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Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Matter

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Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Matter

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Physics Chapter 1 Matter

Synposis

  •  Matter is the substance which occupies space and has mass.
  •  The three states of matter are
  1.  solid,
  2.  liquid
  3.  gas.
  •  Matter is composed of large number of molecules.
  •  A molecule is the smallest particle which can exist freely in nature by itself and it retains the properties of the substance.
  •  All molecules of a substance are identical, but the molecules of different substanes are different.
  •  A molecule is very small in size (10-10 m).
  •  The molecules are separated from each other with spaces called inter-molecular spacing.
  •  The molecules in a substance are held together by the forces acting between the molecules which are called the inter-molecular forces.
  •  The force of attraction between the molecules of the same sub¬stance is called the force of cohesion, while the force of attraction between the molecules of two different substances is called the force of adhesion.
  •  The forces of cohesion and adhesion are effective only when the separation between the molecules is 10-9 m. When the separation becomes more, they vanish.
  •  The molecules in a substance are not at rest, but they are con¬stantly in motion.
  •  In a solid, the molecules are rigid, the inter-molecular spacing is least, the inter-molecular forces are strongest and the molecules remain in their fixed positions. They vibrate to and fro about their mean positions, but they do not leave their positions, so a solid has a definite shape and a definite volume.
  •  In a liquid, the molecules are not rigid, the inter-molecular spacing is more than that in solids, the inter-molecular forces are weak and the molecules are free to move within the boundary of the liquid, so the liquid has a definite volume, but it does not have a definite shape.
  •  In gases, the molecules are not rigid, the inter-molecular spacing is more than that in solids and liquids, the inter-molecular forces are weakest and the molecules are free to move anywhere in space. So the gas has neither a definite volume nor a definite shape.

Activity – 2

Classify 20 objects around you as solids, liquids and gases

Solids : Ice, Aluminium, Silver, Calcium, Gold, Iron, Sodium, chloride, Sugar, Wood.

Liquids : Water, benzene, chloroform, oil, honey, glycerine, hydrochloric acid, alcohol, dettol.

Gases : Steam, Air, Oxygen, Hydrogen, Chlorine, Nitrogen, Ammonia, Helium, Argon.

Test yourself

A. Objective Questions

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) The molecules of each substance are identical.
Answer. False

(b) The inter-molecular forces are effective at all distances between the two molecules.
Answer. False

(c) The molecules in a substance arc in random motion.
Answer. Tme

(d) In a gas, the molecules can move anywhere in space. .
Answer. Tme

(e) The liquids are less viscous than the gases.
Answer. False

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) All the molecules of a substance are identical.
(b) The inter-molecular spacing is least in solids more in liquids and still more in gases.
(c) The molecular motion in liquid and gas is in zig-zag path.
(d) In a solid, the molecules vibrate to and fro but they remain at their fixed positions.
(e) The inter-molecular forces are the weakest in gases.
(f) A solid exerts pressure downwards on its base.
(g) The gases are least dense.
(h) A solid is most rigid.

3. Select the correct alternative

(a) The diameter of a molecule is approximately

  1.  1 cm
  2.  10 cm
  3.  10-10 m
  4.  1 m

(b) The inter-molecular forces are strongest in

  1.  solids
  2.  liquids
  3.  gases
  4.  both (i) and (ii)

(c) The molecules

  1.  in solid, liquid and gas, move freely anywhere.
  2.  in a solid, move freely within its boundary.
  3.  in a liquid, move within its boundary.
  4.  in a gas, move only within its boundary.

(d) The solids are

  1.  more dense
  2.  less dense
  3.  least dense
  4.  highly compressible

(e) The inter-molecular forces in liquids are

  1.  as strong as in solids
  2.  stronger than in solids
  3.  weaker than in solids
  4.  weaker than in gases

4. Match the following columns
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 1

Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 2

B. Short/Long answer questions

Question 1.
Define matter. What is its composition ?
Answer:
Matter is defined as anything which occupies space and has mass. It can be perceived by our sense of smell, touch, sight, hearing and taste.
Matter is composed of tiny particles known as atoms.

Question 2.
Name the three states of matter.
Answer:
The three states of matter are solids, liquids and gases.
Solids —A solid has a definite shape and definite volume.
Example – wood, stone, iron, ice etc.
Liquid —A liquid has a definite volume but not definite shape.
Example — water, juice, milk, oil, etc.
Gases —A gas neither has definite shape nor a definite volume.
Example – air, hydrogen, oxygen, water vapour etc.

Question 3.
What is a molecule ?
Answer:
The smallest unit of matter which can exist independently is called molecule.
Example: Oxygen molecule (O2) made up of two (O) atoms.

Question 4.
What is the approximate size of a molecule ?
Answer:
Matter is made up of molecules which are very small in size (~10-9 m).

Question 5.
One litre of water has 6.02 × 1026 molecules. Estimate the size of a molecule.
Answer:
The size of a particle (or molecule of matter is very small. 1 litre of water has 6.02 × 1026 molecules, so the volume of a particle of
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 3
Thus the diameter of a water molecule is nearly 1.27 × 10-9 metre.

Question 6.
What do you mean by inter-molecular spacing ?
Answer:
Intermolecular space — The space between any two consecutive molecules of a substance is called intermolecular space

Question 7.
Describe a simple experiment to illustrate the existence of inter-molecular spacing.
Answer:
Take 100 ml of water in a measuring cylinder. Add 20 gram of salt in water gently and stir it well so as to dissolve the salt well in water. It is noticed that the level of water does not change. It shows that the particles of salt occupy spaces between the particles of water.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 4

Question 8.
What do you mean by inter-molecular forces ?
Answer:
Intermolecular force of attraction — The force of attraction between the molecules (like molecules or unlike molecules) is called intermolecular force of attraction.

Question 9.
What are the forces of cohesion and adhesion ?
Answer:
The force of attraction between the molecules of similar kind is called force of cohesion.
Example: The forces between water molecules.
This force of cohesion keep the molecules of the substance bind together.
The force of attraction between different types of molecules is called force of adhesion.
Example: When a glass filled with water is emptied some water I particles remain stuck to the glass due to the adhesion between water molecules and glass.

Question 10.
State three characteristics of molecules of matter.
Answer:
The particles of matter called molecules, have the following characteristics:

  1.  They are very small in size.
  2.  They have spaces between them.
  3.  They are in constant random motion.
  4.  They always attract each other.

Question 11.
State the approximate spacing between two molecules of a matter.
Answer:
The spacing between particles of a matter is called inter-molecular space.

Question 12.
How do the solids, liquids and gases differ in their following properties
(a) Size
(b) Shape
(c) Density
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 5

Question 13.
The molecules in a substance are in motion. What type of path do they follow ?
Answer:
The particles in a substance are not at rest (in motion),and they move randomly in all possible directions in a zig-zag Path

Question 14.
Describe a simple experiment to illustrate that molecules are not at rest, but they constantly move.
Answer:
Take a beaker. Fill it partly with water. Add some lycopodium powder in the beaker containing water. Stir the contents of the beaker with a glass rod. Take out few drops of this suspension on a glass plate. Place it on the table and illuminate it with a table lamp. Observe the glass plate through a microscope. It is found that the fine particles of lycopodium powder move rapidly in a random manner and their path is zig zag as shown in figure below.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 6

Question 15.
Write down five general properties of solids, liquids and gases.
Answer:
Solids:

  1.  The molecules here are very tightly packed having negligible or very less intermolecular space.
  2.  They have the strongest intermolecular force of attraction.
  3.  The molecules have very small vibration about their mean position i.e. small amplitude.
  4.  They have a definite shape and volume.
  5.  They are generally hard and rigid.
  6.  They are good conductors of heat.

Liquids:

  1.  Molecules are less tightly packed.
  2.  The intermolecular force of attraction is less than that of solids.
  3.  The molecules here can move from one place to another
  4.  Do not have any particular shape of their own and thus acquire the shape of the vessel.
  5.  A particular quantity of a liquid has a definite volume at a given temperature.

Gases :

  1.  The force of attraction between the molecules is the least.
  2.  The intermolecular space is the largest.
  3.  Neither have a definite shape nor a definite volume.
  4.  The molecules move independently.
  5.  Worst conductors of heat.

Question 16.
Give the molecular model for a solid and use it to explain why a solid has a definite volume and a definite shape.
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 7
Here the molecules are very tighty packed that there is no or very less intermolecular space and there is high intermolecular force of attraction (force of cohesion).
The molecules do not move about their mean position and thus solids have a definite shape and volume.

Question 17.
Describe the molecular modcl for a liquid. I-low does it explain that a liquid has no definite shape, but has a definite Volume ?
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 8
Here the molecules are less tightly packed as compared to solids and also there is lesser force of intermolecular attraction. The intermolecular distance is greater than that in the solids. Thus, they do not have a definite shape but acquire the shape of the vessel in which they are contained but have a definite volume at a given temperature.

Question 18.
A gas has neither a definite volume nor a definite shape. Describe the molecular model to explain it.
Answer:
Here the molecules are far apart from each other i.e. have the greatest intermolecular distance which result into the weakest intermolecular forces of attraction. The molecules as are not
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 9
bound by any strong force move about freely and thus gases do not have a definite shape and also do not have any definite volume.

Question 19.
Distinguish between the three states of matter—solid, liquid and gas on the basis of their molecular models.
Answer:
Solids:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 10
Here the molecules are very tighty packed that there is no or very less inteimolecular space and there is high intermolecular force of attraction (force of cohesion).
The molecules do not move about their mean position and thus solids have a definite shape and volume.
Liquids:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 11
Here the molecules are less tightly packed as compared to solids and also there is lesser force of intermolecular attraction. The intermolecular distance is greater than that in the solids. Thus, they donot have a definite shape but acquire the shape of the vessel in which they are contained but have a definite volume at a given temperature.
Gases :
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 12
Here the molecules are far apart from each other i.e. have the greatest intermolecular distance which result into the weakest intermolecular forces of attraction. The molecules as are not bound by any strong force move about freely and thus gases do not have a definite shape and also do not have any definite volume.

Question 20.
Distinguish between solids, liquids and gases on the basis of their following properties :
(a) compressibility
(b) fluidity
(c) rigidity
(d) expansion on heating
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 13

Question 21.
What do you mean by the change of state of matter ? Explain:
(a) the change of a solid into a liquid at a constant temperature, and
(b) the change of a liquid into a gas at a constant temperature.
Answer:
The change in state of matter of a substance from solid to liquid or from liquid to gas is brought by imparting heat energy to it at a constant temperature.
(a) The process of change of a substance from solid state into its liquid state on absorption of heat at a particular temperature, called the melting point, is called melting or fusion i. e.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 14
(b) The process of change of a substance from a liquid state to its gaseous state at a particular temperature, called the boiling point,
is called boiling or vaporisation, i.e.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 1 Matter 15

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia — Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Asia — Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A mountain range in South-west Asia that separates Asia from Europe : Caucasus mountains.
  2. I am a plain formed by the rivers Ob, Yenisei, and Lena :Great Siberian Plain or Northern Lowlands.
  3. An area of inland drainage into which the Amu Darya and, Syr Darya drain : Turan Plain.
  4. I am a small zone from which several mountain ranges appear to radiate out: Pamir Knot.
  5. A plateau that lies between the Alborz and Zagros mountain ranges : Plateau of Iran.

B. Match the following

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 2

C. State whether the following are true or false

1. Together with Europe, Asia is often referred to as Eurasia.
Answer. True.

2. Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War I.
Answer. False.
Most of the Asian countries gained independence only after World War II.

3. Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean are the Ganga, the Brahmaputra and the Yamuna.
Answer. False.
Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean are the Ob, the Yenisei and the Lena.

4. The Karakoram Range is a short range, which extends south-eastwards from the Pamir Knot between the Kunlun and the Himalayas.
Answer. True.

5. The Deccan Plateau of India lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats.
Answer. True.

D. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
Name the geographical features that border Asia in the north, south, east, and west.
Answer:
To the West of Asia are Ural mountains and the Caspian Sea. To the South-West are the Caucasus Mountains. To the North of Asia lies Arctic Ocean. To East lies the Pacific Ocean and to the south of Asia is Indian Ocean.

Question 2.
What do you understand by the term ‘archipelago ? Give two examples from the Pacific Ocean.
Answer:
Archipelago means a group of islands. Two examples in the Pacific Ocean are Japan and Philippines.

Question 3.
Name the rivers of the Great Siberian Plain.
Answer:
Rivers Ob, Yenisei and Lena have together built the Great Siberian Plain.

Question 4.
What kind of plateau is the Plateau of Tibet ?
Answer:
The Plateau of Tibet is an inter-mountain plateau, i.e., a plateau located between mountain ranges. It lies between the Kunlun and the Himalayas. The Plateau of Tibet, is also called the ‘Roof of the World’ as it is the highest flat land in the world.

Question 5.
In which country of Asia are the Mesopotamian plains situated ?
Answer:
The Mesopotanian plains are situated in Iraq.

E. Answer the following questions in detail

Question 1.
Describe the location of Asia.
Answer:
Asia lies almost wholly in the northern and eastern hemisphere. It is separated from Europe by the Ural Mountains and the Caspian Sea in the west and the Caucasus Mountain in the South-West. The Arctic Ocean lies to the north of Asia, the Pacific Ocean to the east and the Indian Ocean to the South of Asia.
Latitudinally, Asia extends from 10°S to 80°N, (8690 km). It east-west extent is 9,700 km, from 25°E to about 170°W. There are 48 independent countries in Asia. They vary in size from Russia, China and India which are the largest to Singapore, the Maldives and Bahrain which are the smallest. Some countries consist of group of islands like Japan, Philippines and Indonesia.

Question 2.
Describe the Northern Lowlands of Asia.
Answer:
The Northern Lowlands of Asia extend from the Ural Mountains in the west up to the Bering Strait in the north-east. These lowlands are traingular in shape and widest in the west. Lying between the Arctic Ocean in the north and the Central Mountains in the south,they form the world’s greatest continuous plains. Three rivers which flow northwards into the Arctic Ocean — Ob, Yenisey and Lena, have together built this plain. These marshy and swampy lowlands are also called as the Great Siberian plain. The lower courses and mouths of the rivers freeze in winter. So, water coming from the upper courses in warmer latitudes spreads out over large part of the plains. Another low lying land exists south of the Siberian Plains in Central Asia called as the Turan Plain. This plain is an area of inland drainage and is drained by rivers AmuDarya and SyrDarya.

Question 3.
Explain why the Pami Knot is called so. Write briefly about the mountain ranges that radiate from the Pamir Knot.
Answer:
Pamir Knot is called so because many mountain ranges appear to radiate outwards in different directions from this small zone. To the east of the Pamir Knot extend the Kunlun mountains and to the north extend the Tien Shan mountains. The Himalayas emerge from the Pamir Knot towards south-east direction. The Karakoram Range extends south-eastwards from the Pamir Knot between the Kunlun and the Himalayas. To the west of the Pamir Knot lies the Hindu Kush Range
and to the south-west radiates the Sulaiman Range.

Question 4.
Write briefly about the Arabian Plateau and the Deccan Plateau.
Answer:
The Arabian Plateau in Asia is steeper in the west but gently slopes eastwards towards the Persian Gulf. It is a dry plateau as it is in the region of low rainfall and has no rivers. It grew in importance to the rest of the world after petroleum reserves were discovered here.
The Deccan Plateau of India lies between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats. It is steeper and higher along the Arabian Sea in the west but slopes gently towards the Bay of Bengal in the east. A number of rivers flow across this plateau like Godawari, Indravati, Krishna, Kaveri.

Question 5.
Describe the river valleys of Asia.
Answer:
The snow-fed and perennial rivers from the mountains form the river valleys which are very fertile and densely populated. Some of the river valleys of Asia are :

  1. The Mesopotamian plains in Iraq consist of the land between the two rivers – Tigris and Euphrates.
  2. The Ganga – Brahmaputra plains spread across north India and Bangladesh. It is built by the rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra.
  3. Plains in China are built up by the three big rivers — Huang He, Chang Jiang and Si Kiang.
  4. The Manchurian Plain is formed by river Amur.
  5. Plains of Indo-China are formed by the rivers Mekong and Menam.
  6. Large plain in Myanmar is formed by river Irrawaddy.
  7. Plains of Pakistan and Punjab are built by the river Indus and its five tributaries.

F. Picture study
The mountain peak seen in the picture is the highest peak in the world.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 3

Question 1.
What is the height of this peak ?
Answer:
8850 m

Question 2.
In which mountain range does it lie ?
Answer:
Himalayas

G Map study
On an outline map of Asia, mark and name the following

  1. Rivers — Amur, Ob, Chang Jiang
  2. Gulfs — Persian Gulf, Gulf of Martaban
  3. Straits — Bering Strait, Strait of Malacca
  4. Seas — Arabian Sea, Caspian Sea, Sea of Japan
  5. Oceans — Arctic, Pacific, Indian
  6. Mountain ranges — Himalayas, Urals, Hindukush
  7. Write ROOF OF THE WORLD and GREAT SIBERIAN PLAIN in appropriate places on the map.

Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 7 Asia - Location, Extent, Political and Physical Features 4

Extra Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by Eurasia ?
Answer:
The land mass of Europe and Asia as a whole is called Eurasia. (Europe + Asia—Eurasia)

Question 2.
What are perennial rivers ?
Answer:
Perennial rivers are rivers that flow throughout the year, even in the dry season.

Question 3.
Name the five physical regions of Asia
Answer:
Asia is broadly divided into five physical regions

  1. The Northern Lowlands (The Great Siberian Plain)
  2. The Central Fold Mountains and Inter-mountane Plateaux.
  3. The Southern Plateaux
  4. The Great River Valleys
  5. The Island Chains

Question 4.
Which mountain range has some of the world’s highest peaks ?
Answer:
The Karakoram Range

Question 5.
Name the plateaux (plural of plateau) of the Southern Plateaux of Asia.
Answer:
The Southern Plateaux include the Arabian Plateau, the Deccan Plateau, the shan plateau and the Yunnan Plateau.

Question 6.
Name the rivers that have built the Great River Valleys of Asia.
Answer:
The Great River Valleys of Asia have been built by the rivers Tigeris, Euphrates, Indus, Ganga, Brahmaputra, Chao Phraya or Menam, Chang Jiang or Yangtze, Huang He and Si Kiang. Small Plains have been formed along the rivers Irrawaddy, Salween, MeKong and Amur.

Question 7.
Write a note on the Island Chains of Asia.
Answer:
A series of island chains lies to the east and south-east of mainland Asia forming archipelagoes (group of islands) in an arc shape. The islands from the tip of the Kamchatka Peninsula in the Pacific Ocean are the Kuril Islands, the Japanese Islands (Hokkaido, Honshu, Shikoku and Kyushu), the Rhyukyu Islands, the Philippines, and the Indonesian Islands. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Sri Lanka, the Maldives and the Lakshadweep Islands are in South Asia.

