive Principles in the Constitution was captured from the “Principles of Social Policy” laid down in the Irish Constitution for the guidance of the legislature.

Question 17.
What is meant by ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’? What is the basic purpose of these Directives?
Answer:
The ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ means directions or instructions that tell the legislature and the executive what to do. The basic purpose of these Directives is to guide the Courts go in a right direction while implementing the laws for the welfare of state. Their another purpose is to keep up the proclamation that Indian State is a welfare state.

Question 18.
What is meant by the term ‘Welfare State’?
Answer:
‘Welfare State’ means a nation that provides her subject all the fundamental needs and necessities, equal and fair justice, education, a living wage, humane conditions of work a clean environment. It promotes egalitarian beliefs, one finds a clearer statement of socialist aims.

Question 19.
What do we mean when we say that the Directive Principles are non-justiciable rights of the citizens?
Answer:
‘Directive Principles are non-justiciable rights of the citizens, by this we mean these provisions shall not be enforceable by any Court. If a Directive is infringed, no remedy is available to the aggrieved party by way of judicial proceedings.

Question 20.
Mention any three non-justiciable rights of the people of India.
Answer:
The three non-justiciable rights are as follows :

  1.  Free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of fourteen years.
  2. Adequate means of livelihood.
  3. Equal pay for equal work for both men and women.

Question 21.
Comment on the statement that the Directive Principles “are fundamental in the governance of the country”.

OR

Since Directive Principles are non-justiciable, what is the use of their being included in the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The Directive Principles are “fundamental in the governance of the country”, by saying so, it means it shall be the duty of the State to apply these principles in making laws so as to protect the public welfare and it’s interests. All executive agencies should also be guided by these principles. The judiciary too has to keep them in mind in deciding cases.

Question 22.
Mention two Directive Principles based on Gandhi’s ideals.
Answer:
Two Directive Principles based on Gandhi’s ideals are :

  1. The State shall promote with special care, the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people, and in particular the interests of the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
  2. The State shall endeavour to promote cottage industries in rural areas.

Question 23.
What is the Directive Principles regarding ‘Village Government’ (Panchayats)?

OR

What do the Directive Principles require the State to do to strengthen democracy at the grassroots?
Answer:
The ‘Village Government’ (Panchayats) shall be endowed with such powers and authority as may be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government.

Question 24.
Mention one Directive Principles of State Policy which promotes the interests of the weaker sections of society.
Answer:
Article 46 states, “the State shall promote with special care the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the people.”

Question 25.
Mention the Directive Principle regarding public health.
Answer:
The State shall make an effort to prevent the consumption of liquor and other harmful drugs, except for medicinal purposes. It shall be the duty of State to raise the level of nutrition and the standard of living of the people and to improve public health.

Question 26.
Mention two Directive Principles that aim at the establishment of a Socialistic Pattern of Society.

OR

Mention two such Directive Principles as could enable us to reach the goal of economic democracy (Economic Equality).
Answer:
Two Directive Principles that aim at the establishment of a Socialistic Pattern of Society are as follows :

  1. There should be fair distribution of wealth. There should be no concentration of wealth in the hands of a few people. Means of production and other resources of the country should be utilised for the common good.
  2. Childhood and youth should be protected against exploitation. Men, women and children should not be forced’ by economic necessity to enter jobs and vocations, not suited to their age and strength.

Question 27.
Mention one Directive Principle which suggests that Indian State is a Welfare State.
Answer:
The State is directed to ensure to the people
(a) the right to work,
(b) the right to education, and
(c) the right.to State assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.

Question 28.
What is meant by the term “living wage”?
Answer:
A “living wage” is a wage which is large enough to enable you to buy food, clothing, and other necessary things.

Question 29.
Mention one Directive Principle that protects Children against exploitation.
Answer:
Childhood and youth should be protected against exploitation, Men, Women and Children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter jobs and vocations, not suited to their age or strength.

Question 30.
What does the expression ‘Uniform Civil Code’ mean?
Answer:
The expression ‘Uniform Civil Code’ means that in matters like—marriage, divorce, inheritance and succession aM the Indians, irrespective of their sex or religion should be governed by the same laws. Secondly, the State should secure equal justice and free legal aid to the needy.

Question 31.
Mention the Directive Principle which aims at the protection of Environment in the Country.
Answer:
Under 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 a new Directive was added to the Constitution. It speaks of State’s duty “to protect and improve the environment and to safeguard the forests and wild life of the country.”

Question 32.
What does the Directive Principles regarding protection of Monuments say?

OR

Mention the Directive Principle which aims at the preservation of ancient cultural heritage of India.
Answer:
The State is duty-bound to protect every monument or object of artistic or historic importance. Place and things of national importance should be protected from spoliation, disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal or export.

Question 33.
Mention any two Directive Principles which promote International Peace and Security.
Answer:
The state shall endeavour to :

  1. Promote international peace and security.
  2. maintain just and honourable relations between nations.

Question 34.
Mention any two steps by the Government to achieve the objectives of the Directive Principles of State Policy.

OR

Mention any two things done by the Government to secure the implementation of the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Some of the efforts of the State to implement the Directive Principles are as follows :

  1. Right to Education came into force on 1 April 2010. It has now become a Fundamental Right of all Children of the age 6 to 14 years.
  2. The national Rural Employment Guarantee Act (2005),now named after Mahatma Gandhi, required to provide 100 days of employment in a year to each rural household in the country. During 2009-10 nearly 4.33 crore households were provide employment under the Rural Employment Scheme.

Question 35.
State two points of distinction between of Dundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:

  1. Rights are justiciable, the Directives are not enforceable;
  2. Rights primarily protect civil liberties, the Directive Principles lay down ‘economic democracy’ as our ideal.

Question 36.
What do the Directive Principles say about each of the following :
(a) Cottage Industries.
(b) Agriculture and animal husbandry.
(c) Education for children.
(d) Separation of Judiciary from the Executive.
Answer:
Regarding the given headlines, What the Directive Principles say is given as follows :
(a) Cottage Industries : The state shall endeavour to promote cottage industries in rural areas.
(b) Agriculture and animal husbandry : Agriculture and animal husbandry should be organised on modern and scientific lines. Steps should be taken for prohibiting the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and draught cattle.
(c) Education for children : Article 45 states that the State shall attempt to provide for free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of fourteen years.
(d) Separation of Judiciary from the Executive : Judiciary has been separated from the executive in the State and Union Terriotries except Jammy and Kashmir and Nagaland.

Question 37.
State two points of distinction between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Following are the two points that make distinction between the Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy.

  1. Rights are Justiciable, the Directive Principles are Non- Justiciable : the Supreme Court and the High Courts have power to issue orders or writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. On the other hand, it is obviously stated that Directive Principles are not enforceable or justiciable. No worker can secure “a living wage” by mean of proceeding in a court.
  2. Right, primarily protect Civil Liberties, the Directive Principles lay down ‘Economic Democracy’ as our ideal: ‘Rights’ protect life and civil liberties, such as freedom to assemble and express one’s opinion on matters of common interest. The ‘Directive Principles’ indicate as to what our economic ideal or social order ought to be.

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
There are differences of opinion regarding the significance of both the Directive Principles and the Fundamental Rights. In this context explain the following:
(a) What are the chief differences between the two ?
(b) How do the Directive Principles complement Fundamental Rights ?
(c) What is importance of Directive Principles ?
Answer:
Chief differences are as :

Directive Principles

  1. These are in Part IV of Constitution
  2. These are not justiciable
  3. These create certain privileges.
  4. These are directions to set objectives.
  5. Their aim is a Welfare State.
  6. These are related to wide range including international peace.

Fundamental Rights

  1. These are in Part III of the the Constitution.
  2. These are justiciable.
  3. These are existing privileges for citizens.
  4. These are certain restrictions on the state.
  5. Their aim is political democracy.
  6. These are related to the individual’s rights.

(b) Directive Principles province guidelines to the Fundamental Rights as an individual can get a peaceful environment and enjoy his rights, provided there is national and international peace together maintained properly.

(c) The importance of Directive Principal is remarkable, as these are the basic guidelines to provide correct direction for proceedings and are essential to achieve ultimate estimated goals.

2. With reference to the concept of a ‘Welfare State’, answer the following questions :
Question 2(a).
What is meant by a ‘Welfare State’ ?
Answer:
A Welfare State is a state which seeks to ensure the maximum happiness of maximum number of people living within its territory.

Question 2(b).
How does the Constitution of India seek to establish India as a Welfare State ?
Answer:
The Constitution of India seeks to establish India as a Welfare State. Although the words “Welfare State” are not specifically mentioned in the Constitution, the aims and objectives of a Welfare State are clearly pointed out in the Directive Principles of State Policy. These Directives emphasise that the goal of the Indian Polity is a Welfare State, where the State has a positive duty to ensure to its citizens social and economic justice and dignity to the individual. Both the Union and the State governments, have over the past six decades taken steps to implement Directive principles, which aim at establishing social and economic democracy, the basic goal of a Welfare State.

Question 2(c).
Mention two government schemes aimed at social upliftment of the poor.
Answer:

  1. The payment of wages is governed by the Government which has enacted legislation to the effect that the payment be made according to the Minimum Wages Act 1948, as amended from time to time.
  2. A social upliftment scheme, called the ‘Jan Dhan Yojana’, was announced by the Prime Minister, Narendra Modi on August 15,2014.

Question 3.
With reference to the origin of Directive Principles state the following :
(a) How do you say that the framers of our Constitution were influenced by the Universal Declaration of Human Rights by United Nations ?
(b) State three other important influences which led to the incorporation of these Principles in the Indian Constitution.
(c) How do you say the ideas of Mahatma Gandhi also influenced the framers of our Constitution ?
Answer:
(a) The framers were influenced by Universal Declaration of Human Rights by U.N, because The Charter of Human Rights was framed by the United Nations.

(b)

  1. The Constitution of the Irish Republic.
  2. The Declaration of the Rights of Man and Citizens of Revolutionary France.
  3. The ideas of Mahatma Gandhi.

(c) Ideas of Mahatma Gandhi are apparent in the promotion of Village Panchayat and Cottage Industries.

Question 4.
With reference to the classification of Directive Principles.
(a) Explain four Principles related to Economic Policy.
(b) Explain two Principles related to Gandhiji’s ideas.
(c) What are the Principles for International Peace and Security ?
Answer:
(a)

  1. The Government has abolished the Zamindari System and introduced the land reform programme to do away with the old feudal socio-economic structure of rural India.
  2.  Nationalisation of banks, insurance companies and some key industries have been done.
  3. In order to ensure  just payment to workers and equal pay for equal work, the payment of wages is governed by the Government.
  4.  The Government has launched various programmers such as Integrated Rural Development Programmer (IRDP) and Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programmer (RLEGP) to help the poor. The Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005 seeks to provide 100 days of guaranteed wage employment to rural households.

(b) Gandhiji ’s Policy includes development of Village. Panchayats, cottage industries, agriculture and animal, husbandry to prosper the village regions.

(c) Article 51, lays down stress on International Peace, friendly relations between nations, the settlement of international disputes through arbitration (judgement).

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 5.
With reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy, explain the
following :
(a) Meaning and Purpose of the Directive Principles.
(b) Nature or Characteristics of the Directive Principles:
Answer:
The headlines given above with reference to the Directive Principles of State Policy are explained as under :
(a) Meaning and Purpose of the Directive Principles : This Directive Principles are in the nature of directions or instructions that tell the legislature and the executive what to do. They serve as the beacon-light to the Courts as well.
The Directive Principles lay down the positive obligations of the State to give to every person what he wants, that is, a living wage, human conditions of work, education for children, a clean environment and equal justice.

(b) Nature of the Directive Principles : The Directive Principles are non-justiciable rights of the people. These provisions shall not be enforceable by any court. The Directive Principles are fundamental in the governance of the country. It shall be the duty of the State of apply these principles in making laws. All executive agencies should also be guided by these principles. Even the judiciary has to keep them in mind in deciding cases. Article 31c, seeks to upgrade the Directive Principles. If laws are made to give effect to the Directive Principles, they shall not be invalid on the ground that they take away the Fundamental Rights.

Question 6.
Explain the scope of the undermentioned Directive Principles ;
(a) Principles based on Mahatma Gandhi’s Ideals.
(b) Principles which promote Economic Equality (Socialistic Measures).
Answer:
The Directive Principles of State Policy can be classified and their scope is explained as under :
(a) Principles based on Mahatma Gandhiji deal: Mahatma Gandhi believed in promoting the educational and economic interests of the weaker sections of the society on behalf of the State. The State shall also uplift the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes at the same time. Gandhi wanted that the State should abstain people from consuming liquor and other harmful drugs, except for medicinal purposes. The State should raise the level of nutrition and the standard of King of the people. She should improve public health as for her duty. Further, he emphasised to organise Village Panchayats and endow them with such powers and authority as rjiay be necessary to enable them to function as units of self-government. Gandhi inspired cottage industries, especially home-spinning. Fie gave stress on organising Agriculture and animal husbandly on modem and scientific lines. He raised his voice against the slaughter of cows, calves and other milch and drought cattle and demanded prohibition on this in human act. Gandhi sought that the State shall endeavour to provide for free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of fourteen years.

(b) Principles which promote Economic Equality : The State should ensure for her people adequate means of livelihood. Economic Equality could only be achieved when people get in tuned to their source of livelihood. There should be fair distribution of wealth. There should be no concentration of wealth in the hands of a few people. Means of production and other resources of the country should be utilised for the common good. There should be equal pay for equal work for both men and women, childhood and youth should be protected against exploitation. Men, women and children should not be forced by economic necessity to enter jobs and vocations, not suited to their age or strength. The State is responsible to provide work, education, assistance in case of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement. The State is directed to secure to the workers “a living wage”. It should guarantee people, a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure. The State should ensure the participation of workers in the management of industries and other organisations.

Question 7.
Mention the Directive Principles which proclaim that Indian State is a Welfare State.
Answer:

  1. The State is directed to ensure to the people
    (a) the right to work,
    (b) the right to education, and
    (c) the right to State assistance in cases of unemployment, old age, sickness and disablement.
  2. The State is directed to secure to the workers, “a living wage”. A “living wage” is a wage which is large enough to enable you to buy food, clothing, a roof your head and other necessary things. Conditions of work should be such as to ensure a decent standard of life and full enjoyment of leisure.

Question 8.
Discuss the importance and utility of Directive Principles of State Policy with reference to the following points :
(a) Directive Principles highlight the National Objectives.
(b) They seek to establish Economic Democracy.
(c) They provide an element of permanence in a Democracy.
Answer:
The importance and utility of Directive Principles of State Policy is discussed below :
(a) Directive Principles highlight the National Objectives :
The Directive Principles even though not justiciable, reflect the “national conscience”. They make an explanation of the social and economic programming of a modem Welfare State. A Welfare State mainly concerns with the health, education and living conditions of the people in society.
(b) They seek to establish Economic Democracy : The Directive Principles prescribe that the material resources of the country should subserve the common good. The State should ensure that “there is equal pay for equal work for both men and women.”
(c) They provide an element of permanence in a Democracy: In a democracy, power changes hands very frequently. Which ever party captures power, it shall have to implement these Directives. The Principles “Will pull back the revolutionary and push forward the reactionary.”

Question 9.
Distinguish between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy. In case of a conflict between the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights which of the two shall prevail?

OR

Examine the relationship between the Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights and Directive of State Policy Principles can be distinguished in the
following manner : 

  1. Rights are Justiciable, that means, The Supreme Court and the High Court have power to issue orders or writs for the enforcement of the Fundamental Rights.
    The Directive Principles are Non-Justiciable, they are not enforceable. No worker can secure “a living wage” by means of proceeding in a Court.
  2.  Rights protect life and civil liberties like—freedom to assemble and express one’s opinion on matters of common interest. The Directive Principles indicate as to what our economic ideal or social order ought to be.
  3. Fundamental Rights are mostly negative in character. They indicate the things which the State must not do. Thus, a person who is arrested, shall not be denied the right to consult a lawyer of his choice.
    The Directive Principles are in the nature of positive directions to the State. They direct the State to secure to the citizens, economic assistance in cases of unemployment, old age and sickness.
    In case of Conflict between the Directive Principles and Fundamental Rights, both of these have equal importance. Both complement each other. Ordinarily, the Directives cannot take Precedence over Fundamental Rights. Since Fundamental Rights are Justiciable, they are treated as being more important than the Directive Principles According to the Supreme Court, the Directive Principles “have to conform to and run as subsidiary to the chapter on Fundamental Rights”.

Question 10.
In what respects do the Directive Principles differ from the Fundamental Rights?
Answer:
In the following manner the Directive Principles differ from the Fundamental Rights:

  1. Rights are Justiciable, the Directive Principles are Non- Justiciable.
  2. Rights primarily protect Civil Liberties, the Directive Principles lay down ‘Economic Democracy’ as our Ideal.
  3. Rights constitute Limitations upon State action, the Directive Principles are in the nature of Positive Directions.

Question 11.
Examine the implementation of the Directive Principles in respect of these spheres :
(a) Social Justice,
(b) Economic Welfare, and
(c) Legal and Administrative Matters.
Answer:
The implementation of the Directive Principles in respect of the given spheres is explained below :
(a) Social Justice : The Programme of Universalisation of Elementary Education has been accorded the highest priority in order to provide free and compulsory education to all children up to the age of 14 years. The 93rd Constitution Amendment Bill was passed by the Parlimanet on May 14, 2002. It aims to provide free and compulsory education to all children aged 6-14 years in the country.
The Center and the State governments both have been implementing Welfare Schemes for the weaker sections. These schemes include programmes such as Boys and Girls Hostels for SC/ST students. The year 1990-91 was declared as the ‘Year of Social Justice’. Free textbooks are being provided by the government to all SC/STs and Girl students. A sum of nearly 75 lakh rupees was sanctioned for this purpose during the year 2001-2002.

The Prevention of Atrocities Act enacted by the Government ensures full protection to the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes against atrocities. The Act renders severe punishments for acts considered as atrocities.

(b) Economic Welfare : A number of Land Reform Acts were enacted to provide ownership right to the poor farmers. Nearly 200 lac acres of land had been distributed to SCs, STs and the landless rural poor upto September 2001.
The banking policy has been improving, banking facilities in the rural areas. Nationalised banks were liberal in advancing loans to poor farmers, artisans and to the people who are keen interested to set-up cottage industries.

The Minimum Wage Act empowers government to fix minimum wages for the employees engaged in various employments. The Equal Remuneration Act, 1976, provides for equal pay for both men and women for the same work or a work of similar nature. Different programmes were launched to boost rural employment. Swaranjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSY) launched in 1999, is now, the single largest self-employment programme for the rural poor.

(c) Legal and Administrative Matters : Panchayati Raj now dominates almost all States and Union Territories 1 /3 rd of the total number of seats have been reserved for women in Panchayats at every level.
Legal aid at the expense of the State, has been made compulsory in all cases pertaining to criminal law, if the accused is too poor to engage a lawyer. Judiciary has been separated from the executive in all States and Union Territories except Jammu and Kashmir and Nagaland.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 15

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 15 Salient Features of the Constitution—I

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 15 Salient Features of the Constitution—I.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Question Exercises

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Single Citizenship’.
Answer:
Single Citizenship means that all Indians irrespective of the State of their domicile are the Citizens of India. In India, a person born in Punjab or in Kerala can only be a citizen of India and not a Citizen of the State of their domicile like in the USA.

Question 2.
‘Fundamental Rights are universal in nature’. Explain in one sentence.
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are bestowed on every citizen of India irrespective of caste, colour, creed, religion or sex.

Question 3.
How are Fundamental Rights justiciable?
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights are justiciable, as these are enforceable in a court of law and a suit can be filed in a High Court or the Supreme court in case there is dissatisfaction.

Question 4.
What is meant by the term ‘Right to Equality’ ?
Answer:
‘Right to Equality’ refers to the rights enjoyed by the citizens irrespective of caste, creed, religion or sex, for a successful democracy.

Question 5.
Mention one Fundamental Right granted to citizens of India.
Answer:
Right to Freedom : Article 19, Freedom of speech, expression, assembly, movement, settlement and profession.

Question 6.
Give the expanded form of the term ‘ESMA’.
Answer:
Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA)

Question 7.
What does the Right to Constitutional Remedies provide for?
Answer:
Article 32 gives the Right to Constitutional Remedies or the Right given to citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement other Fundamental Rights conferred (granted), on them.

Question 8.
Name the courts which are competent to issue writs.
Answer:
Presently, only the Supreme Court and the High Courts have the power to issue the writs.

Question 9.
Answer:
‘ Right to Freedom of Religion ’, is one example for proving India, a secular state due to freedom for adopting any religion by the citizens.

Question 10.
What is meant by the term ‘Right Against Exploitation?
Answer:
It means the Prohibition against slavery, beggary, forced labour and child labour etc.

Question 11.
When and by which Act of the Parliament were the Fundamental Duties included in the Constitution ? Mention one Fundamental Duty.
Answer:
The Fundamental Duties were added to the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 and inserted in Part IV of the Constitution. One of the Fundamental Duty is to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.

Question 12.
Mention the Fundamental Duty which has been added by the Constitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002.
Answer:
Article51 AoftheConstitutionwasamendedbytheConstitution (86th Amendment) Act, 2002, which says, “Who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.”

Question 13.
Which Fundamental Right will be violated in each of the following cases ?
(a) A person belonging to a certain religious community has been dismissed from Government service without reason.
(b) Some students of a school were disqualified from taking examinations without notice.
(c) A 10 year old child was found working in a factory.
Answer:

(a) Rights to Equality (Equality of Opportunity), Article 16
(b) Right to Constitutional Remedies, Article 31
(c) Right Against Exploitation, Article 24

Question 14.
Name the writ that will be issued in each of the following circumstances :
(a) Against a person holding a public office to which he is not entitled.
(b) For a transfer of a case from lower to higher court.
(c) An order to an administrative authority to perform a certain duty.
(d) To prohibit a lower court from proceeding in a case.
Answer:

(a) Quo-warranto
(b) Writ of Certiorari
(c) Mandamus
(d) Writ of Prohibition

Question 15.
Give the article of the Constitution under which following Rights are guaranteed to citizens
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Cultural and Educational Right
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Equality
(e) Right to Education
(f) Right to Information
Answer:

(a) Article 19-22
(b) Article 29-30
(c) Article 25 – 28
(d) Article 14-18
(e) Article 21 A
(f) Article 19(1)

Question 16.
To whom can the citizens of India file an application if they wish to seek any information from the government authorities ?
Answer:
Any citizen can file an application under RTI with the Public Information Officers (PIOs), Assistant Public Information Officers (APIOs) and seek the required information.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 17.
What is meant by the term ‘Fundamental Rights’?
Answer:
A certain freedoms which are essential for personal and common hood, guaranteed under the India Constitution and have been incorporated in the Fundamental Law of the Land and can be enforced by the Courts are known as ‘Fundamental Right’.

Question 18.
What is the significance of Fundamental Rights in terms of the effect that they have on our personality?
Answer:
Fundamental Rights are essential for the development of the powers inherent in every individual. They preserve human dignity and promote social progress in larger freedom. Fundamental Rights build-up the confidence of a person, they make the people well-educated and generous. They kindle the flame of awareness among the people in every field of life. They make us strong enough to resist injustice, they lift-up the standard of living in society. Fundamental Rights arouse the feelings of brotherhood and unity.

Question 19.
How do the Fundamental Rights act as a check on the arbitrary conduct of the State?
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights can be altered or curtailed only by an amendment of the Conhstitution. Thus, their inclusion is a check not only on the Executive (the President, the Prime Minister, Ministers and government officials), but also on Parliament and other legislative bodies.

Question 20.
What do we mean when we say that Fundamental Rights are justiciable?

OR

Rights are enforceable by the Courts. How?
Answer:
The rights conferred by Part-III of the Constitution, can be enforced through the Supreme Court or the High Court by all persons irrespective of race, caste, religion or sex. In the public interest, anyone can commence litigation in the Court. This is called as ‘Public Interest Litigation.

Question 21.
What is meant by the statement that Rights are not absolute?
Answer:
Rights are not absolute or uncontrolled. Rights are subject to such reasonable restrictions as may be necessary for the protection of general welfare. State is the custodian of the general public interests decency or morality. Therefore, State may make laws putting restrictions on our rights.

Question 22.
Under what circumstances can the Fundamental Rights be suspended?
Answer:
The Fundamental Rights guaranted under Article 19, can be suspended during an Emergency. For instance, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, freedom of movement remain suspended. During Emergency, the President is the best person to decide how a particular problem should be solved.

Question 23.
In what way the Fundamental Rights are affected in an Emergency?
Answer:
In an Emergency, Fundamental Rights are adversely affected e.g., one is not free to make speeches. Holding of gathering or assembly is banned, one cannot unnecessarily move about here and there.

Question 24.
The Fundamental Rights fall into six main categories. List them all.
Answer:
The six main categories of the Fundamental Rights, are enlisted below :

  1. Right to Equality
  2. Right to Freedom
  3. Right against Exploitation
  4. Right to Freedom of Religion
  5. Cultural and Educational Rights
  6.  Right to Constitutional Remedies.

Question 25.
Explain the scope of the following rights :
(1) Equality before law
(2) Equality of opportunity in matters of Public Employment.
Answer:

  1. Equality before law : Article 14 guarantees to every person, “equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory of India.” The Constitution forbids discrimination between persons placed in similar circumstances or conditions.
    The Supreme Court has directed the Parliament to create Special Courts for the speedy trial of offences committed by persons holding high offices.
  2. Equality of opportunity in matters of Public Employment: Article 16, lays down that there shall be equal opportunity for citizens, “in matters relating to employment or appointment to any office under the State”. There shall be no discrimination against any citizen on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth residence or any of them in respect of any employment under the State.
    There are however three limitations :
    (a)     For State employment, the parliament may make laws prescribing any requirement as to ‘residence’. Posts which require a knowledge of the locality and of the language of the area are confined to it,
    (b) For members from backward classes, not adequately represented in the services under the State, the State may reserve posts for them,
    (c) There may be a law which requires that the holder of an office of any religious institution shall be a person professing that particular religion.

Question 26.
The Constitution prohibits the State to discriminate against any citizen grounds only of religion, race, castes or sex. Mention two exceptions to this Right.
Answer:
The two notable exceptions to the Right of Prohibition of Discrimination are :

  1. The State may make any special provision for women and children.
  2. Special provisions may be made for the advancement of any socially and educationally backward class of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Question 27.
The Constitution seeks to ensure social equality. Mention the two Fundamental Rights strenthening this Equality.
Answer:

  1. Abolition of Untouchability.
  2. Abolition of Titles.

Question 28.
Why did the Constitution abolish the old system of conferring ‘Titles’?
Answer:
The system of conferring ‘titles’, was popular during that British rule in India. Titles like-Ra Bahadurs or Khan Bahadurs were meant for a peculiar class of aristocriats created by the British Government. As, these titles went against the principle of ‘equality of status’, therefore the Constitution abolished the old system of conferring Titles’.

Question 29
Mention any two freedoms embodied under the Right to Freedom.
Answer:
Two freedoms embodied under the Right to Freedom are:

  1. Freedom of speech and expression.
  2. Right to practice any profession or to carry on any occupation.

Question 30.
Mention any two provisions of the Right to Education Act, 2010.
Answer:
Key provisions of the Right to Education Act 2010

  1. All children in 6-14 age group to get free and compulsory education.
  2. No child shall be held back, expelled, or required to pass a board examination till Class-VIII.
  3. There will be 25 per cent reservation for poor children even in private and minority schools.

Question 31.
Mention the restraints on the following freedoms :

  1. Freedom of Speech and Expression
  2. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.

Answer:
The restraints on the following freedoms are :

  1. Freedom of Speech and Expression : It is restrained up to the interests of public order, security of the State, decency or morality. Reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed in case it fails to abide by the code and conduct.
  2. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India : This freedom is availed to the extent where the interests of general public or the interests of the Scheduled Tribes remain protected.

Question 32.
Mention three rights of an individual, arrested under ordinary circumstances.
Answer:
Three rights of an individual arrested under ordinary circumstances are :

  1. No person shall be detained in custody without being informed of the grounds for such arrest.
  2.  He shall have the right to be defended by a lawyer of .his choice.
  3. He has the right to be produced before the nearest magistrate within twenty-four hours of such arrest. He cannot be detained in custody beyond the said period without the orders of the magistrate.

Exceptions :

(a) The mentioned safeguards are not available to an enemy alien.
(b) These rights do not apply to persons detained under the Preventive Detention Act.

Question 33.
What is meant by ‘Preventive Detention’?
Answer:
‘Preventive Detention’ means, “detention of a person without trial”. The object of this detention is not to punish a person for having committed a crime, but to prevent him from doing so.

Question 34.
Mention two rights of a person, detained under a Preventive Detention Act.
Answer:
Two rights of a person detained under a Preventive Detention Act are as follows :

  1. The detenue shall be detained for a period not more than three months.
  2. The detenue has the right to know the grounds on which he has been detained, also he has the right to make a representation against the detention order.

Question 35.
What is the importance of the Right to Information granted by an Act enacted in 2005?
Answer:
Right to Information Act 2005 enabled citizen to secure information from Public Authorities, Government Offices, Financial Institutions and Public Sector Undertakings in respect of documents and records under their charge. This right could curb corruption and promote transparency in Government departments.

Question 36.
Name the Fundamental Right that prohibits ‘begar’ and forced labour.
Answer:
Right Against Exploitation prohibits ‘begar and forced labour.

Question 37.
Mention one important provision of the Right against Exploitation.
Answer:
Compulsory military conscription.

Question 38.
Mention two Fundamental Rights that indicate &iat India is a Secular State.
Answer:
Two Fundamental Rights that indicate that India is a Secular State are as follows :

  1. Freedom of conscience and free profession and propagation of Religion.
  2. Freedom to manage Religious Affairs.

Question 39.
Name the Fundamental Right aimed at protecting the interests of the Minorities.
Answer:
Cultural and Education Rights (Articles 29).

Question 40.
Name two Fundamental Rights that the Constitution confers on the Minorities.
Answer:

  1. Right to conserve the; Language, Script and Culture.
  2. Right to establish Educational Institutions.

Question 41.
What is the importance of the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
Answer:
The Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) guarantees the right to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of the Rights conferred by Part-III of the Constitution. The Constitution empowers the High Courts also to issue writs or orders for the enforcement of any of the rights.

Question 42.
What is meant by the term ‘Writ’?
Answer:
A ‘Writ’ is a legal document that orders a particular person or official to do a particular thing or not to do it.

Question 43.
Name the Courts which are competent to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
The Supreme Court and the High Courts are competent to issue Writs for the enforcement of Fundatmental Rights.

Question 44.
What is the scope or purpose of the Writ of Habeas Corpus?
Answer:
‘Habeas Corpus’ is a Latin term which means, “you may have the body”. It provides a remedy for a person wrongly detained or restrained. The Supreme Court and the High Courts issue this Writ to a person who detains another in custody and command him to bring the prisoner into Court and tell the time and the cause of the arrest. If the cause is insufficient, he is at once unconditionally released.

Question 45.
What is the purpose of the Writ of Mandamus?
Answer:
The purpose of the Writ of Mandamus is to compel an inferior court or an individual to perform their duty. This purpose has to be exercised only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Question 46.
How does the Writ of Prohibitioin differ from the Writ of Certiorari?
Answer:
The Writ of Prohibition is issued to prevent an inferior court from exercising powers with which it is not legally vested. It directs the inferior to keep within the limits of their authority.

The Writ of Certiorari asks the lower court to hand over the record of a particular case to the higher court. The difference between the two is that they are issued at different stages of the proceedings. The Writ of Prohibition is preventive, where as the Writ of Certiorari is remedial.

Question 47.
What is the purpose of the Writ of Quo Warranto?
Answer:
The Writ of Quo Warranto is directed against a person who has wrongfully usurped an office. The Writ calls upon the person to show under that authority he holds the office. If the court decides that the person concerned is holding that office illegally, it may declare the office to be vacant.

Question 48.
Name the Writ that shall be issued under the following circumstances :

  1. When a person is wrongfully detained or restrained.
  2. TO compel an inferior court or an individual to perform their duty.
  3. To keep the courts within the limits of their jurisdiction.
  4. When a Superior Court desires to be informed of what is going on in an inferior court.
  5. Against a person who usurps any office.

Answer:
The Writ that shall be used under the circumstances mentioned in
the question’s respectively given below :

  1. The Writ of Habeas Corpus
  2. The Writ of Mandamus
  3. The Writ of Prohibition
  4. The Writ of Certiorari
  5. The Writ of Quo Warranto

Question 49.
Mention two Fundamental Duties inserted by the Forty- second Amendment Act, 1976.
Answer:
Two Fundamental Duties inserted by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 are as follows :

  1. Duties towards Self
  2. Duties concerning the Environment

Question 50.
Mention Citizen’s one main duty towards himself.
Answer:
To develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform.

Question 51.
Mention the citizen’s one main duty towards his child under the Constitution 86th Amendment Act, 2002.
Answer:
The 86th Amendment Act had cast a new duty on Citizens of India. It states that a Citizen who is a parent or guardian has a duty “to provide opportunities for education to his child or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.”

Question 52.
Mention a Citizen’s duty concerning the Environment.
Answer:
To protect and improve the natural environment including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife, and to have compassion living creatures.