Question 8.
Which is the largest and the smallest country in Asia ?
Answer:
Largest country in Asia — Russia
Smallest country in Asia — The Maldives

Question 9.
Name the following (in Asia)

  1. Most industrialized country –
  2. Highest elevation
  3. Highest Plateau
  4. Lowest point
  5. Deepest sea
  6. Deepest lake
  7. Longest strait
  8. Coldest Place
  9. Warmest place
  10. Number of countries in Asia

Answer:

  1. Japan
  2. Mount Everest (8,850 m)
  3. The Plateau of Tibet (‘THE ROOF OF THE WORLD’)
  4. The Dead Sea (400 m below sea level)
  5. The South China Sea
  6. Lake Baikal
  7. The strait of Malacca
  8. Verkhoyansk, Russia (-70°C)
  9. Dasht-e Lut (Iran)
  10. 48

Question 10.
What are the six regional divisions of Asia ?
Answer:
The six regional divisions of Asia are :

  1. East Asia — It consists of China, North Korea, South Korea, Japan, Taiwan and Mongolia.
  2. North Russia — It includes the Asian part of Russia (Siberia and the Russian far East).
  3. Central Asia — It consists of several landlocked countries like Kazakhstan, Uzbekistan, Kyrgyztan, Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Afghanistan.
  4. South-East Asia — The countries of South-East Asia fall into two different sections. The northern part consists of Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia, Thailand and Myanmar. The Southern part consists of the island countries of Malaysia, Singapore, Brunei, Indonesia, East Timor and the Philippines.
  5. South Asia — It consists of India, Pakistan, Nepal, Sri Lanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh and the island country of Maldives. ‘
  6. West Asia — It comprises of Armenia, UAE (United ArabEmirates), Yemen, Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Lebanon, Oman, Cyprus, Syria, Turkey, Georgia, Iran, Israel, Jordan, Kuwait, Qatar and Saudi Arabia.

Question 11.
Name some important cities of East Asia.
Answer:
East Asia has some of the world’s busiest cities such as Tokyo, Beijing, Shanghai and Hong Kong.

Question 12.
Which are the two main rivers of Central Asia and why are they important ?
Answer:
The two main rivers of the Central Asia are the Amu Darya and the Syr Darya. The rivers are very important to the Central Asian countries as the region remains quite dry for most of the year. 60% of Central Asia is deserts.

Question 13.
Write a short note on South Asia.
Answer:
South Asia refers to the Southern Asian countries of India, Pakistan, Nepal, SriLanka, Bhutan, Bangladesh and the island country of Maldives. This region is home to about one fifth of the world’s population and is the most densely population region in the world. It is bounded in the north by the Himalayan mountains, to the east by the Bay of Bengal, to the West by the Arabian Sea and to the South by the Indian Ocean. South Asia has a wide variety of natural vegetation and wildlife.

Question 14.
Why is West Asia not densely populated ?
Answer:
West Asia is not densely populated because of its inhospitable climate.

Question 15.
Why is the Plateau of Tibet called the ‘Roof of the World’?
Answer:
The Plateau of Tibet is called the ‘Roof of the World’ as it is the highest flat land in the world at an average height of 4,880 m above sea level.

Question 16.
Which is the highest and the second highest peak in the world and where are they situated ?
Answer:
Mt. Everest (8,850 m) in the Himalayas is the highest peak in the world and Mt K2 or Godwin Austin (8,611 m) in the Karakoram Range is the world’s second highest peak.

Question 17.
Name few glaciers found in Himalayas and Karakoram range of mountains.
Answer:
Siachen glacier Baltoro glacier

Question 18.
Name few passes in the Central Fold Mountains and Inter – Montane Plateaux which allow the movements of goods and people across the mountains.
Answer:
Khyber pass, Bolan pass and Solan pass.

Question 19.
Why did the Arabian Plateau become important to the rest of the world ?
Answer:
The Arabian Plateau became important to the rest of the world after petroleum reserves were discovered here in the 20th century.

Question 20.
Why are the fertile river valleys and plains of Asia and such as the Mesopotamian Plains, the Indo-Gangetic Plains and the Great Plains of China called the cradles of civilization ?
Answer:
This is because the earliest civilization developed along these river banks.

Question 21.
What makes Asia a continent of contrasts ?
Answer:
The outstanding feature of the geography of Asia is the great variety and diversity in physical, cultural and economic characteristics. This makes it a continent of contrasts.

22. Fill in the blanks

  1. Asia lies wholly in the northern and eastern hemispheres.
  2. Together with Europe, Asia is called as Eurasia.
  3. Pacific Ocean lies to the east and Indian Ocean to the south of Asia.
  4. There is a time difference about 11 hours between the Anatolian Plateau (Asia Minor) in the west and the Pacific Coast in the east of Asia.
  5. There are 48 independent countries in Asia.
  6. Asia is the largest continent in the world.
  7. Asia occupies one-third of the total land area and three-fifths of the total population of the world.
  8. USSR broke up into several independent republics in 1991, some of which are in Europe and some in Asia now.
  9. North Asia is divided by a long mountain range known as the Ural Mountains.
  10. Siberia lies in the East of Ural Mountains.
  11. The two main rivers of Central Asia are the Amu Darya and the SyrDarya.
  12. South Asia is the most densely populated region in the world.
  13. The Northern Lowlands (the Great Siberian Plain) are the world’s greatest continuous plains.
  14. The Himalayas emerge from the Pamir Knot in south-east direction.
  15. Mt Everest, the world’s highest peak lies on the border between Nepal and the Tibet Autonomous Region of China.
  16. The Arabian Plateau is a dry plateau as it is in the region of low rainfall and no rivers.
  17. Punjab is also called as the land of five rivers.
  18. The Chang Jiang (Yangtze) is Asia’s longest river.
  19. The Lakshadweep Islands and the Andaman and Nicobar Islands are in South Asia.
  20. The Maldives is the smallest country in Asia.
  21. The zone from where the mountain ranges appear to radiate outwards in different directions in the Central Fold mountains in Asia is called Pamir Knot.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics Chapter 3 The River Valley Civilisations: Indus Valley Civilisation. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 History & Civics Geography Biology Chemistry Physics Maths

Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Indus Valley Civilisation was the Earliest civilisation of India.
  2. Harappa is situated in Sahiwal district in Pakistan.
  3. The Indus Valley Civilisation stood on the bank of river Indus
  4. The largest building discovered at Mohenjodaro is Great Granary.
  5. Bronze metal was used by the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
  6. Indus people used Burnt bricks for constructing buildings.
  7. The Harappan culture came to an end by 1500 BC.

II. Match Column A with Column B
Column A                                                           Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 2

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 3

III. Answer the following questions?
Question 1.
Who discovered the Indus Valley Civilisation and when?
Answer:
Mr. Daya Ram Sahni discovered the ruins of Harappa in 1921. Next year, in 1922 Dr. Rakhal Das Bannerjee discovered the ruins of Mohenjodaro.

Question 2.
What does civilisation mean? Give four characteristics of a civilisation.
Answer:
The stage of development when man looks for more than just fulfillment of his basic needs, is called civilisation.
Characteristics of a civilisation:

  1. Surplus food production
  2. Flourishing of many arts and crafts
  3. Law and order exists
  4. Presence of a government.

Question 3.
Why did the earliest civilisations grow up near rivers?
Answer:
The earliest civilisations grew up on the banks of rivers because of the following reasons.

  1. The rivers provided abundant supply of water for various purposes all through the year.
  2. The lands near the rivers were very fertile, hence good for growing crops.
  3. Rivers provided means of transport and communication.

Question 4.
Name the different sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
Various sites of the Indus Valley Civilisation were —The river valleys had warm and pleasant climate which favoured permanent settlement of population. Harappa, Mohenjodaro, Lothal, Kalibangan, Ropar, Alamgirpur, Banwali, Sutkagendor and others.

Question 5.
Describe the town planning and the drainage system of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
The cities were divided into two parts. The upper part called ‘citadel’ was built on a raised ground. It was inhabited by the upper class and had public buildings such as granaries. The lower part was inhabited by the common people. Each house had a courtyard, several rooms around it, a toilet and a well. All the buildings were built of burnt bricks. Large blocks of houses were built along both the sides of streets.The roads were wide and straight and cut each other at right angles. Smaller streets led to bigger streets. The streets had lamp­ posts. The drainage system was of the highest order ; even many of our present towns do not have such excellent drainage system. House drains were connected to the street drains which joined the main drains which emptied outside the city limits. The drains were covered with stone slabs and had manholes at regular intervals. They were cleaned regularly.The Indus people were veiy conscious of hygiene and sanitation.

Question 6.
Describe the Great Bath. Where has it been found? What was it used for?
Answer:

  1. The Great Bath was a sort of modem swimming pool, discovered at Mohenjodaro. It is an example of excellent engineering’work. It was built of burnt brick. It measures 11 .-88 x 7.01 metres
  2. The lands near the rivers were very fertile, hence good for growing crops.
  3. Rivers provided means of transport and communication.
  4. The river valleys had warm and pleasant climate which favoured permanent settlement of population.

Question 7.
Describe the Great Granary. Where has it been found?
Answer:
The Great Granary was found at Mohenjodaro and it was the largest building discovered there. It was used for storing grains in huge quantities for lean periods. Brick platforms have been found near the granaries which were used for threshing grain. Many two-room shelters have also been found nearby which were perhaps used by labourers. Granaries were built close to river banks to facilitate easier transportation of grains during emergencies.

Question 8.
Describe the religion of Indus Valley Civilisation
Answer:
The Harappans worshiped the pipal tree and humped bull which have been found on hundreds of seals. They also worshiped Mother Goddess which were beautifully depicted as terracotta figurines. The Harappans also worshiped ‘Shiva’ or ‘Pashupati’. A three-faced figure with horns has been found sitting in the posture of a yogi. He is surrounded by a tiger, a rhinoceros, a buffalo, and an elephant. But no temple or any other religious building has been found so far. The Harappans believed in life after death and buried the dead with his belongings.

Question 9.
Name the three social classes of the Indus Valley Civilisation.
Answer:
The three social classes were:

  1. Rich merchants and priests e. the ruling class.
  2. Small merchants, artisans and craftsmen.
  3. Peasants and labourers.

Question 10.
What were the probable causes which could have brought about an abrupt end to the Indus Valley  Civilisation?
Answer:
There are many reasons attributed to the fall of the Indus Valley Civilisation.

  1. The Harappan cities were destroyed by invaders who were probably the Aryans.
  2. Natural calamities such as floods, earthquakes and epidemics might have destroyed the civilisation.
  3. River Indus might have changed its course and turned the region into a desert.

IV. Give reasons why we say that the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation —

  1. Had a good sense of cleanliness
  2. Carried on trade with Mesopotamia
  3. Produced surplus grains
  4. Had an idea of metallurgy

Answer:

  1. The arrangement of drains, wide roads and houses with toilets and drains attest to their sense of cleanliness.
  2. Mesopotamian seals have been found in Harappan cities and Harappan seals have been discovered in cities of ancient Mesopotamia.
  3. Big granaries and existence of towns prove the fact that they produced surplus food grains.
  4. A bronze figure of a dancing girl has been found. Several other images, weapons, utensils and tools of copper and bronze have also been found. Jewellery made of gold and silver has been found at various sites.

Textbook Keywords

  1. Dwelling houses are buildings, that people live in and but do not use as offices, trading places, etc.
  2. Public building These buildings are used by all the people and are not privately owned.
  3. Granaries were the store houses where the people of Indus valley civilization stored their extra grain. The Great Granary was discovered at Harappa.
  4. Great Bath was a big tank at Mohanjodaro that was probably used by the general public during religious ceremonies. Drainage system It is a process by which water or liquid waste is drained out from an area.
  5. Terracotta It is a reddish-brown clay that has been baked. Seals are the clay tablets used by Harappan merchants to stamp their goods.
  6. Mother Goddess was the female deity worshiped by the people of the Indus Valley civilization. Many smoke- stained clay figures of the Mother Goddess have been found

Additional Questions

A. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The main river of the Harappan civilization was Ravi.
  2. The Great Bath is located in Mohenjodaro.
  3. The main occupation of the Harappan were farming.
  4. The rich wore ornaments made of gold, silver and ivoiy.
  5. The Harappan seals are made of clay, soapstone and copper.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 4
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 5

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. The Harappan civilization belongs to the Mesolithic/ Neolithic/Bronze
Ans. The Harappan civilization belongs to the Bronze Age.

2.Lothal/Ropar/Harappa was the first city to be discovered in the Indus Valley region.
Ans. Harappa was the first city to be discovered in the Indus Valley region.

3. The Assembly Hall is in Mohanjodaro/Lothal/Harappa.
Ans. The Assembly Hall is in Mohanjodaro.

4. Wheat/Fish/Barley was the staple food of the Harappans.
Ans. Wheat was the staple food of the Harappans.

5. The neem/banyan/pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred by the Harappans.
Ans. The pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred by the Harappans.

D. State whether the following are true or false.

1. The Harappan cities had an elaborate drainage system.
False.
Correct: The Harappan cities had well planned system.
2. Domestication of animals was the main occupation of the Harappans.
 False.
Correct: Farming was the main occupation of the Flarappans.
3.The Harappans decorated their pottery with various designs.
True.
4.The Harappans built strong boats.
True.
5. The Indus Valley civilization was governed by kings and queens.
False.
Correct: The Indus Valley civilization was not governed   by kings and queens

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What discoveries proved that India had a 4,500-year old urban civilization?
Answer:
The excavations carried out at various sites prove that around 4,500 years ago highly civilized people lived in this region and gave to the world its earliest cities, its first town planning, its first architecture in stone and clay and its first example of sanitary engineering and drainage system.

Question 2.
Why is the Indus Valley Civilization also called the Harappan civilization?
Answer:
The Indus Valley civilization is also called the Flarappan civilizations because the things found in all the sites were very much like the articles found at Harappa.

Question 3.
Why did the Indus Valley people build granaries close to the river bank?
Answer:
All the granaries were built close to the river bank so that the grains could be easily transported with the help of boats.

Question 4.
Give one example to prove that the Indus Valley bronzesmiths were skilled craftspeople.
Answer:
The bronzesmiths made tools, weapons and metal sculptures such as the famous figure of the ‘dancing girl’. They were also engaged in other crafts like brick laying, boat making, stone cutting, masonry and carpentry.

Question 5.
How do we know that the Harappans had trade relations with the Mesopotamians?
Answer:
Trade relations with Mesopotamia have been proved with the discovery of Mesopotamian seals in the cities of the Indus Valley Civilization and Harappan seals in the ancient cities of Mesopotamia.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
How were the Harappan cities planned? Explain briefly the main features of their dwelling houses.
Answer:
The Harappan cities were well-planned. The main streets ran parallel to each other, cut at right angles by smaller, streets, dividing the cities into rectangular blocks. The main roads were straight and very wide. The streets were often paved with baked bricks.Dwelling houses were building that people live in. They were in different sizes. They were made of baked bricks of very good quality. But they not used as office, trading place etc.

Question 2.
With reference to the engineering skills of the Indus Valley people, explain briefly the features of
(1)The Great Bath and
(2) the drainage system
Answer:

  1. The Great Bath: It was important building at Mohenjodero. This building resembled a large swimming pool, It had six entrances,central bathing pool, galleries and dressing rooms. It was probably used by the general public during religious ceremonies.
  2. The drainage system: The people of the Indus valley had an excellent, well-planned drainage system. The Kitchens and the bathrooms had drains connected to the street drains. The street drains ran along the side of the streets and were usually covered. They had manholes at regular intervals. The drainage system proves that the Indus Valley people paid great attention to sanitation and cleanliness.

Question 3.
Give a brief account of

  1. Great Granary
  2. Assembly Hall

Answer:

  1. Great Granary: The Great Granary at Harappa was a large building. Historians believe that it was used to store surplus food grains. There were two rows of granaries. Each row had six granaries.
  2. Assembly Hall: The Assembly Hall was another striking building found in Mohenjodaro. It was a pillared hall with thick walls and 20 pillars made of burnt or baked bricks. This may have been and assembly hall, a prayer hall or a palace.

Question 4.
Describe

  1. The dress and
  2. Ornaments of the Indus Valley people.

Answer:

  1. Dress: People wore cotton and woolen garments. Two- piece dresses were worn by both men and women. The men wore a garment similar to the dhoti while the women wore skirts. The upper garments was a shawl worn around the shoulder.
  2. Ornaments: Both men and women wore ornaments. They wore necklaces, amulets and finger rings. The women also wore a headdress, earrings, bangles, girdles, bracelets and anklets. The rich wore ornaments made of gold, silver and ivory. The poor wore shell, bone and copper jewellery.

Question 5.
Describe the occupation and crafts of the Harappan people.
Answer:
The main occupation of the people of the Indus Valley was farming. Farmers gr«w wheat, barley, fruits and vegetables. They also cultivated cotton. The land was fertile. The second occupation of the people of the Indus Valley was domestication of animals like goat, sheep, buffaloes, elephants, bulls, dogs and cats.The Indus Valley people were excellent potters and skilled crafts people. They made pottery of various shapes and sizes. They also made terracotta. The goldsmiths made gold and silver jewellery, copper smiths made utensils and the bronze smith made tools, weapons and metal sculptures. The people were also engaged in other crafts like brick laying, boat making, stone cutting, masonry and carpentry. Spinning and weaving were important occupations.

Question 6.
Write short notes on the following:

  1. Trade
  2. Seals of the Indus Valley

Answer:

  1. Trade: The Indus Valley people carried on flourishing trade both within and outside India. They traded with countries like Mesopotamia, (Iraq), Persia (Iran) and Afghanistan. Trade was carried on both by land and sea routes. Bullock carts, boats and ships were probably used for transport. A dockyard has been discovered at Lothal.
  2. Seals of the Indus Valley: More than 2,000 seals have been unearthed from various sites. They are generally small, flat, rectangular or square in shape and made of clay, soapstone and copper. They are skillfully carved with figures of humans and animals such as the unicorn, humped bull, goat, tiger, elephant, etc. These seals were probably used by merchants and traders to stamp goods.

Question 7.
The study of objects and artifacts found in the ruins of the Indus Valley cities help us us to form an idea of Harrapan religion. Explain.
Answer:
Some of the objects found in the ruins help us to form an idea of the religion of the Harappans. No temples have been found. Numerous smoke-stained clay figures of a female deity have been found. This was probably the Mother Goddess. A three­ faced figure, seated in a yogic posture and surrounded by various animals is engraved on some seals. The pipal tree was probably regarded as sacred and worshiped. The discovery of a large number of amulets suggests that people probably wore them as lucky charms to ward off evil spirits.

Question 8.
How did the Harappan civilization end?
Answer:
These are some causes of the decay of the Harappan civilization.

  1. The Harappan might have been destroyed by natural calamities like earthquakes, floods.
  2. The climate also began to change and the region became more and more dry like a desert.
  3.  Perhaps the Aryans attacked their cities and destroyed them.
  4. An epidemic or some terrible disease might have killed the people.

G Picture study.

This picture on the right-hand side shows a well-planned ancient city located on the banks of a river.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The River Valley Civilisations Indus Valley Civilisation 6

1. Identify the civilization from the ruins in the picture.
Ans. This picture is about Harappa Civilization.

2. When and by whom were these ruins discovered?
Ans. These ruins were discovered by Dayaram Sahni in 1921.

3.These ruins are an important source of information about the
(a) town planning and
(b) drainage system of this period. Explain.
Ans.
(a) Town planning— The Indus Valley cities were very well- planned. The streets were quite broad varying from a feet to 30 feet in breadth. The streets and roads were straight and they cut one another at right angles. The streets had rounded comers to enable the heavy carts to take a turn easily. Every street had a lighting system. Such a system of town-planning was not to be found at that time anywhere in the world.

(b) Drainage system— The people of the Indus valley had an excellent, well-planned drainage system. The kitchens and the bathrooms had drains connected to the street drains. The street drains ran along the side of the streets and were usually covered. They had manholes at regular intervals. The drainage system proves that the Indus Valley people paid great attention to sanitation and cleanliness.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Europe: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Forest, Minerals & Power Resources

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Europe: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Forest, Minerals & Power Resources

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

THINK AND ANSWER

Why is London at 51°N not so cold in winter as New York at 41°N ?
Answer:
Ans. In the winter, London is wanned by prevailing winds from the south west, warmed by warm water from the Caribbean by the gulf stream, whilst new york has a more continental winter.

Discuss

Discuss the importance of ocean currents and winds for the climate of Europe.
Answer:
Ocean currents : The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds : The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Several factors affect the climate of a place. Similarly, several factors affect the personality and nature of human beings.
Can you name a few factors that affect the nature and personality of people ?
Do you think people can remain unaffected by their surroundings ?
Answer:
(a) The factors that affect the nature and personality of people are:

  1. Environment
  2. Heredity
  3. Culture
  4. Particular experiences

(b) No, people remain affected by their surroundings.
People change their personality and nature according to their surroundings.

EXERCISES

A. Write true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. Eastern Europe receives rainfall throughout the year.
Answer. False.
Western Europe receives rainfall throughout the year.

2. Softwood trees such as pine, fir, and spruce are found in the taiga belt.
Answer. True.

3. Mixed forests consist of grass, moss, softwood trees, hardwood trees, and thorny vegetation.
Answer. False.

4. Only mosses, lichens, and small colourful flowers grow in the steppes of Eurasia.
Answer. False.
Only mosses, lichens, and small colourful flowers grow Tundra Vegetation.

5. Wild cats and large fur-bearing animals are not found anywhere in Europe.
Answer. False.
Wild cats and large fur-bearing animals are found in Tundra region.

B. A list of names of wildlife and vegetation species has been provided. Write them in the appropriate columns
given below.
pine, oak, lynx, lichen, myrtle, olive, squirrel, seal, moss, spruce, beech, laurel, penguin, short grass
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 2

C. Choose the correct answer.

1. An ocean current that keeps the coasts of northern Europe frost-free in winter:

  1. Labrador Current
  2. Canary Current
  3. North Atlantic Drift
  4. North Pacific Drift

2. A major part of Europe has moderate climate because it is located in :

  1. the torrid zone
  2. the temperate zone
  3. the frigid zone
  4. none of these

3. Onshore winds that bring rainfall in winter to the countries around the Mediterranean Sea :

  1. the North-Westerlies
  2. the South-Westerlies
  3. the North Polar Easterlies
  4. the North-East Trade Winds

4. A region of extensive evergreen trees, with needle-like leaves and home to small fur-bearing animals :

  1. tundra
  2. Steppes
  3. Taiga
  4. Desert

5. A region well-known for olives, oleander, and orange trees:

  1. western Europe
  2. northern Europe
  3. eastern Europe
  4. southern Europe

D. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
How does the climate of Europe change from :

(a) east to west
(b) north to south

Answer:

(a) east to west — Winters and summers are more severe in the east than in the west. The annual rainfall is highest in the west and decreases steadily eastwards.
(b) north to south — North European countries experience longer, colder winters and shorter, cooler summers than south European countries.

Question 2.
List the factors that affect the climate of Europe.
Answer:
Factors Affecting the Climate of Europe :
Latitude — Most of Europe lies within the temperate latitudes, which are neither too hot nor too cold. Only a small part of the continent lies north of the Arctic Circle in the frigid zone.
Nearness to Water Bodies — Except for eastern Europe, all other parts of Europe are close to the sea. There are oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, straits, and even lakes which have a moderating effect on the climate.
Relief Features — The east-west arrangement of most highlands, especially the Alps, allows the rain-bearing winds to enter places in the interior and cause rainfall there.
Ocean Currents — The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds — The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

Question 3.
How is the vegetation of the Mediaterranean region able to withstand the summer drought conditions ?
Answer:
Mediterranean Vegetaion: The vegetation which consists mainly of trees with thick spongy barks and leaves, and long roots as well as shrubs and bushes with small, waxy leaves and thorns. The long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark help the trees survive in dry summers.

Question 4.
What changes have human beings brought about in the temperate grasslands of Europe ?
Answer:
As large parts of the forest of this region was cutted down and now used for the cultivation of wheat and other cereals. As land development drives animal away from populated areas and changes the condition of environment.

Question 5.
Name a few minerals found in large quantities in Europe.
Answer:
Europe has fairly large deposits of iron ore, coal, petroleum, natural gas, bauxite, zinc, copper, lead, nickel, and manganese.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
Explain how relief features, winds, and ocean currents affect the climate of Europe.
Answer:
The following factors affect the climate of europe:
Latitude — Most of Europe lies within the temperate latitudes, which are neither too hot nor too cold. Only a small part of the continent lies north of the Arctic Circle in the frigid zone.
Nearness to Water Bodies — Except for eastern Europe, all other parts of Europe are close to the sea. There are oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, straits, and even lakes which have a moderating effect on the climate.
Relief Features — The east-west arrangement of most highlands, especially the Alps, allows the rain-bearing winds to enter places in the interior and cause rainfall there.
Ocean Currents —The warm North Atlantic Drift helps to keep parts of western Europe warm. The ports here are open for trade even in winter.
Winds — The South-Westerlies that blow across the North Atlantic Ocean towards Europe are warmed as they pass over the North Atlantic Drift. These warm winds from sea to land pick up moisture and cause rainfall, which decreases eastwards. They also help to raise the winter temperatures of coastal and central European countries.

Question 2.
What is the difference between maritime and continental climates ?
Answer:
Continental climate :
As the name suggests, this climate is experienced in the eastern parts of Finland, Poland, Russia, the Baltic states, the Czech Republic, and Slovakia. Great variations in summer and winter temperatures and low amount of summer rainfall are features of this type of climate. Thus, it is also called the continental climate.
Mediterranean Climate :
As the name indicate, this climate is mainly experienced in the regions bordering the Atlantic Ocean. Since these regions are near the sea, they have warm summers and cool winters, with rainfall through – out the year.

Question 3.
With the help of two examples from Europe, show how the vegetation of Europe is closely related to climate.
Answer:
Though a small continent, Europe has a great variation of climate. The main types of climates are Arctic and Sub-Arctic, west European or maritime, central European, east European, desert, and Mediterranean climates.
The main vegetation types of Europe include tundra vegetation, taiga or coniferous vegetation, mixed vegetation, temperate grasslands or the steppes, and Mediterranean vegetation.

Question 4.
What do the terms ‘tundra’, ‘taiga’, and ‘steppes’ refer to ? Explain each of the terms and state where each is found.
Answer:
Tundra : A vast, flat, treeless Arctic region of Europe, Asia and North America in which the sub soil is permanently frozen.
Taiga : Taiga is the largest terrestrail biome on earth: It extends in a broad band across Europe, North America and Asia to the Southern border of the arctic tundra.
Steppes : A large area of flat unforested grassland in South¬East Europe or Siberia.

Question 5.
How has the wildlife of the tundra adapted to the climate?
Answer:
The wildlife of tundra specially reindeer has wonderfully adopted to the extreme cold. Its thick hair protects it from the cold. Its long, flat hoofs are suited for walking over snow and for digging in the snow to look for buried vegetation.

Question 6.
Why has the area under forest in Europe dropped from 80 per cent to 30 per cent in recent years ?
Answer:
The area under forest in Europe dropped from 80 per cent to 30 per cent in recent years because of cutting down of trees to make and available for cultivation and industries as the continent has high population density. Today there are only three main forested areas—the Scandinavian mountain region, the Alpine mountain region, and the taiga region of Russia. A few mixed forests and Mediterranean forests are also found in southern Europe.

F. Map work.
On the blank outline map of europe do as directed.

  1. Use different colours to show the various climatic regions of Europe.
  2. Mark the areas that have (i) Steppes and (ii) Mediterranean forests.

Answer:

  1. See map on page 104 (Europe: Climate) of your textbook.
  2. See page 106 (Europe : Vegetation) of your textbook.

G Picture study.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 13 Europe Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Forest, Minerals & Power Resources 3

Question 1.
In which vegetation belt is this bird mostly found?
Answer:
Temperate Grasslands

Question 2.
Name two other animals from this vegetation belt.
Answer:
Roe dear and the saiga antelope.

Let’s Do Something

Collect pictures and information on the natural vegetation and wildlife of Europe from encyclopaedias and the Internet, and make a scrapbook.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Struggle for Freedom (I)

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – Struggle for Freedom (I)

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The British shattered the self sufficient village economy.
  2. The controversial Ilbert Bill incident took place in 1883.
  3. The Arms Act forbade the Indians from possessing arms.
  4. The President of the first session of the Congress was W.C. Bannerji.
  5. Bal Gangadhar Tilak raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birthright”.
  6. The three prominent leaders of the Radical Nationalists group were Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak, and Bipin Chandra Pal.
  7. Mahatma Gandhi was bom on 2nd October 1869 at Porbandar.
  8. Gandhiji’s method of agitation were Satyagraha, boycott and strikes.
  9. The incident at Chauri Chaura took place on 5th February 1922.

II. Match the contents of Column A with those of Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 2

III. State whether the following statements are true or false:

  1. The Congress was started in 1885.
    True.
  2. Unification of India as one political unit was achieved by the Indians themselves.
    False.
  3. The British treated the Indians at par with themselves.
    False
  4. A prominent leader of the Early Nationalist groups was S.N. Bannerjee.
    True.
  5. The religious and social reform ^movement divided the Indians.
    False.
  6. The Home Rule League was formed under the leadership of Tilak.
    True.
  7. Chauri Chaura is a place in Madhya Pradesh.
    False.
  8. Rowlatt Act was passed in 1923.
    False.

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
How did unification of India help to bring about a feeling of nationalism among the Indians?
Answer:
Political and administrative unification of India helped in the rise of nationalism. Under the British rule India was united as one political unit. The uniformity in laws and administration gave rise to a feeling of oneness among the people.

Question 2.
How did modern education bring about unity among Indians?
Answer:
Indians who received modem education could now read western thought and literature. They were exposed to the revolutionary changes taking place in the west – the American and French Revolutions. They became aware of the ideas of democracy, equality and nationalism. The reform movement also played an important role. All this brought the people together and created unity among them.

Question 3.
Name two early all-India associations.
Answer:

  1. British Indian Association, 1851.
  2. The Bombay Association, 1852.

Question 4.
Why was the need for establishing an all-India organisation, representing Indian opinion, an urgent necessity?
Answer:
The need for an all India Organisation representing Indian opinion had been felt for a long time, but the immediate reasons which saw its birth, were the repressive policies of the British in the 1870s and the 1880s. In 1883 the controversial Ilbert Bill incident took place. According to it a British or a European in India could be tried by an Indian Judge. The Bill was withdrawn because of the opposition by the British.These events made the need for establishing an all-India organisation, representing Indian opinion an urgent necessity.

Question 5.
Differentiate between the methods of Early Nationalists and Radical Nationalists.
Answer:
The Early Nationalists had faith in the British system of administration and believed that India could develop by staying within the British Empire. They did not demand complete independence but dominion status i.e., autonomy or Swaraj within the British empire. 1905 onwards new trends began to appear in the nationalist movement. Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat .Rai and Bipin Chandra Pal were the leaders who brought about this change. They said the aim of Indians should be ‘Swaraj’. They criticised the policies of the Early Nationalists and said people have to rely on their strength rather than “Prayer and Petition”. Tilak raised the famous slogan “Swaraj is my birthright and I must have it”.
The methods they suggested to achieve it were:

  1. Involvement and participation of the masses
  2. Reviving popular Festivals to spread Political awakening among people.
  3. New methods of agitation such as hartals and boycott of foreign goods and services.

Question 6.
Which factors contributed to the building up of the feeling of nationalism in India?
Answer:
There are several factors responsible to the building up of the feeling of nationalism in India.
They are :

  1. Discontentment against British Rule.
  2. Political and Administrative Unification.
  3. Economic changes.
  4. Spread of modem education.
  5. Role of newspapers and the press.

Question 7.
List down the aims of the Muslim League.
Answer:
Aims of Muslim League:

  1. To promote loyalty to the government
  2. To protect and advance the interest of the muslims
  3. To ensure that Muslims do not develop the feelings of hostility towards other communities in India.

Question 8.
Describe the provisions of the Government of India Act (1919).
Answer:
The Provincial Legislative Councils were enlarged and a majority of their members were to be elected. A new system called Dyarchy was introduced in the provinces. Under this system some subjects, such as finance, law and order were called reserved subjects and remained under the direct control of the Governor. Other subjects such as education, public -health, local self government were called ‘transferred’ subjects and were to be controlled by ministers responsible to the provincial legislature,

Question 9.
Describe the constructive programme introduced by Gandiji.
Answer:
The social reforms and the constructive programmes introduced by Gandhiji changed the character of the national movement to a mass movement. He worked towards removing untouchability. He also worked for the upliftment of the people living in the villages. He said that the majority of India’s population lived in the villages and hence our country could progress only if there was development in the villages. He encouraged setting up small scale industries in villages. He also popularised Khadi. The Charkha became an important symbol. Gandiji believed that Independence was meaningless without social and economic equality.

V. Picture Study:

(A) This picture shows three Radical Nationalist leaders.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 3

  1. Identify and name them.
    Ans. They are Lala Lajpat Rai, Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Bipin Chandra Pal.
  2. Write about the methods which they suggested.
    Ans. They suggested idea of boycott and Swadeshi. They insisted on involvement of the masses.
  3. What was the famous slogan raised by Bal Gangadhar Tilak?
    Ans. “Swaraj is my birthright and I must have it.”

(B) Look at the given picture.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 4

  1. Identify and name him
    Ans. Lord Curzon
  2. When did the partition of Bengal take place
    Ans. 1905
  3. What was the real reason behind the partition.
    Ans. To weaken the freedom movement and to create Hindu-Muslim enmity and disunity.
  4. What excuse did the British give?
    Ans. Bengal was too large a province to be governed efficiently.

Additional Questions

Rise of Indian Nationalism
EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Modem Indian nationalism arose to meet the challenge of Foreign domination.
  2. Exploitation of India by the British was direct and harsh before 1857; after 1857 it became subtle and systematic.
  3. The Kukas Rebellion was an armed rebellion of the Sikhs against the British policy of divide and rule.
  4. The English language acted as a link language among the educated Indians.
  5. A.O. Hume laid the foundation of the Indian National Congress in December 1885.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

1. ‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Swami Vivekananda/Raja Ram Mohan Roy/Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.
Ans. ‘Vande Mataram’ was written by Bankim Chander Chattopadhyaya.

2. Lord Ripon/Lord Lytton/Lord Dalhousie approved the Hbert Bill.
Ans. Lord Ripon approved the Ilbert Bill.

3.The Indian National Congress was established in 1883/1885/ 1890.
Ans. The Indian National Congress was established in 1885.

4.The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 62/72/82
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was attended by 72 delegates.

5. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by C. Bannerjee/Surendranath Banerjea/A.O. Hume.
Ans. The first session of the Indian National Congress was presided over by W.C. Bannerjee|

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Revolt of 1857 had failed to rid India of foreign rule.
    True.
  2. Western education and modern ideas could not bring the Indians togethe
    False.
    Correct : Western education and modem ideas bring the Indians together.
  3. Racial arrogance and racial discrimination by the British caused great resentment among Indian intellectuals.
    True.
  4. The Ilbert Bill had to be amended as the European reacted violently to it.
    True.
  5. O. Hume was not supported by nationalist Indian leaders.
    False.
    Correct: A. O. Hume was supported by nationalist Indian leaders.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Define nationalism.
Answer:
Nationalism may be defined as a devotion and loyalty to one’s own nation, patriotism. It is also the policy or doctrine of asserting the interest of one’s own nation vie .ved as separate from the interests of others nations or common interest of all nation.

Question 2.
Name any two Western scholars who researched the Indian past and rediscovered its rich heritage.
Answer:
European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Prinsep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage.

Question 3.
How did the British economic policies in India transform India into an agricultural colony.
Answer:
British economic policies in India had deliberately transformed India into an agricultural colony. India had become a supplier of British raw materials and a market for British manufactured products.

Question 4.
Why was the Ilbert Bill introduced and by whom?
Answer:
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which proposed that Indian judges be allowed to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes.

Question 5.
When and where was the first session of the Indian National Congress held?
Answer:
The first session of the Congress was held in Bombay (now Mumbai) in December 1885.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
There were many factors that led to the rise of nationalism in India. In the light of this statement, answer the following questions:
(a) In what way did the Revolt of 1857 impact the rise of nationalism in India?
(b) What changes did Western education bring about in the traditional Indian outlook?
(c)The English language acted as a link language among the Indians. Explain.
Answer:
(a)
Exploitation after Revolt of 1857, was subtle and systematic.
The impact of exploitation was felt by almost all sections of Indian society, but it took several decades to comprehend the true nature of British rule and establish the link between British polices and India’s growing poverty. Several armed revolts took place after 1857. The Kuka rebellion was one such revolt. It was a protest against the deliberate policy of the British to create a rift between the Hindus and the Muslims.
(b)
The British had introduced Western Education in India to create a class of loyal clerks and Anglicized buyers of British goods. Western education did that and much more. It opened the floodgates of modem knowledge and rational thinking. New ideas of humanism, nationalism and democracy transformed the traditional outlook of the people. A new class arose-English-educated Indians-small in number but who in course of time, would produce, leaders and organizers of a national movement.
(c)
The English language acted as a link language between the educated Indians and various parts of the country. Thus, it played a very significant role in fostering feelings of unity among educated Indians from different provinces and linguistic regions of the country. The barriers of language now broke down as the English language became the common medium of communication. Educated middle class Indians who spoke different language could now express their views and exchange ideas among themselves in English. A common language fostered a sense of oneness and understanding of their Indian identity.

Question 2.
In the context of the causes of the rise of Indian nationalism,answer the following questions:
(a) How did the British administrative system indirectly create conditions favourable for the growth of Indian nationalism.
(b) Examine the role of modern transport and communication in fostering unity and nationalism among the people.
(c)How did the rediscovery of India’s glorious past prepare the ground for the growth of the national spirit among the Indians.
Answer:
(a)
The British transformed a fragmented India into a united whole under their rule. They introduced a uniform and modern system of government throughout the British provinces. Uniform laws were applied to all British subjects. People from different provinces and from different communities and castes now followed the same laws and regulations. They gradually realized that they all belonged to the same country and shared a common national identity as Indians.
(b)
This growing sense of unity and nationalism was further strengthened when the British introduced a new network of roads, railways and the post and telegraph system. Social mobility and interaction increased. Caste barriers broke down. People from different parts of the country grew closer to each other. They realized that they shared common problems, common aspirations and common goals. They belonged to one nation.
(c)
The rediscovery of a past was great and glorious. It was a past that could boast of the intellectual richness of Vedic philosophy, the political unity and administrative wisdom of the Mauryas, the Golden Age of the Guptas and the cultural brilliance of the Mughals. These discoveries were made by European scholars like William Jones, Alexander Cunningham, James Princep and other Indologists, who researched India’s historical past and revealed its rich heritage. These revelations instilled in the Indians feelings of national pride and self-confidence and inspired them to dream of a new resurgent India.