Question 53.
Mention two duties that we ow to State.
Answer:

  1. (Duty to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem.
  2. Duty to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
Explain the following basic features of the Indian Constitution :
(a) Single Citizenship.
(b) Universal Adult Franchise.
(c) Fundamental Rights.
Answer:
(a) Single Citizenship: The Constitution of India believes in the Single Citizenship. That means a person who belongs to India, is liable to take hold of Single Citizenship no matter in which State he resides. Single Citizenship allows a citizen to entertain the rights and laws of the country. However, in America, dual citizenship is prevalent.

(b) Universal Adult Franchise : Adult or Universal Franchies means, every such person whether male or female, is eligible to cast vote to elect the government, who is a citizen of India, is not less than 18 years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law.

(c) Fundamental Rights : A certain freedoms which are essential for personal and commonhood, guaranteed under the India Constitution and have been incorporated in the Fundamental Law of the Land and can be enforced by the Courts are known as ‘Fundamental Right’.

Question 2.
(a) Why are the Fundamental Rights so called ?
(b) What are their characteristic features ?
(c) State any two restrictions that can be imposed by the State.
Answer:
(a) The Fundamental Rights are called Fundamental, because these are the basic human rights, which should be enjoyed by every citizen.

(b) The characteristic features are to provide all-around development, protection against unj ust, discrimination power and no distinction of caste and creed or religion.

(c) two restrictions are :

  1. Article – 19 can be suspended during Emergency.
  2. Laws of Parliament (ESMA) Act can impose restrictions on the Right to Freedom to protect the prestige of the Nation.

Question 3.
With reference to Equality.
(a) Briefly explain the components of this right.
(b) Explain the restrictions imposed on these rights.
Answer:
(a) Article 14 Equality before law.
Article 15 Prohibition of discrimination.
Article 16 Equality of opportunity
Article 17 Abolition of untouchability.
Article 18 Abolition of titles.

(b) The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 puts certain restrictionson the Right to Equality. A person cannot move the court, if his right of equality is restricted to implement the Directive Principles of State Policy, which are the guide-lines of the Constitution.

Question 4.
With reference to inclusion of Right to Freedom in the Indian Constitution state the following.
(a) Name the essential freedoms guaranteed to citizens under Article 19.
(b) What do these freedoms imply.
Answer:
(a) Under Article 19, is included Freedom of Speech, expression, assembly, movement, settlement and profession.
(b)

  1. Freedom of speech and expression.
  2. Freedom to assemble peacefully without arms.
  3. Freedom to form associations and unions.
  4. Freedom to move freely throughout India.
  5. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India.
  6. Freedom to practice any profession, trade or business.

Question 5.
Article 20 provides for Protection in Respect of Conviction for Offenses. In this respect answer the following :
(a) What protections are available to the citizens against conviction ?
(b) What is meant by Preventive Detention ? State the right of citizens in this respect.
(c) Explain the limitations of the Right to Protection.
Answer:
(a) The protections available are protection of Life and Personal
Liberty, against arrest and detention, limit of custody not more than 24 hours and right to consult a lawyer for defence.

(b) In case a person is detained under Preventive Detention he can be kept in custody for a period of three months without trial.

(c) Limitations are Public interest and Power of the Parliament. Public interest can force the state to disclose the grounds of detention. Parliament has the power to specify the maximum period of Preventive Detention.

Question 6.
With reference to the Right to Religion, answer the following questions :
(a) How is the objective of secularism secured under this right ?
(b) Explain the features of this right in detail.
Answer:
(a) The objective of secularism is fulfilled in this right, as every citizen is free to adopt the religion of his choice.

(b) All persons are entitled to freedom of conscience and the right to freely profess, practice and propagate their religion. No person and the institution are not to be compelled for adopting any particular religion and for paying taxes etc.

Question 7.
With reference to the Right to Constitutional Remedies, answer the following questions :
(a) How has this right been given legal sanction ?
(b) Why is this right important ?
(c) Explain any two writs issued by the courts for enforcement of these rights.
Answer:
(a) This right has been given legal sanction, because it is given to citizens to move the Supreme Court for the enforcement of other Fundamental Rights conferred on them.

(b) Dr. Ambedkar described this article as the ‘Heart and Soul of the Constitution, because it is used to maintain order, peace and right judgement with respect to the satisfaction of the community.

(c) Two writs are :

  1. Mandamus: It is the command from a Superior court to a lower or administrative authority to perform a certain duty.
  2. Writ of Prohibition : It is an order issued by a superior court to a lower court to stop proceedings which are out of the jurisdiction of the lower court.

Question 8.
With reference to Fundamental Rights, answer the following:
(a) What are the components of the Right to Education?
(b) How is the Right to Information an implied Fundamental Right ?
Answer:
(a) This right has been granted by the Constitution (Eighty-six Amendment) Act, 2002. By this Act a new article 21A has been inserted in the Constitution, which states, “The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of 6 to 14 years in such manner as the state may, by law, determine”. The Act also enjoins on the State to endeavour to provide early childhood care and education to all children until they complete six years of age.

(b) An implied Fundamental Right is the one which is a part of a named Fundamental Right or partakes of the same basic nature and character as that Fundamental Right. Since RTI is implicit in the Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression (Act. 19), it is an implied Fundamental Right because if one does not know the facts one cannot speak freely. The Right to Information Act came into force on Oct. 12, 2005.

9. With reference to the Fundamental Duties, answer the following:
Question 9(a).
What are known as Fundamental Duties ?
Answer:
Duties and rights go hand-in-hand; there can be no rights in a society where there are no duties. Every right has a corresponding duty. For example, if we have a right to life, it is our duty to respect human life and not to injure another person. Similarly, the right to freedom implies that we have to maintain a self-restraint and accord similar rights to other which we want for ourselves.

Question 9(b).
Give any three Fundamental Duties.
Answer:
The Article 51-A of the Constitution states the following duties of a citizen:

  1. to abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem ;
  2. to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom:
  3. to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India;
  4. to defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so.
  5. to promote harmony and spirit of common brotherhood amongest all the people of India transcending religious, linguistic and regional or sectional diversities, to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of womene

Question 9(c).
What is the importance of these Duties ?
Answer:
The Importance of Fundamental Duties are enlisted in the Constitution of India:

  1.  to make the citizens aware of their social and economic obligations;
  2. to warn them to do and not to do certain things in the interest of their country, fellow citizens and themselves.
  3. to protect and awaken the people to their cultural heritage.
  4. to tame the unruly elements in society.
  5. to strengthen national harmony as they stir up patriotism.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

P.Q. Indian Constitution makes Equality as the bedrock of Indian polity. In this context, mention the following rights guaranteed under the Right to Equality :
(a) Prohibition of Discrimination,
(b) Abolition of Untouchability.
Answer:
Right guaranteed under the right to Equality are as below:
(a) Prohibition of Discrimination : Article 15 prohibits the state to “discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth or any of them.” No citizen shall be denied access to shops, public restaurants, hotels, places of public entertainment. Neither shall anyone be denied the use of wells, tanks, bathing- ghats and roads maintained wholly or partly out of the State funds. The State may make any special provision for women and children. Also, special provisions may be made for the advancement of socially and educationally backward class of citizens or for the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

(b) Abolition of Untouchability : Article 17 declares that “untouchability is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden.” The untouchability Offences Act of 1955 provided penalities for preventing a person from entering a place of public worship or taking water from a tank, well or spring in common use. In 1976, the act was renamed as “the Protection of Civil Rights Act”, from “Untouchability Offences Act.”

Question 10.
Explain the six Freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
The six Freedoms guaranteed under Article 19 of the Constitution are explain below :

  1. Freedom of Speech and Expression : This right helps a person to discover the truth. It enables us to participate in public activities “freedom of expression” also incorporates freedom of the press. Where there is a question of interests
    of public order, security of the State, decency or morality, there reasonable restrictions on this right can be imposed.
  2. Freedom to assemble peaceably and without Arms : The right of assembly is to be exercised peaceably and without arms as per the limitations concerned. However, the State is liable to impose reasonable restrictions in the interests of public order or the national integrity.
  3. Freedom to form Associations and Unions : The citizens have the freedom to form associations or unions. The State may impose reasonable restrictions on this freedom in the interests of morality public order and the sovereignty and integrity of India.
  4. Right to move freely : The citizens have the right to go anywhere in the territory of India. However restrictions may be imposed on the movement and traveling, so as to control an epidemic.
  5. Freedom to reside and settle in any part of India :
    Reasonable restrictions are imposed on this freedom in the interests of general public or for the protection of the interests of the Scheduled Tribes.
  6. Right to practice any profession or to carry on any Occupation : Though this right allows all citizens to practice any profession or carry on any occupation, trade or business, yet the State may impose reasonable restrictions on this right in the interests of general public. To carry on dangerous or immoral business is not allowed. Professional or technical qualification may be prescribed for practicing any profession or carrying on the trade.

Question 11.
With regard to the Right to Freedom of Religion, answer the following questions :
(a) What does Freedom of Conscience mean?
(b) What does the freedom to manage Religious Affairs imply?
(c) Can public funds be utilized for religious instruction?
Answer:
The questions given above with regard to the Right to Freedom of Religion are answered as under :
(a) Article 25 guarantees to every person freedom of conscience and the right to profess, practice and propagate religion. The wearing and carrying of ‘Kirpan is inducted in the profession of the Sikh religion. But restriction may be imposed by the State in the interests of morality, health and public order. Thereby, no one is allowed to hurt the religious feelings of any class of citizens in India.

(b) The Indian Constitution guarantees the right to establish and maintain institutions for religious and charitable purposes. Every religious sect has the right to own and acquire movable and immovable property. These rights also are subject to public order, morality and health.

(c) Public funds can not be utilized by any institution to propagate religious instruction, especially when the institution is wholly maintained out of State Funds. Nevertheless, for State-aided or State-recognised institutions, there is no bar to giving religious instruction. But, no person can be required to take part in any religious instruction unless such person his consent, or if he is a minor, consent of his guardian has been obtained. The Constitution, thus, aims to establish a Secular State.

Question 12.
What are the three common restrictions on Fundamental Rights that the Constitution guarantees to citizens of India.
Answer:
Part-III of the Constitution which deals with Fundamental Rights has been criticised on the following grounds :

  1. The right to freedom and personal liberty has a number of limiting clauses. The Phrases ‘Security of the State’, ‘public order’ and ‘morality’ are general and of wide implication. There is also the provision of preventive detention. Acts like MISA (Maintenance of Internal Security Act), and NSA (National Security Act) seemed to eat away the essence of the rights.
  2.  The phrases like ‘reasonable restrictions’ or ‘in the interests of public order’ are vague or ill defined. They shall lead to unnecessary litigation.
  3.  During the proclamation of Emergency many rights such as freedom of speech and freedom of assembly may. suspend the right to move the Supreme Court or High Court for the enforcement of other rights as well/(except the rights conferred by Articles 20 and 21).

Question 13.
The purpose of incorporating duties is to highlight one’s obligations to oneself, to state and the nation at large. In this context, mention a Citizen’s duty :
(a) Towards Self.
(b) Towards State.
(c) Towards the Nation.
Answer:
The duties of a Citizen towards himself, to the state and the nation with reference to the given headings are described below :
(a) A Citizen’s duty Towards Self : The Constitution declares that it shall be the duty of every citizen “to develop the scientific temper, humanism and the spirit of inquiry and reform”. A citizen should always be dutiful towards his state and country. He should strive for doing the best for them. He should know this thing, if the state and the nation secure, he himself will be secured.

(b) A Citizen’s duty Towards State : A State expects certain healthy and good from it’s every citizen. Among these duties, the foremost duty of every citizen is to abide by the constitution and respect its ideals and institutions, the National Flag and the National Anthem ; It is the duty of all of us to uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India ; We should do our best to defend our nation and render national service when called upon to do so ; A citizen should safeguard public property and abjure violence.

(c) A Citizen’s duty Towards the Nation : A citizen’s duty is to cherish and follow the noble ideals which inspired our national struggle for freedom ; We should value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture ; We should promote harmony and the spirit of common brother-hood amongst people of India going beyond religious, linguistic and regional diversities. We should renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of women.

Question 14.
Rights and duties are two aspects of the same thing. In this context, explain the importance of Fundamental Duties and their relationship with Rights.
Answer:
Rights and duties are indeed two aspects of the same thing. It is the duty of other if it is the right for the one and vice versa. If- a person does something constructive taking it for his duty, the other person has no right to tamper with his efforts with intention to demoralise him.

It would rather be an offence on his part if he does so. If one has the right to a “nationality”, he is under an obligation to defend the country and render “national service” when called upon to do. We also have an obligation to safeguard public property and to abjure violence.

Question 15.
Part-III of the Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights. Discuss their significance or reasons for their inclusion in the Constitution of India under the following headlines :
(a) Democracy implies Civil Liberties.
(b) Rights are a check on the arbitrary powers of the Government.
(c) Violations of human rights constitute threat to International Peace.
Answer:
(a) Democracy implies Civil Liberties : Democracy has a direct relationship with the Civil Liberties like—freedom of speech, religion and freedom from arbitrary arrest. All these liberties are recognised and protected by the State. Without civil liberties, Democracy is of no avail. Democracy is essentially government by opinion or persuasion. The means for formulating public opinion should be secured to the citizens. Democracy enables a citizens express his views or ideas fearlessly, manage assembly, form association and move throughout the territory of India.

(b) Rights are a check on the arbitrary powers of the Government : Rights are a check on the Executive i.e., the President, the Prime Minister, Ministers, Government officials, Parliament and other legislative bodies as Fundamental rights can be altered or curtailed only by an amendment of the Constitution.

(c) Violations of Human Rights Constitute Threat to International Peace : Violations of Human Rights can cause mass-destruction and huge damage on a large scale. Take example of the outbreak of the World War-II. If occurred, but due to the reasons of violating human rights. The fascist and Nazi rulers of Italy and Germany played havoc with the innocent lives. In such circumstances, inclusion of the fundamental rights in the constitution is quite essential which would otherwise be a threat to International Peace.

Question 16.
Examine the characteristic features of the Fundamental Rights with regard to the following points :
(a) Some rights are available to all persons, others are available to Citizens alone.
(b) Rights are not absolute.
(c) Many rights remain suspended during Proclamation of Emergency.
Answer:
With refard to the points given, the characteristic features of the Fundamental Rights can be examined as under :

(a) Some rights are available to all persons, others are available to Citizens along : In general, the rights that are availed of by all persons, they are, Right to life or personal liberty. Similarly, all persons can have faith in any religion. Such rights do not fall under any kind of hard and fast restrictions. But, still there is other kind of rights like—freedom of speech and expression and freedom to reside and settle in any part of the country, these are such rights that are secured to the citizens along. It is very essential for a speaker, While he is at speech or expressing his views that he should keep in mind the code and conduct of oratory, nowhere his speech should cross the limits lest the feelings or sentiments of the listeners should get hurt. The speaker must be aware of his limitations. Likewise, it is only the citizens who can get the benefit to reside and settle in any part of the country. It is important that one should be a citizen before enjoying such a right. No alien or outsider is allowed to get hold on to this right unless or until he observes the citizenship of the country.

(b) Rights are not absolute : Rights are never unrestrained or absolute. They are propagated to the framework of decency and ethics, so that no one should take undue advantage of the right. Rights are meant to run the social life smoothly. Indeed, rights are subject to such reasonable restrictions as may be necessary for the protection of general welfare. State is responsible for the general public intersects, decency or morality. Thus, State may make laws putting restrictions on our rights.

(c) Many rights remain suspended during Proclamation of Emergency : The Nation-Intersects are above all. At times, when the unity of nation is felt to be in danger, the President of the country is liable to impose Emergency in the country or any province to maintain law and order. In such condition, the Fundamental Right conferred by Article 19 (freedom of speech, freedom of movement, freedom of assembly etc.) remain suspended. The President may by order suspend the rights to move the Court for the enforcement of other rights conferred by Articles 20 and 21.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 14

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 14 Our Constitution.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 14 Our Constitution.

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What is meant by the term Constitution ?
Answer:
‘Constitution’ is a comprehensive document containing the set of rules according to which the government of a country runs.

Question 2.
On the basis of which plan was the Constituent Assembly constituted ?
Answer:
On the basis of the proposals of the Freedom Fighters a Constituent Assembly was set up, whose members were to be elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

Question 3.
What is known as the ‘Objectives Resolution’?
Answer:
‘Objective Resolution,’ was proposed by Pt. Nehru on December 13,1946, for highlighting the ‘national goals’.

Question 4.
By whom and when was the Objective Resolution proposed and passed ?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru proposed the Resolution and it was passed on January 22, 1947.

Question 5.
Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent ?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee. Which was set up on August 29, 1947.

Question 6.
When was the Constitution adopted and passed ? When did it come into force ?
Answer:
The Constitution was adopted and passed by the Constituent Assembly on November 26, 1949. The Constitution as a whole came into force with effect from January 26, 1950.

Question 7.
State the significance of January 26.
Answer:
It was on this date, January 26, in 1929, that the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress had for the first time given the call for ‘Purna Swaraj’. Since then, the day was celebrated as Independence Day up to 1947, but later on, it was designated as the Republic Day.

Question 8.
What is known as the Preamble ? What is the importance of the opening words of the Preamble ?
Answer:
The Preamble is the introductory part of constitution, which sets out the main objectives of the Constitution.Though the Preamble is not an operative part of the Constitution, it has a hold on the governments. This is because when there is a dispute regarding the interpretation of the text of the Constitution, explanation given in the Preamble comes in handy.

Question 9.
How is the Indian Republic different from that of the USA?
Answer:
In the United States, the President is directly elected by the people whereas in the Indian Republic, the President is indirectly elected, by the elected representatives of the people.

Question 10.
Explain the significance of the term ‘Sovereign’.
Answer:
The Preamble declared India a ‘Sovereign state’. It means that India is its own ‘Supreme’ power and not a subject of any other state or country.

Question 11.
Why was the word ‘SECULAR’, incorporated in the Preamble ?
Answer:
The people of India form a significant mixture of the different religions and communities. So, it was indispensable to follow secularism, in order to maintain peace and order, because it concentrates on the respect and importance to every religion, as every religion is made for the welfare of humanity.

Question 12.
Explain the significance of the term ‘DEMOCRATIC’ in the Preamble.
Answer:
This term implies that India has chosen a form of government in which people have a say as to who should hold power and how it should be used Government by the people, of the people and for the people.

Question 13.
What is meant by the term ‘JUSTICE’ as an ideal of the Indian Constitution ?
Answer:
‘Justice’ implies not only administration of law in a fair and responsible way but also with out any privilege or prejudice.

Question 14.
Give two examples to indicate that the Preamble to the Constitution has ensured political justice for all.
Answer:

  1. There is freedom for the citizens to have their political views as long as such views do not go against the interest of the country.
  2. There is freedom to vote for any recognised political party in the country.
  3. Every citizen of India except those who are debarred on account of criminal offenses can stand for election and hold office if elected.

Question 15.
Mention any two features indicating the significance of the Preamble.
Answer:

  1. The Preamble represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the entire Constitution of India. The other parts and provisions of the Constitution are only an elaboration and an attempt to give concrete shape to the words of the Preamble.
  2. The Preamble contains the five basic features of the Constitution. That is India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. Besides, it reminds people of the Four Ideals of the State. That is, India should secure to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 16.
Why did the Muslims League boycott the meetings of the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer:
The Muslims League boycotted the Constituent Assembly to demand the creation of a separate state called Pakistan.

Question 17.
Who represented the Anglo-Indians in the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer:
The Anglo-Indians were represented by Mr. Frank Anthony and Mr. S.H. Prater, the Indian Christians, by Dr. H.C. Mukerjee and Joseph D’sauza.

Question 18.
Give two objectives of the Indian Republic as set forth in the constitution of India.
Answer:
Two objectives are as follows :

  1. Secularism equal respect and recognition of all religions from the state.
  2. Sovereign Declaration of India as it own supreme power.

Question 19.
What is one main strength of the Indian Constitution ?
Answer:
Indian Constitution is a lengthy document, most comprehensive and bulky Constitution ever adopted by any country.

Question 20.
Why is our Constitution known as the ‘Fundamental Law of the Land’?
Answer:
Being superior to the ordinary laws of the State, the Constitution of India is known as the “Fundamental Law of Land”. Every that law is redundant that violates any of the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 21.
Which body framed the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The ‘Constituent Assembly’ is the constitution-making body that framed the Constitution of India.

Question 22.
Name the three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly were :

  1. Lord Pethic Lawrence
  2. Sir Stafford Cripps
  3. Mr. Alexander.

Question 23.
Who was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 24.
Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 25.
Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.

Question 26.
When was the Constitution of India enacted and adopted?
Answer:
On November 26, 1949 the Constitution of India was enacted and adopted.

Question 27.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
On January 26, 1950 the Constitution of India came into force.

Question 28.
What is the importance of January 26 in India’s struggle for Puma Swaraj (Complete Independence)?
Answer:
After a long trail of freedom-struggle and innumerable sacrifices, ultimately India succeeded in attaining the freedom from at the hands of ‘Union Jack’. It was on the 26th of January, 1950 when India got Complete Independence or Puma Swaraj that was absolutely free from the influence of the British government. This very day embodied the dream of freedom of the great freedom- fighters and patriots.

Question 29.
What do y29u understand by the term ‘Preamble’ to the Constitution?
Answer:
‘Preamble’ is an introduction to the Constitution. It ‘walks before the Constitution and tells the source, the objects and contents of the Constitution. It imbibes the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

Question 30.
What do the words “We, the People of India” in the Preamble signify?
Answer:
The words “We, the People of India” in the Preamble relate to the natives from India who by birth belong to India.

Question 31.
Preamble to the Constitution describes India as a Sovereign State. What do you understand by the term ‘Sovereign’?
Answer:
The term ‘Sovereign’ suggests the meaning in terms of Political Power. That means, a nation which is politically endowed with ruling power in external and internal affairs.

Question 32.
Mention any two implications of a Democratic government, as promised by the Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
A Democratic government, as promised by the Preamble to the Constitution, it implies that the formed government is the government made by the people, of the people and for the people. In other words, a democratic government is fully devoted to the citizens of the country. It promises the citizens provide them physical and social security. If the citizens of the country feel dissatisfied with the government, they can dissolve such government through Franchise, process. Thus, public welfare is the sole motive of a Democratic Government.

Question 33.
Mention any two steps taken by the Indian Republic in pursuance of its socialist objectives.
Answer:
In pursuance of socialist objectives, following are the two steps taken by the Indian Republic :

  1. Social Justice.
  2. Economic Justice.

Question 34.
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. What does ‘Secularism’ mean?
Answer:
‘Secularism’ means the quality of having oneness while looking into the other religions. The country like-India incorporates a number of religions. There is no restrain in following the denomination. Everyone is free to adopt any religion, but side by side, one is to show respect for other religions too. Hence, the Constitution of India seeks uniformity on the religions level. The ideology of uniformity in the religions perspective makes India a Secular State.

Question 35.
What is the opposite of a Secular State? Name any one State that is not Secular.
Answer:
The opposite of a Secular State is a Theoratic State. Pakistan is a Theocratic State.

Question 36.
Mention any two features illustrating the nature of Indian . Polity or State.
Answer:
Two features illustrating the nature of Indian Polity or State are as follows :

  1. India is a Sovereign State : India is Independent both internally and externally. She can frame her own socio-economic policies and develop her resources the way she likes. No foreign State can claim her control over her. She is free to frame her foreign policies and choose her allies in peace and war alike.
  2. Socialist Order of Society : The work ‘Socialist’ was inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Socialism guarantees “fair distribution of wealth” and “securing a decent standard of life to the people”. The Directive Principles laid down in view of State Policy ensure for its people adequate means of livelihood, fair distribution of wealth, equal pay for equal work for both men and women, protection of children and the working people against exploitation. The conditions of work in mines and factories are regulated by the Equal Remuneration Act and Workmen’s Compensation Act. The Minimum Wages Act provides for fixation and revision of wages from time to time.

Question 37.
Mention any two of the main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Answer:
The two main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution, are as under:

  1. Justice-Social, Economic and Political : It is the fundamental right of every citizen in the society to seek justice whether it is associated with society, economy or politics. Justice ensures of protection of rights and interests of an individual and the society respectively. The constitution makes it possible to achieve such an object by securing to all citizens certain fundamental rights. It also lays down certain Directive Principles guiding the State to work efficiently.
    Social Justice in the sense, providing equal opportunities of education work and labour irrespective qf religion, race, caste or sex. It also discourages social abuses like -Untouchability and religion fanaticism. It is liable to uplift the backward and down troddens in the society.The directive Principles aim at making the sound economic position of all the citizens by allocating Economic Justice to all of then by means of equal distribution of wealth system.All the citizens have the right to participate in the political activities. They have right to cast their vote, they have right to contest the election as per the norms and conditions of the election commission. Thus, Political Justice is meant for all.
  2. Liberty of Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith and Worship : There is provision in the Constitution as the Preamble refers to i.e., every individual has the right to write, speak or express his thoughts, beliefs while keeping himself within the restrictions imposed on this right. Likewise, every person is free to follow any religion. He is free to have faith or belief in any God or Goddess. He can go to any Pilgrimage to worship in the country.

Question 38.
Mention what the Preamble says about ‘Equality’.
Answer:
While speaking in context of ‘Equality’, the distinction made in the Preamble goes on two levels. On one hand, Equality serves equality for all before law, status and opportunity in matters of public employment, while on the other hand, equality always means “equality among equals”. There can be no equality between paupers and princes. To discriminate between them is not a violation of the Constitution. Consequently, the state can make special provision for women, children and the backward classes of citizens.

Question 39.
Mention what the Preamble state about ‘Fraternity’.
Answer:
‘Fraternity’ means spirit of brotherhood. As our society is divided by a number of classes castes, religions and languages, therefore it is very essential to establish Harmony amongst them for that reason our constitution-makers added the word ‘fraternity’ in the Preamble. Thus, securing the Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

Question 40.
Mention the words introduced in the Preamble by the Constitution Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976.
Answer:
The words Socialist, Secular, Unity and Integrity of the Nation were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act of 1976. It came into effect on January 3, 1977.

Question 41.
What is the significance of the Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble to the Constitution is significant in many ways.

  1. The Preamble declares that the source of the Constitution is the People of India.
  2. It indicates the secular, socialist and democratic basis of the Constitution.
  3.  It states the basic or ideals of the Indian Republic. It leads the law and makes it go in the right direction while providing ‘Social Justice’, and protecting the interests of the weaker sections of the society.
  4. It includes basic features of the constitution viz., Supremacy of the Constitution, India has the Republican and Democratic form of government, the Constitution is that of secular character. Segregation of Powers between the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary, the Constitution is also of Federal character under certain circumstances.

Question 42.
Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution?
Answer:
Yes, the Preamble is a part of the Constitution because it contains the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

Question 43.
What do we mean when we say that the Preamble is a part of the Constituion of India?
Answer:
It means, the Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution. It “Walks before” the Constitution and cells us the sources, the objects and contents of the Constitution.

Question 44.
The Preamble to the Constitution describes India a Socialist State. What does the expression ‘Socialist’ mean here?
Answer:
The expression ‘Socialisty’ signifies the meaning of “fair distribution of wealth” and “Securing decent standard of life to the people”. India, which is a Socialist State, she does provide equal opportunities to all, irrespective of birth, sex and religion in all aspects of life.

Question 45.
In what sense is India a Republic?
Answer:
A Republic country is that, where equality, liberty and fraternity go hand in hand. Such a country is ruled over by the representatives that are nominated and elected from and by amongest the common mass. There is no hereditary monarch in such a state. The President of India holds office for a term of five years. He is the elected Head of the State. The legislators (the MPs and MLAs) are also elected by the people. As India enjoys all these relaxations, hence we can say India is a Republic.

II. Structured Questions :

Question 1.
With reference to the making of Indian Constitution explain the following :
(a) When and how were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected ?
(b) How was the membership of the Constituent Assembly reduced as a result of partition of the country?
(c) How do you say that the Constituent Assembly gave adequate representation to all sections of the Indian Society?
Answer:
(a) The first sitting of the Assembly was held on December 9, 1946, presided by Dr. Sachidanand Sinha. The oldest member Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent chairman on December 11. 1946. The members were the leading personalities of the day. e.g. Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukerjee, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, J.B. Kriplani, Maulana Azad, K.M. Munshi, Dr. Ambedkar, H.N. Kunzru, Sarojini Naidu, Vijayalaxmi Pandit, Rajagopalachari etc.

(b) The membership of the Assembly of India stood 299 against the original number of 385 members, due to the partition of the country.

(c) The wide ranging membership of the Assembly gave representation to all shades of public opinion, e.g. Muslims and Sikhs, Congress leaders, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, Scheduled Castes and Tribes, all in one, got combined representation.

Question 2.
With reference to the Objective Resolution explain the following :
(a) When was the Resolution passed by the Constituent Assembly ?
(b) What were the main points of the Objective Resolution?
(c) What did the Resolution propose ?
Answer:
(a) The Resolution was passed by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.

(b) The Objective Resolution, focussed on the ‘national goals’ of republic, ideals of democracy, fundamental rights of citizens along with minorities and backward classes.

(c) The Resolution proposed:

  1. Republic of India
  2. Ideals of social, political and economic democracy would be granted to all.
  3. Fundamental Rights to citizens.
  4. Safeguard the rights of minorities and backward classes.

Question 3.
With reference to commencement of the Constitution explain the following :
(a) The changes effected in the administration of the country with the commencement of the Constitution.
(b) The clause relating to citizenship was put into effect immediately after signing of the Constitution.
Answer:
(a) Along with various important changes for safe side, with a meaningful perspective, the constitution of India is the real.
guide of the successive governments and their political ideologies.

(b) Being an Indian or having Indian citizenship is just not enough without cementing bond of unity of nation. So an Indian citizen is expected to maintain both individual and national dignity.

Question 4.
With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, answer the following :
(a) What became the basis of incorporating the Preamble in the Indian Constitution ?
(b) Give the significance of ‘Wethepeople” in the Preamble.
(c) How have the objectives of Indian Constitution been emphasised in the Preamble.
Answer:
(a) Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution summarising the main features and ideals of the nation in order to get proper clue and direction.

(b) We, The People’. It has perhaps been inspired by a similar expression in the American Constitution. The words ‘ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION’ makes the people the holders of this authority. Speaking about this purpose and intention of the Constitution, Dr. Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly : “This Constitution has its roots in the people and it derives its authority from the people.”

(c) The objectives of the Indian constitution are emphasised in the preamble in order to memories the ideals and goals of the constitution to keep it unforgettable.

5. With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, answer the following questions :
Question 5(a).
Explain the significance of the Preamble.
Answer:
The significance of the Preamble are as below :

  1. The Preamble represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the entire Constitution of India. The other parts and provisions of the Constitution are only an elaboration and an attempt to give concrete shape to the words of the Preamble. Over the years so many amendments have been made to the Constitution but its basic features could not be altered.
  2. Disputes, ambiguities are to be resolved in a writing Constitution. In order to interpret the articles it is necessary to refer often to the Preamble which should form the basis for interpretation.
  3. The Preamble contains the five basic features of the Constitution. That is, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. Besides, it reminds people of the Four Ideals of the State. That is, India should secure to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Question 5(b).
What is the significance of the words, ‘Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic’ as given
in the Preamble ?
Answer:
‘ Sovereign Social i st Secular Democratic Republic’. In the words of Chief Justice Hidyatullah : “It lays down the pattern of our political society.” Based on this significance, the Preamble is considered ‘the soul and spirit’ of our Constitution.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning following terms :
(a) Liberty
(b) Fraternity
(c) Equality.
Answer:
(a) Liberty : It means the Liberty of thoughts, expression belief, faith and worship.

(b) Fraternity: It is to assure the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation for brotherhood and friendship.

(c) Equality: It means the equality of status and of opportunity and to promote them among all.

Question 7.
How do you regard the Constitution of India as a real guide for the successive Governments in respect of the following:
(a) The Preamble
(b) Incorporation of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Answer:
(a) The Preamble is an ideal guide to understand the actual objectives and aims of the Nation for easy and peaceful decisions practiced on the basis of it.
(b) Fundamental Rights must be enjoyed by every citizen to satisfy the public opinion and the Directive Principles qf State Policy ensure constant interaction between people and state which are basic roots to be successful for the successive governments in each and every type of circumstances i.e. the key to success is undoubtedly is to follow the constitution for proper guidance.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 8.
How can you say that the Constituent Assembly of India represented all major and smaller communities of the country?

OR

Briefly comment on the statement that the Constituent Assembly looked like a Mini-India.
Answer:
Following the principle of “Unity in Diversification”, the Constituent Assembly of India came into existence. It was skillfully interwoven, taking the members from almost all major regions and all major sections and communities of India. The joint efforts of their, made the country venture into the sea of progress and prosperity in the near future. All the members had been committed to the national integration. They were liable to work in the interests of general public even when their aspirations tended lean to their respective regions and communities. As an evidence in this perspective, we find it included Dr. Ambedkar hailed from maharashtra, Rajendra Prasad and Satyanarayan Sinha belonged to Bihar, Mohammed Saddulla belonged to Assam, Hukam Singh and Ujjal Singh from East Punjab and so on. Also, it included the women members like Mrs. Sarojini Naidu, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur. Thus, in a way the scenario set forth by the Constituent Assembly is no less than A Microcosm of India (Mini- India).

Question 9.
The Preamble to the Constitution declares India to be a Secular-Democratic Republic. In this context, answer the following questions :
(a) What does the expression ‘Secular’ mean here?
(b) Do you agree with the view that Indian Constitution promises not only political and social democracy, but economic democracy as well?
Answer:
The above questions in context of the Preamble to the constitution declaring India to be a Secular Democratic Republic are answered as under.
(a) The manner in which the word ‘Secular’ is introduced into the Preamble of the Constitution of India, it refers to religious aspect. Ours is the country that is dominated by maximum number of religions. Every religion follows different traditions and rituals. In this light, the makers of the Constitution had to look into every religion with the same point of view, hence it was decided to treat all religions equally, so as to avoid any sort of dispute that might erupt in the name of religion. The impartial attitude adopted towards religion on legal grounds stepped into the need to mention a word like-‘Secular’ in the Constitution. That means. Anyone is free to adopt any religion.

(b) Yes, we very much agree with the view that India Constitution promises not only political democracy, but economic democracy as well. In the Preamble, a just economic system is promised under Economic Justice. A sound democracy lies in a sound economy in a democratic nation. For the purpose, “fair distribution of wealth” and “a decent Standard of life to the people” has been secured in the Indian Constitution

Question 10.
The Preamble states ‘Justice’ and ‘Liberty’ as the basic objects for which the Indian Republic exists. In this context explain the social, economic and political dimensions of Justice.
Answer:
The Preamble guarantees justice on different levels. Here, Justice is put in a comprehensive manner. Thus, Justice is closely associated to the following aspects that prevail in a democratic Republic State like that of India.In context of Social Justice, one thing is made very clear in the Constitution i.e., all the individuals living in the society shall not be discriminated on the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. They are supposed to enjoy the civil amenities in a subservient way. There is no room for Untouchability in our Constitution. The State may make provision for the advancement and upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens.

For Economic Justice, the Directive Principles promise to bring about a just economic system in the Preamble. Economic Justice means, all the citizens living in the society are liable to be financially sound so as to meet and enjoy their daily needs comfortably. As Justice Krishna Iyyer has rightly said in context of Economic Justice, he says, “Economic Justice means, wipping out the tear from every eye”.

Justice is confined to various dimensions when it is talked in Political context. Political Justice is related to the right to vote, free and fair elections and equal access to public offices. The Constitution of India guarantees a minimum number of seats to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. People belonging to various communities, sects or groups are eligible to form their separate union or association to raise their voice against injustice or in favour of their reasonable demands before the government.

Question 11.
Explain the following terns in the context of the Preamble to the Constitution :
(a) Liberty,
(b) Equality, and
(c) Fraternity.
Answer:
The given terms in context of the Preamble to the Constitution are answered as under :
(a) Liberty : In the preamble, there is a provision of freedom or relaxation over a certain issues under the name of ‘Liberty’, that goes for the welfare of common miss. The liberty mentioned in the context of the Preamble to the Constitution relates to Liberty of Thought, Expression Belief, Faith and Worship. Freedom of through and expression means, the right to speak or write freely on any subject, provided the speaker abides by the restrictions imposed on’ this right. A person has freedom of religion and conscience. The State gives equal freedom to all religions.

(b) Equality : A person is ensured of equality before law. Social equality and equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, are yet another levels of Equality. But, equality is seen on the criterion which reveals “equality among equals”. A poor is no match to a rich. So, at this juncture, equality differs in its meaning. The Constitution too overlooks such a discrimination and rules out any violation while discriminating the both. Hence, the State can make special provision for women, children and the backward classes of citizens.

(c) Fraternity : It is the spirit of brotherhood which is indispensable to bind the nation in a single string to provide strength and stability to the nation. Since, our society is divided by many classes, castes, religions and languages therefore, it is very essential to bring about harmony among them, lest any kind of friction differentiation of ideologies should bring forth any kind confrontation. Fraternity marks the dignity of the individual and the Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

Question 12.
What is the significance of the Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble is a prologue that throws the light on the source, the objects and the contents compiled in the Constitution. It is an integral and vital part of the Constitution that consists of the basic structure or framework of the Constitution. It depicts the real, picture of the nation along with the description of its nature. The Preamble states that the source of the Constitution is the People of India. Again, it indicates that India is a secular, socialist and democratic country. It states the basic objects or ideals of the Indian Republic. It works as a lighthouse to Law-makers to bring about amendments time to time in the interests of weaker sections of the society.

Question 13.
What do you know about the Composition of the Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution of India?
Answer:
To end the political deadlock, the Cabinet Mission brought forth the proposals of it’s members that contained details of the Constituent Assembly elections that were to be held in July, 1946. The Provincial Assemblies elected the members of the Constituent Assembly, under the scheme of Indirect Election proposed by the Cabinet Mission. The representatives included as per the nomination were from the Princely States, whom the rulers of these states had nominnated. The Constituent Assembly had been equipped with 385 members in all. 292 seats went to the Provinces, whereas the Princely States were allocated 93 seats. However, the number of seats reduced to 308 after the partition of India. The eminent personality, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was appointed the President. Many other distinguished political leaders too joined hands in it’s composition. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of Assembly’s Committee i.e., the Drafting Committee.

In other words, the Constituent Assembly presented the panorama of a Mini-India that included persons from different communities in the society. It also included the women members. Presumably, the Congress had the lion- share in the Constituent Assembly. It also propounded the supporters of Forward Bloc and members of the Hindu Maha Sabha and the Muslim League. In nutshell, the contribution of them led to the framing of the Constitution of the Independent India.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 13

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 13 The Modem Age in Europe: Industrial Revolution.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 13 The Modem Age in Europe: Industrial Revolution.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
What is meant by the Industrial Revolution ?
Answer:
Industrial Revolution is the name given to a series of changes that brought about a transition from production by hand to production by machine.

Question 2.
Name any two consequences of the Industrial Revolution in the economic field.
Answer:

  1. Mass production of goods.
  2. Revolutionary changes in the political, social and economic life of the people.

Question 3.
What is Capitalism ?
Answer:
The economic system which generates and gives power to capitalists (money-holders) came to be known as ‘Capitalism’.

Question 4.
Who was Karl Marx ? Name his outstanding work.
Answer:
Karl Marx (1818-83) was a German political philosopher and economist. He wrote “Communist-Manifesto”. Due to his revolutionary ideas he had been compelled to leave Germany and make London his homeland.

Question 5.
What is meant by Socialism ? What was the cause of Socialism ?
Answer:
It is an economic system in which means of production are owned not by private individuals but by the community. Socialism created as a reaction against the evils of Capitalism. It was to promote the rights of workers and their right to vote in order to set up a society free of exploitation and class divisions.

Question 6.
How did the evil effects of Industrial Revolution help in rise of Socialism ?
Answer:
During Industrial Revolution, money and power came to the hands of capitalists. So, according to the acceptance of the anti-thesis ‘Laissez faire’, doctrine was socialism which visualised a society free from exploitation.

Question 7.
Mention any two effects of the Industrial Revolution on the general public.
Answer:
Industrial Revolution resulted in the growth of towns and disappearance of small farmers.

Question 8.
Mention any two advantages of Industrialisation.
Answer:
Industrialisation encouraged to provide a ready work force for the new industries and advent of better life through education, cultural benefits and enjoyment.

Question 9.
Mention two bad effects of the Industrial Revolution on labourers.
Answer:
Two bad effects on labourers were as follows :

  1. Traditional handloom weavers could no longer compete with mechanised production of cloth.
  2. Domestic system of production was destroyed.

Question 10.
What were the two factors that led to the increase in demand for the British goods ?
Answer:
The two factors were as follows :

  1. Due to large colonial hold, England had sufficient raw materials and huge profits of expanding trade provided an impetus to multiply her production.
  2. Napoleonic wars made the English industries quite active and the demand for the British goods increased remarkably.

Question 11.
How did the increase in the demand of the British goods led to the invention of new machine ?
Answer:
The invention of machines, revolutionised the industries system in British. The following inventions added with the perfection and demand of the British goods :

  1. “The Flying shuttle’, invented by John Key, a weaver of Lancashire, which increased the speed of weaving’
  2. The ‘Spinning-Jenny’, invented by James Hargreaves’ spinning ability of eight threads at a time.
  3. The ‘Water Frame’, invented by Richard Arkwright, to producer harder and stronger yarn.
  4. The ‘Crompton’s Mule’, invented by Samuel Compton to combine, quantity with quality.
  5. The ‘Powerloom’, invented by Cartwright, to operate about 100 spindles.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 12.
How did urbanisation take place ?
Answer:
The Industrial Revolution deeply affected the pattern of social settlement. Migration of people from the villages towards towns increased urbanisation along with the increase in population and labourers and change in sources of income.

Question 13.
What is known as the investment ?
Answer:
From the word ‘to cloth, its Latin ‘investire’ gave rise to a new term called investment. I came to mean acquisition of financial or productive assets with the help of the capital. The general meaning of the investment is the application of a particular amount of capital for some profitable production.

Question 14.
How does India uphold socialist principles ?
Answer:
India had been a prominent nation to follow socialism in the form of equal rights for every citizen. Now, in democratic scene, the principles of socialism are very well practiced through welfare of mankind in common subjects of unemployment solutions, old-age pensions, protection against illness etc.

Question 15.
Name any two sources to reconstruct the Industrial Revolution in England.
Answer:

  1. The wonderful inventions of Arkwright, Crompton, Cartwright, James Watt.
  2. Factory Acts in England.

Question 16.
What is meant by Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
The word ‘Revolution’ means, something “sudden and quite swift”. Industrial Revolution resulted in revolutionary changes in all walks of life.

Question 17.
Mention any two causes responsible for Industrialisation in England.
Answer:
Reasons for the initiation of Industrialisation in England are :

  1. Enclosure Movement (Availability of Cheap Labour).
  2. Availability of Coal and Iron.

Question 18.
What is meant by four-fold rotation of crops introduced by Lord Townshend in England?
Answer:
Lord Townshend introduced a new four-fold rotation of crops in his farm (turnip, barley, clover and wheat). This new-system disallowed leaving the land, lie fallow the third year.

Question 19.
What was the significance of Hargreaves Spinning- Jenny?
Answer:
Hargreaves Spinning-Jenny could spin eight threads at a time.

Question 20.
What was the significance of the weaving loom, invented by Edmund Cartwright?
Answer:
The weaving loom, invented by Edmund Cartwright could be driven by horses. Later, this loom was improved.and was operated by water-power.

Question 21.
What was the significance of James Watt’s Steam- Engine?
Answer:
James Watt’s Steam-Engine could run with the steam- pressure. Steam could drive the piston backwards and forwards. It was an effective means to turn the wheels. It became the throbbing heart of every industry.

Question 22.
Name the first warship built of iron plates in England.
Answer:
The first warship built of iron plates in England was the Warrior (1860).

Question 23.
When and during whose regime were the first railway lines opened in India?
Answer:
In 1848-1856 during the regime of Lord Dalhousie, the first railway lines opened in India.

Question 24.
When was Penny Postage introduced in England?
Answer:
In 1840, Penny Postage was introduced in England.

Question 25.
What is meant by ‘Serfdom’?
Answer:
‘Serfdom’ means, working of people on their master’s land and not to leave without his permission.

Question 26.
How did the abolition of Serfdom promote industrialisation in Russia?
Answer:
Abolition of Serfdom freed a large number of persons, who were then employed in the factories. Thus, it facilitated the industrialisation of the country. After the success of the Communist Revolution (1917) railways, workshops and factories were declared ‘national property’ and operated directly by the Government.

Question 27.
Mention any two advantages of Industrialisation.
Answer:
Two advantages of Industrialisation are :

  1. Production in large quantities.
  2. Brought Countries and peoples together.

Question 28.
Mention any two abuses or disadvantages of Industrial Revolution.
Answer:
Two abuses or disadvantages of Industrial Revolution are mentioned as under :

  1. Urbanisation (Shifting of population from villages to cities).
  2. Unemployment.

Question 29.
What is a Capitalist system?
Answer:
A Capitalist system is the economic system in which business and industries were owned by private individuals and not by the State.

Question 30.
What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Socialism consists of one demand, namely that the land and other instruments of production shall be the common property of the people and shall be used and governed by the people, for the people.

Question 31.
Name any two of the Early French socialists.
Answer:
Babeuf and Saint-Simon.

Question 32.
What is the role of Robert Owen in the history of socialist movement?
Answer:
Robert Owen has been called “the Father of British Socialism”. He owned a cotton mill in Scotland. It was he, who first used the word ‘Socialism’ and maintained that the object of Government was to make the people happy. He reduced the working-hours of the factory workers, paid the good wages and helped the Trade Union Movement to grow.

Question 33.
Name that famous work by Marx and Engels (published in 1848) which marked the advent of Marxism or ‘Scientific Socialism’.
Answer:
The ‘Communist Manifesto’ was published in 1848. It marked the advent of Marxism or ‘Scientific Socialism’, as they called it. According to Karl Marx and Engels the interests of the capitalists and workers are all the time opposed to each other. They laid stress not he doctrine of Class Struggle. The struggle between the capitalists and the working classes is a ceaseless affair, until the workers have won and a new social system is born.

Question 34.
Name any two prominent leaders of the Socialist Party founded in India in 1934.
Answer:
The prominent leaders of the party were Acharya Narendra Dev, Achyut Patwardhan, Jayaprakash Narayan and Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia.

Question 35.
Mention any two main activities of a modern Welfare State.
Answer:
A modern Welfare State provides the citizens public assistance during sickness, unemployment and old age.

II. Structured Questions.

Question 1.
The industrial Revolution marked a change from handwork to machine work and from domestic system of production to factory system of production. In this context, discuss the role of the following factors in ushering in the Industrial Revolution,
(a) Invention of machines
(b) Availability of coal and iron
(c) Improved Transportation.
Answer:
(a) Invention of new machines and powerlooms made the large production possible for expanding market. So the handlooms got a set back.

(b) Coal and iron areas were abundantly available for iron and steel and other industries. The cluster of industries concentrated around the coal fields.

(c) Improved Transportation supported the distribution of goods freely to the distant market all over the world.

2. With reference to the Industrial Revolution in England, state the role of the following factors :
Question 2(a).
Availability of raw material
Answer:
England possessed important coal fields of Yorkshire and Lancashire along with the abundant iron ore areas of Sheffield etc. So the industrial clusters quickly spread near the coal fields.

Question 2(b).
Skill and energy of immigrants.
Answer:
Protestant artisans of Spain and France migrated to England due to religious persecution. The English government hosted them and in turn they added their original skill to the industries.

Question 2(c).
Growth of population
Answer:
Growth of population provided ample and easily available labour force for different types of industries.

3. With reference to the rise of Capitalism, answer the following questions :
Question 3(a).
What were the cause of the rise of Capitalism ?
Answer:
These are the causes for the rise of Capitalism :

  1. Increase in Population : The Industrial Revolution increased the national wealth, raised the standard of living, made life more comfortable. All this helped in checking the various diseases.
  2. Legal Requirement: There was the new enclosure law which required farmers to put fences or hedges around their fields to prevent common grazing on the land.
  3. Growth of Towns : New manufacturing towns and cities grew dramatically. Many of these cities were located close to the coalfields that supplied fuel to the factories. Factories had to be close to sources of power because power could not be distributed very far.
  4. Mass Production : Mass production destroyed the domestic system of production.
  5. Disappearance of Small Farmers : The small farmers who cultivated land and manufactured goods in their spare time, in their homes shifted to new industrial towns. They were forced to seek employment in factories because they were replaced by big landlords.

Question 3(b).
What was the impact of Capitalism on the working class?
Answer:

  1. Loss of Traditional Jobs : The movement of people away from agriculture and into industrial cities brought great stress on the labour force. Women in households, who had earned income from spinning, found the new factories taking away their source of income. Traditional handloom weavers could no longer compete with the mechanised production of cloth.
  2. Exploitation : In the factories, people had to work long hours under harsh conditions, often with few rewards. Factory owners and managers paid the minimum amount necessary for a workforce, often recruiting women and children to tend the machines because they could be hired for very low wages.
  3. Stress and Strain : The nature of work changed as a result of division of labour. This idea in the Industrial Revolution called for dividing the production process into basic, individual tasks. Each worker would then perform one task, rather than a single worker doing the entire job. Such division of labour greatly improved productivity, but many of the simplified factory jobs were repetitive and boring. Workers also had to labour for more than 12 hours a day, sometimes more than 14, and people worked six days a week. Factory workers faced strict rules and close supervision by managers and overseers. The clock ruled life in the mills.
  4. Overcrowding : By about the 1820s, income levels for most workers began to improve. The economy was expanding at a rate that was more than twice the pace at which it had grown before the Industrial Revolution. Although vast differences existed between the rich and the poor, most of the population enjoyed some of the fruits of economic growth.

4. With reference to Socialism, answer the following questions:
Question 4(a).
What is meant by the term ‘Socialism’ ?
Answer:
Socialism is defined as an economic system in which the means of production are owned not by private individuals but by the community in order that all may share more fairly in the wealth produced.

Question 4(b).
What were the causes of the rise of Socialism ?
Answer:
Disorder and frustration due to the injustice practiced towards workers and common people, a new wake up for better peaceful society, Socialism was adopted by many countries in Europe and Russia.

Question 4(c).
Who was Karl Marx ? What is his contribution to Socialism 7
Answer:
Karl Marx was a German political philosopher and economist. He wrote ‘Communist Manifesto’, with the help of a French associate, Fredrick Engels. After his death, a new democratic socialism came to the scene and ultimately Russia adopted socialism.

Question 5.
With reference to Capitalism and Socialism, state the following :
(a) Difference between Capitalism and Socialism in terms of control means of production.
(b) Two key proponents each of Capitalism and Socialism.
(c) What according to you is better of the two economic systems ? Give reasons to support your answer.
Answer:
Capitalism :

  1. In Capitalism, production is for profit: useful goods and services are a by-product of pursuing profit.
  2. Competition for ownership of capital drives economic activity and creates a price system that determines resource allocation ; profits are reinvested in the economy.
  3.  Private property in capital and other goods is the dominant form of property.
  4. Production decisions are driven by consumer demand. Individuals choose what to consume and this choice leads to more competition and better products and services.
  5. It relies on markets to determine investment, production, and distribution decisions.

Socialism :

  1. In Socialism, production is for use : useful goods and services are produced specifically for their usefulness.
  2. Economic activity and production especially are adjusted by the State to meet human needs and economic demands.
  3. Two kinds of property : Personal property, such as houses, clothing, etc. owned by the individual. Public property includes factories, and means of production owned by the State but with worker control.
  4. Production decisions are driven more by the State than by consumer demand. These decisions are made on the basis of human consumption needs and economic demands.
  5.  It relies on planning to determine investment and production decisions. Planning may be centralised or decentralised.

(b) Capitalism : Key Proponents of Capitalism include Richard Cantillon, Adam Smith, David Ricardo, Fredrich A. Hayek, Ayn Rand, Milton Friedman.

Socialism : Key Proponents of Socialism include Robert Owen, Pierre Leroux, Karl Marx, Fredrick Engels, John Stuart Mill, Albert Einstein, George Bernard Shaw.

(c) Capitalism : Capitalism refers to the economic system in which the means of production like labour, raw material, tools and machines are owned by private individuals or groups of them for profit.
Capitalism believes in free market and is opposed to government intervention in economics because it believes that government intervention introduces inefficiencies.

The evil effects of Capitalism and the spirit of improving the condition of workers gave birth to socialism. The ultimate goal of socialism is to eliminate class struggle between the capitalists and the workers and form a classless society. In order to achieve these objectives, government control over production and distribution of important things is considered necessary. As such socialism is based on three principles. First, it is opposed to private capitalism. Secondly, socialism is the voice of all workers and the working class. Thirdly, socialism demands a just distribution of wealth. Socialists maintain that all factors of production should belong to entire human race or society.

Question 6.
With reference to the causes of Industrial Revolution, explain the following :
(a) Overseas markets
(b) British colonies
Answer:
(a) Due to the development of new sea routes, overseas markets increased particularly of the East Asian countries. Britain brought raw materials from these countries and sold manufactured goods and gained large profit.

(b) Britishers established many colonies all over the world along with India, making the series of Commonwealth. British Empire due to its colonial rule nearly in every part of the world.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 7.
Industrial Revolution changed the lives of ordinary people. In this context, answer the following questions.
(a) How did the urbanisation take place during the Renaissance period ?
(b) What were the consequences of urbanisation ?
Answer:
(a) Due to fast economic growth, there was large migration towards towns from the villages and the urban population increased upto 50%. The industrial region became the clusters of heavy population.

(b) The consequences of urbanisation were clear in the better conditions of the ordinary people and workers through getting various types of jobs and wages from industrial establishments. Inspite of economic growth, the over crowding and hardwork problems also appeared in Britain.

Question 8.
England in the 18th century, was most favourably placed for an Industrial Revolution. Discuss the role of the following factors in stimulating industrial expansion :
(a) Enclosure Movement.
(b) Availability of Coal and Iron.
Answer:
The role of the given factors instimulating industrial expansion in England in the 18th Century are described as under :
(a) Enclosure Movement : In the early years of the 18th century land-farming in England was done in common. Each village owned three or four fields and every house-holder owned a certain number of acre-strips in each field. Big landlords, with money to spend on farming machinery wanted to consolidate their holdings. The Acts of Parliament, enabled them to buy the land of their neighbours. Thus, the big landlords could convert their acre strips into huge enclosed farms. An enclosed farm was surrounded by a wall or fence which separated it from another such farm, the small farmers, who had sold their land, became landless labourers. Many of them migrated to the cities to work in the factories. Thus, there was no paucity of workers in the newly-grown industrial towns.

(b) Availability of Coal and Iron : Coal and Iron was immensely available in England. In the north of England, lay both the coalfields and the deposits of iron. Most
factories sprang up in northern regions, which bee ape the most populous part of the country.

(c) Improved Transportation : In the 18th century, James Watt developed an engine in which the steam was employed to drive the piston backwards and forwards and the piston could be used to turn the wheels. Then came the invention of the railways. Goods and people could now be carried far faster than by previous modes of transport.

Question 9.
Industrial Revolution in England may be attributed to many factors. What was the role of the following factors?
(a) A Vast Overseas Market.
(b) Technical Skill and Energy of Immigrants.
(c) Inventive Qualities of Her people.
Answer:
The role of the given factors attributed to the Industrial Revolution in England is described as under :
(a) A Vast Overseas Market : Overseas trade, brought into plenty of money to England. After the Battle of Plassev (1757), the East India Company compelled our people to sell their goods below the market-rate and purchase the commodities they had brought at very high prices. As England had acquired Canada also, her trade developed considerably. She had now, a big market for her products.

(b) Technical Skill and Energy of Immigrants : Because of religious persecution, many Protestant artisans of France and Spain had gone to live and work in Britain. The British government gave them protection against loss of earnings. The immigrants were men of enterprise, energy and ambition. They worked very hard. Their technical skill and other virtues went a long way to industrialise England.

(c) Inventive Qualities of Her People : The new opportunities came from all directions. The English mindfully responded to the challenge. There took place remarkable inventions in many fields — farming, spinning, weaving and locomotives.

Question 10.
The Industrial Revolution changed the face of life in England. Describe the course of revolution under the following heads :
(a) Revolution in Textile Industry.
(b) Iron and Coal Industries.
Answer:
The course of Industrial Revolution that changed the face of life in England is described under on the basis of given heds :
(a) Revolution in Textile Industry : In 1767, a Lancashire weaver named, James Hargreaves invented a machine, called the Spinning-Jenny. It could spin eight threads at a time instead of one thread of the old fashioned spinning- wheel. Yarn spun on the Jenny was not very strong. Richard Arkwright Improved on this. He invented a machine operated by water-power, which made-even stronger threads. A weaver named, Crompton, invented a machine (Crompton’s Mule), which combined the advantages of the two previous machines. His ‘spinning mule’ succeeded in combining quality and quantity.

In 1785, Edmund Cartwright, invented a weaving loom, which could be driven by horses. Later, this loom was so much improved as to be operated by water-power. Now, that there was a greater demand for textile goods, a quicker device was needed for separating cotton fibers from the seeds. In 1793, an American, named, Eli Whitney,invented a cotton gin. It could separate the seeds from fibers three hundred times faster than the fastest hand. Textile trade of England prospered amazingly because of those inventions. At this time, Lancashire and Yorkshire became the two most important industrial centers of cotton and wool textile respectively.

Question 11.
The big machine in England went on advancing and became more sophisticated with each passing day. In this context, describe the following :
(a) Improved Steam-Engine.
(b) Improvement in Transportation and Communication.
Answer:
The big machine in England went on advancing and became more sophisticated with each passing day. in this context, the given headlines are described as follows :
(a) Improved Steam-Engine : The wind and water were not perfect source of power, because the wind would cease and the rivers might go dry in hot weather. In 1769, James Watt, a maker of mathematical instruments, improved on the existing steam-engines. He made an engine, in which the steam-pressure was controlled by valves. The steam could now be employed to drive the piston backwards and forwards. Thus, the standing steam-engine was converted by James Watt into an effective means to turn the wheels. The steam-engine became the throbbing-heart of every industry.

(b) Improvement in Transportation and Communication : Greater attention was now paid to road-building. James Telford was a clever bridge-builder, who constructed roads across the rivers by means of iron bridges. Then began the era of navigable canals, that were dug throughout the length and breadth of the country.

In the early years of the 19th century, came the locomotive engines that made railways possible. George Stephenson is regarded as the father of the railway system. The first railway was the colliery-line between Stockton and Darlington. It was opened in 1825. A railway to carry passengers between Liverpool and Manchester was opened in 1830. At first, the trains ran only at about 20 kilometre per hour, but they continued to gather speed ever since. Steam was applied to ships also. It was in 1838, that a passenger-steamer crossed the Atalntic, unsupported by sails.

From England, railways spread to other countries. In India a proposal for construction of railways was made as early as 1843. It was in 1855, that two small railway lines near Kolkata and Mumbai were opened during Lord Dalhousie’s regime (1848-1856).

The Telegraph was first used publicly in 1838. Penile Postage was introduced in 1840, i.e., a universal rate of one-penny-stamp was introduced in irrespective of the distance, letters had to cover. Other things followed soon, such as postal orders, money orders and the parcel post.

Question 12.
Examine the advantages of the Factory System (Industrial Revolution) under the following headings :
(a) Production in Large Quantities.
(b) Comfortable Living.
(c) Bringing Countries and People close together.
Answer:
The advantages of the Factory System (Industrial Revolution) under the given headings are examined as under :
(a) Production in Large Quantities : Elaborate machinery meant that goods could be produced in immensely large quantities. This reduced the price of most commodities. Many goods or services, which earlier were within the reach of rich people, could now be enjoyed by millions.

(b) Comfortable Living : The application of machines to production had made life comfortable. People could live a life of ease and luxury. The new modes of transport, especially railways, were a great boon to people. Electricity could be used for heating and lighting and to provide power to machines in factories.

(c) Bring Countries and People close together : Improved communications, canals and the railways brought countries and peoples close together. Sir C Wheatstone was the pioneer of the electric Telegraphy in England. His device was first put to practical use on the railways. The telegraphs had an added advantage because they could cross the seas.

Question 13.
Industrial Revolution might have been helpful in some ways, it also caused problems in other ways. Discuss its disadvantages under the following heads :
(a) Urbanisation and Increase in Slums.
(b) Unemployment.
(c) Evils of Capitalist Economy.
Answer:
The disadvantages of Industrial Revolution on the basis of the given heads are discussed under :
(a) Urbanisation and Increase in Slums : the introduction of machinery took the work out of the homes into newly built factories. Since, most of the population lived in villages, the people left the countryside to work in the factories. The domestic system of production came to an end, with considerable loss to rural England or the rural France, as the case may be. Poverty in rural areas increased. Exodus to the cities led to an increase in Slums. Usually, the factories were situated in areas near the coal-fields or sea-ports. Not much care was taken to provide houses for the industrial workers. They, therefore, were forced to live in slums. In 1840s, more than l/10th of the population of Manchester was living in the rooms in the ground underneath.The workers needed recreation and sometimes fell prey to harmful practices, such as drinks or gambling.

(b) Unemployment : Introduction of new machines, threw a large number of manual workers on the street. Since men lost their work, in some parts of the world, there was a massive wave of riots.

(c) Capitalist Economy : Incoming of Industrialism demanded huge sum of money and assets for factory production. This was called as ‘Industrial Capital’. The Capitalist System created two new classes; the Capitalist-class and the class of Wage-earners. The capitalists were anxious to make profit beyond their expectations at the cost of exploitation of the working- class. Workers’ share in the profits of industry was very small. Shockingly, women and little children had to work for as many as fifteen hours a day, with very short interval for food.Above all, they worked in dirty and unventilated factories and many of them fainted because of hunger or pain. There arose a demand for improving the conditions . of the working-class. This expressed itself in three ways. Firstly, it led to the Trade Union Movement. Secondly, State or municipal bodies enacted Factory Acts, regulating hours, wages and conditions of work for the workers employed in factories. Thirdly, the agitation of the working- class led to the rise and growth of Socialist Movement.

Question 14.
Comment on the statement that “Socialism emerged as a reaction to Capitalism”.
Answer:
Socialism is a way of mass or group or government control of wealth and Capitalism is a way of individual control of wealth from the socialist view, capitalism is an economic system in which the means of production are privately owned and controlled and operated for a private profit. It provided the main means of industralization through out much of the world. On the other hand, capitalism is associated with unfair and inefficient distribution of wealth and power, counter revolutionary wars and various forms of economic and cultural exploitation, repressions of workers and trade unions, and phenomena such as social alieunation, inequality, unemployment and economic instability Socialist Tradition can be divided into three categories :

  1. The Early Socialist : Robert Owen (1771-1858) has been called “the Father of British Socialism”. He owned a cotton mill in Scotland. It was he who first used the word ‘Socialism’ and maintained that the object of Government was to make people happy. He was deeply interested in bettering the lot of his factory workers. He reduced their working hours, paid them good wages and helped the Trade Union Movement to grow. The Socialists had not paid any serious attention to the problem as to how their ideal state of society was to be realised. Therefore Karl Marx called them Utopians’.
  2. Marxian Socialism : The Marxian conception of Socialism is that of a specific historical phase that will displace capitalism and precede communism. In the year 1847 Marx and Engels set up the Communist League. They were asked to draw up a manifesto for the Communist Party. The ‘Communist Manifesto’ was published in 1848. It marked the advent of Marxism or ‘Scientific Socialism’ as they called it. According to Karl Marx and Engels the interests of the capitalists and workers are all the time opposed to each other. They laid stress on the doctrine of Class Struggle. The struggle between the capitalists and the working classes is a ceaseless affair, until the workers have won and a new social system is born.
  3. Democratic Socialism : After the death of Karl Marx his ideology was propagated in an organised manner. But some difference of opinion appeared among the Marxists on certain matters. These differences led to the birth of a new ideology, named ‘Democratic Socialism’. Bernstein (1850-1932) of Germany was of the opinion that Marxism needed a revision. He was not in agreement with the principle of Class Struggle advocated by Marx. He believed that socialist objective should be achieved through democratic means.

Question 15.
Socialism can mean a variety of different Ideologies. In this context describe the
following :
(a) The main Ideas of Marx and Engles,
(b) Democratic Soclialism.
Answer:
Socialism can mean a variety of different ideologies. In this context, the given headings are described as below :
(a) Marxian Socialism : Karl Marx (1818-1883) is the most outstanding figure in the whole socialist movement. He was born in Rhineland (Germany) in the year 1818. In 1843, he had to leave Germany because of his revolutionary thoughts. He went to Paris (France), where he met Engels. Their meeting turned into a life-long friendship.

In the year 1847, Marx and Engels set up the Communist League. They were asked to draw up a manifesto for the Communist Party. The ‘Communist Manifesto’ was published in 1848. It marked the advent of Marxism or ‘Scientific Socialism’, as they called it. According to Karl Marx and Engels, the interests of the capitalists and workers are all the time, opposed to each other. They laid stress on the doctrine of Class-Struggle. The Struggle between the capitalists and the working- classes is a ceaseless affair, until the workers have won a new social system is born. Karl Marx is the view that the end of Capitalism is inevitable. The new social system will be marked by social harmony.

(b) Democratic Socialism : After the death of Karl Marx, his ideology was propagated in an organised manner. But, some difference of opinion appeared among the Marxists on certain matters. These differences led to the birth of a new ideology, named ‘Democratic Socialism’.

Bernstein (1850-1932) of Germany was of the opinion that Marxism needed a revision. He was not in agreement with teh principle of Class-Struggle advocated by Marx. He believed that socialist objectives should be achieved through democratic means. Democratic Socialism set-forth by Bernstein found support in other countries also. Jean Juares in France. Bernard Shaw and Sidney Webb, in England and Brantic, in Sweden became the chief defenders of democratic socialism in their respective countries.
A Socialist party was established in India in 1934. The prominent leaders of the party were Acharya Narendra and Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia. Jayaprakash Narayan in his book. ‘Why Socialism?’ described socialism as a theory of socio-economic reconstruction.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 12

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 12 The Modem Age in Europe: The Reformation.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions  Chapter 12 The Modem Age in Europe: The Reformation.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
What is known as the Reformation ?
Answer:
It is the 16th century movement in Europe for the reform of the Church and the objectionable practices of the clergyman.