Question 3.
With reference to the rise of Indian nationalism, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the role of vernacular press and literature in the rise of Indian nationalism?
(b) How did the British economic policies lead to the growth of Indian nationalism?
(c) Mention the discriminatory British policies that were greatly resented by the Indian intellectuals.
Answer:
(a)
The vernacular press played a vital role in spreading modern ideas and creating national awareness. Nationalist leaders, the best among the educated middle-class intellectuals, used the press to criticize British policies and expose the evils of foreign rule. The ideas of democracy and responsible government were popularized through the press. Indians were asked to unite and work for the welfare of the nation. National literature also inspired the spirit of nationalism among the people. Novels, essays and patriotic poems written by well-known authors and poets fired the imagination of the common people and gave rise to powerful patriotic feelings. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyaya’s ‘Vande Mataram’ continues to evoke strong patriotic emotions among Indians even to this day.
(b)
The drain of India’s wealth to Britain, the impoverishment of the masses, industrial decay, grinding poverty, frequent famines, and the indifference and apathy of the British government produced a nationalistic reaction. The educated Indians realized the gravity of the situation and the need to have some control over economic policies.
(c)
Discriminatory policies adopted by the British:

  1. Indians were debarred from using parks, clubs, hospitals, libraries and railway coaches reserved exclusively for the British.
  2. All important positions in the administration were also reserved for the British. (Surendranath Banerjee was dismissed from the Indian Civil Service on flimsy grounds) Nominated Indian members in the Legislative Councils were not given any powers.
  3. British economic policies sacrificed Indian interests to those of the British. Lord Lytton’s discriminatory policies caused great resentment among the educated Indians.

Question 4.
In the context of the Indian National Congress, answer the following questions:
(a) Briefly discuss the Ilbert Bill controversy and show how it hastened the establishment of the Indian National Congress.
(b) What role did A. O. Hume play in the establishment of the Indian National Congress?
(c) Mention the main aims of the Congress.
Answer:
(a)
Lord Ripon, who followed Lord Lytton, wanted to change some of the discriminatory policies of the government. He approved the Ilbert Bill which allowed Indian judges to try Europeans (whites) accused of crimes. The violent reaction of the Europeans and Anglo-Indians to this proposal shocked the Indian nationalists. The Bill had to be amended. This incident blew the lid off the racial arrogance of the Europeans. It served as an eye-opener and drove home the urgent need to form an organized national bod to protect the interest and dignity of the Indians. In 1883, Surendranath Banerjee held the Indian National Conference, and within 2 years, the Indian National Congress was formed.
(b)
O. Hume was one of the founders of the Indian National Congress, a political party that was later lead to Indian Independence Movement. Hume took the initiative and it was in March 1885, when the first notice was issued convening the First Indian National union to meet at Poona in December. Founded in 1885 with the objective of obtaining a greater share in government for educated Indians, Indian National Congress was initially not opposed to British rule. The Congress met once a year during December. A. O. Hume is known for prominent figure of Indian Independence Movement activisim and reorganizing and leading the Indian National Army in World War II.
(c)
The main aims of the Congress were:

  1. To promote friendly relations among nationalist workers in different parts of the country.
  2. To develop and strengthen feelings of national unity throughout the country.
  3. To formulate popular demands and to place them before the government.
  4. To train and organize public opinion in the country

G Picture study:

This is a picture of a person who was dismissed from the Indian Civil Service by the British on flimsy grounds
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 7

  1. Identify the person in the picture
    Ans. Surendranath Banerjee
  2. Name the conference that he held in 1883.
    Ans. Indian National Conference
  3. What was the outcome of the conference?
    Ans. Indian National Congress was established in 1885, as a result of the conference in 1883.
  4. What were the main aims of the Indian National Congress?
    Ans. Refer Ans. F-4 (c) above.

Additional Questions

The Indian National Movement (1885-1916)
 EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The early nationalists spread political awareness among the people.
  2. The assertive nationalists believed that British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse.
  3. After the partition of Bengal, the assertive nationalists adopted the methods of boycott, swadeshi and national education to achieve the goal of swaraj.
  4. Separate electorates meant that the Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives.
  5. Gandhi spent about 22 years in South Africa as a practising lawyer.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 9
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 10
C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three/four/five
    Ans. The history of the Indian national movement is broadly categorized into three phases.
  2. Bal Gangadhar Tilak/Dadabhai Naoroji/Surendranath Banerjea was an important assertive nationalist leader.
    Ans. Bal Gangadhar Tilak was an important assertive nationalist leader.
  3. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal/Punjab/Gujarat on communal lines.
    Ans. The British followed the policy of divide and rule by dividing Bengal on communal lines.
  4. The Muslim League was established in 1905/1906/1913.
    Ans. The Muslim League was established in 1906.
  5. Gandhiji studied law’ in England/South Africa/France.
    Ans. Gandhiji studied law in England.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The early nationalists believed in the sense of justice and fair play of the British.
    True.
  2. The early nationalists presented their grievances to the British in the form of protests and strikes.
    False.
    Correct: The early nationalists presented their grievances to the British in the form of meetings, lectures and the press.
  3. The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were the same as those of the early nationalists.
    False.
    Correct: The political beliefs, aims and methods of the assertive nationalists were different as those of the early nationalists.
  4. The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists.
    True.
  5. Tilak knew that the British would concede to the demand of swaraj easily without any struggle.
    False.
    Correct : Tilak knew that the British would never concede to the demand of Swaraj easily without any struggle.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
Mention two leaders of the early nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the early nationalist phase were Dadabhai Naoroji, Surendranath Banerjea and Gopal Krishna Gokhale.

Question 2.
Mention two leaders of the assertive nationalist phase.
Answer:
The important leaders of the assertive nationalist phase were Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, Lala Lajpat Rai and Aurobindo Ghosh.

Question 3.
Why were the assertive nationalists disillusioned with the leadership of the early nationalists?
Answer:
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. They knew that the British would never concede to the demand for swaraj without a struggle. So they have to adopt a method of active opposition to government Swaraj would have to be achieved through a political, anti-government agitation and with the involvement and support of the masses. The Congress would have to be transformed from a platform for debates among the westernized, Indian intelligentsia into a regiment of freedom fighters-united, determined, confident and willing to make sacrifices.

Question 4.
When and why was Bengal partitioned?
Answer:
The British partitioned Bengal in 1905 in pursuance of their policy of divide and rule.

Question 5.
Where and under whose leadership was the Muslim League established?
Answer:
The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

Question 6.
Mention two objectives of the Muslim League?
Answer:
Objectives of Muslim league:

To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.

  1. To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims.
  2. To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

Question 7.
Why was the introduction of separate electorates a death blow to national unity?
Answer:
Separate electorates refers to the voting population of the country, divided into different electorates based on the factors like religion, caste, occupation etc. For example, it meant that Muslim voters could elect Muslim representatives. The introduction of separate electorates sounded the death knell of national unity. It was the first definite step on the road to the partition of India.

Question 8.
Why did the Indian nationalists support the war effort of the British when the First World War broke out ?
Answer:
Initially, there was an outburst of loyalty and the Indian nationalist leaders supported the British government with men and money. More than a million Indian soldiers were sent overseas to join the British army and a hundred million pounds were given to the British government.

The British and their allies declared that they were fighting the war to make the world ‘safe for democracy’ and to promote the right of all nations to form self-governments. This led the Indian nationalists to believe that a grateful Britain would reward India’s loyalty and fulfil its demands for self-government.

Question 9.
What was the main aim of the Home Rule Leagues ?
Answer:
The main aim of the Leagues was to achieve self-government within the British empire after the war.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:
Question 1.
With reference to the early nationalists, discuss the following:
(a) Beliefs of the early nationalists
(b) Methods of the early nationalists
(c) Important contributions made by the early nationalists to the national movement?
Answer:
(a)
The early nationalists believed that British rule had conferred several benefits on India. They felt that at that stage of history it was in their own interests to remain under the British since they were not yet ready to govern themselves. The early nationalists were convinced that the British could be persuaded to introduce necessary reforms and the government could be transformed to suit the interests of the Indian subjects.
(b)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give into their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings, lectures and the press. They also sent delegations to England to persuade the British government to introduce necessary reforms.
(c)
Contribution of the early nationalists:

  1. The early nationalists established a solid foundation which served as a base for a more radical approach in later years.
  2. They spread political awareness among the people and instilled in them a sense of national unity. The people began to think of themselves as a members of one single nation the Indian nation. The path for a united national struggle was laid.
  3. The Congress under the early nationalists trained the Indians in political affairs. They educated them in political matters and familiarized them with ideas of freedom, government, democracy, secularism nationalism, etc. This knowledge and training in political affairs helped Indian nationalists to organize and raise the national movement to the next stage of development.

Question 2.
With reference to the rise of the assertive nationalists within the congress, discuss:
(a) The beliefs of the assertive nationalists
(b) The objectives of the assertive nationalists
(c) How the methods of the assertive nationalists differed from those of the early nationalists?
Answer:
(a)
The assertive nationalists had no faith in the British sense of justice and fair play. They believed that the British rule in India was not a blessing but a curse. They were convinced that the British had no honest intentions of introducing reforms for the welfare of the Indians. They realized that the British interests were different and clashed with the Indian interests. India could never grow and progress under British rule.
(b)
The goal of the assertive nationalists was not self­government in ‘gradual’ stages but immediate freedom (Swaraj) from British rule.
(c)
The early nationalists had great faith in the sense of justice and fair play of the British. So they adopted peaceful and constitutional methods. They presented their grievances to the government and waited patiently for the government to pass laws to remove those grievances. They believed that the government would gradually give in to their demands. They promoted unity, spread political awareness among the people and built up a strong public opinion through meetings, lectures and the press. But the assertive nationalists on the other hand, had no faith in the constitutional methods followed by the early nationalists. Twenty years of prayers, petitions, appeals and resolutions and representations had failed to yield any concrete results.

Question 3.
With reference to the Lucknow Session of the Congress of 1916, answer the following questions:
(a) What was the Lucknow Pact ?
Ans. The Lucknow Pact was an agreement signed by the Muslim League and the Congress to pave the way for a joint scheme of political reforms in India.

(b) What was the objective of the Lucknow Pact
Ans. Under the Lucknow Pact, the League jointly with the Congress put forward the demand for a Dominion Status for India. This was an important step towards Hindu-Muslim unity.

(C) What were the results of Lucknow Pact ?
Ans. The unity between the Muslim League and the Congress, on the one hand and the early nationalists and the assertive nationalists, on the other, aroused great political enthusiasm and strengthened the national movement.

G Picture study:

This is the picture of a national leader.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - Struggle for Freedom (I) 11

1.Identify the person in the picture.
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah.

2.Which political organization did he join and when ?
Ans. Muhammad Ali Jinnah joined the Muslim League in 1913.

3.When and by whom was this organization founded ?
Ans. The Muslim League was established in December 1906, under the leadership of Nawab Salimullah Khan in Dacca (now known as Dhaka).

4.What were the objectives of this organization ?
Ans.
The main objectives of the Muslim League were as follows:

  • To promote among the Muslims a feeling of loyalty towards the British government.
  • To protect and promote the political rights of the Muslims.
  • To prevent feelings of hostility towards other communities.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Interpreting Topographical Maps

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ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage – Interpreting Topographical Maps

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

ICSE Solutions Class 8 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Exercises

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A contour line is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same height above sea level.
  2. In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run vertically are called eastings.
  3. Contour lines do not intersect one another.
  4. The contour lines of a hill are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.
  5. Houses or huts in scattered settlement are far apart from one another.

B. Match the following columns

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 1

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 2

C. Choose the correct answer

1. The contour lines for this feature are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.

  1. conical hill
  2. plateau
  3. ridge
  4. saddle

2. The contours for this feature are oval with contours close to each other indicating steepness.

  1. conical hill
  2. plateau
  3. ridge
  4. saddle

3. This feature can be identified by a drop in height of the contours.

  1. conical hill
  2. ridge
  3. col
  4. gap

4. The green area in a topo sheet contains

  1. settlement
  2. barren land
  3. cultivated land
  4. vegetation

5. On the topographical map these water bodies are shown in black colour.

  1. Dry Nadi
  2. Tank
  3. Settlement
  4. River

D. State whether the following are true or false 

1. A contour line is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same temperature.
Answer. False.
A contour lines is an imaginary line that connects all points having the same height.

2. The lines that run vertically are called nothings.
Answer. False.
The lines that run vertically are called eatings.

3. Contour lines are drawn at fixed intervals.
Ans. True.

4. A gap is a low lying depression or a valley which cuts through a range of hills.
Answer. True.

5. The spot height is indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.
Answer. False.
The triangulated stations is indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.

E. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What do topographical maps show ?
Answer:
Topographical maps are large scale maps that show both natural features (such as mountains, hills, rivers, plateaus, ridges, etc) and human-made features (such as roads, railway tracks, temples, bridges, buildings, etc).

Question 2.
What is a contour line ?
Answer:
A contour line is an imaginary line on a map connecting points at the same height above sea level.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 3

Question 3.
Distinguish Vertical Interval and Horizontal Equivalent.
Answer:
The difference in height between two adjacent contour lines is known as the Vertical Interval (V.I.). Whereas the distance between any two adjacent contour lines is called the Horizontal Equivalent (H.E.). The Horizontal Equivalent is calculated with the help of the scale of the map. The value of the H.E. is less when the slope is steep and more when the slope is gentle.

Question 4.
What is a ridge ? How do you identify a ridge on a topo sheet ?
Answer:
A ridge is a long and narrow elevation that has steep slopes on either side and stands out from the surrounding lowlands. It also acts as a watershed to rivers that flow down narrow
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 4
valleys on both of its sides. A ridge could also have several peaks of various elevations.
On a toposheet, the contours of a ridge are oval with contour close to each other indicating steepness.

Question 5.
What is a saddle ? Draw a diagram to show a saddle.
Answer:
A saddle is a shallow depression at a high elevation between two peaks or ridges. The depression is formed by streams or by glaciers flowing close to each other. A saddle need not have a river or stream flowing through it.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 5

Question 6.
What is a linear settlement ? Where would you normally find a linear settlement ?
Answer:
Linear settlements are those settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centres. Examples:

  1. If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
  2. hen located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhabas, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
  3. On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

Question 7.
How would you recognize a metalled road and an un metalled one on a topographical map?
Answer:
Vehicles such as trucks, buses, cars, jeeps, and other modem means of transport move over metalled roads. There are also cart tracks, pack tracks and footpaths, which are unmetalled roads. Cart tracks and pack tracks connect small village settlements in rural areas.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
What is a cliff and how can we identify it on a toposheet ? Draw a diagram to show a cliff.
Answer:
A cliff is a vertical or near vertical land feature. The landform rises vertically from the lower ground. On a contour map, the contour lines are very close together or merge into a single line in other words, contour lines overlap. This indicates a cliff.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 6

Question 2.
How is waterfall formed? Draw a diagram to show it.
Answer:
A waterfall is formed when there is a sudden drop in the river valley. It is like a cliff where the drop is almost perpendicular. Waterfalls are formed in the upper regions of river valleys. When contours on a map are very close to one another or sometimes touch each other as they cross a river or stream, it indicates the presence of a waterfall.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 7

Question 3.
Where are V-shaped valleys and U-shaped valleys formed? How can these be identified on a topo sheet?
Answer:
V-shaped valleys : V-shaped valleys are found in the upper course of a river where the slopes on either side of the river are steep. A V-shaped valley is easily identified on a contour map with the contour lines close to each other and a very dominant V.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 8
U-shaped valleys : U-shaped valleys are found in regions where the action of ice (or glaciers) has widened the valleys so that the valleys take the shape of a “U” These are also found in the lower regions of a river where the erosion of valley walls by the river widens the valley to make them look U-shaped. The contour lines of these valleys are bent in a distinct U-shape.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 9

Question 4.
What are the different factors that determine the location and the type of settlements?
Answer:
Many factors determine the location and the type of settlements:

  1. Settlements grow in areas that are flat and where the land is cultivable. Settlements do not grow on steep hillsides or marshy lands.
  2. Settlements grow in places where water is available in plenty for both agricultural and domestic purposes. Settlements, therefore, also grow on the confluence of rivers or the banks of rivers.
  3. Settlements also thrive on a plateau because of the flat surface of the plateau and the availability of land for cultivation.
  4. They develop and grow in places where the climate is suitable or pleasant to live in. Extremely hot, cold, wet or dry places are not attractive settlement sites.
  5. Settlements are formed where there are prospects for employment. Mines and industries in the area are potential sources of employment and encourage growth of settlements. Such places are usually near places of abundant raw materials for the growth of industries.
  6. They develop in places that are easily accessible by various kinds of roads, rivers, and railway lines. Easy access to and from the settlements will allow movement of people and goods from one place to another.

Question 5.
How can transport and communication of an area be inferred directly from a topographical sheet?
Answer:
On a topographical map you will notice some black lines that cross the map. These lines are symbols of roadways and railway tracks and indicate the type of communication in the area. They depict the various modes of transport being used in the area.
Communication and transport lines indicate the importance of a place. When many roads and railway lines converge in a village or a town, it indicates the importance of a place. It could be for several reasons such as the economic activity of the region or the region could be a tourist hot spot of it could be because of the presence of industries and factories leading to plenty of job opportunities.
Airports are also an important form of travel and communication but airports are confined to large cities only. The conventional sign of an aeroplane indicates the presence of an airport or an airstrip.

G Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 10

Question 1.
Identify the type of settlement shown in the picture.
Answer:
Nucleated settlements

Question 2.
Write two characteristics of this type of settlement.
Answer:

(i) Linear settlements — Linear settlements are those
settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centers.
Examples:

(a) If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
(b) When located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhaba’s, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
(c) On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 11

(ii) Scattered settlements — They are also known as dispersed settlements. Houses or huts in this type of settlement are far apart from one another. On map, such settlement is indicated by long distances between houses. Such areas show sparse population and the absence of proper roads. Houses or huts are usually connected by cart tracks or paths. Cattle rearing is common as each household has cattle that is allowed to graze in the open fields. The land is not very fertile to support big populations.

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 12

Let’s Do Something
Identify the relief features shown by the following contour diagrams:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 13
Answer:

(a) A Ridge
(b) A conical hill
(c) A Saddle
(d) A Plateau
(e) A Gap
(f) A Pass

Extra Questions

Question 1.
What do you mean by eastings and northings in a topographical map ?
Answer:
In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run vertically across a topographical map are called eastings. They are measured eastwards from the origin of the grid.
In a grid system of a topo sheet, the lines that run horizontally across a topographical map are called northings. They are measured eastwards from the origin of the grid in northerly direction.

Question 2.
Mention features of a grid system of a topo sheet.
Answer:
Features of the grid system :

  1. The lines that run vertically are called eastings and those that run horizontally are called northings.
  2. Eastings and northings cross each other to form a square called as a grid square.
  3. The starting point or the reference point is the exteme south-west grid or the one at the bottom left corner.
  4. The numerical value of eastings increases eastwards beginning from the south-west corner. Similarly, the numerical value of northings increases northwards.
  5. Eastings and northings are always given in two digit numbers. Even 0 is read as 00. (For example, 01, 02, 03, 98, 99.)
  6. When referring to a grid, eastings are always stated first.
  7. Eastings and northings on a topo sheet drawn on a scale of 1 : 50,000 are always 2 cm apart, which means they represent a distance of 1 km on the ground. So, the area of 2cm × 2cm on the map represents 1 km × 1 km on the ground.
  8. There are two types of grid references :

(a) The four – figure reference
(b) the six-figure reference.