Question 2.
What are known as indulgences ?
Answer:
Pope Leo X wanted to build St. Peter’s Church. So he issued “pardon certificates” called ‘ Indulgences” to those who gave money to build the Church. ‘Indulgences’ were letters which remitted punishments of the sinners who bought them, both in this life and after their death.

Question 3.
What is known as the Protestant Movement ?
Answer:
In the second quarter of 16th century, Martin Luther, a German clergyman and professor of Theology at University of Wittenburg, openly criticised papacy (office of pope). He accused the Church for the sale of indulgences. In 1512, in a pilgrimage to Rome he found the clergymen living in luxurious life. He strongly opposed the Church. The ‘Diet of Worms’ (council of Princes and high dignitaries in 1521) ordered to burn the writings of Luther and to outlaw him. But the support of German rulers saved him and the movement was described as the German Protestant Movement.

Question 4.
How did Luther challenge the authority of the Church?
Answer:
Luther (1483-1546), openly challenged the Church, on the basis of false practices and drawbacks practiced by the
Church and clergymen. He wrote 95 theses or statements dealing with the gap between the beliefs and practices of the Church and nailed them on the Church door at Wittenburg.

Question 5.
What is known as the Diet of Worms ? What did it decide about Luther ?
Answer:
‘Diet of Worms’ was a council of Princes and high dignitaries in 1521, which ordered to burn the writings of Martin Luther and to outlaw him.

Question 6.
What role did Henry VIII play in curbing the power of the Pope ?
Answer:
King Henry VIII of England hardly cared for the Pope. He got the Church lands and in 1536 passed an Act for the dissolution of monasteries, whereby small monasteries with an income of less than£200 a year were closed and their buildings, land and money taken by the Crown. By another Act of 1539, larger monasteries were closed. Henry ’ s lavish lifestyle, along with his wars, had led to a lack of money. By destroying the monastic system, Henry could acquire all its wealth and property, while at the same time removing the influence of the Pope.

Question 7.
What was the Counter Reformation ? What were its consequences ?
Answer:
The Reformation Movement was against the Roman Catholic Church in the 16th Century and brought about the birth of Protestant Church. So, Catholic Church through dedicated Christians and some Popes introduced certain reforms within the Church. This movement is known as the Counter Reformation. A Church Council was held at Trent in northern Italy in 1545 by Pope Paul III.

Question 8.
What were the decisions made by the Church Council at Trent ?
Answer:
The Council of Trent (1545-1563) made a number of changes in the Catholic Church. It expanded its doctrines in the light of the changed attitudes of the times. It condemned leading an irresponsible religious life by the clergy. Books, which were considered to have had ideas against the Catholic teaching were banned. The Pope was regarded as the head of the Catholic Church and the final interpreter of the Christian doctrine. The Council of Trent was responsible for establishing centres known as seminaries to educate and train priests. It forbade the Church to charge fees for conducting religious services, and advocated the use of the local language for preaching in the Church.

Question 9.
Who was John Calvin ? By what names were the Calvanists known in different countries ?
Answer:
John Calvin (1509-1564), a French scholar, popularised the Protestant movement in Switzerland after the death ofZwingli, who declared Bible as the sole authority. Calvanists were known as the ‘Puritans’ in England, ‘Huguenots’ in France and ‘Presbyterians’ in Scotland.

Question 10.
Who was Ulrich Zwingli ?
Answer:
He was a French reformer and declared the Bible as the sole authority for attaining salvation.

Question 11.
What role did Henry VIII help to spreading the Protestant movement in England ?
Answer:
At first, Tuder ruler Henry VIII was a devout Catholic Christian and also wrote a book in praise of the Pope, but afterwards, due to some personal reasons, he stood against the Catholic Church. He made himself the Supreme Head of the Church of England.

Question 12.
Which of the two divisions of the Church prevailed in the Scandanivian countries ?
Answer:
Two divisions of the Church prevailed in the Scandanivian countries were Protestant Lutheran Church and Roman Catholic Church.

Question 13.
What were the important terms of the Peace of Augsburg in 1555 ?
Answer:
The Peace of Augsburg in 15 5 5, in Germany was based on the terms of the spirit of nationalism and strengthened absolute monarchies.

Question 14.
Define a Nation State ?
Answer:
The Nation State refers to a country with well defined natural boundaries, having people with common history, culture and
character.

Question 15.
How did the feudal societies contribute to the emergence of Nation States.
Answer:
During the feudal (landlord system) times, there was unrest and disorder. Continuous fighting resulted in collapsing the system and so to save the pattern Nation States were created with particular creed and character.

Question 16.
How did Reformation cause formation of Nation States?
Answer:
Reformation gave rise to nationalism, particularly in Germany and England. Rulers declared them as heads of Church and government. Control on the Church caused a common national government within the Nation States.

Question 17.
Name two achievements of Nation States.
Answer:
Establishment of Nation States, gave a peaceful system of the common religion of the king and the people. This imparted a practical and simple government dealing with the common interests of the king and the people within Nation States.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 18.
Name any two sources to reconstruct the great religious movement known as the Reformation.
Answer:
These of Martin Luther, Zwingli’s Teachings and Calvin’s Teachings.

Question 19.
What do you understand by the term ‘Reformation’?
Answer:
‘Reformation’ was a religious Movement launched by Martin Luther. It protested against the dogmas of Roman Catholic Church.

Question 20.
Mention two important causes of the Reformation.
Answer:
Two important causes of the Reformation are :

  1. Evils of the Catholic Church.
  2. Financial Burden on People in General.

Question 21.
What is meant by the Sale of Indulgences
Answer:
Tetzel, who was sent to Germany by Pope, he used to sell Indulgences, offering pardon to those who paid money. This practice of his is said to be the Sale of Indulgences.

Question 22.
How did the Pope Lew X try to collect funds for building St. Peter’s Basilica?
Answer:
The Pope Leo X, tried to collect funds for building St. Peter’s Basilica by sending missionaries to sell Indulgences.

Question 23.
Name the English priest who translated the Holy Bible into English.
Answer:
Wycliff.

Question 24.
Who started the revolt against the authority of the Church in Germany?
Answer:
Martin Luther.

Question 25.
Why did Marin Luther object to the power of Pope?
Answer:
The Pope used to forgive sins of all that paid, regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions, which made Martin Luther to raise his objection against the power of the Pope.

Question 26.
Why was Martin Luthur Excommunicated from the Church?
Answer:
Martin Luther was very much against the worldliness of the Pope Leo X, the Clergy and the spiritual emptiness of the Catholic Church. All his resentment provoked the Pope and he declared Martin Luther as a heretic and sent a letter, warning him that he would be excommunicated from the Church.
Martin Luther defiantly burnt the Papal’s Bull of Excommunication in the presence of the public at Wittenberg on December 10, 1520, theory marking his revolt.

Question 27.
Who translated the Holy Bible from Latin to German language?
Answer:
Martin Luther translated the Holy Bible from Latin to German language.

Question 28.
What was the immediate cause of the division of the Roman Catholic Church?
Answer:
The Reformation in Europe was the immediate cause of the division of the Roman Catholic church.

Question 29.
Which are the two factions of the Church?
Answer:
The Roman Catholic and the Protestant.

Question 30.
What were the important terms of the peace of Augsburg in 1555?
Answer:
The important terms of the peace of Augsburg in 1555 were :

  1. The ruler will have the right to determine his static-religion.
  2. Lutheran subjects in Catholic states in Germany will not be asked to renounce their faith.

Question 31.
Who heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland?
Answer:
Ulrich Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland.

Question 32.
What did the Puritans want people to do?
Answer:
Puritans condemned and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminaries were to be started for importing education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.

Question 33.
What were the decision made by the Council of Trent?
Answer:
The Council of Trent took up steps to enforce strict discipline among the Church officials. The sale of Church offices were stopped. It condemned and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminars were to be started for imparting education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.

Question 34.
Who founded the Society of Jesus?
Answer:
Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish nobleman founded the Society of Jesus.

Question 35.
Mention the names of two Jesuit missionaries who helped in restoring the prestige of the Catholic Church.
Answer:
St. Francis Xavier and Loyola.

Question 36.
What is meant by the term ‘Nation-State’?
Answer:
The Nation State refers to a country with well defined natural boundaries, having people with common history, culture and character.

Question 37.
How Reformation led to the formation of Nation-States in Europe.
Answer:
As the Protestant revolt grew in strength, many rulers who wanted to be freed of leading-strings of the Pope sided with Martine Luther or Calvin. Many European kings now declared themselves as Head of the Church as well as of the Government. The kings had already crushed the feudal lords. Now another great rival of the Crown i.e., the Church also submitted to King’s authority. That completed the edifice of a National-State.

Question 38.
What was ‘Mercantilism’?
Answer:
Mercantilism meant ‘complete government control over trade, commerce and industry.’

Question 39.
Mention the main point on which Luther and Zwingli disagreed.
Answer:
The ‘Lord’s Supper’ was the main point on which Luther and Zwingli disagreed.

II. Structured Questions :

1. With reference to the Reformation, explain the following:
Question 1(a).
The meaning of Reformation.
Answer:
The Reformation is the name given to a group of religious movements of sixteenth century launched by the Christians against the various drawbacks of the Church and the objectionable practices of the clergymen. The main target of these movements was the Pope, the highest authority in the Church hiearchy. These movements created a split in the Christian Church between those who continued to remain loyal to the Pope at Rome and those who broke away from the Church at Rome. The former were known as Roman Catholics and the latter as Protestants.

Question 1(b).
Who were the Protestants ? By what other names was Protestantism known ?
Answer:
The Christian who broke away from the Church at Rome was known as Protestants. An extreme form of Protestantism’
was Calvinism. Presbyterianism of Scotland and Puritanism ofEngland were similar to Calvinism in simplicity, stribtness and austerity. Although these movements were organised by different people under different names, they are collectively termed as Reformation because they were aimed at reforming the then existing Church.

Question 2.
With reference to the Reformation, answer the following:
(a) Mention any three Church practices that caused dissatisfaction among the people.
(b) How did New Learning become a factor that led to the reformation ?
Answer:

  1. Dissatisfaction with the practices of the Catholic Church : The Catholic Church, during the early medieval period, had become a vast hierarchical organisation headed by the Pope in Rome. The Pope was the supreme authority over the entire hierarchy and he exercised this authority directly. Systematic efforts were made to extend the authority of the Church over everyone, high or low. But during the 14th century, people became dissatisfied with some of the Church practices and this dissatisfaction paved the way for Reformation.
  2. Corruption in the Church : Moral decay crept into some areas in the functioning of the Church. Some of the clergymen lacked proper education and some lived in luxury and neglected their religious duties. The priests promised salvation in exchange for fees. They could pronounce a marriage lawful or unlawful. In fact, there were fees for every transaction in life, from birth to death, fees for the peace of the soul and fees for the souls of the people dead long ago. These practices were severely criticised and opposed by the people.
  3.  Movement against the Church : Anti-Church movements began in Europe in the middle ages. These movements directed their attacks on the wrong doings of the Church. John Wycliffe, an English priest and Oxford professor, criticised the worldliness of the Church and some of its practices. He laid emphasis on the Bible as the sole guide for salvation. The Church ordered his expulsion from the Oxford University where he was teaching. This create dissatisfaction among the scholars.

(b) New Learning : The spread of new learning and spirit of enquiry was developed by Renaissance scholars. The invention of printing press and the printing of the Bible in vernacular languages brought a new outlook among laymen. The Renaissance encouraged spirit of enquiry, developed critical attitude and broadened the mental outlook of man. The people then began to question everything including the authority of the Pope. They criticised the Church practices, rituals and the lifestyles of some of the clergymen. New learning led to a secular outlook among the people. Nobles and merchants were jealous of the wealth of the Church. The common people in Europe looked upon the Church taxes with contempt. The changing attitude of the people towards the Church led to the growth of secular ideas.

Question 3.
With reference to Counter Reformation, answer the following :
(a) What was the Counter Reformation ?
(b) What was the role of the Council of Trent in Counter Reformation ?
Answer:
(a) The Reformation Movement was against the Roman Catholic Church and brought about the birth of the Protestant Church. In order to restore the credibility of the Catholic Church, a large number of dedicated Christians including some Popes introduced certain reforms within the Church. This movement is known as the Counter Reformation.

(b) The Council of Trent (1545-1563) : The Council made a number of changes in the Catholic Church. It expanded its doctrines in the light of the changed attitudes of the times. It condemned leading an irresponsible religious life by the clergy. Books, which were considered to have had ideas against the Catholic teaching, were banned. The Pope was regarded as the head of the Catholic Church and the final interpreter of the Christian doctrine. The Council of Trent was responsible for establishing centers known as seminaries to educate and train priests. It forbade the Church to charge fees for conducting religious services, and advocated the use of the local language for preaching in the Church.

Question 4.
State the contribution of each of the following to the protestant movement.
(a) John Calvin ;
(b) King Henry VIII of England
(c) Ulrich Zwingli
Answer:
(a) John Calvin a French Scholar, popularised the Protestant movement in Switzerland. Calvanists disliked feasting on a lavish scale.

(b) King Henry VIII: He became against the Church due to not receiving a permission from the Pope, he broke away from the Cathodic Church and made himself the “Supreme Vied of the Church in England.

(c) Ulrich Zwingli: He spread Lutheranism in Switzerland. He regarded the Bible as the sole guide to right living. He was killed in a religious war against the Pope that broke out in AD 1531.

5. With respect to the growth of Nation States, answer the following questions :
Question 5(a).
How did the Reformation contribute to emergence of Nation States.
Answer:
On account of the disorder and unrest during the feudal times, people came to the conclusion that there must be a peaceful condition and atmosphere with peaceful and amicable relationship which could only be possible through formation of the Nation States with common creed and religion.

Question 5(b).
Describe the other factors that contributed to growth of Nation States.
Answer:
Main factors that contributed to growth of Nation States were as follows :

  1. Rise of nationalism
  2. Church were submitted to King’s authority.
  3. Rulers opposed the Supremacy of Church.
  4. After the long tussle between the rulers and the Church, after Reformation religion of the King became the religion of the people and at last the Nation States came into existence.

6. With reference to Mercantilism answer the following questions :
Question 6(a).
What is meant by the term Mercantilism ?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a collection of economic maxims of strict practical utility aimed at maintaining a favourable balance of trade by discouraging imports and encouraging exports. These were meant to ensure the prosperity and security of the state.

Question 6(b).
Explain briefly the basic principles of Mercantilism.
Answer:
The basic principles of mercantilism were identical in all the countries. These were the following :

  1. Foreign Trade: The Mercantilists believed that the strength and richness of a country depends on two things — the possession of gold and silver mines and favourable balance of trade. As all the countries did not have mines of gold and silver, they could built up stocks of these metals by exporting maximum of their manufactured goods and importing minimum of commodities from other countries. They, therefore, insisted on discouraging imports through imposition of heavy duties and prohibition on foreign goods and encouraging exports by promoting domestic agriculture and industry.

2. Importance of Wealth : Mercantilists considered wealth as the sources of all power and laid great emphasis on the importance of gold and silver.

3. Interest : Mercantilists favoured charging of low rate of interest on the money as it could be profitably employed in trade to make profit. The high rates of interest made the money scare.

4. Factors of Production : Mercantilists considered the land and the labour as the sole factors of production. Most of them laid emphasis on the need to increase production to attain self-sufficiency in food-stuffs and to encourage exports. They laid emphasis on the cultivation of wastelands to increase production in agriculture.

5. Large Population : Mercantilism emphasised the need of having large population for increasing production and participation in war. They regarded large population as the real strength of the community as it made inventions and developed industries which brought riches to the nation.

6. Commercial Regulations : For the maintenance of a favourable balance of trade the mercantilists favoured commercial regulations. The European countries framed regulations to restrict the import of foreign goods and encourage exports.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 7.
With reference to the Reformation, explain the following:
(a) Circumstances leading to Reformation.
(b) Political factors that facilitated the Reformation Movement.
Answer:
(a) People started to realise the malpractices done by the authorities of the Church. The richness of the Church-Through ‘title’ and ‘indulgences’, provoked the Kings against them. Anti-Church movements began to be organised in Europe in the middle ages e.g. John Wycliff, criticised the worldliness of the Church and emphasised on Bible. Erasmus, described the malpractices by the Church in his book “Prayer of Folly’, and prepared ground for the Reformation Movement.

(b) Various eminent personalities opposed the Church through Protestant Movement e.g. Martin Luther, Ulrich Zwingli, John Calvin etc. King Henry VIII, made him self the Supreme Head of the Church of England. In 1559, Queen Elizabeth established the Church of England as the official Church. The German rulers found an opportunity to free themselves from the domination of the Pope.

Question 8.
How did the following causes contribute to the formation of Reformation ?
(a) Rise of strong rulers
(b) Criticism by scholars
(c) Rivalry in the Church.
Answer:
(a) The French King, Philip IV had forced Pope Clement V to leave the headquarters at Rome in 1309. King Henry fall of England hardly cared for the Pope. He got the Church lands and in 1536 passed an Act for the dissolution of monasteries.

(b) John Calvin (1509-1564), a French Scholar popularised the Protestant Movement in Switzerland. The Calvanists became popular in England, France and Scandanavia.

(c) Reformation divided the Church into Protestantism and Catholicism. These two main groups further
broke up into many sects. The National Churches in many countries were ruled by the ruling authorities of the countries.

Question 9.
The Movement against the Roman Catholic Church is called the Reformation. Discuss its causes with reference to the following :
(a) Sale of Indulgences
(b) Tithe
(c) Raising Fund to build St. Peter’s Basilica
Answer:
(a) Sale of Indulgences : Another way of collecting money was the sale of letters which remitted punishment for sin. Those who had money would be made free from doing penance for their sins by buying a Letter of Indulgence. The clergy claimed that those who bought the Indulgences got remission of their sins by God.

(b) Tithe : The people were required to pay ‘title’ (one-tenth of their income) to support churches and priests. Besides, the clergy collected another tax called ‘Peter’s pence from the people. The burden fell mainly on the peasants and the middle class families.

(c) Raising Funds to build St. Peter’s Basilica : Pope Leo X wanted to build St. Peter’s Basilica (Church) with the new architectural designs. He sent emissaries to sell Indulgences and to collect funds for the new project. John Tetzel, an agent of the Pope, went to Wittenberg with the mission of raising sums for the building. It provoked Martin Luther:

Question 10.
How did the following causes contribute to the 16th century Reformation Movement in Europe :
(a) Humanist Movement
(b) Spread of New Learning
Answer:
(a) Humanist Movement: The pretensions of the Church was much discredited by Humanist Movement. Reuchlin and Erasmus criticised the Church for its corruption and worldly business. Reuchlin brought to light many inconsistencies in the interpretation of the Bible that were made by theological scholars. The Dutch scholar Erasmus, criticized the conduct of the clergy and he wanted them to change their lifestyle. Unfortunately, Pope Leo X could not see the danger signal.

(b) Spread of New Learning : The New Learning and the spirit of inquiry that was developed by the Renaissance scholars, the invention of printing press and printing of Bible in vernacular languages brought a complete change in people’s outlook. They now questioned superiority of the Church. It also led to the growth of secular ideas. Nobles and merchants believed that there was nothing wrong in acquiring wealth to lead a worldly life. The monarchs and capitalists were jealous of the wealth of the Church. The common people in Europe looked upon Church-taxes with contempt.

Question 11.
Early in the sixteenth century there rose in Germany Martin Luther who became the great leader of the Reformation Movement. In this context describe :
(a) Luther’s Beliefs and Doctrines
(b) Luther’s Theses
Answer:
(a) Luther’s Beliefs and Doctrines : Martin Luther belonged to a peasant family of Saxony, in Germany. After his theological education in the University of St. Augustine in 1505, he was appointed a Professor of Theology at Wittenberg University. His thorough knowledge of the Bible, led him to believe that man could attain salvation only by repentance. Salvation is the Gift of God, and can be had if the penance be done. Luthur questioned Tetzel’s authority to sell Indulgences and he had at once the moral support of many princes and ordinary people alike.

He was shocked to learn the worldliness of the Pope, the clergy and the spiritual shallowness after he visited Rome. In 1517, he nailed on the door of the Castle-Church at Wittenberg, ninety-five these is (statements), which he thought, people should known and think about carefully.
The first thesis was : When our Lord and Master Jesus Christ says Repent, he means that he entire life of believers should be a repentance? Luther’s insistence was that, Tetzel was quite unscrupulous in his misinterpretation of Scripture. He questioned the power of the Pope and priests to forgive sins of all who paid, regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions.

(b) When Luther visited Rome he was grieved to witness the worldliness of the Pope and the Clergy. In 1517 he nailed on the door of the Castle-Church at Wittenberg Ninety- five Theses (Statements), which he thought people should know and think about carefully.
The first Thesis was : “When our Lord and Master Jesus Christ says Repent, he means that the entire life of belivers should be a repentance.” All other statements were an elaboration of this Thesis. Luther questioned the powers of Pope and priests to forgive sins of all who paid, regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions.

Question 12.
Lutheran Church was the Protestant Church founded on the doctrines of Martin Luther. In this context describe :
(a) Luther’s Excommunication by the Pope
(b) His success in mobilising Princes’ and People’s support
Answer:
(a) His Excommunication : Pope Leo X, declared Martin Luther as a heretic and sent a letter, warning him that he. would be excommunicated from the Church. He defiantly burnt the Papal’s Bull of Excommunication in the presence . of the public at Wittenberg on December 10, 1520, thereby making his revolt.

In 1521, Emperor Charles V summoned Luther to attend the Diet at Worms to answer charges levelled against him by the Pope. Though his friends and well-wishers persuaded him not to attend, Luther appeared before the Diet to defy the Church. He boldly declared that he would not revoke any of his statements as his conscience “is taken captive by the word of God”. The Emperor issued the famous Edict of Worms, declaring Luther as a heretic and ordered for his arrest.

(b) His success in mobilising Princes’ and People’s support:
Frederick the Wise, Duke of Saxony, saved Luther’s life by forcing him to hide. Luther spent one year in a lonely – castle during which time, he translated the Holy Bible from Latin to German. Many German princes who supported Luther, raised their banner of revolt against the authority of the Church and formed a League to protect Luther. Those who favoured the new protest movement, broke away from the Catholic Church and came to be known as Protestants. Lutheran Churches were established all over the country.

It divided Germany into two factions-one group, under Emperor Charles V and the other group, under the Protestant rulers of Germany. It led to religious conflict, which took a heavy toll and ended in the Peace of Augsburg in 1555. The Peace acknowledged the right of a ruler to determine his state-religion. Lutheran subjects in Catholic states in Germany were not asked to renounce their faith. Thus, the power and prestige of the Catholic Church led by the Pope suffered a serious setback.

Question 13.
A series of measures were taken to restore the reputation of the Catholic Church. In this context answer the following questions :
(a) What is known as Counter-Reformation?
(b) What measures were taken to introduce reforms in the Catholic Church?
Answer:
In context of measures taken to restore the reputation of Catholic Church, the given questions are answered as under :

(a) The Reformation movement greatly damaged the very foundation of the Roman Catholic Church in the 16th century and brought about the birth of the Protestant Church. In order to restore the reputation of the Catholic Church, a large number of dedicated Christians, including some Popes, had adopted certain reforms within the Church. A church Council was convened at Trent, in northern Italy in 1545 by Pope Paul III.

(b) The Council of Trent took up strict measures to maintain discipline among the Church officials. The sale of Church offices was stopped. It condemned, and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminaries were to be started for importing education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.
The society of Jesus was founded by Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish noble man. He took a vow to serve Christ and turned into a Missionary after studying the life of Jesus Christ and other saints. He studied theology in Sorbonne University. He founded a religious Order by the name Society of Jesus with the permission of the Pope.

St. Francis Xavier was one of the Jesuit followers of Ignatius Loyola. He went to China and Japan for the Propagation of Christianity. He came to India and worked till he died. His mortal remains were placed at the Church of Born Jesus in old Goa.
The selfless and dedicated service rendered by the Jesuits helped in restoring the prestige of the Roman Catholic Church.

Question 14.
Explain the impact and consequences of the Reformation under the following headings :
(a) How Reformation led to the formation of Nation-States?
(b) How did the rulers of Nation-States work on Mercantilist theories?
Answer:
(a) Reformation gave rise to nationalism, particularly in Germany and England. Rulers declared them as heads of Church and Government. Control on the Church caused a common national government within the Nation States.

(b) Mercantilism was a theory that the state should regulate economic activities in order to achieve some national objectives. It should follow the policy of ‘Protectionism’. Large nation-states had come into existence in England, France, Spain and Portugal. The rulers of these countries had imposed numerous restrictions on international trade in the national interest. Under the influence of mercantilist theories, the governments encouraged ‘Protectionism’, which meant protecting home producers from foreign competition by taxing imported goods.

Question 15.
John Calvin was one of the later leaders of the Protestant Movement. In this context. Explain the following :
(a) Calvin’s Teachings
(b) His large following in Europe.
Answer:
John Calvin was one of the later leaders of the Protestant Movement. In this context, the given headings are explained as follows :
(a) Calvin’s Teachings : Calvin insisted upon the strict interpretation of the Bible. He enjoined upon all his followers a strict Code of Conduct. Places of worship were made as simple as possible and many amusements and leisurely activities were forbidden.

Calvin’s important teaching was that of the Doctrine of Predestination, which he popularised in his book ‘Institutes of the Christian Religion’. This work was dedicated to the French King, Francis I. The Doctrine of Predestination stresses that it is divinely ordained that God has chosen His own Elect and man’s good works in themselves are not sufficient to ensure the Granting of Grace. God will grant righteousness to those who believe in Him, for it is by the Grace of God that man is saved,

(b) His large following in Europe : Calvin’s ideas and doctrines spread widely. He founded the University of Geneva. The distinguished scholars, who studied at this University spread Calvinism to Netherlands, Hungary, France, England and Scotland. Calvin’s teachings became the basis of the Presbyterian Church in Scotland. The flowers of Calvin were the first English Puritans. “In their zeal for a simple form of Church service”, said Dr. Tickner, “they objected to surplice or fasting, to the use of marriage ring or baptismal cross or to music or procession.”

Calvin was so intolerant, he persecuted and severely punished those who were free-thinkers and did not agreewith his doctrines. The religion, which Calvin established, did not bring religious liberty to Europe.

Question 16.
Zwingli heralded the Pretestant Movement in Switzerland. In this context describe.
Answer:
Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland. In this context, the given heads are described below :
(a) Main events of his life : Ulrich Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland. He was a contemporary of Martin Luther. Born at Wildhaus in 1484, he was trained as a priest. Glarus was the first town, where he became a clergyman in 1514. He studied the Greek text of the New Testament authored by Erasmus. In 1518, he became a priest at the Cathedral in Zurich. By 1520, he had become convinced of the need for reforming the Church. He developed his Protestant Theology and preached against the sale of Indulgences. The Catholic Bishop of Zurich tried to silence Zwingli. But by that time, he had become a “Peoples’ Priest”. The civil authorities intervened at this state. They took charge of city’s religious affairs and called a Public Debate to decide whether people should accept Catholicism or Zwingli’s Protestantism. After an intensive debate, Zwingli brought the majority of the people over to his side.

In course of time, most of the Swiss Cantons (Provinces) were Zwingli’s side. Only the rural communities (Forest Cantons) continued to cling to old emotional values. The conflict erupted into open warfare between Catholics and the Protestant troops. Zwingli was killed at the Battle of Kappel in 1531. Written on his gravestone are the words : “They may kill the body but not the soul.”

(b) Zwingli’s Teachings : Zwingli accepted the Bible’s supremacy as the “Universal Priesthood of all Believers”. That means, priests did not constitute a class separate from lay people. All believers should be regarded as priests.

Zwingli considered the Lord’s Supper as a thanks-giving ceremony. According to him, the Gift of Gospel is God’s biggest favour (Grace) for which Mankind is expressing it’s Gratitude. He believed in “total rebirth of humanity and society”. He fought for people’s right to control church and city’s religious affairs.

Question 17.
What were the results (Impacts) of the Reformation?
Answer:
The results (Impacts) of the Reformation were as follows:

1. The Church was split up : It led to the birth of Protestantism. With the spread of the Protestant Movement, some of the kings and princes of Europe sided with one faction, while others with the other. Luther was supported greatly by the masses, as there was a strong feeling against the abuses of power by the Roman Church.

2. Religious Conflicts and Wars : The fanatics who never showed any respect to the sublime teachings of Jesus Christ, always encouraged cruel persecutions. Religious intolerance resulted in civil was in Germany. Subsequently, the Holy Roman Empire underwent Thirty Years War. the main object was to force the Protestant states to become Catholic. Religious frenzy drove the English Puritans to North America, that led to formation of the United States of America in the course of time.

3. Counter Reformation (Reform in Catholic Religion) : Reformation resulted in Counter-Reformation. Roman- Catholics under the Pope at the Council of Trent, took measures to revive the prestige of the Church. Christianity became more liberal, more tolerant of different kinds of opinions.

4. The Rise of National Monarchies : Those princes who wanted to be freed of leading-strings of the Pope, stated with Martin Luther or Calvin. The Reformation assumed the form of nationalism particularly in Germany and in England. Had it not been for the support of English Parliament, Henry VIII would not have succeeded in his struggle against the Catholic Church.

5. Rapid Economic Growth : The Clergy were hurt and crushed. The new age that was dawning, was “the age of traders, bankers or financiers”. Much of the Church property had passed to the kings. Therefore, they had considerable wealth at their disposal. They could now give attention to those sufferings, poverty and beggary.

Question 18.
What forces and factors contributed to the rise of Nation¬States in Europe?
Answer:
The forces and factors that contributed to the rise of Nation-States in Europe are as follows :

1. Political Factors (Need for a strong Control Authority): Fighting was the Chief occupation of the feudal lords. People were fed up of anarchy and disorder. They were prepared to lend moral and material support to those kings who could reduce the power of the nobles. The Tudor Monarch, Henry VII (1485-1509) destroyed the power of the feudal lords in England. Cardinal Richelieu, the leading statesman of France, strengthened the authority of the French Crown. He reduced the power of the nobles. At this, Spain and Portugal also had very powerful monarchs.

2. Economic Factors : The merchants and traders resented : all such barriers as prevented them from moving from one part of the country to another. This new class gave presents and also advanced loans to the kings that added to their military strength. The kings could now raise their independent armies to crush the plots and rebellions of their nobles.

3. Intellectual Factors (Renaissance): Science and literature, also forged ahead during this period. England, Italy, France, and Spain produced writers, inspired by nationalist ideas. Machiavelli, for instance, wanted to unite Italy under a strong central government. In this book ‘The Prince’ he pleaded for a strong monarchy for Italians at that time.

4. Religious Factors (Reformation): In view of the Protestant revolt, many princes of Germany and other European kings, sided with Reformation. They now, declared themselves as heads of the Church as well as of the Government. The kings had already crushed the feudal lords. Now, another great rival of the Crown i.e., the Church also submitted to king’s authority. That completed the edifice of ta Nation-State. In England, it was king Henry VIII (1509-1547) who championed the cause of Protestantism. He got the English Parliament to pass the Act of Supremacy to nullify Pope’s power over the Churches in England. This made the king, the supreme Head of the Church of England.

 

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 11

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 11 The Modem Age in Europe: Renaissance.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 11 The Modem Age in Europe: Renaissance.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Renaissance’ ?
Answer:
The term ‘Renaissance’, means re-birth or revival. It stands for a complex transitional movement in Europe between medieval and modern times beginning in the 14th century in Italy and lasting into the 17th century.

Question 2.
Mention any two causes of the Renaissance.
Answer:
Two causes were :

  1. The decline of feudalism gave way to ‘Social mobility’
  2. Co-operation of kings, nobles and wealthy people patronised this movement e.g. The Medici family of Florence patronised the Renaissance artists.

Question 3.
What role did the victory of the Turks over Constantipole play in the rise of Renaissance.
Answer:
Constantipole fell into the hands of the Turks in AD 1453.
Many Greek and Roman Scholars were forced to Rome and other parts of Europe with their manuscripts. They spread the knowledge of Greek culture to European countries.

Question 4.
How did the decline of feudalism contribute to the rise of Renaissance ?
Answer:
Decline of feudalism in the 13th and 14th centuries provided an impetus to free thinking. The peace and freedom that prevailed after the decline of feudalism favoured the growth of New Learning. It led to the new developments in the spheres of art, literature, philosophy and science and contributed to the rise of Renaissance.

Question 5.
Why did the Renaissance began in Italy ? Give two reasons.
Answer:

  1. Italy was the seat of the glorious Roman Empire and all the historical remains and relics of the Roman were found there. These attracted a number of scholars and artists.
  2. The enormous wealth which Italy had accumulated as a result of trade with the East also contributed to the rise of Renaissance.

Question 6.
How did the invention of the printing press bring in a new awakening in Europe ?
Answer:
The first printing press was set up in Germany in 1456 by Gutenberg. Later on, Caxton introduced it in England. The invention of printing press in the middle of 15th century in Europe made it possible to produce books in large numbers e.g. the Bible and many other religious and classical books were printed all over Europe.