Question 3.
Explain the two types of grid references.
Answer:
There are two types of grid references —

  1. The four-figure reference : The four-figure reference is used to locate places that fall within the numbered grid square, for example, the grid reference for the shaded square in the diagram below is 1705.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 14
  2. The six-figure grid reference :
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 15
    A church shown with the help of a six-figure grid reference The six-figure grid reference is used to locate an object such as wells, post offices, milestones or temples within the square with greater accuracy. In the six-figure grid reference, the first three figures are the eastings while the last three are the northings. To get the six-figure grid reference, we need to divide the grid square on the topo sheet into ten equal parts vertically and horizontally. These figures will give us the third figure for the eastings and the sixth figure for the northings, for example, the grid reference for the church in the diagram is 213052.

Question 4.
Which is the most common method of showing relief or elevation on topo sheets ?
Answer:
Contour lines.

Question 5.
List some basic characteristics of contour lines.
Answer:
Some basic characteristics of contour lines are :

  1. Contour lines are drawn at fixed intervals, for example 20 m. This is called Vertical Interval (V.I).
  2. Contour lines do not intersect each other. They could meet and touch but not cross one another.
  3. On a topographical map, every fifth line is accentuated or drawn thick. This is known as contour index.
  4. The spacing between the contour lines determines the nature of the slope. Close contour lines indicate steep slope and far apart indicate gentle slope of land. Contour lines drawn at equal intervals indicate that the slope is neither steep nor gentle but is a uniform slope.

Question 6.
How are topo sheets prepared for India ?
Answer:
Topo sheets are prepared three mainly in groups in India :

  1. The million sheet, where the scale of the sheet is 1:1,000,000 or 1 cm : 10 km ; there are total of 36 of these sheets covering the entire country.
  2. The quarter inch sheet has a scale of 1: 250,000 or 1 cm : 2.5 km, each of these sheets is numbered separately from A to P.
  3. The one inch sheet has a scale of 1 : 50,000 or 2 cm : 1 km.

Question 7.
How would you identify the following on a topo sheet:

  1. Gentle slope and steep slope
  2. Plateau
  3. Hill
  4. Col
  5. Pass
  6. Gap

Answer:

  1. Gentle slope and steep slope — In a steep slope, the contours are drawn close to one another while in a gentle slope they are wide apart.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 16
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 17
  2. Plateau — A plateau or a table land is an uplifted piece
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 18
    of flat land with slopes on all sides. On a contour map, plateaus are marked by contour lines very close to each other on all sides while there are none or very few lines at the centre.
  3. Hill — A hill is of a lower elevation than a mountain. It has uniform steepness on all sides. The contour lines of a hill are evenly spaced in the form of concentric circles.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 19
  4. Col — A col is formed when land has been cut considerably between two streams in a watershed. A col can be identified by a drop in height of the contours.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 20
  5. Pass — Passes are low valleys or opening lying between two peaks in a range of hills. A pass is indicated by a drop in height of contours.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 21
  6. Gap — A gap is a low lying depression or a valley which cuts through a range of hills It is often occupied by a river.
    ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 22

Question 8.
What do you mean by settlements ? Explain temporary and permanent settlements.
Answer:
Settlements are groups of houses, usually in villages or towns, where people live. The size of settlements depends on the availability of roads, railways, hospitals, police station, administrative buildings, etc. Settlements grow over a period of time. A settlement can be permanent or temporary.
Temporary settlements : Settlements that are constructed and occupied for a short time are called temporary settlements. They are built by people engaged in hunting and gathering, shifting cultivation and transhumance. Tents and huts are the most common forms of shelter in temporary settlements. In urban area, it is built next to a construction site such as a bridge or a flyover. A temporary settlement can become permanent with time.
Permanent Settlements : In this, people build permanent houses. With time, several such structure develop and form a settlement. The availability of water and land for cultivation are important reasons for such settlements growing. Other factors are communication lines such as roads and railways, police stations, post office, hospital, market, health center, etc.

Question 9.
What are the three main types of settlement patterns on a topo sheet ?
Or
Explain types of settlements.
Answer:
The three main types of settlement patterns on a topo sheet are:

(i) Nucleated settlements — In such settlements, buildings and huts are in a compact cluster. They are usually found in plains or valleys. This kind of settlement indicates that the community is living on an area where the land is fertile and good for agriculture. Such settlements generally have a well- knit and large community. Apart from houses, essential facilities like hospitals, police stations, post offices, schools and administrative buildings are found. They are also known as clustered settlements.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 23
(ii) Linear settlements—Linear settlements are those settlements that develop in a line. Houses, shops, dhaba’s, petrol pumps and garages develop along the sides of the roads, railway lines or river banks. Gradually, these linear settlements grow in size. These settlements gradually develop into trading centres.
Examples :

(a) If such a settlement is near a railway track, and over a period of time, a need for a railway station is felt, then it becomes a railway stop.
(b) When located on main roads, such settlements become important stops for travellers as dhaba’s, tyre and car repairing shops and petrol pumps open up.
(c) On rivers and coasts, they become places where boats can unload goods and passengers.

(iii) Scattered settlements — They are also known as dispersed settlements. Houses or huts in this type of settlement are far apart from one another. On map, such settlement is indicated by long distances between houses. Such areas show sparse population and the absence of proper roads. Houses or huts are usually connected by cart tracks or paths. Cattle rearing is common as each household has cattle that is allowed to graze in the open fields. The land is not very fertile to support big populations.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Interpreting Topographical Maps 24

Question 10.
Compare Nucleated settlement and scattered settlement.
Answer:
Nucleated settlement :

  1. The buildings and huts are in compact cluster.
  2. These are mostly found in plains or river valleys.
  3. These are also called as clustered settlements.
  4. The land is fertile and good for agriculture.
  5. The generally have a well- knit and large community.
  6. They have dense population.
  7. Essential facilities like hospitals, schools, police stations, post offices, etc are found
  8. Proper communication lines such as roads and railways lines are present.

Scattered settlement :

  1. The houses and huts are far apart from one another.
  2. These are mostly found in hilly areas, thick forests and regions of extreme climate.
  3. These are also called as dispersed settlements.
  4. The land is not very fertile.
  5. They don’t have a very close-knit large community.
  6. They have sparse population.
  7. Essential facilities like school hospital, police station, etc. are not found.
  8. Proper roads are absent houses are connected by cart tracks or paths.

Question 11.
List the aspects that you should keep in mind while studying a topographical map.
Or
Name some elements of a topo sheet or topographical maps.
Answer:
Some of the elements of a topo sheet are :

  1. Sheet number — This number refers to a specific geographical area. It is written on the top of the sheet.
  2. Scale — The scale is not the same for all maps. It can be 1 : 10,00,000 1 cm : 10 km], 1 : 250,000 [i.e. ; 1 cm = 2.5 km] or 1 : 50,000 [i.e. 2 cm = 1 km] It is written at the bottom of the sheet.
  3. Grid — The sheets have grid lines in red called eastings and northings which help in locating places easily.
  4. Direction on map sheet — The top half of a topographical map is always the north and the bottom half is the south. The right hand is the east and left hand is the west. The eastings and northings are read from the southwest corner.
  5. The eastings and northings — Their numbers should be remembered before reading a map.
  6. Four-figure grid reference and six-figure grid reference squares — The four-figure grid reference will have four digits and six-figure grid reference will have six digits.
  7. Legend and keys — Legends contain conventional signs and symbols in the form of keys. They provide the vital information to interpret the map correctly.
  8. Contour interval — (Vertical interval) It is the vertical distance between two consecutive contour lines. It remains same for a given scale of topo sheets.
  9. Spot heights — These indicate the actual elevation of a spot above mean sea level.
  10. Triangulated stations — These also indicate the height on maps. They are indicated on the map with a small triangle followed by the number.
  11. Contour index — Every fifth contour line is bolder than the other lines for easy identification of contour lines.
  12. Places marked with letters DEP (depression) indicate land at a lower level than the surrounding area.
  13. Dry and wet streams — On the map, black streams are dry and blue streams have water.
  14. Contour features — Like saddle, hill, pass, gentle and steep slope, ridge, etc can be seen on topo maps.
  15. Colours — Green coloured area contains vegetation and forests, yellow coloured area is cultivated land and white portion is barren land.

Question 12.
What do you mean by Vertical Interval (V.I.) in a topo sheet ?
Answer:
The vertical distance between two consecutive contour lines on a topographical map is called as Vertical Interval (VI). They are drawn at fixed intervals and do not change on the map. This interval depends on the scale of the map and the range of elevation in the area of the map.
Example : VI in all topo sheets of 1 : 50,000 is 20 m.

Question 13.
Mention what do the following indicate on a topographical map —

  1. Black stream
  2. Blue stream
  3. Green area
  4. Yellow area
  5. White area

Answer:

  1. Black stream — It indicates that the stream is dry and has no water.
  2. Blue stream — It indicates that the stream has water.
  3. Green area — I indicates vegetation, mainly forests.
  4. Yellow area — It indicates the area of cultivated land.
  5. White area — It indicates barren land. No crops are grown in this land.

14. Fill in the blanks

  1. Eastings and northings cross each other to form a square known as a grid square.
  2. When referring to a grid, eastings are always stated first.
  3. Using contours is the most common method of showing relief or elevation on topo sheets.
  4. On a topographical map, every 5th line is drawn thick and known as the contour index.
  5. If contour lines are drawn close together, it indicates steep slope of the land and if they are drawn far apart, it indicates gentle slope.
  6. Settlements are groups of houses where people live, such as villages or towns.
  7. Tents and huts are the most common forms of shelter in temporary settlements.
  8. Nucleated or clustered settlement indicates that the large community is close knit and living on a fertile land.
  9. Linear settlement develop in a line on either side of a road or a railway track.
  10. scattered or dispersed settlement is indicated by long distances between houses on map.
  11. Triangulated stations are indicated on the topo sheet with a small triangle followed by the number.
  12. Settlements are always shown by red squares.
  13. The grid on the south-west corner of a topographical map is always the reference point or the starting point.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Medieval Europe – Rise and Spread of Christianity

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Medieval Europe – Rise and Spread of Christianity

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APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • Medieval comes from a Latin word which means ‘time in the middle’. The Medieval Period is the period between the Ancient and the Modem periods.
  • The Messiah is a liberator of an oppressed people or country/ the promised deliverer of the Jews.
  • The Christ is the Messiah/the title given to Jesus.
  • The Old Testament constitutes the first major part of the Bible. It is traditionially divided into the categories of law, history, poetry (or wisdom books) and prophecy.
  • Baptism is the Christian rite of sprinkling water on a person’s forehead or immersing him/her in water, symbolizing purification and admission to the Christian church.
  • Resurrected means to be returned to life after death.
  • The Gospels are the first four books of the New Testament (the second part of the Bible) that tell the story of Christ’s life and teachings.
  • The Goths, the Vandals and the Franks were European tribes which invaded the Roman and Greek empires in the Early Medieval Period.
  • Crusades were the holy wars waged by the Christians against the Turks, who had captured the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople and Jerusalem (the holy land of the Christians).

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Christianity was founded by Jesus Christ. He began preaching at the age of thirty.
  2. Jesus criticised all harmful activities and evils.
  3. Galerius Constantine recognised Christianity.
  4. Constantine established a new capital at Byzantine in AD 330.
  5. The last Roman emperor, Romulus Augustus was deposed in AD 476.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 2

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. Paul spread the teachings of Christ in Greece and Rome.
     True.
  2. Emperor Charlemagne recognised Christianity in AD 313.
    False.Emperor Constantine embraced Christianity in AD 313.
  3. The head of the Roman Church, the Pope, was considered the representative of Christ on Earth.
    True.
  4. Constantinople fell in AD 1453.
    True.
  5. Crusades were fought between Hindus and Christians.
    False Crusades were fought between Islam and Christians.

IV. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Where was Christ born? Why was he crucified?
Answer:
Jesus Christ was born in Bethlehem, a small village of Jerusalem. His father Joseph and mother Mary were Jews. Jesus was bom in about 4 BC. Jesus emphasised on one God and gave immense importance to love, brotherhood and compassion. He fearlessly criticised all harmful activities and evils. This made the rich and powerful among the Romans his enemy. They complained to Pontius Pilate, the Roman Governor of Palestine, accusing Jesus of calling himself the king of Jews and thus encouraging people to rebel against Roman rulers. Jesus was arrested and crucified. The cross became a sacred symbol of the Christians.

Question 2.
Describe the teachings of Christ.
Answer:
Jesus preached his message in simple words, in the form of stories that the common man could understand.
Some of his main teachings were:

  1. All men are brothers as we are the children of the same God.
  2. God is one, so worship of various gods is of no use.
  3. God is so kind that he forgives even the sinner if he repents.
  4. God will love us if we are kind to our fellowmen.
  5. Hate the sin and not the sinner.
  6. Refrain from worldly evils like greed, avarice and vanity.
  7. Jesus called himself the ‘Son of God’ who had been sent by God to guide man to attain salvation.
  8. Kingdom of God could be built by man, purified by the love of God.

Question 3.
Discuss the contribution of emperor Constantine in spread of Christanity.
Answer:
Constantine the Roman Emperor, defeated all his rivals who came in way of spreading Christianity and declared himself as the undisputed emperor. He made Christianity a legal religion and in this way persecution of Christians came to an end. Later on Christianity become the official religion of the Roman empire.

Question 4.
Describe the emergence and fall of Constantinople.
Answer:
The Roman emperor Constantine established a new capital at Byzantine in AD 330. This city became famous as Constantinople, named after Constantine. The Byzantine empire with Constantinople as its capital prospered for a thousand years until AD 1453. It had close relations with countries of the east, including India. The Byzantines built beautiful churches with lavish decorations. Constantinople became the largest city in Europe, the most splendid and prosperous.
The Fall of Constantinople
The capital of Constantinople had been under attack many times before, and all have failed, all but one. The Ottoman Turks, who were Muslims and under the lead of Sultan Mehmed 11, had an army of 100,000 to 150,000, while the army for Constantinople had 10,000. The siege lasted for about fifty days. The army of Constantinople tried to use every tactic that worked before, but they were greatly outnumbered, which hurt their chances. As well as trying to take over the city, the Turks were fighting and trying to take over the seas and ports. On Tuesday, May 29, 1453, the army of Constantinople surrendered and left, letting the Ottomans take over the city.

Question 5.
Discuss the reasons for the decline of the Roman empire.
Answer:
The barbarian invasions penetrated deep into the Roman territory and plundered and ravaged it. Even the magnificent city of Rome was not spared. These tribes gradually settled down and assumed control of the western part of the Roman empire which lead to its decline.

V. Picture Study : Study the picture and answer the following questions.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 3

  1. Identify and name the painting.
    Ans. The last supper.
  2. Name the Painter.
    Ans. Leonardo da Vinci.
  3. Describe the theme of the painting.
    Ans. A painting of Jesus with his disciples.

Additional Questions
(Rise of Christianity)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. In the middle of the 1st century bce the Romans conquered Palestine, the homeland of the Jews.
  2. Jesus was believed to the son of God. He was born to Mary.
  3. For three years, Jesus travelled throughout Galilee, preaching, teaching and healing the sick.
  4. Jesus taught that there was one God who was compassionate, loving and forgiving.
  5. Towards the end of the 4th century ce. Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 4
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 6

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. Jesus grew up in Bethale/iem/Jerusalem/Nazareth, where he studied Jewish scriptures.
    Ans. Jesus grew up in Nazareth, where he studied Jewish scriptures.
  2. Jesus taught that God loved and forgave/hated/ignored
    Ans. Jesus taught that God loved and forgave sinners.
  3. Jesus was sentenced to death by Maxentius/Pontius Pilate/Constantine.
    Ans. Jesus was sentenced to death by Pontius Pilate.
  4. The teachings of Jesus were spread most actively in Palestine by John/Mark/Peter.
    Ans. The teachings of Jesus were spread most actively in Palestine by Peter.
  5. For almost 300 years after the death of Jesus, Christians were treated will/given special rights/oppressed and persecuted in the Roman empire.
    Ans. For almost 300 years after the death of Jesus, Christians were oppressed and persecuted in the Roman empire.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. Jesus had the power to heal the sick.
    True.
  2. Jesus taught that we should harm only those who harm us.
    False.
    Correct: We should help the needy and do good even to those who harm us.
  3. Jesus’s interpretation of Jewish law was the same as that of other Jewish religious leaders.
    False.
    Correct: Jesus’s interpretation of Jewish law clashed with the ideas of the Jewish religious leaders.
  4. In the 4th century CE, Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.
    False.
    Correct: In the 2nd century CE, Christianity became the official religion of the Roman empire.
  5. The Pope became the spiritual head of Christians all over the world.
    True

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Explain the Latin origin of the term ‘medieval’.
Ans. Medieval comes from a Latin word which means ‘time in the
middle’. The Medieval Period is the period between the Ancient and the Modem periods.

2. Who conquered Palestine in the middle of the 1st century BCE?
Ans. In the middle of the 1 st century bce, the Romans conquered Palestine, the homeland of the Jews.

3. Where was Jesus born?
Ans. Jesus was bom around 6-4 bce, in a small village of Bethlehem in Judea. He was believed to be the son of God, was bom to Maty.

4. Who was King David?
Ans. King David was Israel’s most famous king who had liberated Israel from foreign rule 1,000 years ago.

5. How many disciples did Jesus have?
Ans. Jesus gathered around him a band of 12 disciples.

6. Mention two fundamental principles of Christianity.
Ans.
The two fundamental principles of Christianity are:

  1. Unconditional love for God.
  2. True love for one’s neighbour.

7. Why were the Jewish religious leaders angry with Jesus?
Ans. Due to Jesus intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity large crowds were attracted towards him. This greatly enraged the Jewish religious leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity.

8. Where are the life and teachings of Jesus Christ recorded?
Ans. The life and teachings of Jesus Christ were recorded in the Gospels by four of his disciples—John, Mathew, Mark and Luke.

9. Who is described as the ‘foundation rock’ of Christianity?
Ans. Peter is described as the ‘foundation rock’ of Christianity.

10. Who prepared the grounds for transforming Christianity into a world religion? –
Ans. Paul, a convert to Christianity became one of the most powerful and enthusiastic exponents of Christianity. He travelled extensively throughout the Roman empire, preparing the grounds that would transform Christianity into the world religion in the future.

11. What is the importance of St Peter’s Church in Rome?
Ans. St Peter’s Church in Rome is the religious headquarters of the Christian world.

12. Who became the spiritual head of the Christians?
Ans. The Bishop of St Peter’s Church, the Pope, became the spiritual head of Christians all over the world, and was acknowledged as the representative of Christ on earth.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Give an account of the early life on Jesus in Nazareth. What happened after his baptism?
Answer:
Jesus grew up in Nazareth, in northern Palestine, where he studied the Jewish scriptures. He realized that traditions and practices which violated the Law of Moses were being followed by certain Jewish religious groups, such as the Pharisees.
After baptism a divine revelation convinced Jesus that the time had come for him to fulfil his mission of freemen from the bondage of evil and guiding them on the path that would lead to the victory of good over evil.

Question 2.
The teachings of Jesus were simple, yet revolutionary. Explain.
Answer:
The teachings of Jesus were simple, yet revolutionary.
He established a code of conduct for men and women based on:

  1. Unconditional love for God
  2. True love for one’s neighbour

Jesus taught that there was one God who was compassionate, loving and forgiving. As children of God, we should mould ourselves in the image of God. We should love our neighbours, including the poor, the sinners and even our enemies; we should help the needy and do good even to those who harm us; we should forgive our enemies and win them over with our love. Since God loved sinners and forgave them, we should do the same. Jesus completely rejected the ‘eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’ principle.

Question 3.
Discuss the reasons and events leading to the crucifixion of Jesus.
Answer:
Jesus attracted large crowds wherever, he went through his intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity. This greatly enraged the Jewish religions leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity. They convinced the Roman Governor, Pontius Pilate, that Jesus was also a threat to the political authority of the Romans. Due to which Jesus was put on trial and was later on crucified.

Question 4.
The enemies of Jesus had crucified him but Jesus would live on. Explain.
Answer:
This statement is hue that enemies of Jesus had crucified him but Jesus would live in the hearts and minds of his followers throughout the world. His teachings will be followed by the people they will walk on the path shown by him.After baptism a divine revelation convinced Jesus that the time had come for him to fulfil his mission of freemen from the bondage of evil and guiding them on the path that would lead to the victory of good over evil.

Question 5.
Give a brief account of the spread of Christianity by its followers.
Answer:
The spread of Christianity in Palestine was actively done by Peter the follower of Jesus. Another follower Paul travelled extensively throughout the Roman Empire and spread Christianity which later on in future turned into a world religion ‘

Question 6.
What role did Emperor Constantine play in the establishment of Christianity in Europe?
Answer:
Constantine the Roman Emperor, defeated all his rivals who came in way of spreading Christianity and declared himself as the undisputed emperor. He made Christianity a legal religion and in this way persecution of Christians came to an end. Later on Christianity become the official religion of the Roman empire.

G Picture study:
The picture depicts the crucifixion of the founder of a religion.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 7

Question 1.
Name (a) the founder and (b) the religion.
Answer:
(a) the founder — Jesus Christ
(b) the religion — Christianity

Question 2.
Mention the circumstances and the reasons that led to the crucifixion.
Answer:
Jesus attracted large crowds wherever, he went through his intelligence, wisdom, compassion and simplicity. This greatly enraged the Jewish religions leaders who felt threatened by his growing popularity. They convinced the Roman Governor, Pontius Pilate, that Jesus was also a threat to the political authority of the Romans. Due to which Jesus was put on trial and was later on crucified.          –

Question 3.
Mention four important principles of the religion.
Answer:
Four important principles of the religion are:

  1. We should love our neighbour, the poor, the sinners and even our enemies.
  2. We should forgive our enemies and win them over with our love.
  3. Unconditional love for God.
  4. Not to follow the principle of ‘eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth’.

Question 4.
Name the two best-known followers of the founder. What part did they play in spreading his teachings.
Answer:
Peter and Paul are two best known disciples of Jesus. They; did a great work in spreading the teachings of Jesus in Palastine and throughout the Roman Empire. Due to them Christianity is accepted as a world religion.

Additional Questions
(Spread of Christianity)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The great Roman empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century ce.
  2. One important reason for the fall of the Roman empire was the repeated attacks by the Germanic tribes.
  3. In 395 ce, the Roman empire was divided into two parts- eastern and western.
  4. By 900 ce, Christianity had become the state religion in every European state.
  5. The Crusades or holy wars were fought between the Christians and the Turkish Muslims, between the 11th and 13th centuries ce.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 8
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 9
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 10

C. Choose the correct answer

  1. The mighty Turkish/Roman/Greek empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century
    Ans. The mighty Roman empire began to disintegrate in the 5th century ce.
  2. The capital of the Byzantine empire wasRome/ Jerusalem/Constantinople.
    Ans. The capital of the Byzantine empire was Constantinople.
  3. The orders built great monasteries, where monks/kings/ soldiers stayed and pursued their missions.
    Ans. The orders built great monasteries, where monks stayed and pursued their missions.
  4. In the 11th century ce, the Goths/Turks/Vandals invaded the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople.
    Ans. In the 11th century ce, the Turks invaded the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople.
  5. The Crusaders learned the use of gunpowder and guns from the Greeks/Franks/Turks.
    Ans. The Crusaders learned the use of gunpowder and guns from the Turks.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The invaders who attacked the Roman empire were semi-civilized tribes.
    True.
  2. In the confusion and disorder that followed the disintegration of the Roman empire, the only unifying factor was Christianity and the Roman Church.
    True.
  3. The spread of Christianity was one of the most important developments in the Early Medieval Period.
    True.
  4. By the end of the 5th century ce, Christian churches had been established in almost every town and city.
    True.
  5. The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
What were the ‘barbarian invasions’?
Answer:
The repeated attacks and raids by various Germanic tribes such as the Goths, the Vandals and the Franks are referred to as the ‘barbarian invasions’.

Question 2.
Name the capital of the eastern Roman empire.
Answer:
Capital of eastern Roman empire was Constantinople (modem Istanbul).

Question 3.
What effect did the barbarian invasions have on the Byzantine (eastern Roman) empire ?
Answer:
The Byzantine empire was attacked by the barbarian tribes but it proved to be more resilient than its western counterpart. It successfully withstood the onslaughts and preserved some of the great legacies of the glorious Roman empire.

Question 4.
What were the Crusades?
Answer:
Crusades were the holy wars waged by the Christians against the Turks, who had captured the lands of the Christian emperor of Constantinople and Jerusalem (the holy land of the Christians).

Question 5.
How did the Crusades pave the way for the Renaissance?
Answer:
In the course of their travels to the holy land, the crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks and Muslims. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of revival of western education and learning and paved the way for the Renaissance.

Question 6.
How did the Crusades lead to the decline of feudalism?
Answer:
The Crusaders learnt the use of gunpowder and guns from the Muslims. These two discoveries contributed to the decline of feudalism. The armoured knights had outlived their usefulness and their services were no longer required.

Question 7.
Where did the Christian monks live?
Answer:
They lived in monasteries and did not marry.

Question 8.
Name two arts that flourished in monasteries.
Answer:
Architecture, mural painting, wood carving and stained glass painting developed and flourished in the monasteries.

Question 9.
Name one internationally renowned university that evolved from a Christian monastery.
Answer:
The University that evolved from a Christian monastery of Oxford in England is know as Oxford University in the English­speaking world.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Briefly discuss the causes of the decline of the mighty Roman empire?
Answer:
The barbarian invasions penetrated deep into the Roman territory and plundered and ravaged it. Even the magnificent city of Rome was not spared. These tribes gradually settled down and assumed control of the western part of the Roman empire which lead to its decline.

Question 2.
The Crusades brought about significant changes in medieval Europe. In this context, discuss the following:
(a) Advent of the Renaissance
(b) Economic prosperity.
Answer:
(a) Advent of the Renaissance: In the course of their travels to the holy land, the Crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks and the Turks. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of the revival of Western education and learning, paving the way for the Renaissance.
(b) Economic prosperity: The Crusaders got a taste of the luxurious lifestyle of the East. To meet the demand for luxury items, European traders began to establish trade links with the East. As trade increased, the economy of Europe flourished.

Question 3.
Write short notes on the following:
(a) Monks and nuns
(b) Life in a monasteries
Answer:
(a) Monks: They were priests who devoted their lives to the services of God and humanity. They lived in monasteries and did not marry.
Nuns: They were the women who devoted their lives to the service of God and humanity. They lived in nunneries and did not marry.

(b) Monasteries: These were the places where the monks lived. They were located iru isolated places, far away from human habitation. Life in these monasteries was simple and orderly.

Question 4.
Describe a monastery. What did the monks and nuns do for the welfare of the people?
Answer:
A monastery was usually a large, strong and simple building, surrounded by gardens, fruit orchards, fields and ponds. Insidethe abbey was a small church, living quarters for the monks and nuns, a kitchen and storerooms. Attached to most monsteries were hospitals, schools and libraries. Monasteries played a very important role in medieval Europe. The nuns educated children and treated the sick and wounded. The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education. Some of these monasteries later developed into famous secular universities, such as the universities of Oxford and Cambridge. Besides the religious texts, secular subjects such as history, philosophy, medicine, law and astrology were also taught in these universities. The printing press and paper had not yet been invented, so the monks wrote books by hand on parchment. Most of the books were copies of the Bible and prayer books, and copies of Latin and Greek books on secular subjects. These books were a very useful source of knowledge of the ancient and medieval civilization in Europe.

Question 5.
What was the contribution of the monasteries in the field of education?
Answer:
The greatest contribution of the monasteries was in the field of education. Some of these monasteries later developed into famous secular universities, such as the universities of Oxford and Cambridge. Beside the religious texts, secular subjects such as history, philosophy, medicine, law and astrology were also taught in these universities.

G.Picture study:

This is a picture of a renowned English university built by the Christian Church .
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Medieval Europe - Rise and Spread of Christianity 11

Question 1.
Identify the university.
Answer:
Oxford University.

Question 2.
What part did the Church play in the field of education?
Answer:
The Christian Church played an important role in the field of education. These Churches become great centres of  scholarship, art, literature and religious studies. Educational institutions like the internationally renowned Cambridge and Oxford Universities were built by the Church.

Question 3.
Mention any two reasons for the rapid spread of Christianity in Europe between 400 ce and 900
Answer:
The conversion of a king or feudal lord was usually followed by mass conversion of his subjects. As Christianity spread, the power and wealth of the Church multiplied.Christian monks, fired by religious fervour, organized themselves into religious orders

Question 4.
In what way did the increase in wealth and power influence the policies of the Church?
Answer:
As the wealth and power of the Church increased, it became increasingly conservative and authoritarian, demanding from every Christian unqualified obedience, loyalty and total submission to its dictates.

Question 5.
What does the term ‘Crusades’ mean? How did the Crusades contribute to the revival of learning and pave the way for the Renaissance in Europe?
Answer:
Crusades were the holy wars of the Christians against the Turkish Muslims. In the course of their travels to the holy land, the Crusaders came in contact with the superior civilizations and cultures of the Greeks (Byzantium) and Muslims. They assimilated the best elements of these cultures and started the process of the revival of Western education and learning and paved the way for the

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The Golden Age: Gupta Empire

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – The Golden Age: Gupta Empire

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics Chapter 9 The Golden Age: Gupta Empire. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 History & Civics Geography Biology Chemistry Physics Maths

Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The Gupta Age is known as the Golden Age of Indian History.
  2. Chandragupta II assumed the title of Shakari.
  3. Samudragupta did not conquer the southern kingdoms; he took only tribute from them.
  4. The two great grammarians of this period were Panini and Patanjali.
  5. The greatest poet of Vikramaditya’s court was Kalidasa.
  6. The masterpiece of art during the Gupta period is the image of seated Buddha in a yogic pose.
  7. The centres of high learning during the Gupta age were Nalanda, Takshshila and Ujjain.
  8. Varahamihira wrote Brihat Samhita, an encyclopaedia on astronomy.
  9. The finest example of metallurgy of this period is Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi.
  10. Samudragupta was called the Indian Napoleon.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 1

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 3

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. 1. Chandragupta Vikramaditya was the founder of the Gupta dynasty.
    False
  2. Chandragupta I ruled from AD 375 to AD 415.
    False
  3. Samudragupta is called the Indian Napoleon.
    True
  4. Fa-Hien, a Chinese traveller, visited India during Samudragupta’s reign
    False
  5. Skandagupta was the last great Gupta ruler.
    True

IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Why is Chandragupta I called the real founder of the Gupta Empire?
Answer:
Chandragupta I is called the real founder of the Gupta Empire because he was first independent and important ruler of this dynasty. He raised the power and prestige of his empire through conquests and marriages. He assumed the title Maharajadhiraja,ie, the king of kings’. He started the Gupta Era in 320 AD which marked the date of his accession.

Question 2.
Describe the military achievements of Samudra gupta. Which source tells us about him?
Answer:
The most important historical source of information about Samudra gupta is the Allahabad Pillar Inscription which was composed by Harisena. According to the inscription Samudra gupta was a great conqueror and he won a- series of wars in north and south India. He defeated as many as 9 rulers in northern India and 12 rulers in eastern Deccan and southern India. But Samudra gupta did not want to gain permanent possession of his conquests in the south because he knew he could not control south India from his capital. He was happy with the tributes collected from the defeated princes of the south, bringing home large stores of treasure.

Question 3.
Why is Chandragupta II considered the greatest ruler of the Gupta dynasty?
Answer:
Fa-Hien’s account forms the historical source of information about Chandragupta II. Chandragupta II was a great conqueror. His greatest achievement was to destroy the power of the Shaka from Malwa, Gujarat and Saurashtra permanently. He gained control over three important parts of Bharuch, Cambay and Sopara. He also assumed the title Shakari or the conqueror of the Shakas. He was a great patron of art and literature. He had at his court, the famous Navaratnas, the most learned men of his time. Poet Kalidasa was one of them.

Question 4.
What were the religious beliefs of the people during the Gupta period?
Answer:
The Gupta kings were Vaishnavas, but they were tolerant towards all religions. Brahmanism had come to the forefront. The two gods who commanded the worship of the majority were Vishnu and Shiva. Religious sacrifices were performed. Hinduism became the most powerful religion and the Gupta kings gave donations for building of temples. Buddhism no longer received the royal patronage, though it continued to be the second most important religion.

Question 5.
Describe the great progress made in art and architecture during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Art and architecture gained great heights during the Gupta Period. Many temples were built. The temples at Deogarh, Sanchi and Bhittargaon are very famous.The 29 cave temples at Ajanta near Aurangabad in Maharashtra and Bagh in Madhya Pradesh were also built during this period. The walls of these caves were covered with paintings (called murals or frescoes). Two main centers of art were Mathura and Samath. The image of the seated Buddha in a yogic pose is one of the masterpieces of art of this period.

Question 6.
With examples prove that Sanskrit literature reached its peak during this period.
Answer:
The Gupta period is called the Golden Age of Sanskrit literature. Chandragupta II is credited with maintaining Nav-Ratna (Nine luminaries) at his court. Kalidasa and Amarasimha adorned his court. Kalidasa was the greatest and most famous poet of this period. He wrote Abhijnana Shakuntalam, Raghuvansham, Meghaduta and Kumar Sambhava. Amarsimha wrote Amarakosa, a Sanskrit dictionaiy. Panini was a great grammarian. Ashtadhyayi, the greatest work on Sanskrit grammar was written by Panini during this period.

Question 7.
Describe the progress made in the field of science during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Scientists, mathematicians, astronomers and physicians flourished in the court of the Gupta rulers. Two well- known mathematicians and astronomers of this period were Aryabhatta and Varahmihira. Aryabhatta said that the earth moves round the sun and at the same time it moves on its axis. The books authored by Aryabhatta are Aryabhatiya and Suryasidhanta. Varahamihira wrote Brihat Samhita, an Encyclopedia on Astronomy. Indian mathematicians knew the use of zero. The Indians also used the decimal system.

Question 8.
Write a short note on Gupta administration.
Answer:
The Gupta empire was divided into provinces. These provinces were further divided into various districts. There were district councils which helped the provincial governors. The provinces were known as Bhuktis and the districts were known as Vishayas. Each district was divided into villages called gramas. Each Bhukti was placed under the charge of an Uparika and each Vishaya under a Vishayapati. There were many officers who assisted the king in his work. The provinces were under the charge of princes. They were assisted by officials called Kumarmatyas. The villages were looked after by Gramapati.

Question 9.
With appropriate examples prove that the Gupta period has been rightly called a ‘Golden Age’.
Answer:
The Gupta period is known as “Golden Age of Indian History”. The rule of the Gupta kings lasted for more than two hundred years. India made progress in almost every field under the Gupta kings. This period saw considerable achievements in the field of Indian culture especially in the areas of art, architecture and literature. Remarkable advancement also took place in the field of science, medicine and metallurgy. Peace and prosperity prevailed in the empire.

V. Picture study: This is a picture of Iron Pillar.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 4

  1. Who built it?
    Ans. Chandragupta II
  2. Where is it situated ?
    Ans. Mehrauli. Delhi
  3. Why is it called ‘rustless wonder’ ?
    Ans. It is called rustless wonder because it has not rusted yet. rather still shines.
  4. Its specially
    Ans. It shows the progress of the Gupta ruler in the field of metallurgy.
  5. Name of which ruler is inscribed on it ?
    Ans. Chandra.

Textbook Keywords

  1. Navaratnas: It means nine gems. This term was used to refer to talented writers, musicians, dramatist, etc. who were present in the king’s count.
  2. Huns: They were barbarians who invaded India. Kumar amatyas They were officials who assisted the princes in governing the provinces.
  3. Vishyapatis: They were the officers who looked after the administration of the districts or vishyas.
  4. Vaishnavas: They are the worshipers of Lord Vishnu. Bhakti cult It was a religious cult that believed that God could be reached through intense and true devotion and not through rituals.
  5. Aryabhatta: He was a famous mathematician and astronomer who discovered that the earth moves around the sun, and the reasons for lunar and solar eclipses.
  6. Vagabhatta: He wrote a book on ayurvedic medicine. Kalidas He was the most famous Sanskrit poet and dramatist of this period.

Additional Questions

A. Fill in the blanks.

  1. The foundation of the Gupta empire was laid by Chandragupta I.
  2. The Allahabad Pillar inscription by the court poet Harisena is a valuable source of information for the Gupta period.
  3. Samudragupta defeated nine king in northern India and twelve kings in southern India.
  4. The Pallava ruler of Kanchi formed a confederacy of the rulers of southern India.
  5. The rulers of southern India accepted Samudragupta as their overload and paid tribute to him.
  6. Samudragupta celebrated his conquests by performing the Ashvamedha Yagna.
  7. Samudragupta was not only a military genius but a talented musician and poet as well.
  8. Chandragupta Vikramaitya strengthened his position by matrimonial alliance
  9. The great Sanskrit writer Kalidas was one of Vikramaditya’s nine gems.
  10. The account of the Chinese traveller Fa Hien is a valuable source of information for the Gupta period.
  11. The last important ruler of the Gupta dynasty was Skanda- gupta.
  12. The Gupta period is known as the Golden Age of ancient India history.

B. Match the following
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 5
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 6

C. Answer the following questions.

Question 1.
What was the political condition of India after the decline of the Kushanas and the Satavahaans?
Answer:
After the decline of the Kushanas and Satvahanas. India was divided into a number of small kingdoms and republics. The political condition was instable.

Question 2.
Why did the Pallava ruler of Kanchi form a confederacy against Samudragupta?
Answer:
The Pallava ruler of Kanchi form a confederacy because he realized that he could not face Samudragupta alone. So he formed a confederacy of the kings of South India under his leadership.

Question 3.
Why did Samudragupta not annex the South Indian kingdoms after defeating them?
Answer:
Samudragupta. did not annex the south Indian kingdoms because he realized it would not be easy to control such a vast empire without proper transport and communication facilities.

Question 4.
Why did the frontier states of the east and the west surrender to Samudragupta?
Answer:
The frontier states of east and the west surrender to Samundragupta because the ruler of these states accepted him as their overlord and paid large sum of money as a tribute.

Question 5.
What was the extent of Samudragupta’s empire?
Answer:
Samudragupta’s empire extended from Bengal in the east to Delhi in the west from the Himalayas in the north to Narmda in the south. His indirect control over the vassal states also.

Question 6.
How did Chandragupta Vikramaditya strengthen his position through matrimonial alliances?
Answer:
Chandragupta Vikramaditya strengthen his position by matrimonial alliance. He married the daughter of a powerful Naga ruler. He gave his daughter in marriage to the Vakataka  ruler in the Deccan from whom he got valuable help during his campaigns against the Sakas.