Question 7.
Explain briefly the term ‘Humanism’.
Answer:
Humanism is derived from the Latin words ‘Studiahumanitatis’, or ‘the studies of man kind’. It meant a decisive shift in concern for human as distinct from divine matters. Humanism extolled man and stressed his essential dignity. It opposed religious asceticism. It defended his right to pleasure and satisfaction of earthly desires and requirements.

Question 8.
Who is known as the Father of Humanism ?
Answer:
Petrarch, a great scholar and writer, has been called ‘the father of humanism’. His sonnets and lyrics were popular throughout Europe.

Question 9.
Mention any two factors that led to the growth of the spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe.
Answer:
The following were the factors which were responsible for the development of the spirit of enquiry :

  1. Crusades: The Crusades were the religious expeditionary wars with the goal of restoring the Church’s access to holy places in and near Jerusalem. They brought the people of Europe into direct contact with the people of Asia, the Crusades brought to Western Europe ideas from the East. It widened their outlook on life and destroyed dogmatic attitude. People began to rely on reason rather than on blind faith.
  2. Development of Science : In the age of faith, science had little scope for development. But certain medieval scholars showed a scientific attitude and asked their students to observe things in nature. This brought in many new inventions and discoveries. Development of science created the spirit of enquiry and scientific temper. Roger Bacon contemplated the use of horseless carriages and flying machines. Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun. Galileo invented the telescope. These inventions broadened the mental outlook of the people and put an end to the old beliefs and traditions.

Question 10.
Mention the impact of the Renaissance in the field of English literature.
Answer:
The most significant impact of Renaissance was the use of local languages instead of Latin. England produced a number of writers, poets and dramatists, of repute. Geoffrey Chaucer “Father of English Poetry’, “The Canterbury Tales’, is his outstanding work. ‘Utopia’ written by Thomas More about an ideal island in America. Famous writers were Francis Bacon, William Shakespeare, Ben Johnson and Marlowe. ‘Paradise Lost’ is an immortal work of Milton. Edmund Spencer wrote the poem ‘Faerie Queene”.

Question 11.
Mention the theory introduced by Copernicus.
Answer:
Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun.

Question 12.
How did Renaissance lead to the rise of monarchial form of governments in Europe.
Answer:
Renaissance provided great impetus to the evolution of strong monarchical system of Government in Europe. The decline of the authority of the Church and the feudal system strengthened the desire of the people to have peace, security and political stability. Thus, they readily provided support to the kings and enhanced the power of monarchs.

Question 13.
Mention two outstanding features of the Renaissance Art.
Answer:

  1. Remarkable statues of bronze e.g. statue of David by Donatello and ‘Pieta’ by Michelangelo.
  2. Lorenzo Ghiberti in Italy made two pairs of bronze doors for the Baptistery at Florence.

Question 14.
Mention any two consequences of the geographical explorations.
Answer:
The navigators of Portugal and Spain played an important part in the geographical explorations. Constantinopale fell into the hands of the Turks in AD 1453, and so the trade sea-routes between the
West and the East were closed. Hence, in search of new sea-routes the following were the main discoveries :

  1. Prince Henry, the navigator of Portugal discovered a sea-route to Africa.
  2. Bartholomew Diaz was successful in reaching the Cape of Good Hope.
  3. Vasco-da-Gama sailed as far as India in AD 1498.
  4. Columbus discovered America in AD 1492.

Question 15.
Who wrote “The Canterbury Tales” ?
Answer:
Geoffrey Chaucer wrote “The Canterbury Tales”.

Question 16.
Mention two of the paintings of Michelangelo.
Answer:
‘The Last Judgement’ and “The Fall of Man”.

Question 17.
Mention any two statues sculpted by Michelangelo.
Answer:
Michelangelo was a painter, sculptor, architect and poet. His famous statues are : Pieta, David and Moses etc.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 18.
Who is known as the Father of the modern political philosophy ?
Answer:
The King Philip of France, is known as the Father of the modern political philosophy, who introduced new reforms in relations between the Pope and the king as well as the king and the subjects.

Question 19.
Give two main sources which provide information about the Renaissance.
Answer:

  1. Michelongelo’s works throught is 145 paintings illustrated Humanism and spirit of Renaissance.
  2. The Ninety-Five Theses written by Martin Luther, a German clergyman and professor of Theology at the University of Wittenburg is 1517, provided new reforms in Christianity.

Question 20.
How did Renaissance lead to geographical explorations?
Answer:
The navigators of Portugal and Spain played an important part in the geographical explorations. Constantinopale fell into the hands of the Turks in AD 1453, and so the trade sea-routes between the West and the East were closed. Hence, in search of new sea-routes the following were the main discoveries :

  1. Prince Henry, the navigator of Portugal discovered a sea-route to Africa.
  2. Bartholomew Diaz was successful in reaching the Cape of Good Hope.
  3. Vasco-da-Gama sailed as far as India in AD 1498.
  4. Columbus discovered America in AD 1492.

Question 21.
Which explorer reached Calicut in 1498?
Answer:
Vasco-da-Gama reached Calicut at the coast of Kerala in 1498.

Question 22.
Give two consequences of the geographical discoveries.
Answer:
Scientific inventions enabled people to explore new routes and distant lands and then the trade links between Europe and Eastern countries were developed. This brought prosperity to Europe. European countries began to export the resources of their colonies in America, Asia and Africa. All this ultimately made a full-fledged world of today.

Question 23.
Name any two sources to reconstruct the Renaissance Period.
Answer:
Paintings and Sculptures of men like Michelangelo and Leonardo.

Question 24.
What it meant by Renaissance ?
Answer:
The term ‘Renaissance’ is derived from the Latin word ‘renascere’. It implies rebirth and it is used to describe the rebirth of thought and learning of Greco-Roman classics, revival of art and growth of humanism.

Question 25.
Why is Renaissance known as an Intellectual Movement?
Answer:
Renaissance is known as an Intellectual Movement because it brought new developments in the fields of literature, religion, philosophy, politics, art and science.

Question 26.
Mention any two causes that led to the advent of Renaissance.
Answer:
Two causes that led to the advent of Renaissance are :

  1. The Capture of Constantinople by the Turks.
  2. Decline of Feudalism.

Question 27.
Name the country where the scholars refuge after the siege of Constantinople.
Answer:
After the siege of Constantinople, the scholars took refuge in Italy.

Question 28.
What caused the Greek scholars to come to Italy.
Answer:
In 1453, the Ottoman Turks sieged the City Constantinople and the Greek scholars fled to Italy.

Question 29.
Who was ‘Henry the Navigator’?
Answer:
‘Henry the Navigator’ belonged to the Portuguese royal family became a pioneer in the field of geographical explorations. He started a school for navigators and encouraged extensive explorations.

Question 30.
Who reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1498?
Answer:
Vasco-de-Gama, a Portuguese explorer reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1498.

Question 31.
Who was the first to sail across the Atlantic Ocean?
Answer:
Christopher Columbs was the first to sail across the Atlantic Ocean.

Question 32.
How did the invention of printing press bring new awakening in Europe?
Answer:
The invention of printing press made it possible to produce books in large numbers. The holy Bible and many other religious and classical books were printed and made available all over Europe.

Question 33.
Mention the outstanding feature of the impact of the Renaissance in the field of literature.
Answer:
The use of native languages for literary writings.

Question 34.
Name the first outstanding work of literature in Italian language. Who wrote it?
Answer:
‘Divine Comedy’ was the first outstanding work of literature in Italian language. Dante, one of world’s greatest poets wrote it.

Question 35.
Who wrote ‘Sonnets to Laura’ ?
Answer:
Petrarch wrote ‘Sonnets to Laura’.

Question 36.
Mention the name of a great writer of Humanism.
Answer:
Desiderius Erasmus of Rotterdam from Netherlands was a great writer of Humanism.

Question 37.
Who wrote ‘Praise of Folly’?
Answer:
Erasmus wrote ‘Praise of Folly’.

Question 38.
Who wrote ‘The Prince’? What is its importance?
Answer:
Machiavelli, wrote ‘The Prince’. It influenced the polity of the time, suggesting that political matters should be separated from religion.

Question 39.
Who was the famous English poet and dramatist of the 16th century?
Answer:
William Shakespeare was the famous English poet and dramatist of the 16th century.

Question 40.
Mention the literary works of John Milton.
Answer:
John Milton wrote epic poetry ‘Paradise Lost’.

Question 41.
Who translated the Holy Bible into German Language?
Answer:
Martin Luther translated the Holy Bible into German Language.

Question 42.
Mention the names of two celebrated artists of the 16th century?
Answer:
Leonardo de Vinci and Michael Angelo.

Question 43.
Mention the contributions of :
(a) Leonardo de Vinci.
(b) Michael Angelo.
(c) Raphael Sanzio in the field of painting.
Answer:
The names of two celebrated artists of the 16th century are as follows :
(a) Leonardo de Vinci was a great painter and sculptor, he painted famous pictures, ‘The Last Supper’ and ‘Mona Lisa’.
(b) Michael Angelo was also a great painter and a sculptor. The ceiling frescoes in the Sistine Chapel in the Papal palace of the Vatican was his masterpiece.
(c) Raphael Sanzio was a great artist of the Florentine school and his most celebrated painting was ‘Sistine Madonna’.

Question 44.
Name two famous sculptors of Italy.
Answer:
Lorenzo Ghiberti and Michael Angelo.

Question 45.
Mention the contributions of :
(1) Lorenzo Ghiberti, and
(2) Michelangelo in the field of sculpture.
Answer:
The contribution of the mentioned sculpturs is as follows:

  1. Lorenzo Ghiberti : He was a famous Italian sculptor. He worked for 20 years to make two pairs of bronze doors for the Baptistery at Florence.
  2. Michelangelo : The ceiling frescoes in the Sistine Chapel in the papal palace of the Vatican was his masterpiece.

Question 46.
Mention two outstanding features of the Renaissance architecture.
Answer:
The Renaissance architects rejected the Gothic style and accepted the Greco-Roman classical architecture. It’s two outstanding features were imposing dome, round arches and tall columns.

Question 47.
Name the finest example of the Renaissance architecture in Rome.
Answer:
The St. Peter’s Church.

Question 48.
What was the famous theory introduced by Copernicus?
Answer:
Copernicus was a Polish priest. He introduced the theory that it was not the Sun and the stars that move round the Earth, but it is the Earth that rotates on its axis around the sun.

Question 49.
Who invented the Telescope?
Answer:
Italian astronomer Galileo invented the Telescope.

Question 50.
Who proved the theory of Law of Gravitation?
Answer:
Sir Isaac Newton, an English scientist proved the theory of Law of Gravitation.

Question 51.
Mention two important effects of the Renaissance.
Answer:
Two important effects of the Renaissance are :

  1. The Renaissance led to the Reformation Movement.
  2. Great Outflow of Vernacular Literature.

Question 52.
What do you understand by the term ‘Renaissance’?
Answer:
The term ‘Renaissance’ is derived from the Latin word ‘renascere’. It implies rebirth and it is used to describe the rebirth of thought and learning of Greco-Roman classics, revival of art and growth of humanism. And thought the change began in Italy, it did not stop there. It passed beyond the Alps Mountains to France England and Germany. Later, it spread to all parts of Europe. It became an intellectual movement and it brought new developments in the fields of literature, religion, philosophy, politics, art and science.

Question 53.
Who discovered the Eastern Coast of Canada? What did it lead to?
Answer:
John Cabot, an Italian explorer discovered, the Eastern Coast of Canada. It enabled the British to claim much of North America.

Question 54.
Name the rulers who patronised the works of literature and art in Europe.
Answer:
Rulers like—King Francis I of France, King Henry VIII and Queen Elizabeth I of England, Charles V of Spain and Christian II of Denmark encouraged the movement.

II. Structured Questions :

Question 1.
Many factors contributed to usher in the spirit of Renaissance, which had far-reaching consequences for the entire world. In this context, write short notes on :
(a) Invention of the printing press
(b) Decline of Feudalism.
(c) Capture of Constantinople.
Answer:
(a) The invention of printing press in the middle of the 15th century in Europe made it possible to produce books in large number e.g. the Bible and other religious and classical books. This brought a new awakening in life and thoughts in Europe.

(b) Decline of Feudalism — Decline of feudalism in the 13th and 14th centuries provided an impetus to free thinking. The peace and freedom that prevailed after the decline of feudalism favored the growth of New Learning. It led to the new developments in the spheres of art, literature, philosophy and science and contributed to the rise of Renaissance.

(c) Capture of Constantinople — Constantinople was the capital of the Eastern Roman Empire and was a center of Greek and Roman cultures. It had the valuable manuscripts of the Greek and the Roman writers. But Constantinople fell into the hands of the Turks in 1453. Many Greek and Roman scholars were thus, forced to shift to Rome and other parts of Europe with their manuscripts. Rome then became the center of Greek culture. These scholars were geniuses, men of liberal outlook, humanism and logical thinking. Wherever they went, they spread their new spirit and ideas. In this way they revived the interest of the people in the study of Greek philosophy, science, art and literature. The revival of the learning of Greek classics paved the way for the Renaissance.

2. Renaissance brought in a spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe. In this context, answer the following questions :

Question 2(a).
Explain briefly the role of original thinkers in promoting the spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe.
Answer:
During the Medieval Age, the Church discouraged original thinking and called upon scholars to put faith in the Church dogmas. However, original thinking could not be suppressed for a long time and certain bold and independent thinkers criticised the Church and asked the people to develop their own thinking. Thinkers like Roger Bacon, Abelard. Thomas Aquinas revolutionised the thought process and laid great stress on reasoning.

Question 2(b).
How did the development of science create the spirit of enquiry ?
Answer:
Development of science created the spirit of enquiry and scientific temper. Roger Bacon contemplated the use of horseless carriages and flying machines. Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun. Galileo invented the telescope. These inventions broadened the mental outlook of the people and put an end to the old beliefs and traditions.

Question 2(c).
What was the role of Crusades in ushering in the spirit of enquiry ?
Answer:
The Crusades were the religious expeditionary wars with the goal of restoring the Church’s access to holy places in and near Jerusalem. They brought the people of Europe into direct contact with the people of Asia. The Crusades brought to Western Europe ideas from the East. It widened their outlook on life and destroyed dogmatic attitude.

Renaissance artists tried to depict life on canvas and stone. With reference to this statement, describe the following:
Question 3(a).
Progress in the art of painting
Answer:
The art of painting raised to a significant level and depicted various real pictures of life appreciated by the people who also got inspiration from the lively paintings. The artists used geometrical ratios in paintings along with human anatomy for gestures and expressions. The famous artists and paintings are:

  1.  Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519)- ‘Virgin of the Rocks’, ‘Last Super’ and ‘Mona Lisa’ etc.
  2. Michelangelo (1475-1564), ‘Last judgement’, ‘The Fall of Man’.
  3. Raphael (1483-1520) – ‘Sistine Madonna’ and Designing of St. Peter’s Church.

Question 3(b).
Progress in the art of sculpture.
Answer:
The revival of the study of antiquity left a great impact in the field of sculpture. Some of the Renaissance artists copied the great masterpieces of the Greeks and Romans, while the others produced outstanding pieces which could rival the Greek creations.
Some of the outstanding sculptors of the Renaissance period were :

  1. Donatello (1386-1466) – bronze statue of David.
  2. Lorenzo Ghiberti, bronze doors for Baptistery at Florence.
  3. Michelangelo, ‘Pieta’, showing Mother Mary and Jesus. Statues of David and Moses.
    Many Italian sculptors worked to decorate Church and palaces. In this way architecture developed was very much in this period.

Question 4.
Renaissance was a period of intellectual activity. In this context, write short notes on the following :
(a) Copernicus
(b) William Shakespeare
Answer:
(a) Copernicus : He was a mathematician and astronomer, who formulated a model of the universe that placed the sun rather than the earth at the center of the universe. The publication of this model in his book De revolutionibus orbium celestium (On the Revolutions of the Celestial spheres) just before his death in 1543 is regarded as a major event in the history of science, triggering the Copernican Revolution.
Copernicus based his Heliocentric theory on the following :

  1. There is no one center of all celestial circles or spheres.
  2. The center of the earth is not the center of the universe, but only of gravity and of the lunar sphere.
  3. All the spheres revolve about the sun as their midpoint and therefore, the sun is the center of the universe.
  4. The earth has more than one motion, turning on its axis and moving in a spherical orbit around the sun.

(b) William Shakespeare : He was an English poet, playwright and actor, who is widely regarded as the greatest writer in the English language and the world’s pre-eminent dramatist. He is often called England’s national poet and the ‘Bard of Avon’. He wrote 38 plays, 154 sonnets, two long narrative poems and a few other verses. With the exception of Romeo and Juliet, Shakespeare’s first plays were mostly historical dramas like Richard II, Henry VI and Henry V. He also wrote several comedies during his early period : A Midsummer Night’s Dream, Much Ado About Nothing. As You Like It and Twelfth Night. It was only after 1600, that he wrote tragedies like Hamlet, King Lear, Othello and Macbeth. Shakespeare’s work transcends culture and history. He appeals to emotions and thoughts that are a part of eternal human nature and therefore, have a universal appeal.

5. Study the picture given below and answer the following questions:
Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 11
Question 5(a).
Identify the painting and name the artist who made it.
Answer:
The Last Supper by Leonardo da Vinci.

Question 5(b).
Write short notes on the artist who made this painting.
Answer:
Leonardo Da Vinci was a great painter, sculptor, musician and a scientist. Da Vinci received no formal education beyond basic reading, writing and maths, but his father appreciated his artistic talent and apprenticed him at around the age of 15 to the noted sculptor and painter Andrea del Verrocchio, of Florence. For about a decade, Da Vinci refined his painting and sculpting techniques and trained in mechanical arts.

Question 5(c).
What changes occurred in the style of painting as a result of the Renaissance spirit in Europe ?
Answer:
The Renaissance painter established very high standards and produced greatest paintings of the time. They were able to show their talent without being restricted by the rigid rules of the Church. They had a humanistic secular approach and produced highly artistic and lifelike paintings.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 6.
Describe the effects of Renaissance in the following fields :
(a) Rise of Nation States
(b) Humanism.
Answer:
(a) Renaissance led to the feeling of nationality and national literature. This in turn led to the rise and growth of nation states e.g. Britain, France, Italy, Germany and so on.
(b) Through education and learning, the thoughts of humanism became strong and sense of respect and dignity were decided to be the central theme. People studied the ancient classics for ideas on humanism like those of Plato, Aristotle etc.

Question 7.
The 15th and 16th centuries are by and large regarded as the ‘Renaissance Period’. In this context explain how each of the following led to the advent and growth of Renaissance:
(a) Capture of Constantinople by the Turks
(b) Decline of Feudalism
(c) New Trade routes between Europe and the East.
Answer:
(a) Capture of Constantinople by the Turks : In the years 1453, the Ottoman Turks captured Constantinople, the Capital of the Byzantme Empire which remained in Christian hands for more than thousand years. Its libraries contained the manuscripts of world-famous Greek and Roman writers. As the siege of the City began, the students and scholars fled with a number of priceless manuscripts. They went to various parts of Europe. They were especially welcome in Italy because, as George Guest puts it, “that land had already given birth to famous men of letters- Dante Petrarch and Boccaccio”. Nobles, merchants and Churchmen flocked to the new teachers.

(b) Decline of Feudalism : Feudal lords had possessed huge estates, who exploited the peasants ‘Social mobility’ and progress were badly affected by this system. Freedom or equality of rights was denied. Towards 13th and 14th centuries, started the decline of feudalism. It led to develop the habit of free-thinking. It paved the way for New Learning Consequently, new development came into being in the fields of art, literature, science and philosophy.

(c) The Turkish invasion made trade in the eastern Mediterranean too risky. With the result, new trade-routes to India and the East, were felt to come in force. ‘Henry the Navigator’, a royal Portuguese became the pioneer in the field of geographical explorations. He started a school for navigators. The sailors were taught how to make use of the Mariner’s Compass and astrolabe. Many voyages were undertaken by his sailors along the coastline of West Africa. They discovered Azores and Maderial Island and went as far as Sudan and Senegal.

Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese, reached the southernmost tip of Africa, which came to be called ‘Cape of Good Hope’. In 1497 Vasco-de-Gama, sailed across the Indian Ocean and reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1948. Two years later Cabral, a Portuguese Commander discovered Brazil in 1500. The urge of discovering new routes made Vasco-de-Gama discover India, while he went round the ‘Cape of Good Hope’ in 1948. Similarly, Ferdinand Magellan, a Portuguese nobleman, went round the Globe between 1520 and 1522. Italy became the center of all trade routes. Christopher Columbus was the first to sail across the Atlantic Ocean, taking with him three ships—The Santa Maria, the Nina and Pinta. A voyage of two months led him and his crew members land on the island of Bahamas, which he named San Salvador. He visited Cube and Haiti nearby and he called the people there Indians. He undertook three more sea-voyages and discovered Jamaica, Puerto Rica, Trinidad and the coasts of Venezuela. The coast, which he took for the Coast of Indies, was actually a new continent, which he had discovered unknowinghly.

Amerigo Vespucci, an Italian adventurer made four voyages to the region visited by Columbus. He gave a detailed description about the land and its people. This New World was named as America after Amerigo Vespucci.

Magellan, in September 1519, reached the coast of South America and sailed down towards the south through straits now called Straits of Magellan. Finally, he reached the Philippines. He went ashore with his sailors. The natives attacked and killed him.

Hernando Cortezm a Spanish adventurer, made a normal expedition to explore the coast of Central America. He landed the Coast of Mexico. The natives called Aztecs, resisted his advance on “their land, but he defeated them, conquering the Azetic Empire for the Spanish King John Cabot, an Italian explorer, was employed by the British King Henry-VII to discover the northwest route across the Atlantic. He reached the Cape Briton Island near Newfoundland. This discovery of the eastern coast of Canada, enabled the British to cliam much of the North America. Sir Francis Drake, an English sailor sailed around the globe between 1577 and 1580.

Question 8.
How did the following factors help to bring about Renaissance :
(a) Humanism
(b) Invention of the Printing Press
Answer:
(a) Hamanism : During the medieval period religion played an important role in the life of man. Everything was subjected to religion. The Renaissance scholars discarded the ideas and beliefs of the medieval age. They paid greater attention to humanistic values. They believed in mankind’s ability to achieve happiness and perfection without the need for religion. The study of the old classical literature
brought a radical change in the whole outlook fef man. The Renaissance artists portrayed human forms in all beautyf and harmony.

(b) Invention of the Printing Press : In the middle of the 15th century, the invention of printing press played a vital role to enlighten the people on religious grounds. It enabled to produce books in large number. The holy Bible and many other religious and classical books were printed and made available all over Europe.

Question 9.
The Renaissance was a period of great intellectual activity. Given an account of the outstanding works of the following writers :
(a) Erasmus
(b) Francis Bacon
(c) Chaucer
Answer:
The Renaissance in Europe ushered in a new era in literature. An outstanding impact of the intellectual revival was the use of native languages for literary writings. Now, the modern European languages replaced Latin as the language of poetry, drama and fiction. Thus, the Renaissance led to the development of vernacular languages in Europe.

Dante (1265-1321) : He is regarded as one of the world’s greatest poets. His ‘Divine Comedy’ was the first outstanding work in the Italian language. It deals with an imaginative journey of a pilgrim to the next world going through horrors of hell and pleasures in the heaven. Petrarch (1304-1374) : He wrote poetry in Italian language. He was considered as the founder of humanism. He wrote ‘Sonnets to Laura’.

Erasmus : Desiderius Erasmus belonged to Rotterdam in the Netherlands, was a great writer of Humanism. He became a priest and mastered Greek and Latin classics. In his famous work ‘Praise of Folly’, he ridiculed the corrupt practices and superstitions of the Church. .

Machiavelli : He was from Florence. He was a historian who is known as the father of modem political philosophy. In his work, ‘The Prince’, he dealt with political condition that prevailed in the Italian states during the close of the 15th and early 16th century. His ideas and suggestions had a profound influence on the minds of political leaders and rulers in those days in Europe. He suggested that political matters should be separated from religion. Bacon : Francis Bacon was a great English scholar. His essays contain much of wisdom. In his Latin works, ‘Novum Organum’ and ‘New Atlantis’, he talked of applying scientific methods and doing everything in a scientific way.

Chaucer, Shakespeare and Milton : The English poet, Chaucer (1340-1400) wrote the enjoyable ‘Canterbury Tales’. Shakespeare, the famous English poet and dramatist of 16th century, through his outstanding contribution had elevated English literature to world status. He was the greatest poet and playwright, England had ever produced. John Milton’s epci-poetry, ‘Paradise Lost’ elevated him to be a distinguished poet in England. His great works gave a great impetus to English literature.
Martin Luther : The protestant reformer, Martin Luther, translated the Bible into German which ushered in a new era in religious history.

Question 10.
The Renaissance artists tried to put life in canvas and stone. Describe their achievements in the fields of :
(a) Painting
(b) Architecture
Answer:
Painting : The city of Florence (Italy), produced in the second half of the 15th century very great artists and painters. Leonardo de Vinci: Leonardo de Vinci was a great painter, sculptor a great musician and a scientist. ‘The last Supper’ and ‘Mona Lisa’ are the great master pieces of European art. New techniques were adopted in his paintings to give a fine feeling of reality.

Michael Angelo : He was painter of the first rank and also an outstanding sculptor. The ceiling frescoes in the Sistine Chapel in the papal palace of the Vatican was his masterpiece. His paintings were based on Biblical themes and the Grand Fresco of the ‘Last Judgement’ is considered the most famous painting in the world.

Raphael : He was a great artist of the Florentine school and his most celebrated painting was ‘Sistine Madonna’. He lived several years in Rome in the service of Pope, decorating the Vatican and designing the St. Peter’s Church.

During the early Renaissance period, artists used to have their paintings based on the themes from the Holy Scriptures and covered the walls of churches and palaces, painting scenes depicting Biblical!characters and events. With the revival of interest in old Greek and Roman mythology, later artists started painting of the themes from Christian Literature in Greco-Roman Style.

Architecture : The Renaissance architects rejected the Gothic style and accepted the Greco-Roman classical architecture. Some of the outstanding features of architecture were; imposing dome, round arches and tall columns. St. Peter’s Church in Rome, which can hold 80,000 people is the finest example of the Renaissance architecture. Its grand dome which was designed by Michael Angelo, rises to a height of more than 400 ft. above the ground level.

Question 11.
Give a brief description of the scientific discoveries made during the Renaissance period.
Answer:
Copernicus : Copernicus, a Polish priest (1473-1543) studied the celestial bodies and proved the theory of the rotation of the earth on its axis and its motion around the sun. His theory aroused great controversy, as it was considered an attack on the authority of the scriptures and of the Church.

Galileo : Galileo, an Italian Astronomer (1564-1642) used a telescope, the greatest scientific instrument of the period, to study the movements of heavenly bodies for Copernicus’ theory. Galileo was tried by the Church1 for challenging its belief and authority. His book was burnt. Three years later, Giordano Bruno was burnt in Rome by the Church for insisting that the Earth goes round the Sun.

Isaac Newton : Sir Isaac Newton, an English scientist of the 17th century proved that all the heavenly bodies move according to the law of gravitation. He enriched the field of mathematics with his scientific contributions.

Medical Science : Significant discoveries were made in the field of medical sciences. Vesalius (1514-1564) wrote a treatise on the structure of the body (anatomy). William Harvey (1578-1637), an English physician, discovered the circulation of blood from the heart to all parts of the body and back to the heart.

Scientific discoveries and inventions encouraged rulers and wealthy men to advance the cause of science during the 17th century an Encyclopaedia of Scientific Knowledge came to be published.

Question 12.
What were the effects of the Renaissance?
Answer:
The effects of the Renaissance were as follows :

  1. The Renaissance led to the Reformation Movement : The urge to know the unknown by questioning, observation and experimentation brought an end to the supremacy and domination of the Church, which eventually led to Reformation.
  2. Great overflow of Vernacular Literature : The Renaissance helped in the growth of vernaculars. england, there was the famous Shakespeare and a contemporary of Shakespeare in Spain was Cervantes, who wrote ‘Done Quixote’. In France, Moliere became the founder of the ‘Comedie Francaise’, the National Theater.
  3. Consequences of Geographical Explorations : Geographical discoveries, commercial relations were established between Europe and the East. Trade brought unprecedented prosperity to the countries of Europe. For’ England and Spain, America also yielded immense wealth.This led to Colonialism, European countries controlled America, Asia and Africa and used their resources to increase their own power.
  4. The Humanist’s Belief in Man : Earlier people subordinated themselves to the interests of the Church or the Class to which they belonged. Now, they began to look at themselves as ‘Individuals’. They believed in man’s ability to achieve happiness and freedom without the need for religion. The Renaissance art and literature reflected aspirations of the ordinary people at that time.
  5. Rise and Growth of Nation-States : The feelings of nationality and progress of national literature led to the rise and growth of Nation-States.

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 10

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 10 Medieval India: Composite Culture.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 10 Medieval India: Composite Culture.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions.
Question 1.
What is meant by the term composite culture ?
Answer:
The interaction of the Turks with the Indians with strong religious beliefs, art, architecture and literature resulted in a new composite culture known as the Indo-Islamic culture. This culture was neither purely Persian (or Muslim) nor entirely Indian (or Hindu), but a happy fusion of the best elements of the two.

Question 2.
Mention the two phases of the growth of Indo-Islamic culture.
Answer:
The two phases of the Indo-Islamic culture are the music and paintings.
Music : Music of India inherited the rich Arab tradition of music. Amir Khusrau, introduced many Perso-Arabic ragas with the Indian tunes. He developed the style of quwwalis and khayals. Music was patronised by several medieval rulers e.g. Gunyat-ut-Munya, in 14th century, was the first work in Indian music by a Muslim scholar. Akbar patronised 30 musicians, including Tansen. The famous musician composed many ragas.

Paintings: The wall-paintings of Ajanta are the best example. In the reign of Akbar, revival of paintings started. Out of 17 eminent artists employed by Akbar 13 were Hindus. The painters .were given the task of illustrating the Persian text of the Mahabharata and Akbarnama. An unusual manuscript ‘Hamzanama’ has nearly 1200 paintings.

Question 3.
Mention any two factors which promoted composite culture during the Mughal Age.
Answer:
The following two factors were responsible for the growth of a composite culture during the Mughal period :

  1. The immense wealth and the unlimited power in theHiands of the Mughal emperors enabled them to continue their patronage of fine arts and literature. They used their wealth and leisure to build palaces, forts and monuments.
  2. The Mughal Emperors had a great sense of beauty and art. Each of them was anxious to find an outlet for their expression in some visual arts.

Question 4.
What is Bijak ?
Answer:
Bijak : Bijak is the compilation of the verses of Kabir. It comprises three main sections called Sakhi, Ramaini and Shabda.

Question 5.
Who compiled Guru Granth Sahib ?
Answer:
Guru Granth Sahib : The fifth Sikh Guru, Guru Arjan Dev compiled Guru Nanak Dev’s hymns along with those of his four successors and other religious preachers like Baba Farid, Ravidas, and Kabir in the Adi Granth Sahib in 1604 in Amritsar, Punjab. Guru Gobind Singh, the tenth Guru, included the compositions of the ninth Guru, Guru Teg Bahadur and a couplet of his own and this scripture was called the Guru Granth Sahib.

Question 6.
Which Sufi Saint’s tomb is enshrined in the Ajmer Sharief Dargah ?
Answer:
Ajmer Sharief is the holy shrine of the sufi saint, Khwajah Moinuddin Chishti, located at Ajmer in Rajasthan. Khwajah Moinuddin Chishti came to India with Mahmud of Ghazni in AD 1161 and made Ajmer his headquarters till his death in AD 1236.

Question 7.
Who was St. Francis Assisi ?
Answer:
Francis Assisi was an Italian Roman Catholic priest and preacher. He was born in 1182 to a prosperous silk merchant. He lived the life typical of a wealthy young man even fighting as a soldier for Assisi.

In 1204, on the eve of setting out for a battle, he experienced a vision which caused him to abandon his ambition for military glory and to espouse a life of poverty. Francis died on October 3,1226. On July 16,1228, he was pronounced a saint by Pope .Gregory IX and the next day, the Pope laid the foundation stone for the Basilica of Saint Francis in Assisi.

Question 8.
Name the first work on Indian music compiled by a Islamic scholar.
Answer:
The first work on Indian music compiled by a Islamic scholar is ‘Gunyat-ut-Munya’.

Question 9.
Name the two Indian motifs used in Islamic architecture in India.
Answer:
The two Indian motifs used in Islamic architecture are swastika and lotus.

Question 10.
Name a temple built on the arch and dome principle of Islamic architecture.
Answer:
The Golden Temple at Amritsar, was built on the arch and dome principle of the Islamic architecture.

Question 11.
Mention any two doctrines of Bhakti cult.
Answer:

  1. God is one and must be worshipped with love and devotion.
  2. Guru, an enlightened teacher is indispensable for realising God.

Question 12.
What is meant by Sufism ? Name two Sufi saints.
Answer:
The word ‘Sufi’ has come from the Arabic word ‘Sufi meaning wool and was used for the mystics who used to wear only a coarse woolen garment some scholars say, it is derived from ‘Safa’, meaning purity. Sufis came to India with the Turkish invaders. Sufism is a sect of religion preaching tolerance, brotherhood and oneness of God.
Two Sufi Saints were :

  1. Hazarat Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chisti.
  2. Hazarat Khwaja Nizam-ud-Din Auliya of Delhi.

Question 13.
Mention any two doctrines of Sufism.
Answer:

  1. unity of all religions.
  2. Equality and brotherhood of all human beings.