Question 7.
Mention two important reasons for the downfall of the Gupta empire.
Answer:
The important reasons for the downfall of the Gupta empire are following.

  1. Skandagupta successors were week.
  2. They could not protect the empire from the repeated onslaughts of the Huns.

Question 8.
What according to Fa Hien, was the condition of the people during the Gupta period?
Ans.
According to Fa Hien’s account the people were honest, secure, prosperous and happy during Gupta Period. There was no capital punishment, for very serious crimes like treason and rebellion the right hand was cut off. Criminals were usually fined. Taxes were light.      ‘

Question 9.
What did the Gupta rulers do to encourage education?
Answer:
Liberal grants were given to encourage education and Gupta established Nalanda University.

Question 10.
What progress did the Guptas make in the following fields:

  1. Astronomy
  2. Medicine
  3. Mathematics
  4. Metallurgy

Answer:

  1. Astronomy— A tremendous progress was made in the field of astronomy. Aryabhatta who was a known a astronomer discovered the movements of earth i.e. it moves around the sun on it axis. He also found out the causes of lunar and solar eclipses.
  2. Mathematics— The discovery of the zero and decimal system was made in use during Gupta period.
  3.  Medicine— Vegabhatta and Dhanvantri were famous physicians and surgeons who served the people during this period.
  4.  Metallurgy— Mehrauli pillars throw light on the iron metallurgy of this period. The pillar was built in the 4th century CE has not rusted in the last few centuries. The 25 meter high copper statue of Buddha and the numerous gold coins testily the skill in metal casting.

D. State whether the following are true or false.

  1. Criminals were punished severely during the reign of the Guptas.
    False.
  2. There was an elaborate spy system under the Guptas.
    False.
  3. Taxes were light during the Gupta period.
    True.
  4. The Gupta encouraged the revival of Hinduism.
    True.
  5. The Guptas followed a policy of religious tolerance
    True.

E. Picture study.
This is a picture of the ruins of an ancient university.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - The Golden Age Gupta Empire 7

1. Identify the name of the university.
Ans.This is a picture of Nalanda University.

2. Mention the subjects taught in this university.
Ans.Medicine, astronomy grammar philosophy, and vedic literature were taught in Nalanda University, Subjects.

3. Which dynasty established this university?
Ans.Gupta dynasty established this University.

4. What contributions did this dynasty make in the fields of
(a) astronomy (b) metallurgy (c) literature ?
Ans.
(a) refer Ans. (10) (1)
(b) refer Ans. (10)(4)
(c) During this period Kalidasa wrote famous play Shakuntala and the epic poem Meghaduta. The Panchatantra was compiled, the Puranas were rewritten, and the Mahabharata was revised and rewritten during this period. Shudraka’s Mrichchhakatika was also written during this time.

Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Physical Quantities and Measurement

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Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Physical Quantities and Measurement

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Physics Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement

  • Synposis
  •  The observation of a phenomenon is made possible by using the five senses: sight, smell, touch, hearing and taste.
  •  Our senses are not always reliable. They are subjective.
  •  Sometimes it is necessary to make an exact measurement.
  •  Physics is a science of measurement.
  •  We use instruments to get an exact measurement.
  •  Four basic measurements in our daily life are: measurement of length, measurement of mass, measurement of time, and measurement of temperature.
  •  Measurement is basically a process of comparison of the given quantity with a standard unit.
  •  For measuring a quantity we need a unit, and then we find the number of times that unit is contained in that quantity.
  •  The unit selected for measurement should be of a convenient size and it must not change ‘with place or time.
  •  The distance between two fixed points is called length.
  •  The S.I. unit of length is metre (m). Its multiple is kilometre (km), where 1 km = 1000 m. Its sub multiples are centimetre (cm) and millimetre (mm), where 1 cm = 10-2 m and 1 mm = 10-3 m.
  •  The FPS unit of length is foot (ft) and its sub multiple is inch where 1 ft = 12 inch and 1 ft = 30.48 cm.
  •  The most common instruments used to measure length are the metre ruler and the measuring tape which are marked in cm and mm.
  •  To measure a length accurately with a metre ruler, the scale should be placed with its markings close to the object and parallel to its r length. The eye is kept in front of and in line with the reading to be taken.
  •  The quantity of matter contained in a body is called its mass.
  •  The S.I. unit of mass is kilogram (kg). Its multiples are quintal and metric tonne. 1 quintal = 100 kg and 1 metric tonne =10 quintal = 1000 kg. Its sub multiples are gram (g) and milligram (mg) where 1 g = 10 kg and lmg = 10-6 kg.
  •  The FPS unit of mass is pound (lb) where 1 lb = 453.59 g.
  •  Mass of a body is measured by using a beam balance or an electronic balance.
  •  The interval between two instances or events is called time.
  •  The S.l. unit of time is second (s), 1 s 1 / 86400 of a mean solar day. The C.G.S. and F.P.S. unit of time is also second (s).
  • The multiple unit of time are minute (mm), hour (h), day and year where 1 min = 60 s, 1 h = 3600 s, 1 day = 86400 s and 1 year = 3.15 × 107 s.
  •  The time at any instant is recorded by a pendulum clock or watch and the time interval of an event is measured by using a stop watch or a stop clock.
  •  The temperature is the measure of degree of hotness or coldness of a body.
  •  The S.I. unit of temperature is kelvin(K), but the common unit of temperature is degree Celsius (°C) and degree fahrenheit (°F).
  •  Doctors use a clinical thermometer to measure the patient’s body temperature.
  •  The normal temperature of a human body is 37°C or 98.6°E
  •  The total surface occupied by an object is called its area. Area is expressed as the product of measured length of two sides.
  •  The S.I. unit of area is square metre (m2).
  •  One square metre is the area of a square of each side one metre.
  •  The bigger (or multiple) units of area are dam2, hectare and square kilometre (km2), where 1 dam2 =100 m2,1 hectare= 104 m2 and 1 km2 = 106  m2
  •  The smaller (or sub multiple) units of area are cm2 and mm2 where 1cm2 = 10-4 m2 and 1 mm2 = 10-6  m2

Test yourself

A. Objective Questions

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) S.I. unit of temperature is Fahrenheit.
Answer. False

(b) Every measurement involves two things – a number and a unit
Answer. True

(c) Mass is the measure of quantity of matter.
Answer. True

(d) The S.I. unit of time is hour.
Answer. False

(e) The area can be expressed as the product of length of two sides.
Answer. Tme

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) The S.I. unit of length is metre of time is second of mass is kilogram.
(b) °C is the unit of temperature.
(c) 1 metric tonne = 1000 kg
(d) The zero mark in Celsius thermometer is the melting point of ice
(e) The thermometer used to measure the human body temperature is called the clinical thermometer.
(f) The normal temperature of human body is 37 °C or 98.6 °F.
(g) The mass of an object is measured with the help of a beam balance.

3. Match the following columns
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 1
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 4a

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) The symbol of degree celsius is

  1. °C
  2.  °F
  3.  K
  4.  °K

(b) lO mm is equal to

  1.  1cm
  2.  1m
  3.  10dm
  4.  10cm

(c) The amount of surface occupied by an object is called its:

  1.  volume
  2.  area
  3.  mass
  4.  length

(d) A metre ruler is graduated in:

  1.  m
  2.  cm
  3.  mm
  4.  km

(e) A thermometre is graduated in:

  1.  kelvin
  2.  °C
  3.  g
  4.  cm

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is measurement ? How is a measurement expressed ?
Answer:
Measurement is a comparison of an unknown quantity with a known fixed quantity of the same kind.
The value obtained on measuring a quantity is called its magnitude. The magnitude of a quantity is expressed as numbers in its unit.

Question 2.
State two characteristics of a unit.
Answer:
Two characteristics of a unit are

  1.  It should be of convenient size.
  2.  It must be universally accepted, i. e. its value must remain same at all places and at all times.

Question 3.
Name four basic measurements in our daily life.
Answer:
In our daily life we measure the following four basic physical quantities.

  1.  Length
  2.  Mass
  3.  lime
  4.  Temperature

Question 4.
What are the S.I. units of

  1.  mass
  2.  length
  3.  time and
  4.  temperature. Write their names and symbols.

Answer:
S.I. units are as follows
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 2

Question 5.
Define one metre, the S.I. unit of length. State its one multiple and one sub multiple.
Answer:
One metre is defined as the distance travelled by light in air in \(\frac { 1 }{ 299,792,458 }\) of a second
Multiple of metre = Kilometre
Submultiple of metre = Centimetre

Question 6.
Convert the following quantities as indicated
(a) 12 inch = ft
(b) 1 ft = cm
(c) 20 cm = m
(d) 4.2 m = cm
(e) 0.2 km = m
(f) 0.2 cm = mm
(g) 1 yard = m
Answer:
(a) 12 inch 1 ft
(b) 1 ft = 30.48cm
(c) 100 cm = 1m
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 3

Question 7.
(a) Describe in steps how would you measure the length of a pencil using a metre rule. Draw a diagram if necessary.
Answer:
To measure the length of a pencil using a metre rule, place metre rule with its marking close to the object. Let PQ be a pencil.
The end P of the pencil coincides with the zero mark on the ruler. The end Q of the pencil is read by keeping the eye at the position ‘B’ vertically above the end Q. So the length of pencil is 4.3 cm.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 4
(b) Explain with an example how you will use the metre ruler in part (a) if the ends of ruler are broken.
Ans. The ends of the ruler get damaged with use and its zero mark may not be visible. To measure the length of an object with such a ruler, the object is placed close to a specific markings on the ruler and positions of both ends of the object are read on the ruler.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 5
The difference of the two readings gives the length of the object. In fig. the reading on ruler at the end X is 1.0 cm and at the end Y is 4.3 cm. So the length of the rod XY is 4.3 — 1.0 = 3.3 cm.

Question 8.
Name the device which you will use to measure the perimeter of your play ground. Describe in steps how you will use it.
Answer:
We will use a measuring tape to measure the perimeter of our playground.
To measure the length of playground the tape is spread along the length of the curved area.

Question 9.
The diagram below shows a stick placed along a metre RULER. The length of the stick is measured keeping the eye at positions A, B and C.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 6
Answer:
(a) Write the length if stick PQ as observed, for each position of the eye. Are they all same?
Ans. Length of stick PQ from
Position A =3.4 cm
Position B = 3.2 cm
Position C = 3.00 cm
No they are not same.
(b) Which is the correct position of the eye? Write the correct length of the stick.
Ans. ‘B’ is the correct position of the eye. Correct length of the stick PQ = 3.2 cm

Question 10.
Define mass. State its (1) S.I. (2) C.GS and (3) EP.S. units. How are they related ?
Answer:
The mass of a body is the quantity of matter contained in it. The S.I. unit of mass is kilogram. In short form, it is written as kg.
In C.GS. system, the unit of mass is gram, (symbol g).
In F.P.S. system, the unit of mass is pound (symbol lb)

Question 11.
Convert the following quantities as indicated:
(a) 2500 kg = ………. metric tonne.
(b) 150 kg = quintal
(e) 10 lb = ………. kg
(d) 250 g = … .kg
(e) 0.01 kg = ………. g
(f) 5 mg = ………. kg
Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 7

Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 8

Question 12.
Name the instrument which is commonly used to measure the mass of a body. State how is it used ?
Answer:
Instrument commonly used to measure the mass of a body, is the beam balance.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 9
When we hold up the balance, we observe that when there is nothing on either pan, the beam is horizontal. The body whose mass is to be measured is placed on the left pan. The standard weight are put on the right pan. They are so adjusted that the beam is again horizontal on holding the balance up. The total of the standard weights gives the mass of the given body.

Question 13.
Define one kilogram, the S.I. unit of mass. How is it related to (i) quintal (ii) metric tonne and (iii) gram.
Answer:
The mass of 1 litre of water at 4 °C is taken as 1 kilogram
1 quintal = 100 kg
1 metric ton = 10 quintal = 1000 kg

Question 14.
Name and define the S.I. unit of time. How is it related to (i) minute (ii) hour, (iii) day and (iv) year ?
Answer:
The S.I. unit of time is second. In short form we write it as ‘ S ’.
One second is the time interval between the two consecutive ticks that you hear from pendulum wall clock.
1 min = 60 s
1 h = 60 min. = 3600 s.
1 day = 24 h = 86400 s.
1 year = 365 days = 3.15 × 107 s.

Question 15.
Name two devices used to measure the short time interval of an event.
Answer:
Two devices used to measure the time interval of an event are

  1.  StopWatch
  2.  Stop Clock

Question 16.
Express in second

  1.  3 minute 15 second and
  2.  5 hour 2 minute 5 second.

Answer:

  1.  3 minute = 15 second
    1 minute = 60 second
    3 minutes 15 second = 60 × 3 + 15
    = 180 + 15
    = 195 seconds
  2.  1 minute =60 second
    2 minutes =2 × 600 = 120 second …(1)
    1 hour 3600 second
    5 hour 3600 × 5 = 18000 second …(2)
    5 hour 2 minutes and 5 second
    = 18000 + 120 + 5 = 18125 seconds

Question 17.
What does the temperature measure ?
Answer:
Temperature measures the degree of coldness and hotness of a body.

Question 18.
Name the

  1.  S.I. unit and
  2.  one common unit of temperature. Write their symbols also.

Answer:
The S.I. unit of temperature is kelvin (symbol K).
Common unit of temperature is degree centigrade (symbol °C)

Question 19.
Name the instrument used for measuring of the temperature of a person. Draw its labelled neat diagram.
Answer:
The temperature is measured with a thermometer.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 10

Question 20.
Write the temperature of (i) melting ice (ii) boiling water.
Answer:
The temperature of

  1.  melting ice = 0 °C
  2.  boiling water = 100 °C

Question 21.
What is a clinical thermometer ? State its special feature. Draw a labelled neat diagram of a clinical thermometer showing the range of temperature marked on it.
Answer:
Doctors use a special thermometer called the clinical thermometer for measuring the temperature of the patient’s body. This thermometer has the markings from 35°C to 42°C. It has a slight bend or kink in the stem just above the bulb. This kink is called the constriction. This constriction prevents the mercury from falling back all by itself. The temperature of a healthy person is 37°C. This temperature is marked by a red arrow.
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 11

Question 22.
What is the normal temperature of the human body ? How is it indicated in a clinical thermometer ?
Answer:
Normal temperature of a human body is 37°C or 98.6 °F.
To measure the temperature of a patient’s body, its bulb is kept either below the tongue or under the arm’s pit of the patient for about a minute. Then the thermometer is taken out and its reading is noted. When the temperature of patient’s body is above 37°C, he is said to suffer with fever.

Question 23.
Can a clinical thermometer be used to measure the temperature of the boiling water ? Give reason for your answer.
Answer:
No, a clinical thermometer cannot be used to measure the temperature of boiling water. ,
The reasons are

  1.  It has a very small range.
  2.  It can break on cooling and on excess heating.

Question 24.
Explain the term ‘area of a surface’.
Answer:
The total surface occupied by an object is called its area or surface area.

Question 25.
Name the S.I. unit of area and define it.
Answer:
The S.I. unit of area is square metre or meter2 which in short form is written as m2.

Question 26.
How are the units

  1.  square yard
  2.  hectare
  3. km2
  4. cm2
  5. mm2 related to the S.I. unit of area ?

Answer:
Selina Concise Physics Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Physical Quantities and Measurement 12

Question 27.
Explain how you will measure the area of (i) a square (b) a leaf?
Answer:
The area of a square can be calculated by using the following formula –
1. Area of square of side l
= side x side
= l × l = L2 .
The area of a leaf is obtained by using a graph paper. A graph paper has small squares of each side 1 mm. The area of each big square is 1 cm2.
Procedure: Place the leaf on graph paper. Draw its outline on the paper and remove it. Now count the number of complete squares. To this add the number of incomplete squares which are half or more than half. Ignore the squares which are less than half. Thus,
Approximate area = (No. of complete squares + no. of half or more than half of incomplete squares) × area of one square.

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – Mahavira and Buddha – Great Preachers

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics – Mahavira and Buddha – Great Preachers

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics Chapter 6 Mahavira and Buddha – Great Preachers . You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 History & Civics Geography Biology Chemistry Physics Maths

Exercise

I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. The sixth century BC saw the rise of two new religions in India.
  2. The founders of both the new religions in India were Kshatriyas.
  3. Jainism was founded by Mahavira.
  4. The Jains believe Mahavira was the 24th and the last Tirthankara.
  5. At the age of 42, Mahavira conquered both misery and happiness and became Jina or the conqueror.
  6. Buddhism was founded by Gautam Buddha.
  7. His real name was Siddhartha.
  8. The tree under which Buddha attained Enlightenment is called Bodhi Tree.

II. Match Column A with Column B
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 3

III. State whether the following statements are True or False.

  1. By the 6th century BC the Vedic religion had become too complicated and common people could not understand it.
     True
  2. Mahavira was born at Pavapuri near Rajgir in Bihar.
    False
  3. The attainment of ‘Moksha’ should be the main goal of life according to Mahavira.
    True
  4. Jainism’s strict insistence on non-violence and penance made it popular in India.
    False
  5. Buddha’s teachings are included in the Four Noble Truths and the Eight-Fold Path.
    True
  6. Jatakas are stories about Buddha’s previous births.
    True.
  7. ‘Mahayana’ form of Buddhism started worshiping Buddha as a god.
    True

Answer the following questions:
Question 1.
Why did new religions rise in India in the 6th century BC?
Answer:
By the 6th century BC the Vedic religion had become very complicated. There was a great deal of emphasis on rituals, yajnas and sacrifice. The Brahmanas had become very powerful and all the rituals had become too costly for the common man. Animal sacrifices affected the economy because it was based upon agriculture and animal husbandry. The language used for all rituals was Sanskrit and the common man could not understand it. The use of coins facilitated trade and commerce which added to the importance of the Vaishyas. They were ranked third in the society, the first two being Brahmanas and Kshatriyas. Naturally, they looked for a religion which would improve their position. Hence, new religions — Buddhism and Jainism — rose in India in the 6th century BC.

Question 2.
What are the five vows a Jain householder had to take?
Answer:
Five vows of Jainism are as follow:

  1. Ahimsa—non-violence
  2. Satya—Truth
  3. Achaurya orAsteya—Non-stealing
  4. Brahmacharya—Celibacy
  5. Aparigraha—Non-possession

Question 3.
Why did Buddha renounce the world?
Answer:
One day Prince Siddhartha, while on a chariot ride through the city, saw three sights — of an old man, a sick man and a dead body being carried by mourners. This disturbed and distressed him. Then he saw an ascetic who was serene and calm. No sorrow or worldly miseries affected him. These are the Four Great Sights that changed his life and he renounced the world.

Question 4.
Explain the main difference between Jainism and Buddhism.
Answer:
Compared to Jainism, Buddhism was moderate in its stress on the doctrine of non-violence. Buddhism emphasised on following the middle path whereas Jainism laid stress on extreme austerity. While the Buddha was silent about the existence of God, Mahavira denied his existence.

Question 5.
Why did Buddhism spread so rapidly?
Answer:
Buddhism spread rapidly because its teachings were very simple and it was taught in the language of the people. The patronage of two great emperors — Ashoka and Kanishka — made it a world religion. Its opposition to the caste system made it popular among the castes that were considered low.