Question 14.
Who was St. Francis Xavier ? What did he do to spread Christianity among Indians ?
Answer:
St. Francis Xavier was born on April 7, 1506 in the castle of Xavier in Spain. In 1537 he received the Holy orders. In 1541 he storted his missionary Journey towards India and landed at Goa in 1542. He would go through the streets ringing a little bell and inviting the children to hear the word of God. When he had gathered a large number of people, he would take them to a church and explain the beliefs related to Christianity to them.

Question 15.
What is known as Chishti Silsila ?
Answer:
The word ‘siisila’ literally means a chain, signifying a continuous link between the master and the disciple. The leader of the order was called the pir and the followers were called the murids. A wali was nominated by the pir as his successor. Each Sufi order had a hermitage where the sufi saints resided with their disciples. The sufi saints who settled in India belonged to Chisti and Suhrawardi orders.

Question 16.
Mention any three teachings of Guru Nanak.
Answer:
The teachings of Guru Nanak are as follows :

  1. Guru Nanak preached the unity of God and the unity of mankind.
  2. He advocated devotion to God in place of ritualism.
  3. He believed that “there is one God, His name is Eternal Truth. He is the maker of all things”.
  4. He condemned idolatry in all its forms.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 17.
Name the two famous Sufi Saints of India.
Answer:
Hazrat Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chisti and Nizam-ud-din Auliya.

Question 18.
Mention the two main principles of Sufism.
Answer:
The two main principles of Sufism are :

  1. One could reach God through love and devotion and not through blind observance of rituals.
  2. God is one and all people are the children of God. Love of God meant love for humanity.

Question 19.
Mention the impact of Sufism on India society.
Answer:
Sufism proved very helpful in birdging the gap between the followers of Hinduism and Islam and encouraged the feeling of Hindu-Muslim unity to a considerable extent.

Question 20.
Mention the two main features (principles) of the Bhakti Cult.
Answer:
The two main features of the Bhakti Cult are :

  1. There is none too high or low with God. All are alike to God.
  2. Denouncement of idol worship and condemnation of formal rituals in religion

Question 21.
Who spearheaded the Bhakti movement in South India?
Answer:
Chaitanya 21ahaprabu spearheaded the Bhakti movement in South India.

Question 22.
Mention the contribution made by Sant Dhyaneshwar to Marathi literature.
Answer:
Sant Dhyaneshwar wrote in Marathi a famous commentary, called the Dhyaneshwari, on the Bhagavad Gita. He translated many Sanskrit works into Marathi including Amritanubhava, Atmanubhava and Bhavartha Dipika. The religious poems written by him are called Abhangas.

Question 23.
Mention the two important teachings of Guru Nanak.
Answer:
Guru Nanak preached the gospel of Universal Brotherhood and religious tolerance. He exhorted the Hindus and the Muslims to forget their differences, because he believed in the equality of all religions.

Question 24.
Mention the two main teachings of Kabir.
Answer:
The two main teachings of Kabir are :

  1. He denounced idol-worship, meaningless rituals and pilgrimages to holy places.
  2. Devotion to God was regarded as an effective means of salvation.

Question 25.
Who was Mirabai? What has she to say in her devotional songs?
Answer:
Mirabai was a Rajput princess married into the ruling family of Mewar (Udaipur). A devotes of Lord Krishna since childhood, she continued to devote her whole time to the Lord’s worship even after her marriage. She, in her devotional songs says, “People say, Mira has gone mad.
I have myself become the eternal maid-servant of my Narayana.” Her message was : “There is but one* means to experience Lord’s Divine Presence—that is Bhakti. ”

Question 26.
How did the Bhakti Movement promote harmony between Hindus and Muslims in India?
Answer:
The Saints and reformers of the Bhakti Movement tried to reform Hinduism so that it could successfully withstand the challenges of Islam and they tried to ensure harmony between the two communities in an atmosphere of toleration and co-operation.

Question 27.
How did the Bhakti reformers contribute to the growth of vernacular literature?
Answer:
Most of the Bhakti reformers preached to the people in their mother-tongue and it provided an impetus for the development of regional languages such as Hindi, Bengali, Marathi, Maithili, Gujarati etc.

Question 28.
When and by whom was Christianity believed to have been introduced in India?
Answer:
St. Thomas came to South India in the first century AD.

Question 29.
Who was Francis Xavier?
Answer:
He was one of the founders of the Society of Jesus. He toured many regions of Asia, especially those areas that were controlled by the Portuguese at that time. He had gone to Japan and the islands of Borneo and Moluccas (now in Indonesia). However, as a missionary his most notable successes were only in India.

Question 30.
Name the most important Church for the construction of which Francis Xavier raised money.
Answer:
Francis Xavier raised money for the construction of nearly 40 Churches along the Eastern Coast. For this he received a large donation from local headmen as well as rulers to these regions. The most important among the Churches was the St. Stephen’s Church, Kombuthurai.

Question 31.
Why did Francis Xavier seek an audience with the King of Travancore?
Answer:
He sought an audience with the King of Travancore, with the hope of converting the King and his subjects to the Christian Church.

Question 32.
What did Francis Xavier do to save the children from the slur of being called illegitimate children?
Answer:
In order to save the Child from the slur of being called ‘an illegitimate child’, he tried to see that the child’s parents united themselves in holy matrimony.

Question 33.
What does Roberto de Nobili’s method of Adaptattion mean?
Answer:
He used an altogether different method to preach Christianity in India. He decided to adapt himself to the local situation, in order to be able to deal with it successfully, especially by altering his way of life.

Question 34.
Give two evidences to suggest that Roberto de Nobili lived like an Indian Sanyasi.
Answer:
He dressed like a Hindu ascetic (Sanyasi). He adopted also the Indian Sanyasi custom to have his head shaved and to keep only a small bunch of hair at the base. He used to wear a white dhoti and used wooden sandals as footwear.

Question 35.
What interpretation did de Nobili give to wearing a three-stringed thread across the chest?
Answer:
Nobili took to wearing a three-stringed thread across the chest. He had his own interpretation of this symbol. He said, “it represented the Holy Trinity in the Christian religion, i.e., the union of Father, Son and Holy Spirit in one God.”

Question 36.
Name the two Tamil words used by de Nobili for the word ‘Grace’ in Christianity.
Answer:
Roberto used the words ‘Arul and Prasadam’ for Grace.

Question 37.
What was Roberto de Nobili’s contribution to the growth of Christian literature in Tamil?
Answer:
He prepared a series of questions and answers in Tamil about the Christian religion. These are called ‘Catechisms’.

He also prepared ‘Apologias’ i.e., statements by means of which he defended Christian doctrines. He wrote ‘discourses’ which were intended to explain the teachings of Jesus Christ in Tamil. These works in prose rank very high in religious literature in Tamil language.

Question 38.
Why was a matter in dispute referred to Pope Gregory XV to solicit his views about it?
Answer:
De Nobili’s ‘Method of Adaptation’ aroused much controversy. Some fellow Jesuits and the Archbishop of Goa questioned the property of his behaviour just to gain popularity with the local community. The Constitution Romanae Sedis Antistes issued on 31 January 1623 by the Pope settled the matter. Roberto’s customs of wearing a three-stringed thread or the application of Chandan (Sandalwood paste) on the forehead were not found objectionable, because they did not mean that he was a superstitious man.

Question 39.
Who spearheaded the Bhakti movement in South India?
Answer:
Chaitanya Mahaprabu spearheaded the Bhakti movement in South India.

Question 40.
What were the main beliefs of Shri Ramanuja?
Answer:
Shri Ramanuja belived that the path of Bhakti (Self¬surrender to God) is open to all and also the quickest path for the purpose of realising God.

Question 41.
What was the main Contribution of Shri Madhavacharya?
Answer:
Shri Madhavacharya wrote a commentary on the Brahma Satra and on some hymns of the Rig Veda. He believed in Salvation through God’s Grace.

Question 42.
What was the main contribution of Nambiandar-Nambi?
Answer:
He collected all the hymns of the Shaivite saints and compiled them in the form of books. These books (called Trimurai) have a very high place in the devotional literature of India. They are addressed to Shiva as the Lord and Lover of Human Souls.

II. Structured Questions :

Question 1.
With reference to the sources of composite culture in India, state the significance of the following :
(a) Bijak
(b) Guru Granth Sahib
(c) Ajmer Sharief
Answer:
(a) Bijak — Bijak is the compilation of the verses of Kabir. It comprises three main sections called Sakhi, Ramaini and Shabda and a fourth section containing miscellaneous folk song forms.

  1. The sakhi is composed in the doha or couplet form.
  2. The Ramaini form is usually written in the meter called chaupai and is usually based upon a musical raga.
  3. The third form, the Shabda is metrically the loosest form. Since it is the popular song form it has been altered from region to region and from singer to singer.
    Kabir has drawn inspiration from various traditions — Islam, Vedas andyogic traditions to describe the Ultimate Reality. For example, he has used the terms like alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman and Atman, from Vedantic traditions.

(b) Guru Granth Sahib — Guru Granth Sahib is the only scripture of its kind which contains the songs, hymns and utterances of a wide variety of saints, sages and bards. This shows that Guru Arjan Dev wanted to affirm the fundamental unity of all religions and the unitary character of all mystic experience. It is indeed, a magnificent compendium of religions, mystic and metaphysical poetry written or uttered between the 12th and the 17th century in different parts of India. It is, also, at the same time, a mirror of the sociological, economic and political conditions of those days.

Guru Granth Sahib is regarded by the Sikhs as a ‘Living Guru’ and as a spiritual guide not only for them but for the entire humanity. They regard it as a ‘Living Guru’ that has all the answers regarding religion and morality.

The philosophy embodied in Guru Granth Sahib is that of action, deed and consequence. It lays emphasis on shared communal experience and the extinction of the ego or self is the corner-stone of its philosophy. It regards God as omnipotent and omniscient.

(c) Ajmer Sharief — The dargah of Khwajah Moinpddin Chishti i s one of the most revered sites in India not only for the Muslims but also for the people of other faiths, who hold the saint in high esteem. Every year thousands of people visit Ajmer Sharief to pay reverence at the sanctified dargah. A yearly carnival, known as Urs is held for six days in the honour of the beloved saint.

Question 2.
With reference to the composite culture, state briefly the impact of this culture on the following :
(a) Literature
(b) Architecture
(c) Paintings
Answer:
(a) Literature — Language and literature also saw the influence of the two traditions. The language which the Mughal rulers used in the administration was Persian. Through the Persian language, India was able to develop close cultural relations with Central Asia and Iran. In course of time, Persian became the language of administration and the language of the upper classes.

The greatest linguistic synthesis is seen in the development of Urdu, which is a mixture of Perisan, Arabic, Hindi and other regional languages. Urdu was originally known as ‘Zaban-e- Hindvi’ because its grammatical structure is similar to that of Hindi.

(b) Architecture— The fusion of two cultures is more profound in the field of architecture. Though the Indian and Islamic systems of art were fundamentally different in their ideas and techniques, they were mingled together to give rise to a new type of Indo-Islamic architecture.
The significant features adopted by the two from each other were the following :

  1. The Islamic architecture added to the Indian architecture the special characteristics of spaciousness, massiveness, majesty and width.
  2. In the sphere of decoration, the Turks avoided representation of human and animal figures in the buildings. Instead, they used geometrical and floral designs, combining them with panels of inscriptions containing verses from the Holy Quran. They also borrowed Indian motifs like swastika, bell, lotus, etc.
  3.  The design of the golden kalash at the top of the shikhara of temples was adopted by the Muslims in placing a stone kilash on the domes of mosques and tombs.
  4.  Many temples of Vrindavan assimilated the Mughal style of architecture.
  5. The Mughal traditions influenced the palaces and forts of many provincial and local kingdoms. For example, the Golden Temple at Amritsar, was built on the arch and dome principle of the Islamic architecture and incorporated some features of the incorporated some features of the Mughal traditions of architecture.

(c) Paintings — During the reign of Akbar, there was a fusion of Persian and Indian style of painting. Painting was organised in one of the imperial establishments (karkhanas) and a number of painters from different parts of the country were made to paint. Out of 17 eminent artists employed by Akbar, 13 were Hindus. Besides illustrating Persian books of fables, the painters were given the task of illustrating the Persian text of the Mahabharata and Akbarnama. In these paintings, Indian themes and scenes were used along with Indian colours like peacock blue and the Indian red. The most important work produced during the Mughal period is an unusual manuscript, Dastan-i-Amir Hamza or Hamzanama, which has nearly 1200 paintings.

Question 3.
Sufism was a liberal reform movement within Islam With reference to Sufism write short notes on the following :
(a) Devotion to God
(b) Caste distinctions
(c) Unity of all religions
Answer:
(a) Sufism preached religious tolerance, brotherhood and oneness of God. Inspite of the different rules of various religions, the ultimate aim is to reach the God.So earnest devotion to God is essential.
(b) Equality and brotherhood of all human beings irrespective of caste, colour, cread and religion.
(c) Sufism believed in unity of all religions, because every religion points out the ultimate aim to reach the God and get his blessings.

Question 4.
Summarise the impact of Bhakti movement with regard to :
(a) Equality of all human beings.
(b) Fostering unity and harmony between different communities.
(c) Promoting regional languages and devotional literature.
Answer:
(a) All are equal before God. Dignity of man depends on his actions. Universal brotherhood was the aim of Bhakti movement.

(b) All Hindus and Muslims devoted Sufi saints. People respected and followed the teachings of Sufi saints like, Kabir, Rahim etc. and worshipped the works of Tulsidas and Surdas. The songs of Mirabai were cherished by Hindus and Muslims too. Akbar also went to hear the devotional songs of Mirabai.

(c) The Bhakti saints preached in the language of the people. Languages such as Hindi, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Oriya became popular. Among important literary works of this period were Ramcharit Manas by Tulsidas, Gurmukhi literature of the Sikh Gurus and the Vaishnava literature in Bengal.

The teachings of Kabir, Guru Nanak, Ravidas helped reform Indian society. They tried to evolve a new social order by following the principle of equality and by denouncing caste distinctions. By exposing the futility of empty rituals, they did away with the domination of priests. Thus, the Bhakti movement brought in social changes.

5. With reference to the influence of Christianity during the Mughal period, answer
the following questions :
Question 5(a).
Explain the role played by St. Francis Xavier and Robert de Nobili in spreading Christianity in India.
Ans.
St. Francis Xavier became the first Jesuit missionary to arrive in India in 1542. He was followed by Robert de Nobili in 1605.
Both these missionaries played a significant role in spreading Christianity in India.

St. Francis Xavier was born on April 7, 1506 in the castle of Xavier in Spain. St. Xavier displayed zeal and.charity in attending to the sick in hospitals. In 153 7, he received the Holy orders. In 1541, he started his missionary journey towards India and landed at Goa in 1542. He spent the first five months in preaching and attending to the sick in hospitals. He would go through the streets ringing a little bell and inviting the children to hear the word of God. When he had gathered a large number of people, he would take them Christianity to them.

Robert de Nobili was born at Tuscany in September 1577. He entered the Society of Jesus in 1597 and sailed for India in October 1604. He arrived at Goa in 1605. After a short stay in Cochin, he took residence in Madurai in November 1606. He learn Sanskrit, Tamil and Telugu and studied Indian philosophy and religious literature. He separated himself from his fellow missionaries and adopted the dress, diet and manner of the life of an ascetic. These methods won him a number of followers from the upper castes. His way of life aroused the opposition of his fellow missionaries. He was accused of watering down Christianity and had to defend himself before the Archbishop of Goa. He did this so ably that he received the permission from the Pope to continue his way of life.

Question 5(b).
Explain the role of Christian missionaries in promoting language, literature and art in India.
Answer:
The Christian missionaries spread Christianity in India and played a significant role in promoting language, literature and art.

  1.  The missionaries in order to understand and be understood by the Indian people brought out grammars and dictionaries of the Indian languages.
  2. St. Francis Xavier learnt the language of Malabar and brought out a manual of grammar and a vocabulary which helped the-Jesuits and other missionaries to learn the language of the people of Malabar. s
  3. The English Jesuit, Thomas Stephens, brought out an epic in Konkani and a grammar book. Diogo Ribeiro, another English missionary, wrote a grammar book and booklets on Christian doctrines.
  4. The Missionaries, besides working in language and literature, contributed to other arts. They began teaching Western music in Church schools in India. Apart from music, they also taught dance and instrumental music. Many churches had music schools, so that in every church hymns were sung, accompanied by organ and instruments.
  5. The Missionaries and the Church were also teachers and patrons in India of the arts of painting, carving and sculpture. Most of the paintings were religious in theme and adorned the Churches. These paintings influenced the Mughals. Portuguese, English and Mughal records show the interest of Akbar and Jahangir in Christian works of arts.
  6. The Missionaries were the best interpreters of India to the Western world with their popular letters from the mission field.

6. With reference to the given pictures, answer the following:
Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 10
Question 6(a).
Name the Bhakti Saints given in the pictures. Where were they born ?
Answer:
Mirabai was the Rajasthani princess of Mewar who lived during the time of Mughal ruler Akbar. Mirabai the only daughter of a Rajput noble was married to Bhoja Raj, the heir apparent of Rana Sanga of Mewar. She renounced the world and became a devotee of Lord Krishna.
Sant Jnaneswar : Jnaneswar or Dnyaneshwar was a 13th century saint, poet and philosopher from Maharashtra. He was the second of the four children of Vithalpant and Rukmabhai.

Question 6(b).
Mention any two teachings of each of these two saints.
Answer:
Teachings of Mirabai : A devotes of Lord Krishna since
childhood, she continued to devote her whole time to the Lord’s worship even after her marriage. She, in her devotional songs says, “People say, Mira has gone mad. I have myself become the eternal maid-servant of my Narayana.” Her message was : “There is but one means to experience Lord’s Divine Presnce—that is Bhakti. ”

Teaching of Sant Jnaneswar : His teachings invoked great devotion in common people and his followers walk hundreds of kilometers to the holy place of Pandhapur, to worship Lord Vitthal, form of Hari. In his famous works, known as Abhangas, Namdev has given a graphic description of Sant Jnaneswar’s visit to the holy places.

Question 6(c).
How did the Sufi and the Bhakti movements foster the growth of Indo-Islamic culture.
Answer:
Role of Sufism :

  1. It fostered the feelings of Hindu-Muslim unity.
  2. Sufism made its influence on the poets of the period, like Amir Khusro and Malik Muhammed Javasi, who composed poems in Persian and Hindi in praise of Sufi principles.

Role of Bhakti Movement

  1. Bhakti saints preached universal brotherhood and emphasised equality’of all men.
  2. The Bhakti saints preached in the language of the people. Languages such as Hindi, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Oriya became popular. Among important literary works of this period were Ramcharit Manas by Tulsidas, Gurmukhi literature of the Sikh Gurus and the Vaishnava literature in Bengal.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 7.
Write short notes on the following :
(a) Kabir
(b) Guru Nanak
(c) Mirabai
Answer:
(a) Kabir : was a disciple of Guru Ramananda. He was brought up by a Muslim weaver, Neeru and his wife Neema. Kabir’s teachings (Dohe) are recorded in ‘Bijak’ (the seed book), which give great messages to the people; the followers of Kabir are called ‘Kabir-Panthis’.

(b) Guru Nanak : (AD 1469 – AD 1538) He was born in Talwandi now Nankana Saheb in Pakistan. He believed in personal devotion to God. He laid emphasis on Hindu- Muslim unity. He undertook many journeys. He finally settled at Kartarpur on the right bank of the Ravi river and gave instructions to every one, who came there.

(c) Mirabai : She was Rajasthani princess of Mewar. who lived during the time of Akbar. She was married to Bhoja Raj in 1516, the heir to Rana Sanga of Mewar. She renounced the world and became devoted of Lord Krishna. Her devotional songs are still very popular. Her brilliant poetry is known as Padavali.

Question 8.
With reference to the impact of Islam, answer the following:
What was the impact on languages and literature?
Answer:
Urdu became the common language of people which affected Sufi philosophy. Many Sanskrit books were translated to Persian and Urdu. In Mughal period, various devotional literature was created under Bhakti and Sufi movements. In 16th century (1504) Malik Mohammad Jayasi wrote a Hindi epic called ‘Padmavaf on the queen of Mewar, Padmavati. Rahim wrote ‘Satsai’, other famous poets were Tulsidas and Surdas. Delhi and Lucknow became the centers of Urdu literary activity. The famous poet w’as Mirza Galib Urdu was the court language during the British. Still today, many Urdu words are used in settlement offices of the court.

Question 9.
Explain the contribution of the Mughal dynasty to the development of Indo-Islamic culture.
Answer:
Nearly, all the Mughal rulers e.g. Akbar, Jahangir, Shah Jahan, were the lovers of art and literature and patronised music and dance which resulted in remarkable features of Indo-Islamic culture in language, paintings and buildings and common tradition.

Question 10.
With reference to the Mughal art and architecture, explain briefly the following.
(a) Ornamentation
(b) Tombs
(c) Minarets
Answer:
(a) Ornamentation : It is the main feature of Islamic architecture with the help of geometrical, floral designs with panels of inscriptions. The design of golden kalash at the top of the temples was also adopted by Muslims.

(b) Tombs : have the common feature of domes at the top with rectangular small door at the opening or doorway with a well constructed outskirts with identical windows.

(c) Minarets : are the significant features of the important mosques, tombs of Mughal period. These add beauty and grand look to the central building, e.g. The Taj Mahal looks magnificent with the minarets.

Question 11.
Explain the rise and growth of the Sufi-Movement in India with reference to :
(a) The Chiest Order
(b) The Suhrawardi Order
Answer:
(a) The Chiest Order :
The central principles that become characteristics of the Chisti Order in India are based on the teachings and practices of Muin-ud-Din Chisti. He visited nearly all the great centers of Muslim culture and acquainted himself with almost every important trend in Muslims religious life in the Middle Ages. He travelled in Middle East extensively including visits to Makkah and Madina. He lay stress on reunciation of material goods, strict regime of self-discipline and personal prayer, independence from two rulers and two state infcluding rejection of monetary and land grants, generosity to others particularly through sharing of food and wealth and tolerance and respect for religious differences. Nizamuddin- Auliya also known as Hazrat Nizamuddin, was a famous Sufi saint of Chisti Order in South Asia. Nizamuddin Auliya like his predecessors stressed upon the element of love as a means of relisation of God, for him, his love of God implied a love of humanity. His vision of the world was marked by a highly evolved sense of secularist and kindness.

(b) The Suhrawardi Order : Another well known Sufi-saint was Sheikh Baha-ud-din Zakariya of Multan in the 13th century. He came under the influence of a famous mystic, Sheikh Shihab-ud-din Suhrawardi and he founded another order of Sufi saints called the ‘Suhrawardi Order’. They were employed by the Muslim rulers and led lives of comfort as they did not believe in living in poverty.

Question 12.
What do you know about the rise and growth of the Bhakti Cult? Discuss the main features of the Bhakti Cult?
Answer:
The Bhakti Cult, a reform movement in Hinduism laid emphasis on devotion to God. It originated in the 9th Century AD in South India. When Shankracharya brought a revival in Hinduism. In South India, it was spearheaded by Ramanujcharaya and Madhavacharaya.
The principal deities are : Shiva, Shakti and Vishnu through the two most popular incarnations. Ram and Krishna. Many other devotes focused on a Formless God (Nirguna Mhakti). They, especially Kabir and Guru Nanak, attracted a large following.

The main features of the Bhakti Cult are as such; They preached that God is one and must be worshipped with love and devotion; One can attain salvation through

Bliakti or devotion to God; All men are equal before God and the dignity of man depends on his actions and not on the privileges of birth; Religious rites, rituals and ceremonies are futile and man reaches God only through absolute surrender to Him; They emphasised the need for a Guru to lead a person to the realisation of God.

Question 13.
Explain the impact of the Bhakti movement under the following heads :
(a) Ensuring Harmony between Hindus and Muslims.
(b) Preaching the fundamental Equality of all human beings.
(c) Promoting regional languages and Devotional Literature.
Answer:
The impact of the Bhakti movement under the given heads is explained as under :

(a) Ensuring Harmony between Hindus and Muslims : The Bhakti movement became popular in the whole of India. The saints and reformers offered the people a simple religion devoid of complicated rituals : a religion, which required only sincere devotion to God. They tried to reform Hinduism so that it could successfully withstand the challenges of Islam and they also tried to ensure harmony between the two communities—Hindus and Muslims in an atmosphere of toleration and co-operation. The message of religious toleration made a profound impression on Several Muslim rulers. They attracted many devotes from both the communities and exercised a stabilizing influence on society.

(b) Preaching the fundamental Equality of all humanbeings:
They tried to evolve a new social order by following the principle of equality and by denouncing caste distinctions. They exposed the futility of external rituals and set free the minds of the people from the domination of the priests. Thus, the movement brought in not only religious reforms, but also social changes.

(c) Promoting regional languages and Devotional Literature:
The Bhakti reformers preached to the people in their mother-tongue and it provided an impetus for the development of regional languages such as Hindi Bengali, Marathi, Maithili, Gujarati etc. Their compositions rank very high in the devotional literature of the world.

Question 14.
Describe Francis Xavier’s missionary activities in India under the following headlines :
(a) His preachings among the pearl-fishers along the East Coast of Southern India.
(b) His love for children born out of Wedlock.
Answer:
(a) Francis Xavier arrived in Goa in 1542. For the next three years he had been a Christian preacher in India among the pearl-fishers along the East Coast of Southern India as well as in northern areas of the Cape Comorin. His preachings made him immensely popular among the Paravas, Katesars, kadaiyars and Mukkuvars. He had become a missionary of great eminence and respectability among the Pattamkattiyars. Their family-members had been the head of the Fisher Coast.

(b) Many Childred were born of parents (Portuguese sailors and Indian women) who were not legally married at that time. Francis Xavier gave such children instruction about beliefs of the Christian Church. In order to save the Child from the slur of being called ‘an illegitimate child’, he tried to see that the child’s parents united themselves in holy matrimony. Francis Xavier died in 1552. His embalmed body became the object of holy pilgrimages.

Question 15.
Explain Roberto de Nobili’s missionary activities in India under the following headlines :
(a) His method of Adaptation
(b) Development of Christian literature in Tamil
Answer:
(a) He used an altogether different method to preach Christianity in India. He decided to adapt himself to the local situation, in order to be able to deal with it successfully, especially by altering his way of life.
He dressed like a Hindu ascetic (Sanyasi). He adopted also the Indian Sanyasi custom to have his head shaved and to keep only a small bunch of hair at the base. He used to wear a white dhoti and used wooden sandals as footwear.

(b) He prepared a series of questions and answers in Tamil about the Christian religion. These are called ‘Catechisms’. He also prepared ‘Apologias’ i.e., statements by means of which he defended Christian doctrines. He wrote ‘discourses’ which were intended to explain the teachings of Jesus Christ in Tamil. These works in prose rank very high in religious literature in Tamil language.

Question 16.
No survey of the Bhakti movement can omit the names of great woman figures who left the impression of their preachings upon future generations. In this context, explain briefly the preachings.
(a) Lallesvari.
(b) Mirabai.
Answer:
The names of the great women figures of the Bhakti movement can never be omitted. In this context, the given heads are explained as follows :

(a) Lallesvari (1317-1372): She was a Kashmiri Saint, whose life is full of legeds and miraculous deeds. She teaches that the path to God-realisationi lies in renouncement of worldly possessions, intense love of the divine and rising above the distinctions of caste and creed. She said, “thought my mind to see the Lord in all my fellowmen. Do not discriminate between a Hindu and a Musalman. Let us give up fraud and untruth.”

(b) Mirabai (1450-1512) : She was a Rajput princess married into the ruling family of Mewar (Udaipur). A devotee of Lord Krishna since childhood, she continued to devote her whole time to the Lord’s worship even after her marriage. She incurred her husband’s displeasure and eventually, their marriage broke up. She wandered from place to place singing her beautiful songs. One of her hymns goes thus : “People say Mira has gone mad. I have myself become the eternal maid-servant of my Narayana.” Mira reached Dwarka, where she composed many songs in Gujarati. Next to Narsi Mehta, she is regarded as the greatest figure to contribute to devotional literature in Gujarati. She had Raidas as her Guru. Her message was : “there is but one means to experience Lord’s Divine Presence- that is Bhakti. ”

Question 17.
Name the book, where Kabir’s teachings are recorded.
Answer:
Bijak (the seed-book).

Question 18.
Mention two important aspects of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.
Answer:
The two important aspects of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu are :

  1. He believed in on Supreme Being, whom he called Krishna or Hari and exhorted others to have faith in Krishna.
  2. He preached universal brotherhood and denounced all distinctions based on Caste and Creed. He was opposed to the domination of the priestly class.

Question 19.
Who was Lallesvari? What are her teachings?
Answer:
Lallesvari was a Kashmiri Saint, whose life is full of legends and miraculous deeds. She teaches that the path to God- realisation lies in renouncement of worldly possessions, intense love of the divine and rising above the distinctions of caste and creed.

Question 20.
Explain the characteristics of Muslim architecture under these heads :
(a) Mosques and Tombs.
(b) Mode of Ornamentation.
(c) Arches, Domes and Minars.
Answer:
The characteristics of Muslim architecture under the given heads are explained below :
(a) Mosques and Tombs : The Muslim structures are of two types : religious and secular. The religious structures are mosques and tombs. The mosque has an open courtyard surrounded by a pillared verandah. For congregational prayer-hall having a reces alcove called Mehrab in the western wall at the back of the hall. On the right side of the Mehrab, stands pulpit and a minaret or tower above the walls from which Muazzin summons the faithful to worship. Over the sanctuary, is the central dome. The tombs are the resting places for the dead. The Tomb has a chamber, with a Mehrab in the western wall. The whole structure is surmounted by a graceful dome. Underneath the building, is the burial chamber with the grave (Kabr) in the center of it.

(b) Mode of Ornamentation (Islamic Art) : the Islamic art was characterised by simplicity and was devoid of extravagant ornamentation. The buildings were adorned with geometrical patterns and engraved with calligraphy and inlaid work.

(c) Arches, Domes and Minars : In their structures, the technique of arches to cover space, was introduced. They have arched roofs or ceilings, called vaults. The mosques and tombs had gorgeous bulbous domes, beautiful minars and minarets. For the construction of these buildings, red sandstone and marble were extensively used…

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 9

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 9 Medieval India: The Mughal Empire.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 9 Medieval India: The Mughal Empire.

I. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
Name two important sources which provide information about the Mughais.
Answer:
Two important sources of information aboutthe Mughais are Ain-i-Akbari and monuments of Fatehpur Sikri.

Question 2.
Name of the author of Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
The author of Ain-i-Akbari is Abul Fazal.

Question 3.
Between whom was the First Battle of Panipat fought ?
Answer:
The First Battle of Panipat was fought between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 4.
Who invited Babur to India ? Why ?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi Governor of Punjab invited Babur to India to oust Ibrahim Lodhi from the throne.

Question 5.
Who was defeated by Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576 ?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap was defeated by Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576 ?

Question 6.
Mention any two steps taken by Akbar to promote better understanding between the Hindus and the Muslims.
Answer:
Akbar, took the following measures to promote greater under standing between the Hindus and Muslims,

  1. Akbar abolished the poll tax or jizyah, which the non-muslims were required to pay. He abolished the pilgrim tax on bathing at holy places such as Prayag and Benaras.
  2. He involved a number of Hindus into the nobility. Most of these were Rajput Rajas who entered into matrimonial alliances with Akbar. Mansabs were given to others on the basis of their competence.

Question 7.
Name the two taxes abolished by Akbar.
Answer:
The two taxes abolished by Akbar were Jizyah and pilgrim tax.

Question 8.
What principles did Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi promote ?
Answer:
It was based on the principles of oneness of God ; stressing on virtues like courage, loyalty and justice.

Question 9.
When and for what purpose did Akbar built the Ibadat Khana?
Answer:
The Ibadat Khana was built in 1575 at Fatehpur Sikri. At this hall, he used to call selected theologians of all religions, mystics and intellectuals and discuss religious and spiritual matters with them.

Question 10.
Name the title given to the heads of the revenue department and the military department respectively in the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
The head of the revenue department was the wazir, known as diwan or diwan-i-ala.
The head of the military department was called the mir bakhshi.

Question 11.
Who were mansabdars ? How were they paid ?
Answer:
The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank. The mansabdars formed the ruling group in the Mughal empire.

The mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs. Most of the mansabdars did not actually reside in or administer their Jagirs. They only had rights to the revenue of their assignments which was collected from them by their servants.

Question 12.
List any two social reforms that were introduced by Akbar.
Answer:

  1. Akbar issued orders to the kotwals to check the forcible
    practice of Sati or the burning of a widow on the funeral pyre of her husband. However, the women who committed Sati of their own free will were allowed to do so.
  2. Akbar legalised widow remarriage.
  3. Akbar was against anyone having more than one wife unless the first wife could not bear children.

Question 13.
What was the title of the Mahabharata translated into Persian ?
Answer:
The title of the Mahabharata translated into Persian was Razm Namah.

Question 14.
Who was the architect who designed Humayun’s tomb?
Answer:
A Persian Mirak Mirza Ghiyas designed the tomb, but it was built by Indian artisans and craftsmen. The main building stands on a 8.5 metre high platform and has archways on its sides.

Question 15.
Who built the Agra Fort ?
Answer:
Agra Fort was built on the banks of the Yamuna river at Agra by Akbar during the period from 1565 to 1573.

Question 16.
Name two buildings located in Fatehpur Sikri.
Answer:
Two prominent buildings at Fatehpuri Sikri are :

  1. The Palace of Jodha Bhai, Akbar’s Rajput wife.
  2. Buland Darwaza.

Question 17.
Why did Akbar build Fatehpur Sikri ?
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri was built to symbolise the power of Akbar’s empire, to represent the meaning of Allah’s message to mankind and to display the wonders of the Islamic faith.

Question 18.
Name the Mughal ruler who forbade the evil practice of Sati.
Answer:
The Aurangzeb was the only ruler who forbade the evil practice of Sati.

Question 19.
Name the Mughal ruler whose reign was famous for ‘Chain of Justice’.
Answer:
Jahangir’s reign was famous for ‘Chain of Justice’.

Question 20.
Name the two important centers of trade during the Mughal Period.
Answer:
Two important centers of trade were Lahore and Delhi.

Question 21.
Mention any two measures which indicate Nur Jahan’s important position during Jahangir’s reign.
Answer:

  1. She was promoted to the status of ‘Padshah Begum’.
  2. Coins were struck in her name and on all farmans, (permission) her name was attached to the imperial signature.

Question 22.
Name the two English, ambassadors who came to Jahangir’s court. Who sent them and for what ?
Answer:
English ambassadors Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe wanted to obtain favourable concessions for trade with India. They were sent to India by King James I of England.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 23.
Who was the founder of the Mughal rule in India ?
Answer:
Babur was the founder of the Mughal rule in India ?

Question 24.
Mention revenue reforms carried out by Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
Sher Shah introduced a new revenue reform system by developing a method of measuring the land and collecting the revenue with great efficiency.

Question 25.
Name the main roads built by Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
The roads built by Sher Shah Suri are as follows :

  1. Grand Trunk Road from Indus basin to Bengal (Sonargaon)
  2.  Agra to Jodhpur and Chittor.
  3. Agra to Burhanpur.
  4. Lahore to Multan.

Question 26.
Name the two Maratha saints of the 17th century.
Answer:

  1. Sant Tukaram (1608).
  2. Samrath Guru Ramdas Ji (1608-1681).

Question 27.
What were the Consequences of the policy of religious tolerance followed by Akbar?
Answer:
Religious tolerance followed by Akbar resulted in very successful aspects to make him popular, e.g.

  1. He abolished the ‘Jizyah’, a tax paid by non-Muslims.
  2. He abolished the pilgrim tax on bathing at holy places.
  3. He abolished the practice of forcibly converting prisoners of war to Islam.
  4. In 1575, he built a hall (Ibadat Khana) at Fatehpur Sikri for religious meetings.
  5. In 1579, Akbar issued a ‘Declaration’ or ‘Mahzar’,which made him the supreme or final arbiter in religious matters.
  6. In 1580, he created a new religion called ‘Din-i-Ilahi’.

Question 28.
What is the significance of Akbar’s Mansabdari system?
Answer:
Under this system every officer was provided a rank of ‘Mansab’ for ruling a particular region. The ranks were named from 10 to 5000 from lowest to highest for nobles.

Question 29.
Name any two literary sources to reconstruct the Age of the Mughals.
Answer:
Ain-i-Akbari and Akbamamah.

Question 30.
Name any two monuments to reconstruct the Age of Mughals.
Answer:
The Agra Fort and Humayun’s Tomb.

Question 31.
Whom did Babur defeat at the battlefield of Panipat? What was its consequence?
Answer:
In April 1526 he defeated Sultan Ibrahim Lodi at the battlefield of Panipat.His victory was indeed a success of “consummate leadership” and “superior weapons” that he had acquired from Turkey. Babur was the king of India. The most formidable chieftain against whom Babur had yet to fight was Rana Sanga of Mewar, who had organised a huge confederacy of Rajputs against the Mughal invader. The victory of Khanua, a village near Agra, gave Babur complete control over the Central India.

Question 32.
What was the result of Babur’s encounter with a huge confederacy of Rajputs at Khanua?
Answer:
Babur’s encounter with a huge confederacy of Rajputs at Khanua, resulted in the victory of Babur. The victory gave Babur complete control over the Central India.

Question 33.
Mention any two factors responsible for Humayun’s failure against Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
Two factors responsible for Humayun’s failure against Sher Shah Suri were :

  1. Humayun was far less able soldier and general than his father.
  2. He seemed incapable of a sustained and continued policy.

Question 34.
Mention any two revenue reforms instituted by Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
Two revenue reforms instituted by Sher Shah Suri were :

  1. Sher Shah Suri developed a systematic method of measuring the land.
  2. He assessed the land-revenue and collected it with great earnestness.

Question 35.
What is the significance of the Second Battle of Panipat (1556)?
Answer:
The second Battle of Panipat was fought between Hemu, a nephew of Sher Shah Suri and the Mughals in November 1556. In this battle, the Afghan army was defeated and Hemu was captured and killed.

Question 36.
Name the Deccan territories included in Akbar’s empire.
Answer:
Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Golconda.

Question 37.
What is the significance of Akbar’s Mansabdari system?
Answer:
Under mansabdari system, the capable candidates were choosen the Mansabdars by the emperor Akbar. They were directly appointed by the emperor and they acted both as military commanders and civil administrators. This system made quite easy to administer the vast kingdom efficiently and conveniently.

Question 38.
Mention the nature of Akbar’s Din-l-llahi.
Answer:
Din-I-Ilahi was the new cult introduced by the emperor Akbar in 1580. It was based on the belief that there is only one God and required its members to accept such virtues as courage, chastity and justice. It also demanded loyalty to the Emperor.

Question 39.
How did Jahangir deal with the Sikh Guru, Guru Arjun Dev?
Answer:
Jahangir tortured and executed the Sikh Guru, Guru Arjun Dev.

Question 40.
Why was the title of ‘Shah Jahan’ conferred on Prince Khurram ?
Answer:
Prince Khurram was got married to the daughter of Asaf Khan, who was appointed Khan-i-Saman under the emperor Jahangir’s rule. Asaf Khan was also the brother to Begum Nur Mahal (Nur Jahan) who was the wife of Jahangir. Keeping all these things in mind, the title of ‘Shah Jahan was conferred on Prince Khurram.

Question 41.
Who was Nur Jahan?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was the widow of a Persian nobleman, Sher Afghan. Jahangir married Nur Jahan.

Question 42.
Why did Shah Jahan revolt against his father?
Answer:
Jahangir was fully under the influence of his spouse, Nur Jahan, who was a far-slighted woman and bore the dream at her heart to become the sole Empress. Shah Jahan smelled her political ambition. All this resulted in a rift between Nur Jahan and Shah Jahan. Shah Jahan at last, decided to raise a revolt against his father Jahangir.

Question 43.
Mention Shah Jahan’s conquests in the Deccan.
Answer:
In the Deccan, Shah Jahan conquered Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Golconda.

Question 44.
What added to the magnificence to Shah Jahan’s Court?
Answer:
The exquisite Peacock Throne and the celebrated Kohinoor added to the magnificence to Shah Jahan Court.

Question 45.
Name the Sikh Guru who was beheaded at Chandani Chowk in Delhi.
Answer:
Guru Tegh Bahadar.

Question 46.
Mention any one episode that demonstrates Shivaji’s encounter with the Mughals.
Answer:
In 1659, the Sultan of Bijapur had to send his general Afzal Khan to subjugate the Marathas. Shivaji trapped and killed Afzal Khan.

Question 47.
Name any two Departments of Government during the Mughal Age.
Answer:
(a) The Military Pay and Accounts Office held by Mir Bakshi.
(b) Imperial Household Department held by Khan-i-Saman.
(c) The Judiary under the Chief Qazi.

Question 48.
Who was at the head of the Finance Department under Mughal rule.
Answer:
Diwan was the head of the Finance Department under Mughal rule.

Question 49.
Mention the way of life of the Mughal nobility.
Answer:
The nobles, they rolled in wealth and luxury. Costly silks and precious jewels graced their persons and beautiful carpets decked their dining halls. They ate the choicest food and could taste the choicest wines. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings. Many of them kept men and women as slaves who could be bought and sold as they liked.

Question 50.
Name any two women who earned enormous fame during the Mughal period.
Answer:
Rani Durgavati, Chand Sultana, Nur Jahan, Jijabai and Jahanara were highly talented women.

Question 51.
Name two prominent Persian scholars patronised by the Mughal rulers.
Answer:

  1. Abul Fazl,
  2. Badauni.

Question 52.
Mention the contribution of Tulsidas to Hindi Literature.
Answer:
Tulsidas was a prominent Hindi poet of Rama Cult, he wrote Ram Gitawali and Ram Charitmanas.

Question 53.
What was the contribution of Malik Muhammad Jayasi to the growth of Hindi literature?
Answer:
Malik Muhammad Jayasi was one of the most well-known writers of Hindi who wrote the famous epic Padmavat.

Question 54.
Who was the Court poet of the last Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah Zafar?
Answer:
Mirza Ghalib was the Court poet of the last Mughal Emperor, Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Question 55.
Where is Humayun’s Tomb located? Mention any two features of the monument.
Answer:
Humayun’s Tomb is located at Delhi under the instructions of his wife, Hamida Banu Begum. The monument rests ofa a high square platform and has archways on each side. Each archway opens into a room. The monument has a bulbous marble dome with slightly curved outlines arising from a narrower “neck”.

Question 56.
Mention any two features of the Agra Fort?
Answer:
Two features of the Agra Fort are :

  1. The Agra fort is the shape of an irregular semi-circle.
  2. There is a moat all round the fort which was always filled with water to prevent enemies from entering the fort.

Question 57.
Name any two prominent buildings at Fatehpuri Sikri.
Answer:.
Two prominent buildings at Fatehpuri Sikri are :

  1. The Palace of Jodha Bhai, Akbar’s Rajput wife.
  2. The Jama Masjid.

Question 58.
Name one religious building built by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri.
Answer:
The Jama Masjid.

Question 59.
Mention any two features of the Jama Masjid at Delhi.
Answer:
Two features of the jama Masjid at Delhi are :

  1. The Jama Masjid is built on a lofty basement with majestic flights of steps, leading to the imping gateways on three sides of the courtyard.
  2. At its four external corners are placed twelve pillared kiosks surmounted by domes.

Question 60.
Name the master architect who designed the Taj Mahal.
Answer:
Ustad Isa was the architect who designed the Raj Mahal.

Question 61.
Name any prominent painter at Akbar’s court.
Answer:
Daswanth was the prominent painter at Akbar’s court.

Question 62.
Name the famous musician patronised by Akbar.
Answer:
Tansen was the famous musician patronised by Akbar.

II. Structured Questions

Question 1.
With reference to the Mughal Empire, explain briefly the significance of the following :
(a) Ain-i-Akbari
(b) Taj Mahal
(c) Red Fort
Answer:
(a) Ain-i-Akbari — This book was written by Abul Fazl, the minister and one of the Nine jewels at Akbar’s court. It was part of a large project of history writing commissioned by Akbar. Ain-i-Akbari is regarded as a precious source material for knowing the administration and culture during the reign of Akbar.

The Ain-i-Akbari is divided into five books. The first book deals with the imperial household. The second book deals with the servants of the emperor, the military and civil services. The third book deals with the imperial administration. It consists of the regulations for the judicial and executive departments, and the divisions of the empire. The fourth book contains information about the Hindu philosophy, science, social customs and literature. The fifth book contains the wise sayings of Akbar. This also contains an account of the ancestry and biography of the author.

(b) Taj Mahal — Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan built this monument. It is located at Agra. Shah Jahan built this movement is memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal. This monument reflect the Mughal style of architecture as it is made of pure white marble. The main structure is constructed on a high platform. On each of the four corners of this platform there is a minaret. The central dome rises to a height of 56.1 meters. The interior has an octagonal chamber. The marble dome in the center looks like an inverted lotus. The grave is in lower chamber, underground. Taj Mahal was designated as a UNESCO World Heritage site in 1983 and was declared as one of the Seven Wonders of the World in 2007.

(c) Red Fort — It was built by Shah Jahan after he decided to shift his capital to Delhi. It is located on the banks of the Yamuna. Red sandstone and marble were used in its construction. The fort has massive walls and two gateways. The Western Gateway is known as the Lahori Gate. This gate was used for the emperor’s ceremonial purposes. Among the many impressive buildings in the complex are Diwan-i-Aapi and Diwan-i-Khas. The Diwan-i-Khas is the lavishly ornamented hall where the Peacock Throne was placed. The hall was used by the emperor to give audience to the princes of the royal family, nobles and other important dignitaries. The Red Fort is an important historical monument. Many historical events are connected with this fort. The Prime Minister of India every year unfurls the national flag from its ramparts on Independence Day (August 15).

Question 2.
With reference to the Mughal rule, state briefly :
Answer:
(a) Akbar’s policy towards the Rajputs.
Friendly relations with Rajputs were appreciable of Akbar’s policy. He married the daughter of Bhara Mai (the ruler of Amber), Harkha Bai (Jodha Bai). He gave full respect to his wives e.g. he gave a separate worshipping palace to Jodha Bai in Fatehpur Sikhi. Rajputs were made equal partners in the Mughal Government.

(b) Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance.
Akbar is famous for his religious tolerance. He paid respect to every religion and was reasonable for every sect of society. The abolishment of ‘Jizyh’ tax, and forcibly converting prisoners of war to Islam. In 1575, Akbar built a hall called ‘Ibadat Khana’, where religious meetings were held to discuss about various religions.

3. With reference to the administrative system in the Mughal Period, answer the following questions :
Question 3(a).
What was the position of the monarch ?
Answer:
There are a number of references in the court chronicles of the Mughals which show that the power of the Mughal kings came directly from God. One of the legends they narrated was that of the Mongol queen Alanqua, who was impregnated by a ray of sunshine while resting in her tent. The offspring she bore carried this Divine Light and passed it from generation to generation.

Question 3(b).
Who were the three important ministers ?
Answer:
In the days of Babur and Humayun, there used to be a Prime Minister, known as vakil, who was entrusted with large powers in civil and military affairs. During the early years of Akbar’s reign Bairam Khan was the vakil.

The head of the revenue department was the wazir, known as diwan or diwan-i-ala. The diwan was responsible for all income and expenditure.

The head of the military department was called the Mir Bakhshi. The Mir Bakhshi was also the head of the intelligence and information agencies of the empire.

Question 3(c).
How was the provincial government organised ?
Answer:
The empire was divided into twelve provinces or subahs, which was further subdivided into sarkars and each sarkar into parganas or mahals.

Each Subah was headed by one governor who was called the subahdar or sipah salar or nazim. He was usually a mansabdar of high rank. His functions included maintenance of law and order, enforcement of imperial decrees, administration of criminal justice and the smooth collection of revenue. The provincial diwan was in charge of revenue administration of the province. His responsibilities were similar to those ofthe central diwan. Besides the subahdar and the diwan, the other important officials in the province were faujdar, kotwal, bakhshi, sadr qazi and muhtasib.

4. With reference to Mansabdari system, answer the following questions :

Question 4(a).
What was the Mansabdari system
Answer:
The mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was a unique feature of the administrative system of the Mughal empire. The mansabdars formed the ruling group of the Mughal empire with a rank of (mansab). With a great power of civil and army control the rank ranged from number 10 to 5000 for nobles. The ranks were again divided into ‘zat’ and ‘sawar’. For every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdar had to maintain twenty horses.

Question 4(b).
What was meant by zat and sawar rank ?
Answer:
Zat fixed the personal status of a person and the salary due to him. The higher the zat, the more prestigious was the noble’s position in court and the larger his salary.The sawar rank indicated the number of cavalrymen or sawar a mansabdar was required to maintain. For every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdar had to maintain twenty horses.

Question 5.
Study the picture of the Red Fort and answer the following questions :
(a) Who built this fort ? Where is it located ?
(b) Mention two architectural features of the fort.
(c) Mention three important buildings within the fort.
(d) What material is used for the structure and the decoration of this monument ?
Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 9
Answer:
(a) Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan built this fort. It is located at Delhi.
(b) The fort measures 930 meters by 495 meters has massive walls. There are two gateways.
(c) Three impressive buildings in the complex are Diwan-i-Aam and Diwan-i-Khas and Moti Masjid.
(d) Red sandstone and marble were used in its construction.

Question 6.
Study the picture of the Taj Mahal and answer the following questions :
(a) Who built this monument ? Where is it located ?
(b) Why was the monument erected ?
(c) How does this monument reflect the Mughal style of architecture ?
Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 9.1
Answer:
(a) Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan built this monument. It is located at Agra.
(b) Shah Jahan built this movement is memory of his beloved wife Mumtaz Mahal.
(c) This monument reflect the Mughal style of architecture as it is made of pure white marble. The main structure is constructed on a high platform. On each of the four corners of this platform there is a minaret. The central dome rises to a height of 56.1 meters. The interior has an octagonal chamber. The marble dome in the center looks like an inverted lotus. The grave is in lower chamber, underground.

7. With reference to the social development during the Mughal Age, answer the following questions :

Question 7(a).
Explain the division of society on the basis of wealth.
Answer:
During the Mughal Age, society looked like a feudal organisation with the king at its apex. Next in rank to the king were the nobles, who enjoyed special honours and privileges. With abundant resources at their disposal, the rich indulged in luxury and led a comfortable life. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings and amused themselves with outdoor sports as well as indoor games.

Below the nobles, there was the middle class, which was living according to the standard suited to their respective offices and professions. The merchants in general led simple life. According to some European writers, the merchants of the western coast, having made much wealth out of their extensive commerce, lived in a comparatively rich style.

The condition of the lower order was hard as compared with that of the two higher classes. They did not have sufficient clothing and woollen garments and shoes were above their means. As their other demands were few, they did not suffer from want of ordinary food but in times of famine and scarcity, their miseries must have been great. The shopkeepers, though sometimes rich and respected, generally kept their wealth hidden.

Question 7(b).
Explain briefly any two steps taken by Akbar towards integrating the Hindus and the Muslims.
Answer:
The Mughal Emperors, especially Akbar, took a number of measures to promote greater understanding between the Hindus and the Muslims. Some of these measures were the following:

  1. Akbar abolished the poll tax or jizyah, which the non-Muslims were required to pay. He also abolished the pilgrim tax on bathing at holy places such as Prayag and Banaras. Further, he abolished the practice of forcibly converting prisoners of war to Islam.
  2. To strengthen the liberal principles, Akbar enrolled a number of Hindus into the nobility. le most of these were Rajput rajas, many of whom entered into matrimonial alliances with Akbar, mansabs were given to others also on the basis of their competence.

Question 7(c).
What steps were taken by the Mughal rulers to promote education ?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers introduced a number of educational reforms: Akbar revised the educational syllabus, laying more emphasis on moral education and mathematics and on secular
subjects such as agriculture, geometry, astronomy, logic and history.

The other Mughal emperors also were keen patrons of education and there was considerable development in this area. In fact one of the duties of the public works department. Shuhra-i-am was to build schools and colleges. Jahangir passed a law, whereby if a rich man was to die without an heir, his assets would be used by the State to help in the development and maintenance of educational institutes. Shah Jahan although more interested in building monuments, did take some significant educational initiatives like providing scholarships to assist students.

Female education also existed in some form during the Mughal period. Girls from rich families were usually able to have an education, through private tuitions at home. The Middle class girls were usually able to attend the same schools as the boys.

Question 8.
With reference to Humayun’s Tomb and answer the following questions :
(a) Who built this monument ? Where is it located ?
(b) Name the architect who designed this building.
(c) How is this monument a precursor of the Taj Mahal ?
Answer:
(a) Humayun’s Tomb was built under the auspices of Humayun’s wife Hamida Banu Begum.
(b) It is located at Delhi. A Persian architect Mirak Ghiyas designed the tomb, but it was built by Indian artisans and craftsmen.
(c) The main building stands on a 8.5 metre high platform and has archways on its sides. The bulbous marble dome is slightly curved. Its structure is considered as the precursor of the Taj Mahal.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 9.
With reference to the decline of the Mughal empire, state briefly : 
(a) Aurangzeb’s responsibility
(b) Jagirdari crisis.
Answer:
(a) Under Aurangzeb, the Mughal Eimpire had expanded beyond the point of effective control. It covered almost whole of India, but the lack of communication and transport tended to weaken the empire. His partial religious policy also created rebel lions of Jats, Bundelas, Rajputs, the Sikhs and the Marathas. His policy of war against Southern states also damaged the Mughal empire.

(b) By the end of 17th century, the number of Jagirs decreased and the payment of the officers by the Mughal emperors also faced a crisis. To overcome this crisis, a lot of crown land was converted into Jagirland, which again reduced the revenue share of the emperor and led to further decline of his power.

Question 10.
Who were the Later Mughals ? How were they responsible for the decline of the Mughal Empire ?
Answer:
After Aurangzeb, the Later Mughals were, Bahadur Shah I, Mohammad Shah, Bahadur Shah Zafar etc. Due to weak administration, rivalry amongst the nobles, ascendancy of the British (East India Company in AD 1600), rivalry among the small kingdoms etc. were the several reasons of the decline of the Mughal Empire. At the end of the Mughal dynasty Bahadur Shah Zafar was exiled to Myanmar (Burma).

Question 11.
The Mughal rulers of India gave encouragement to learning. In this context state briefly the growth of
(a) The Persian Literature
(b) The Hindi Literature
(c) Urdu Literature.
Answer:
(a) The Mughal rulers patronised several poets and gave encouragement to the creation of eminent literature. Many Sanskrit books were translated to Persian and Urdu. Malik Muhammad Jayisi wrote in Hindi, but put forward Sufi concepts with touch of Persian language.

Through the Persian language. India was able to davelop close cultural relations with Central Asia and Iran Persian became the language of upper class and administration. Many Persian words are still injected in common Hindi language. The famous Persian poet Abul Fazl wrote Ain- i-Akbari. He was in the court of Akbar.

(b) Hindi literature also highly progress during the Mughal period. Malik Mohammad Jayasi wrote ‘PadmawaC in Hindi Rahim wrote ‘Satsai’ as ‘Rahim ke Dohe’. Tulsidas, Surdas, Bihari were remarkable Hindi poets of this time.

(c) Urdu progressed very much in the 18th century when Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah (1719-1748) Patronised Urdu. Urdu was also patronised by Bahmani rulers of Deccan. The great poets were Mir Dad, Mirza Galib (the court poet of Bahadur Shah Zafar).

Question 12.
Akbar had both the time and inclination to look at the administrative problems of the Empire. In this context describe.
(a) His Mansabdari System
(b) His Land Revenue System
Answer:
(a) Mansabdari System : Akbar introduced the mansabdari system to organise his armed forces more effectively. All imperial officers except the qazis and sadars, were enrolled as members of mansabdari system and were reined to maintain some troops proportionate, to their ranks. The Mansabdari held their appointments directly from the emperor. They got their remuneration in cash not in the form of land grants. In addition to meeting their personal expenses, the Mansabdar had to maintain out of his salary a required quota of horses, elephants mules and carts. The Mughal Mansabdari were required to serve in whatever place or capacity the Emperor desired. They acted both as military commanders and civil administrators. By giving them handsome salaries and high status, Akbar was able to recruit men of remarkable capabilities to the service of the empire. Mansabdari status was not hereditary. The Mansabdars could be promoted or dismissed by the Emperor.

(b) His Land Revenue System : No efforts were made to improve the land system prevailing in the country in the early part of Akbar’s reign. It was only after, when Todar Mai became the Diwan-i-Ashraf (head of the land revenue department.) Todar mal devised a system based on

  1. a survey and measurement of land,
  2. classification of land according to its productive capacity, and
  3. fixation of rates payable in cash or kind by the cultivators. Another important change that Akbar made was the introduction of the dahsala system. Under this system the average produce of different kinds of lands as well the prices of the last ten (dah) years were collected from the government records. The land revenue was fixed at one-third of the average produce. The benefit of the system was that there was now no necessity of settling the land revenue every year. The work of revenue collection was therefore expedited.
    In brief, Todar Mal started a system that enriched the state treasury without impoverishing the cultivators. The state advanced loans to the needy farmers. As a result, agriculture flourished that boosted trade and industry also.

Question 13.
Akbar was the greatest of all medieval rulers of India. In this context describe : His policy of racial and religious pacification.
Answer:
His Policy of Conciliation and Synthesis : Akbar sought to bring about racial and religious conciliation in the country. Jiziya was abolished and the state services were opened for the Hindus, especially Rajput princes. The Emperor patronised Hindu writers and artists and welcomed matrimonial alliances with the Rajput families. In 1580, the Emperor promulgated a new cult called Din-i-llahi. It was based on the belief that there is only one God and required its members to accept such virtues as courage, chastity and justice. It also demanded loyalty to the Emperor. The new cult could not have many followers and it was never imposed.

Question 14.
Shah Jahan’s reign marks the climax of the Mughal dynasty and empire. In this context explain briefly :
(a) his Conquests.
(b) Magnificence of the Imperial Court and his Architectural Achievements.
Answer:
Shah Jahan’s reign marks the climax of the Mughal dynasty and empire. In this context the given headlines are explained below :
(a) His Conquests : In 1632, Shah Jahan started his military campaign against Ahmadnagar. He annexed Ahmadnagar. He ordered the states of Bijapur and Golconda to submit to Mughal authority. The Emperor himself marched to Deccan to seek compliance to his orders. The ruler of Golconda acknowledged the Mughal suzeranity in 1636, but military action was needed to bring Bijapur into submission.
In the North-West, the Mughals had suffered some reverses after Akbar’s death. Shah Jahan wanted to recover Kandhar which he did in 1638. But the Mughals could not retain it for long, because the Shah of Iran captured it again in 1649. Three major campaigns to recover Kandhar failed and Kandhar was lost to the Mughals for good. The Emperor was successful in suppressing the revolt of Jujhar Singh, son of Bir Singh Bundela.

(b) Magnificence of the Imperial Court and his Architectural Achievements : Shah Jahan modelled his court after the style of the old Persian monarchs. The exquisite Peacock Throne and the celebrated Kolxinoor added to the magnificence of his court. Shah Jahan patronised men of letters and arts. The famous Taj at Agra and Jami Masjid and Delhi are some of the finest examples of Mughal architecture of his time. Music arid painting also made great progress under Shah Jahan’s patronage.

Question 15.
Aurangzeb died forlorn and destitute. In this context, explain briefly :
(a) His dealings with the Sikh Gurus.
(b) His attempts to suppress rebellion in the Deccan.
Answer:
Aurangzeb died forlorn and destitute. In this context, the given headlines are explained as under :
(a) His dealings with the Sikh Gurus : Aurangzeb was a fanatic Fundamentalist (Sunni) Muslim ruler. He adopted a rigid policy, especially for the Hindus and emphatically converted them into Islam. The Hindu pandits from Kashmir, approached the Ninth Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadar at Anandpur Sahib in Punjab and they grieved and sought the help of the Guru to relieve them from the atrocities of Aurangzeb. Aurangzeb got infuriated at this act of the Guru to assist the Kashmiri Pandits. He captured Guru Tegh Bahadar and took him to Delhi. He kept forth the option of embracing Islam or facing death before the Guru. Seeing the Guru not converting his denomination and denying to adopt the Islam religion, Aurangzeb beheaded the Guru openly at a place called Chandani Chowk in Delhi.
Now, there is erected the Gurudwara Sisganj in the memory of the martyred Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadar.

In 1704, the Mughals attacked the fort of Anandpur, a fierce battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh, who led the Sikh warriors, fought heroically. His two sons Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh, were captured and were bricked alive when they refused to adopt Islam. The Guru’s last encounter with Mughal forces took place at the battlefield of Muktsar, it claimed a huge loss of lives of the soldiers. Thus, an unending enmity existed between the Mughals and the Sikhs that continued even after the departing of Guru Gobind Singh.

(b) His attempts to suppress rebellion in the Deccan : Shivaji was succeeded by his elder son Shambhaji. A new dimension that was added to the events in Deccan was the arrival of the rebel Prince Akbar at the Maratha Court. Aurangzeb feared that the Prince, the Marathas and the Sultans of Bijapur and Golconda could forge an alliance against the Empire. He therefore, reached the Deccan in 1681. He sought to crush the Marathas, but his efforts did not bear the desired results. He could annex Bijapur in 1686 and then came the fall of Golconda also. Shambhaji was also defeated, captured and killed in 1689.

The Deccan, now seemed to be under the control of the Mughal Emperor. But the Marathas did not allow themselves to be earned into submission. They enthroned Shambhaji’s younger brother Raja Ram on the throne. When the Mughal army besieged their Capital, they fled towards Jinji. The Mughals captured Shambhaji’s wife and her nine-year old son Sahuji. The Mughal-Maratha contest continued for many years. When Raja Ram died in 1700, his widow Tara Bai declared her four-year old son. Shivaji- II, the king.

From 1700-1705 Aurangzeb, though ill-managed to, drag himself from the siege of one fort to another. After nearly twenty-five years of direct military action in southern India, Aurangzeb died at Aurangabad in 1707 – with little success, but substantial loss of wealth, prestige and self¬esteem.

Question 16.
Describe the Mughal Administration under the following headlines :
(a) Position of the Monarch
(b) Main Department of Government
Answer:
(a) Humayun and Akbar believed that “royalty is a light emanating from God, a ray from the sun.” The Mughal state was a “centralized autocracy”. In other words, the King’s power were unlimited. He was the “head of the government, the commander of the armed forces and the fountain of justice.” He was also the chief legislator, because his word was law.

(b) The highest position below the Emperor was held by the Vizier, but the Exchequer (Finance Department) was in the hands of the Diwan. Other important departments were:

  1. The Military Pay and Accounts Office held by Mir Bakshi.
  2. Imperial Household Department held by Khan- i-Saman.
  3.  The Judiciary under the Chief Qazi. The other Officers, somewhat lower in status were :

    • Daroga-i- Topkhana (head of the artillery),
    • the Daroga of the Mint, and
    • Mir Arz the officer-in-charge of Petitions seeking favour of the Monarch.

Question 17.
Describe the Mughal Administration with reference to the following :
(a) The Army and the Navy
(b) Administration of Law and Justice
Answer:
(a) the armed forces were composed of

  1.  infantry,
  2. cavalry,
  3. artillery,
  4.  navy and
  5. war elephants.

The artillery consisted of two section — heavy guns, and the light artillery. The heavy guns were used for assaulting forts. The functions of the Admiralty Department were

  1. to build boats,
  2. to recruit professional seamen, and
  3.  to collect river duties and tolls. The Navy was used for the suppression of piracy as well as for war. With the development of the flint-gun, the infantry had also become a powerful fighting force during the 17th century. An important factor that harmed the efficiency of the Mughal army was that the soldiers did not owe direct allegiance to the Emperor. They were more attached to their immediate officers. The Army looked like a “moving city”, with a portion of the ‘harem’ (wives of the nobles and chief officers), their offices, the attendants, musicians and the soldiers moving from place to place during a war. This sort of affairs naturally brought in luxury and in disciplane in the army.

(b) The Chief Qazi was the principal judicial officer in the realm. He appointed Qazis for the provinces. Justice was administered by Qazis, Muftis and Mir-adls. The Muftis acted as advocates; they interpreted the Muslim law. The Mir-adls drew up and announced judgement. Fines could be imposed and severe punishments, like amputation of hand or led could be inflicted by the courts without any reference to the Emperor, but capital punishment (death penalty) required Emperor’s sanction. Above all these courts was the Emperor himself.

Question 18.
Give an account of the social developments during the Mughals Age under the following headlines :
(a) Social Structure
(b) Position of Women
Answer:
(a) The society comprised of, an general, three classes of people;

  1. Princes and the Nobles,
  2. the Middle Class, and
  3. the lower orders, i.e., the Ordinary People, the peasants and the labourers. As regards the princes and the nobles, they rolled in wealth and luxury, Costly silks and precious jewels graced their persons and beautiful carpets decked their dining halls. They ate the choicest food and could taste the choicest wines. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings. Many of them kept men and women as slaves who could be bought and sold as they liked. The middle classes, i.e., the merchants, traders, artists, musicians, scholars and those belonging to the class of priests and the clergy had a living standard suited to their respective professions. The living conditions of the lower orders were hard. The landless peasants and labourers could eke out a bare existence. Towards the end of Shah Jahan’s regin, the peasants got much harassed by the revenue officials. Whenever there was a famine it was this class of peasants who suffered the most.

(b) The position of women was in many respects pitiful.The child marriage was a standing social evil, Akbar tried to check girls marriage before puberty, but his attempts did not seem to have been effective. Polygamy also was not uncommon. Moreover, Sati system was prevalent in Hindu society. The efforts of Akbar, Jahangir and Aurangzeb failed to uproot this evil. Despite constraints, instances of women taking on active part in social and political affairs are many. Rani Durgavati, Chand Sultana, Nur Jahan, Jijabai and Jahanara were highly talented women, who have left an enduring reputation behind.

Question 19.
The Growing harmony between various religious communities was a marked feature of social life during the reigns of rulers from Akbar to Shah Jahan. In this contex. explain briefly.
(a) Growing harmony between Hindus and Muslims
(b) Growth of the Bhakti Movement and Sufism in the Mughal period.
Answer:
(a) The growing harmony between Hindus and Muslims was a marked feature of the social life at that time. Akbar’s liberalism went a great way to heal the rift between the two communities. The Jiziya (poll tax on the non-Muslims) was abolished and state services were opened for the Hindus, especially the Rajput princes. Akbar’s marriages with Hindu princesses led to the introduction of Hindu customs into the palace and Durga Puja was celebrated within the palace then and afterwards. On the other hand. Mughal etiquette, Mughal dress and dishes were adopted by the Hindu zamindars and people having a high social rank. The Muslims of high rank often took part in the Holi and Diwali festivals with their Hindu friends.

(b) The Bhakti tradition continued to grow and several new cults had arisen in the 17th and 18th centuries. One of the most prominent saints of Maharashtra was Tukaram. Sufism also had a profound influence on society during the period.

(c) The Chief Qazi was the principal judicial officer in the realm. He appointed Qazis for the provinces. Justice was administered by Qazis, Muftis and Mir-adls. The Muftis acted as advocates; they interpreted the Muslim law. The Mir-adls drew up and announced judgments. Fines could be imposed and severe punishments, like amputation of hand or led could be inflicted by the courts without any reference to the Emperor, but capital punishment (death penalty) required Emperor’s sanction. Above all these courts was the Emperor himself.

Question 20.
Give an account of the social developments during the Mughals Age under the following headlines :
(a) Social Structure
(b) Position of Women
Answer:
(a) The society comprised of, an general, three classes of people;

  1. Princes and the Nobles,
  2. the Middle Class, and
  3.  the lower orders, i.e., the Ordinary People, the peasants and the labourers. As regards the princes and the nobles, they rolled in wealth and luxury, Costly silks and precious jewels graced their persons and beautiful carpets decked their dining halls. They ate the choicest food and could taste the choicest wines. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings. Many of them kept men and women as slaves who could be bought and sold as they liked. The middle classes, i.e., the merchants, traders, artists, musicians, scholars and those belonging to the class of priests and the clergy had a living standard suited to their respective professions. The living conditions of the lower orders were hard. The landless peasants and labourers could eke out a bare existence. Towards the end of Shah Jahan’s reign, the peasants got much harassed by the revenue officials. Whenever there was a famine it was this class of peasants who suffered the most.

(b)
The Bhakti tradition continued to grow and several new cults had arisen in the 17th and 18th centuries. One of the most prominent saints of Maharashtra was Tukaram. Sufism also had a profound influence on society during the period.

Akbar was deeply influenced by the mysteries of Sufism and teachings of the Hindu saints. Throughout the period, the Bhakti school of Shri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu held the field in Bengal and Orissa. In Rajasthan, Gujarat and South India also the Bhakti Movement retained its popularity. Raja Man Singh of Amber, in Rajasthan, was one of the greatest patrons of Vaishnavism.

Question 20.
The Mughal rulers of India were patrons of learning and scholars. In this context, describe briefly.
(a) The growth of Persian Literature in those times.
(b) The growth of Hindi Literature during the age of the Mughals.
Answer:
The Mughal rulers of India were patrons of learning and scholars. In this context, the given questions are described as under :
(a) The Persian language made a tremendous progress under the patronage of the Mughal emperors. Akbar’s court had many Persian scholars who migrated to India. One of the eminent historiants of Akbar’s court was Abul Fazal, who wrote Ain-i-Akbari, gives information about the legal and revenue-system of Akbar’s administration. While Akbamama is about the life of Akbar and the Mughals in general.

Two other historians of Akbar’s reign were Nizam- ud-din Ahmad, who wrote Tabakat-i-Akbari and Badauni, who wrote Muntakhab-ut-Twarikh. Akbar encouraged the traslation of Sanskrit literary works into the Persian language. Different sections of the Mahabharcita were translated into Persian and compiled into a book. Badauni completed the translation of the Ramayana. Abul Fazal translated the Panchatantra. Faizi was a renowned scholar who translated many Hindu classics into Persian.The translation of Sanskrit works in Persian continued under Jahangir.

(b)
Tulsidas was a great poet of the Rama cult, he wrote Ram Gitawali. His most famous work is Ram Charitmanas, singing the noble deeds of Lord Rama. It is a masterpiece of Hindi literature.Surdas wrote Sursagar which describes episodes from Krishna’s early life.

Many scholars adorned the court of Akbar, who encouraged Hindi Literature. Akbar’s courtiers—Birbal, Raja Man Singh and Raja Bhagwan Das—were known for their poetic works in Hindi. Akbar conferred the title ‘Kavipriya’ on Birbal for his poetic works. Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khanan was teh most distinguished Hindi poet of Akbar’s court. Till today, his dohas in Hindi have been greatly appreciated and read with interest.Malik Muhammad Jayasi, one of the most well-known writers of Hindi, wrote the epic Padmawat. Sundar, who wrote Sundar Sringar was given the title ‘Mahakavi Rai’ by Emperor Shahjahan.

Question 21.
What role did the following factors play in decline and downfall of the Mughal Empire :
(a) Aurangzeb’s policies.
(b) Incompetence of the Later Mughals.
(c) Foreign Invasions.
Answer:
The given factors played a significant role in the decline and downfall of the Mughal Empire, which are as explained as follows :
(a) Aurangzeb’s Policies : Aurangzeb was an orthodox Sunni Muslim. His personal life and austerity won him the support of the Muslim clergy who called him a Zinda Pir, a Living Saint. In 1669, the Emperor forbade the building of new temples and permitted the destruction of a few existing temples as well. The temples at Mathura and Varanasi became special targets of attack. He reimposed the old Jiziya on Hindus. This naturally cost him the sympathy and support of the Hindus, particularly, the RajputS who had been the pillars of the Mughal Empire.

(b) Incompetence of the Later Mughals : The later Mughals were incompetent and did not have the skills that were needed to keep the system in working order. They let the affairs drift in their own way. R.C. Majumdar writes, “Province after province the Deccan, Oudth and Bengal slipped out of imperial control.” The Marathas, the Jats and Sikhs had also become very powerful by now. And in 1739, Nadir Shah, returned home laden with immense treasure including the famous Peacock Throne and the Kohinoor diamond. The invasion left the empire “bleeding and prostrate”. The last Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was a symbolic head of the Great Uprising of 1857. He was imprisoned and banished to Rangoon, where he died in 1862.

(c) Foreign Invasions : In 1739, the Emperor of Delhi was literally at the mercy of Nadir Shah. The already Shrunk Mughal empire was left exposed to further invasions. Ahmad Shah Abdali led a number of expeditions and in 1757, he advanced into India as far as Delhi. In 1759, he finally conquered the Punjab. Since Marathas had also become strong contenders for supremacy in northern India, a contest between Ahmad Shah Abdali and the Marathas was inevitable. Ahmad Shah defeated the Maratha army at the Battle of Panipat in 1761. This defeat not only checked the growing power of the Marathas, it also hastened the process of the disintegration of the Mughal empire. It indirectly contributed to the rise of the Sikh-power in Punjab and the north-west and the spread of British influence in the rest of the subcontinent.

Question 22.
Akbar was the greatest of all medieval rulers of India. In this context describe : His Concern about Law and Justice.
Answer:
Law and Justice : Akbar regarded speedy administration of justice as one of his important duties. The Chief Qpazi was the foremost Judicial officer in the realm. He nominated Qazis for the provinces. The Qazis were believed to be just and impartial. They tried both civil and criminal cases. The bigger towns had their own Qazis. The villagers settled their disputes through the institution of the Panchayat. Above all the local and provincial courts was the Emperor himself. He was the fountain of justice and the final court of appeal’. The prisoners were kept in forts.

Question 23.
Describe Aufangzeb’s Administration under the following headlines :
(a) A Setback to the Policy of Religious Toleration
(b) Provincial Government
(c) Consequences of Emperor’s Long Absence from the Capital
Answer:
(a) A Setback to the Policy of Religious Toleration :
Soon after his accession, Aurangzeb abandoned the liberal religious viewpoints of his predecessors. Though Akbar Jahangir and Shah Jahan’s approach to faith was more liberal than the empire’s founder. Aurangzeb’s position is not so obvious. While his conservative interpretation of Islam and belief in Shria (Islamic law) is well documented, how this affected the empire remains unclear. Despite claims of sweeping edicts and policies, contradictory accounts exists his compilation of the Fatwa-e-Alamgirie, a digest of Muslim law, was either intended for personal use, never enforced. While some assert that the lack of broad adoption was due to an inherent flow, others insist they were only intended for his observance. While it is possible the war of succession and continued incursions combined with Shah Jahan’s spending made cultural expenditures impossible.

(b) Provincial Government : The number of princes had risen to twenty-one in the time of Aurangzeb. The Diwan or the Revenue Chief of the province was required to keep a strict watch over the Subahdar (the Governor) so that the latter would not become all powerful.

(c) Consequences of Emperor’s Long Absence from the Capital : The Kingdoms of Bijapur and Golconda were finally conquered and annexed (1686-87). But the Emperor’s long absence from the Capital led to utter neglect of administration of Delhi. This emboldend the rebels to challenge the Mughal authority in the North. The troops were also strongly dissatisfied with Emperor’s authority because of arrears of payment. Before Aurangzeb died in 1707, the disintegration of the capital was obvious.

 

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 8

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Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 8 Medieval India: The Delhi Sultanate.

These Solutions are part of Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions. Here we have given. Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 8 Medieval India: The Delhi Sultanate.

EXERCISES

I. Short Answer Questions :

Question 1.
Who was the founder of the slave dynasty in India ?
Answer:
Qutubuddin Aibak is regarded as the founder of the Slave dynasty.

Question 2.
Why was Qutubuddin known as Lakhbaksh ?
Answer:
Qutubuddin known as Lakhbaksh because of liberal distri bution of money, he earned the title of ‘Lakhbaksh’.

Question 3.
Mention any two military reforms introduced by Alauddin.
Answer:
Military Reforms : Alauddin Khilji was the first ruler of Delhi who laid the foundation of a permanent standing army. He imported quality horses and started the system of branding horses (dagh) so that the soldiers could not replace them with inferior quality horses. He also introduced the system of chehra, i.e., giving a kind of identity card for every soldier.

Question 4.
How did Alauddin Khalji expand his empire ?
Answer:
A large region was ruled in northern India by Alauddin. Alauddin Khalj i conquered many southern states in 1313, the states of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwarasamudra and Madurai. The annual tribute payed by these states was used for maintenance of his army.

Question 5.
Mention the two controversial steps taken by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Two controversial steps taken by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, were as follows :

  1. Shifting of Capital from Delhi to Devagiri.
  2. Introduction of the “token currency”.

Question 6.
Which dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate built The Qutab Minar ?
Answer:
Slave dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate i.e. Qutb-ud-din Aibak in AD 1199, built the Qutab Minar.

Question 7.
Who was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period ?
Answer:
Sultan was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period.

Question 8.
Name the department which dealt with state correspondence during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
Diwan-i-insha was department which dealt with state correspondence during the Sultanate period.

Question 9.
What was the iqta system ?
Answer:
During Sultanate the empire was divided into provinces called ‘iqtas.During this period, the practice of giving grants of revenue from a territory came to be known as the ‘iqta system’. Those who were given iqtas were called ‘iqtadars’. Out of this grant, the iqtadars had to maintain themselves, their families and some soldiers for use by the Sultan during war.

Question 10.
Name the author of the book, Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi.
Answer:
The book, Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi was written by Ziauddin Barani.

Question 11.
Why were the early rulers of slave dynasty called the Mamluk Sultans ?
Answer:
The early rulers of slave dynasty were called the Mamluk Sultans because these Sultans were earlier either the slaves of the Turks or were
the sons of the slaves.

Question 12.
Mention any two reasons for the defeat of Rajputs by the Turks.
Answer:

  1. The Turkish army comprised expert military leaders from different lands who employed new tactics of wars. The Rajputs, on the other hand, followed outdated tactics.
  2. The Rajput soldiers were highly efficient in the use of spear and sword and excellent in hand-to-hand fighting. But as archers, they were inferior to the Turks. The Turks were aware of the weak points of their opponents.

Question 13.
Who was Muhammad Ghori ? Why did he invade India ?
Answer:
Shahabuddin Muhammad, also known as Muizzuddin Muhammad bin Sam or Muhammad Ghori, ascended the throne at Ghazni (in present Afghanistan) in 1173. He was an ambitious ruler and wanted to establish his empire in India. The wealth and military resources of India attracted Mohammad Ghbri’s attention, which he thought could be utilised to safeguard the Ghurid empire. Therefore, he strengthened his position at Ghazni and turned his attention towards India. He invaded India several times between 1175 and 1206.

Question 14.
Mention the four architectural features brought in by the Turks in India.
Answer:
The architectural style brought in by the Turks in India had four main characteristic features — dome, minarets, arches and propped roofs. In the sphere of decoration, the Turks used geometrical and floral designs, combining them with panels of inscriptions containing verses from the Holy Quran.

Question 15.
Who was Razia Sultana ? To which dynasty did she belong?
Answer:
Razia Sultana was the daughter of Iltutmish. She belonged to the Slave Dynasty.

Question 16.
What measures were taken by Alauddin Khalji for regulating the prices ?
Answer:
Alauddin was best known in history for his market regulations. He fixed the cost of all commodities from food grains, sugar and cooking oil to a needle, costly imported cloth, horses, cattle, slave boys and girls. He set up three markets at Delhi e.g. for food grains, cloth and horses, slave and cattle, under the control of ‘Shahna’ or the controller. Strict punishment was given for cheating.

Question 17.
Mention any two measures taken by Alauddin Khilji to crush the power of the nobles.
Answer:

  1. The Nobles were not allowed to hold parties or festivities or to form marriage alliances without the permission of the Sultan.
  2. The use of wine and intoxicants was banned.
  3. Gambling was forbidden and gamblers were severely punished.

Question 18.
With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, mention to which dynasties the following belonged:
(a) Razia Sultana
(b) Ibrahim Lodhi
(c) Firoz Shah
(d) Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
Answer:

(a) Slave Dynasty
(b) Lodhi Dynasty
(c) Tughlaq Dynasty
(d) Slave Dynasty

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 19.
Mention the period of the Delhi Sultanate in India.
Answer:
The period between AD 1206 and AD 1526, the rule of five dynasties (Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Sayyid and Lodhi) at Delhi their capital is known as the period of Delhi Sultanate.

Question 20.
Delhi Sultans infused a new culture and tradition in India. In this context name the dynasties that ruled between.
(a) AD 1206 to AD 1290
(b) AD 1320 to AD 1414.
(c) AD 1451 to AD 1526
Answer:

(a) (AD 1206 to AD 1290) The Slave Dynasty
(b) (AD 1320 to AD 1414) Tughlaq Dynasty
(c) (AD 1451 to AD 1526) Lodhi Dynasty

Question 21.
Who laid the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Qutub-ud-din Aibak laid the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate.

Question 22.
Name any two literary sources to reconstruct the period of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:

  1. Tariqh-i-Firozshahi,
  2. Prithvirajraso.

Question 23.
Name any two archaeological sources to reconstruct the age fo the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:

  1. Qutab Minar,
  2.  Illahi Darwaza.

Question 24.
Mention any two ways in which Iltutmish consolidated the Turkish conquests in India?
Answer:
Iltutmish effectively suppressed the rebellions of Amirs and also defeated the governors of Sindh and Bengal who had risen in revolt. He then embarked upon a career of conquests. He made Delhi his Capital and was the first Turkish ruler to introduce a purely Arabic coinage. Finding his sons incompetent to rule, Iltutmish chose his daughter Raziya to be his successor.

Question 25.
Who was Razia Sultana? Who plotted against her?
Answer:
Raziya Sultana was the daughter of Iltutmish. She was put to death by her nobles, who plotted against her and her husband Altunia and got them murdered in 1240.

Question 26.
What measures were taken by Balban to crush the Turkish Nobles?
Answer:
Balban adopted a policy of sternness and severity. He established order in the neighbourhood of Delhi and instilled fear in the minds of the Turkish nobles by inflicting severe punishment on them even for slight offenses. Some of them were even publicly flogged. The north-west frontier posts were strongly garrisoned.

Question 27.
Mention any two schemes of Muhammed Tughiaq that failed and made him extremely unpopular.
Answer:
Two schemes of Muhammed Tughiaq that failed and made him extremely unpopular
were :

  1. Muhammed Tughiaq increased the taxation in the Doab (the territory between the rivers Ganga
  2. His decision to transfer his Capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) with a view to having the Capital situated in the middle of his kingdom. He was bent upon taking all the inhabitants of Delhi to the new Capital.
    Both of his schemes failed as people never accepted both the schemes of him.

Question 28.
What measures were taken by Firoz Tughiaq for the encouragement of agriculture?
Answer:
Firoz Tughiaq constructed irrigation canals. He built gardens, schools, mosques. Consequently, agriculture and trade flourished and there was increase in the general prosperity of the people.

Question 29.
Who was the greatest of the Lodhi Kings?
Answer:
Sikandar Lodhi was the greatest of the Lodhi Kings.

Question 30.
Who invited Babur to invade India?
Answer:
The alienated Governor of Punjab, Daulat Khan Lodhi invited Babur to invade India.

Question 31.
Why was the Muslim state in India characterised as a theocracy?
Answer:
The Muslim state in India was ruled over by the Sultan, who ruled in the name of God and Islam. Thus, by this system, the state imparted with the Islamic state. Hence, the Muslim state in India is characterised as a theocracy.

Question 32.
Mention any two sources of revenue during the Sultanate period.
Answer:

  1. Land tax, usually one-tenth of the produce.
  2. The booty captured in wars.

Question 33.
Who was Ibn Batuta?
Answer:
Ibn Batuta was a resident of North Africa and primarily a traveler, reached Sindh in 1333 and lived at the Court of Muhammed Tughlaq for eight years.

Question 34.
What does Ibn Batuta say about the state of agriculture under the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Ibn Batuta said, “The soil was fertile and Indians produced many crops such as rice, sesame, sugarcane, oilseeds and cotton.”

Question 35.
Mention any two languages that flourished during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
Though Arabic was the religious language of the Muslims, Persian was adopted as the court language. Amir Khusrau was an outstanding poet in the Persian language and a great historian. He was popularly known as Tutii-i-Hind or the ‘Parrot of India’.

Question 36.
Name two prominent works of Amir Khusrau.
Answer:
Khazzain-ul-Futuh and Tughlaqnama.

Question 37.
What led to the evolution of the Urdu Language?
Answer:
The intermingling of Persian and Arabic words with Hindi, led to the evolution of a common language which came to be known as Urdu. It is also known as the “Camp Language”.

Question 38.
Name the two famous Sufi saints of India.
Answer:
Hazrat Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chisti and Nizam-ud-din Auliya.

Question 39.
What was Jiziya?
Answer:
Jiziya was a form of tax that had been imposed on the Hindus by Firoz Tughlaq to win the sympathy of the Muslims telling himself to be the true Muslim King.

Question 40.
What was being produced at the royal Karkhanas (factories) during the reign of Delhi Sultans.
Answer:
Silken cloth was manufactured at the royal Karkhanas. Besides, other stuffs were also woven. Gold and silver articles were also made for the royal household and nobility.

Question 41.
Why was Jauhar practised by the Rajput women?
Answer:
Jauhar (collective suicide) was practiced by the Rajput women in order to escape dishonour at the hands of invaders.

Question 42.
Mention any two new elements of architecture style introduced by the Muslims in India.
Answer:
Two new elements of architecture style introduced by the Muslims in India are :

  1. Open Airy and Spacious Buildings.
  2. Mosques and Tombs.

Question 43.
Mention two important features of mosques.
Answer:
Two important features of mosques are :

  1. The mosques have an open courtyard surrounded by a pillared varandah.
  2. There is a prayer-hall having a recess or alcove called Mehrab in the western wall at the back of the hall.

Question 44.
How did Alaudin Khalji expand his empire?
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji raided Malwa and Gujarat and also defeated the Rajput rulers of Ranthambhor and Chittor. Next, he faced to the four wealthy kingdoms of the Deccan—Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and Pandya Kingdom with its Capital at Madurai. The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander, Malik Kafur.

Question 45.
Who was Timur Lang?
Answer:
Timur Lang (Timur the Lame) was a foreign invader who had risen into power in central Asia and invaded Delhi.

II. Structured Questions.

Question 1.
With reference to the sources of information about the Delhi Sultanate, give the significance of the following :
(a) Inscriptions
(b) Qutub Minar
Answer:
(a) Inscriptions — These are valuable supplements and not the sole sources of information on the Delhi Sultanate. The inscriptions are found on coins, monuments, milestones and tombstones. Some of the inscriptions are in Sanskrit, some in Arabic and some in both the languages. For example, the first coin issued by Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khilji bears both Arabic and Sanskrit inscriptions. Similarly, the famous traveller Ibn Batuta noticed a commemorative inscription in the Jama Masjid in Delhi, which he deciphered.
(b) Qutub Minar — It began to be built in AD 1199. It was started by Qutub-ud-din Aibak and was dedicated to the Sufi saint, Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki, who was greatly venerated by the people of Delhi. The structure was completed in 1230 bylltutmish.Verses from the Holy Quran and some intricate carvings, floral motifs are inscribed on this tower.

2. With reference to the Slave dynasty, answer the following questions :
Question 2(a).
Why were the early rulers of the Slave dynasty called the Mamluk Sultans ?
Answer:
The word Mamluk is an Arabic word that means ‘owned’. Since these Sultans were earlier either the slaves of the Turks or were the sons of the slaves, they were called Mamluk Sultans.

Question 2(b).
Who was Qutubuddin Aibak ? State any two of his qualities.
Answer:
Qutubuddin Aibak is regarded as the founder of the Slave dynasty. Qutubuddin Aibak was a man of letters. Scholars like Hasan Nizami and Fakhre Mudir adorned his court. Because of liberal distribution of money, he earned the title of ‘Lakhbaksh’. Qutubuddin Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar in Delhi, after the name of the famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutub-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.

3. With reference to the Khilji dynasty, answer the following questions :
Question 3(a).
What were the steps taken by Alauddin Khilji to regulate prices ?
Answer:
He fixed the cost of all commodities such as food grains, sugar and cooking oil. For this purpose, he set up three markets at Delhi — one market for food grains, the second for costly cloth, and the third for horses, slaves and cattle. Each market was put under the charge of a controller of market (Shahna). Very strict punishments were prescribed for cheating and under weighing the goods.

Question 3(b).
What were the methods adopted by Alauddin Khilji to crush the power of the nobility ?
Answer:
When Alauddin Khilji came to the throne, he had to face a series of rebellions from the nobles. So he took a number of measures to crush their power.

  1. The Nobles were not allowed to hold parties or festivities or to form marriage alliances without the permission of the Sultan.
  2. The use of wine and intoxicants was banned.
  3. Gambling was forbidden and gamblers were severely punished.
  4. He stopped paying the soldiers in land and introduced cash salaries.
  5. He established an efficient spy system to keep a check on the activities of the nobles.

Question 3(c).
What measures did Alauddin Khilji take to increase the revenue?
Answer:
Alauddin Khilji introduced a number of important measures to get maximum revenue. He brought all the land of the empire into his direct control. He introduced the practice of measuring land and fixing the state share accordingly. He increased the land revenue from one-third to one-half and demanded it to be paid in cash and not kind. He also appointed special officers to collect land revenue.

4. With reference to the reign of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, explain the following :
Question 4(a).
His attempts to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad.
Answer:
During Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s reign the empire had also spread to the south. He shifted his capital to Devagiri near modern Aurangabad and renamed it Daulatabad. He did it for the following reasons :

  1. Daulatabad was centrally located from where he could control the Deccan territories ; and
  2. Delhi was in the grip of severe famine; and
  3. Delhi was constantly threatened by the Mongol invasions. He ordered the people of Delhi including religious heads to shift to Daulatabad in 1328-29.

Question 4(b).
Introduction of token currency.
Answer:
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq introduced the “token currency”. It meant introduction of bronze tanka in place of silver tankas. This was done because of the shortage of silver. But this experiment failed due to the circulation of counterfeit or fake coins on a very large scale.

Question 4(c).
Increased taxation in Doab and its consequences.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to conquer territories not only in India but also in Central Asia. He required a large army and, therefore, large amounts of money to pay for the army. So in order to get more revenue, he increased the land tax in the fertile region of Ganga-Yamuna doab. At the same time, a severe famine broke out in the area and the people refused to pay the extra taxes and rose in rebellion. But the tax collectors showed no mercy and took stern measures to collect the taxes. This made some of the peasants to abandon their lands and flee to jungles.

Question 5.
With reference to the administrative system of the Delhi Sultanate, give the functions of each of the following officials :
(a) Ariz-i-mumalik
(b) Wazir
Answer:
(a) Ariz-i-mumalik — The minister in charge of the army was called ariz-i-mumalik’. The ariz was notthe commander- in-chief of the army, since the Sultan himself commanded all the armed forces. The special responsibility of the afiz’s department was to recruit, equip and pay the army.
(b) Wazir — The key figure in administration was the wazir, who acted as the Prime Minister. The wazir supervised the work of the other officials.

Question 6.
Study the picture of Qutab Minar and answer the following questions :
Total History and Civics Class 9 ICSE Morning Star Solutions Chapter 8
(a) Who began erecting this monument ? Where is it located?
(b) Name the saint after whom the monument is named.
(c) Name the ruler who completed the construction of Qutab Minar.
(d) Mention three important features of the monument.
Answer:

  1. Qutub-ud-Din Aibak began to erect this monument. It is located in Delhi.
  2. This monument is named after the Sufi saint, Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.
  3. The structure was completed only in AD 1230 by Tllutmish.
  4. It has five stores separated by balconies. Its height is 71.4 meters. It is of 13.8 meters in diameter. It is made of red sandstone, marble and grey quartzite.

7. With reference to the invasion of Muhammad Ghori, answer the following questions :
Question 7(a).
Why did Muhammad Ghori invade India ?
Answer:
The reasons which made Muhammad Ghori to invade India. The wealth and military resources of India, which he thought could be utilised to safeguard the Ghurid empire. Therefore, he strengthened his position at Ghazni and turned his attention towards India. He invaded India several times between 1175 and 1206.

Question 7(b).
Briefly describe the conflict between Prithviraj Chauhan in the two battles of Tarain.
Answer:
In 1191, in the First Battle of Tarain, the forces of Muhammad Ghori were completely routed by the forces of Prithviraj. Muhammad Ghori decided to avenge his defeat and made another bid for India in 1192. The Second Battle ofTrarain in 1192 is regarded as one of the turning points of Indian history. The Turkish army of Muhammad Ghori won the battle. A large number of Rajput soldiers lost their lives. Prithviraj escaped, but was captured. Later on Turkish army attacked and captured Ajmer. It seems that Prithviraj was allowed to rule over Ajmer for some times as is evident from the coins of the period giving the date and the legend Prithviraj adeva on one side and the words ‘Sri Muhammad Sam’ on the other.

Question 7(c).
What were the cause of success of the Turks against the Rajputs ?
Answer:
The factors which led to the defeat of the Rajputs against the Turks were the following :

  1. The Turkish army consisted mainly of cavalry and its horses had greater stamina and endurance.
  2. The Turkish army comprised expert military leaders from different lands who employed new tactics of war. The Rajputs, on the other hand, followed outdated tactics.
  3.  The Rajput soldiers were highly efficient in the use of spear and sword and excellent in hand-to-hand fighting. But as archers, they were inferior to the Turks. The Turks were aware of the weak points of their opponents. They avoided a close combat and usually made their attack from a safe distance.
  4.  The Rajputs were divided into a number of clans, each of which laid greater importance to its own family traditions. The Turks had to fight not against a unified army but against a few dynasties.

8. With reference to the social life during the Sultanate period, answer the following questions :
Question 8(a).
Explain the caste divisions which existed in the social structure.
Answer:
There were hardly any changes in the structure of the Hindu society during the period.
According to the Smritis, the Brahmins were at the apex, followed by the Kshatriyas. The duty of the Kshatriyas was to protect the people. The Vaishyas were engaged in trade.
It was the duty of the shudras to serve the other castes, but they were allowed to engage in all occupation. However, severe restrictions were placed on mingling with the out castes. The Muslims were divided into ethnic and racial groups. There were Turkish, Iranian, Arab, Afghan and Abyssinian muslims. During the 13th century, among all the foreigners, the Turkish Muslims were in a dominating position. Besides, the muslims were divided into many groups on the basis of origin, religion and occupation.However, the caste divisions did not close social intercourse between the Muslims and the Hindus.

Question 8(b).
Explain the inequalities which existed between rulers and the ruled during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
During the Sultanate period, the society was marked by inequalities. In towns, the nobles and merchants led a life of great luxury. The great mass of people lived in simple life and had to face many hardships. It was, however, not a life with out joy, as numerous festivals and fairs held from time to time used to relieve them of their monotonous existence.

Question 8(c).
Describe the condition of women during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
There was hardly any change in the position of women among the Hindus. The old rules such as early marriage for girls and the wife’s obligation of service and devotion to the husband continued. A number of travellers refers to the existence of the evil practice of Sati. According to Ibn Batuta, permission from the Sultan had to be taken for the performance of Sati. The practice of purdah was widespread among the upper class women.

PRACTICE QUESTIONS

Question 9.
His a brief account of the reign of Alauddin Khalji under the following headings.
(a) His main conquests
(b) Treatment meted out to the rulers of Southern India.
Answer:
(a) Alauddin Khalji raided Malwa and Gujarat and also defeated the Rajput rulers of Ranthambhor and Chittor. Next, he faced to the four wealthy kingdoms of the deccan—Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and Pandya Kingdom with its Capital at Madurai. The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander, malik Kafur.

(b) The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander Malik Kafur.Malik Kafur captured an immense booty which consisted of hundreds of elephants, thousands of horses and gold and jewels in large quantities. But Southern India was not annexed. Its rulers had to acknowledge the lordship of Delhi Sultan and pay him tribute in return for peace and protection.

Question 10.
Why did Muhammad Tughlaq’s following schemes prove a failure?
(a) An increase in taxation in the Doab.
(b) Transfer of Capital from Delhi to Devagiri.
(c) Introduction of Token Currency.
Answer:
(a) He increased the taxation in the Doab, the territory between rivers Ganga and Yamuna with a view to augment his resources. This scheme was defeated because of consecutive years of drought.

(b) In 1327 he decided to transfer his Capital from Delhi to Devagiri now Daulatabad with a view to having the Capital situated in the middle of his kingdom. He was bent upon taking all the inhabitants of Delhi to the new Capital. No one liked the forced move; it was doomed to failure. As soon as the Sultan was convinced of the failure of his scheme, he ordered the people to return to their homes in Delhi.

(c) In 1329 the Sultan introduced Token Currency by proclaiming that brass and copper coins could have the same use or function as that of gold and silver coins disappeared from the market and forged copper coins manufactured by people at their homes came into circulation. Trade and business came to a stand still.

Question 11.
Give an account of the administration of the Sultanate of Delhi under the following
heads :
(a) Position of the Sultan
(b) His Ministers
(c) Provincial Administration
Answer:
(a) The Sultan of Delhi was an unlimited despot. He was the chief executive of the state; he was also the highest judicial authority. The Sultan was the Commander-in-Chief of the army. His powers were very wide. He was responsible for the safety and security of the state. A direct appeal could be made to him against the highhandedness of any of his officials or judges. There was no constitutional method to remove a king from the throne. He could be removed only by a successful revolt which meant a Civil War.

(b) The Sultan, however, could not manage the task of administration single-handed. The highest officer in the government was the Wazir, the Chief Minister. Other key functionaries and ministers were the Diwan (the Finance Minister), the Qazi (Chief Judge) and the Ariz (the Army Minister). The special responsibility of the Army Minister was to recruit, equip and pay the soldiers.

(c) The provinces were placed in the charge of Governors called Naib Sultans. The most important provinces under Khaljis and the Tughlaqs were those of Jaunpur, Malwa, Khandesh, Gujarat, Bengal and the Dakhin (Deccan). The Governors were required to maintain a powerful army and provide military aid to Sultan in times of War. In each province there was a regular department for the collection of land revenue and other taxes.

Question 12.
Describe the social conditions during the Sultanate period under the following headlines :
(a) Caste structure and position of Women and Slaves
(b) Position of the Hindus
Answer:
(a) There was little change in the position of the so-called untouchables in Hindu society. Even the Muslim society had its own class structure for purposes of marriage and social interaction. However, the Sultans had started recruiting Hindu soldiers for their armies.
The women among the Muslim and the high caste Hindus were reared in seclusion. Purdah system (wearing a veil) grew more pronounced during this age. A large section of population consisted of slaves, who were generally bought for domestic service. Some of the skilled slaves had risen to high offices in the state. Slaves were allowed to marry and raise their own families.

(b) The Hindus formed the vast majority of the population. In spite of their disabilities, there were many well-to-do persons among them. The Chaudharies and prominent businessmen were mostly Hindus. Deliberate humiliation, destruction of temples and occasional persecution of Brahmins made them angry and pessimistic at times. But a few Turkish rulers knew that unless Hindus cooperated with them, Muslim soldiery and nobility could not be sustained.

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