Question 6.
What were the reasons behind the decline of Buddhism and Jainism?
Answer:
Buddhism became a victim to the evils of Brahmanism against which it had fought initially. The Buddhist monks were gradually cut off from the mainstream of the people’s life. They gave up Pali, the language of people and took to Sanskrit, the language of intellectuals. They also started practicing idol worship on a large scale and received material offerings from devotees. The rich offerings and generous royal grants made the life of monks luxurious. By the 7th century AD the Buddhist monasteries became centers of corrupt practices which Buddha had strictly prohibited. Undue emphasis on non-violence in Jainism checked its spread among the farming community as their profession necessarily involved killing insects and pests. Moreover, Mahavira’s ideas were not acceptable to those artisans and craftsmen whose occupation endangered the life of other creatures. Strict Jaina limitation of private property was interpreted as a ban on possession of landed property. All these factors led to the gradual decline of Jainism.

Question 7.
Name the religious texts of Buddhism and Jainism.
Answer:
Religious texts of Buddhism — Vinay Pitaka, Sutta Pitaka and Abhidhamma Pitaka Religious texts of Jainism — Angas and Purvas

Question 8.
Why is Buddhism called the Middle Path?
Answer:
Buddhism is called Middle Path because Buddha did not believe in extremes. Buddhism emphasised on following the middle

V.  Picture study This is a picture of a temple.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 4

  1. Identify and name it.
    Ans. Dilwara Jain Temple
  2. Where is it situated?
    Ans. Mount Abu (Rajasthan)
  3. Who built it?
    Ans. Vastupala
  4. Write a paragraph about it.
    Ans. The five legendary marble temples of Dilwara are a sacred pilgrimage place of the Jains. Many scholars consider them to be one of the most beautiful Jain pilgrimage sites in the world.

Textbook Keywords

  1. Tirthankaras: They were the religious teachers of Jainism who preached before Mahavira.
  2. Jina: It means conquerer of the self.
  3. Karma: It means that people’s actions decide their destiny. Moksha It means freedom from the cycle of birth and death.
  4. Digambara Sect of Jainism: The word means sky clad. They did not wear any clothes and followed the original teachings of Mahavira.
  5. Svetambaras: They were Jain monks who wore white clothes and did not believe in hard penance.
  6. Purvas and Angas: They are the religious literature of the Jains.
  7. Ashtangika marga:  It means the eight fold path.
  8. Ahimsa: means non-violence. Both Jainism and Buddhism preached this principle.
  9. Nirvana: It means freedom from the cycle of birth and death.
  10. Sangha was the order of the Buddhist monks.
  11. Tripitakas and Jatakas Are Buddhist religious texts.

Additional Questions

A. Fill in the blanks.

  1.  1. Many evil customs crept into Hindu society.
  2. The shudras were denied the right to study religious texts.
  3. In the 6th century BCE two great religious reformers, Vardhamana Mahavira and Gautam a Buddha were bom.
  4. Two famous followers of Jainism were Bimbisara and Mahayana.
  5. The religious literature of the Buddhists is contained in the Tripitakas and Jatakas.
  6. Buddhism was divided into two sects, Hinayana and Mahayana
  7. Jainism was divided into two sects, Digambaras and Svetambaras.

B. Match the following.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 5

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 History and Civics - Mahavira and Buddha - Great Preachers 6

C. Answer the following questions.
Question 1.
How did the new customs destroy the simplicity of the original Vedic religion?
Answer:
Costly sacrifices, superstitions and elaborate, meaningless rituals destroyed the simplicity and appeal of the original vedic religion.

Question 2.
How did the rigid caste system affect the shudras?
Answer:
Shudras were increasingly isolated and persecuted. They were denied the right to study the religious scriptures and were not even allowed to recite the Sanskrit hymns,

Question 3.
Mention the main teachings of Mahavira.
Answer:

  1. Ahimsa or Non-violence is the first great teaching of Mahavira.
  2.  Mahavira did not accept the Veda and opposed all forms of religious rites and rituals.
  3.  Mahavira believed that all people are equal.
  4.  Mahavira denied that God was the creator of the universe,
  5.  According to Mahavira the highest goal of a person’s life was to attain moksha.

Question 4.
Name the two Jain sects. What was the difference between the two?
Answer:
Digambaras and Svetambaras are two sects of Jainism.
The main difference between Digambaras and Svetambaras was that the followers of Digambaras did not wear any clothes and followed the original teaching of Mahavira. But the followers of Svetambaras wore white clothes and did not believe in hard penance.

Question 5.
In which parts of India is Jainism still popular?
Answer:
Jainism is still popular in Rajasthan, Gujarat, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.

Question 6.
What were the ‘four great sights’ that proved to be a turning point in Gautama Buddha’s life?
Answer:
Once while Gautama Buddha was on an outing in his chariot,he saw an old man, a sick man, a dead man and an ascetic who was unaffected by the sorrow and misery around him. These four great sights proved to be a turning point in Gautama Buddha’s life.

Question 7.
Briefly explain the following events in Buddha’s life:

  1. Renunciation
  2. Enlightenment

Answer:

  1. Renunciation— At the ‘four great sights’ Gautam decided to renounce worldly life and go out in search for answers to the mysteries of life and death. He became an ascetic.
  2. Enlightenments— One day Gautam Buddha sat down under a pipal tree in Bodh Gaya and began to meditate. On the 49th day, true light dawned on him. He became the enlightened one. He had at last found the cause of human suffering and knew how to overcome it.

Question 8.
Explain the four noble truths of Buddhism.
Answer:
The four noble truths of Buddhism are following.

  1.  The world is full of suffering.
  2. The cause of suffering is human desire.
  3. Suffering can be ended by overcoming desires.
  4. Desires can be overcome and freedom from the cycle of birth, death and rebirth can be achieved by nirvana. The eight fold path leads to nirvana.

Question 9.
What do you understand by the term eight fold path of Buddhism?
Answer:
The eight fold path of Buddhism are following:

  1. Right belief
  2. Right speech
  3. Right thought
  4. Right action
  5. Right efforts
  6. Right memory
  7. Right meditation
  8. Right means of livelihood

Question 10.
why did Buddhism spread so rapidly?
Answer:
Buddhism spread so rapidly because of following causes.

  1. The Simplicity of Gautam Buddha’s teachings and principle of equality greatly appealed to the common people.
  2. Buddhism was spread far and wide by monks and nuns.
  3. Buddhist universities established by king Ashoka (like Nalanda) were also other important reasons for rapid spread of Buddhism.

Question 11.
Explain the following terms:

  1. Ahimsa
  2. Karma
  3. Moksha

Answer:

  1. Ahimsa—Ahimsa means non-violence. Both Jainism and Buddhism preached this principle.
  2. Karma— People’s actions will decide their destiny. Good deeds are rewarded and evil deeds are punished.
  3. Moksha— The hightest goal of a person’s life was to attain Moksha freedom from the cycle of birth and death.

Question 12.
What were the reasons for the decline of Buddhism in India?
Answer:
Buddhism gradually declined in India for the following reasons.

  1. Hinduism was reformed and purified.
  2. The Gupta kings patronized Hinduism.
  3. India was invaded by the Huns who destroyed Buddhist viharas.

D. State whether the following are true or false.

  1. The brahmanas were very popular among the common people.
    False.
  2. Mahavira was the last tirthankara of the Jains.
    True.
  3. Mahavira believed in the existence of a supreme God.
    False.     
  4. Buddhism was taught in Prakrit.
    False.
  5. Buddhism is the main religions of people in south-east Asia, Tibet. China and Japan.
     True.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere

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ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Discuss

Question
Discuss the importance of the different layers of the atmosphere ?
Answer:
The earth is the only planet in the universe that has life. One of the reasons why life exists on this planet is an encompassing blanket of gases called the atmosphere. It is like a blanket of air that protects the earth from the harmful rays of the sun. It also controls the temperature and, most important of all, it contains oxygen, which is essential for every form of life. This almost invisible blanket is kept intact around the planet by another invisible entity called gravity.

THINK AND ANSWER

Question
What would happen to the earth if the atmosphere disappeared ?
Answer:
If you would like to see what the earth would look like, take a look at the moon, with all its craters. Another thing that would happen if the earth had no atmosphere is the oceans would boil away, leaving no water here on earth because there is not atmosphere to help complete the water cycle.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Question
We often leave the lights switched on and fans running when we are not in the room. We switch on the air-conditioning even though we don’t really need it. We insist on being dropped to school in the car every day. Thus, we waste valuable energy which is generally produced by burning coal and petroleum. As you know, the burning of these fuels release gases that pollute the atmosphere.
Make a list of the similar things that we do without realizing that we are destroying the environment. Think of the ways that we can behave differently.
Answer:
The list of the similar things that we do without realizing that we are destroying our environment and the ways that we can behave differently and save are :

  1. Leaving The Lights On :
    You’ve probably heard this a million times before but turning the light off when you leave the room, even if you’re only going for a few minutes, really does make a difference to the environment, since it saves a finite source of energy that can’t be replaced.
  2. Boiling The Kettle :
    Many people guess the amount of water they need when they boil the kettle, and they end up boiling too much. Boiling a kettle actually uses a lot of power- enough to light a whole household- which also costs the householder money. There are energy efficient kettles available that can help to reduce energy usage, and kettles that measure how much water is needed for a single mug or a pot of tea.
  3. Eating Farmed Meat :
    Maybe you’re not ready to take a step in the veggie or vegan direction, but if you’re eating farmed meat, you’re supporting an incredibly environmentally damaging industry. Many acres of rainforest are cleared to grow soy crops and grains to feed cattle, and overgrazing of cattle is a major reason for global soil depletion and source of climate pollution.
  4. Commuting :
    Whether you’re flying away on business trips or commuting to work on a daily basis, the way we travel is one of the biggest environmental polluters in our lives. You may not be able to
    give up these habits, but taking steps to reduce them will impact the environment, local pollution levels, and your health.
  5. Wasting Paper :
    We live in a world of mass paper usage, where recycling can easily ease an otherwise guilty conscience and prompt even the most devoted re-users to waste paper. We may all be guilty of throwing away pieces of paper that could otherwise be reused at least once, if only for note-taking purposes and to-do lists, but it’s easy to forget that recycling still uses energy, which can be reduced if you decide to reuse.
  6. Leaving The Tap Running :
    Whether you’re washing the dishes or brushing your teeth, leaving the tap running while you do so wastes a vast amount of water. It may seem like a small water saving, but soaking dishes before washing them and turning off the faucet while you brush your teeth really does reduce the amount of water you use.
  7. Using Plastic Bags :
    It’s hard to make the connection between the single plastic bag you get at the grocery store once a week, and the Great Pacific Garbage Patch. However, there is a strong likelihood that the plastic bags you bring home end will end up in the ocean, or worse. Consider buy a cloth bag instead and make a habit of keeping it in your pocket or bag.

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks.

1. 78% per cent of the atmosphere is made of nitrogen.
2. Along with carbon dioxide and methane, water vapour is a potent greenhouse gas.
3. The rate at which the temperature drops in the troposphere is 1°C per 165 metres.
4. The thermosphere is the layer of the atmosphere that help in radio transmission.
5. The upper part of the thermosphere is called the ionosphere.

B. Match the following.


ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 3 Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 3 Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere 2

C. Choose the correct answer.

1. This per cent of the atmosphere is composed of nitrogen.

  1. 99
  2. 78
  3. 21
  4. 76

2. 21 per cent of the atmosphere is composed of

  1. Helium
  2. Oxygen
  3. Nitrogen
  4. Hydrogen

3. This gas protects us from the harmful ultraviolet radiation.

  1. Oxygen
  2. Ozone
  3. Helium
  4. Hydrogen

4. The rate at which the temperature drops in the troposphere is called

  1. lapse rate
  2. loss rate
  3. less rate
  4. drop rate

5. This layer of the atmosphere has the lowest temperature.

  1. Mesosphere
  2. Thermosphere
  3. Tropopause
  4. Stratosphere

D. State whether the following are true or false.

1. The earth’s atmosphere contains 99 per cent oxygen, which is essential for life.
Answer.  False.
Correct : The earth’s atmosphere contains 21% per cent oxygen, which is essential for life.

2. The stratosphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.
Answer. False.
Correct : The troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere.

3. The temperature drops at the rate of 1°C per 185 metres in the atmosphere.
Answer. False.
Correct : The temperature drops at the rate of 1°C per 165 metres in the atmosphere.

4. The stratosphere extends from the top of the troposphere up to 80 km above the surface of the earth.
Answer. False.
Correct : The stratosphere extends from the top of the troposphere up to 50 km above the surface of the earth.

5. Communication satellites orbit in thermosphere.
Answer. True.

E. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
How is the atmosphere kept in place around the earth?
Answer:
The atmosphere is kept in place around the planet by another invisible entity called gravity.

Question 2.
Name the important gases that are found in the atmosphere.
Answer:
The important gases that are found in atmosphere are nitrogen, oxygen, carbon-dioxide, hydrogen, helium and argon.

Question 3.
How is carbon dioxide a useful gas for life on earth?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide exists in the earth’s atmosphere as a colourless
and odourless gas. Carbon dioxide is produced by all animals, fungi and microorganisms during respiration and is used by plants during photosynthesis. It is also useful gas as it creates the greenhouse effect. It would have been too cold for life to exist on this planet without greenhouse effect.

Question 4.
What is the troposphere?
Answer:
Troposphere is the lowest layer of the atmosphere. It protects us from the heat of sun during day and keeps the earth warm at night ozone. This is the densest layer of the atmosphere and its thickness varies from 8 km over the poles to 18 km over the equator.

Question 5.
What is the difference between the troposphere and the tropopause?
Answer:
The lowest layer of atmosphere is called troposphere where as the boundary between the troposphere and the stratosphere is called tropopause.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
Write briefly about the layers of the atmosphere.
Answer:
The atmosphere is divided into five layers starting from the Earth’s surface

  1. Troposphere — Its average height is 13 km. The air we breathe exists here. Almost all the weather phenomena like rainfall, fog and hailstorm occur in this layer.
  2. Stratosphere — It lies above the troposphere which extends up to a height of 50 km. This layer is almost free from clouds and associated weather phenomenon, making conditions most ideal for flying aeroplanes. It contains a layer of ozone gas.
  3. Mesosphere — It lies above the stratosphere. It extends up to the height of 80 km. Meteorites bum up in this layer on entering from the space.
  4. Thermosphere — In thermosphere, temperature rises very rapidly with increasing height. Ionosphere is a part of this layer. It extends between 80-400 km. This layer helps in radio transmission. In fact, radio waves transmitted from the Earth are reflected back to the Earth by this layer.
  5. Exosphere — This upper most layer. This layer has very thin air. Light gases like helium and hydrogen float into the space from here.

Question 2.
State any three characteristics of the stratosphere.
Answer:
The main characteristics of stratosphere are:

(a) There are no clouds or weather changes so it is safe for air travel.
(b) It extends from the top of troposphere up to 50 km above the surface of earth.
(c) This layer has a band of ozone gas which protects us from sun’s harmful ultraviolet rays.

Question 3.
What is ozone? What is the ozone layer? How is the presence of ozone layer essential to preserve life on earth?
Answer:
(03) is present in the earth’s atmosphere in stratosphere and helps to protect the earth from the ultraviolet radiation from the sun.

Question 4.
State any three characteristics of the mesosphere.
Answer:
The main characteristics of mesosphere are :

  1. It extends from the top of stratosphere upto a height of 80 km above the earth.
  2. This layer has lowest temperature in the atmosphere reaches -100°C at its end.
  3. Most meteors from space burn up in this layer.

Question 5.
Why is the thermosphere important ?
Answer:
The upper part of the thermosphere is called the ionosphere. The ionosphere contains electrically charged particles called ions, which help in transmitting communication signals.

Question 6.
Explain the significance of the earth’s atmosphere.
Answer:
Significance of the Atmosphere :

  1. It gives us air to breathe.
  2. It forms a protective shield against extreme heat.
  3. It also protects us against falling debris from space.
  4. It supports the formation of clouds and rain.

G Picture study :
This is a picture of a supersonic aircraft.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 3 Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere 3

Question 1.
In which layer of the atmosphere does this airplane normally fly?
Answer:
A supersonic aircraft fly in stratosphere.

Question 2.
This layer of the atmosphere is also known to protect living beings from the harmful rays of the sun. How?
Answer:
It has a band of ozone gas which protects the sun’s harmful U.V. rays to reach the living beings.

LET’S DO SOMETHING
In your notebooks, draw a diagram showing the layers of the atmosphere. Mark clearly the ozone layer, the height at which a jet plane can fly and also the height up to which birds can fly.
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 3 Composition and Structure Of The Atmosphere 4

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Major Crops

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ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Major Crops

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

POINTS TO REMEMBER

  • Crops can be divided into two broad categories—food crops (grains that are consumed as food) and cash crops (crops that are sold in the market for cash, such as cotton).
  • Rice is the staple food for the majority of the people. It requires plenty of water.
  • China is the world’s largest rice-producing country, followed by India.
  • Wheat is a crop that grows well in temperature regions.
  • Sugar cane is grown in the tropical and sub-tropical regions of the world.
  • India is the second-largest producer of sugar cane after brazil.
  • China, India and Pakistan are important cotton-growing countries in the world.
  • Jute is known as the ‘golden fibre’.
  • India is the largest jute-producing country in the world and West Bengal is the biggest jute-producing state in India.
  • The Green Revolution refers to the spectacular increase in the yield of food grains in India in the 1960s.

IMPORTANT TERMS

Bagasse : The fibrous matter that remains after sugar cane stalks have been crushed to extract their juice.
Ethanol : A volatile, flammable, colourless liquid.
Green Revolution : The spectacular increase in the production of food grains in the 1960s in India.
HYV seeds : High yielding variety of seeds introduced during the Green Revolution to increase crop production.
Kharif crops : Crops that grow through the summer season in India.
Molasses : A thick, black, sweet sticky liquid produced when sugar is refined.
Rabi crops : Crops that grow through the winter season in India.
Zaid crops : Crops that grow from March to June.

THINK AND ANSWER

Is global warming likely to change agricultural patterns all over the world ?
Answer:
Global warming modifies the rainfall pattern, amplifies coastal erosion, lengthens the growing season in some regions, melts ice-caps and glaciers and alters the range of some infectious diseases.
Warmer temperature extends the growing season. The plants need more water to keep growing throughout the season or they will dry out. The milder winters will fail to kill dormant insects, increasing the risk of large damaging infestation.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILL

The green Revolution led to a spectacular increase in crop production in India. Yet, poor fanners could not really benefit from this because they could not afford the new and expensive varieties of seeds.
What, in your opinion, could the government have done to improve the condition of poor farmers?
Answer:

  1. Govt, should give best prices for their production.
  2. Govt, should provide subsidised Machinery, HYV seeds Pesticides etc.
  3. Govt, should pay off the borrowings/bank loans made by the poor farmer.

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. There are three main crop growing seasons in India — Kharifrabi and zaid.
  2. Cash crops are grown for cash or for commercial purposes.
  3. Bagasse is the crushed sugar cane fibre that is used for the manufacture of paper and fibre boards.
  4. Use of new variety of seeds led to a spectacular increase in crop production in India in the 1960s.
  5. The green revolution led to farmers taking loans and incurring large debts.

B. Match the columns
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 6 Major Crops 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 6 Major Crops 2

C. Answer the following questions in brief

Question 1.
What are kharif crops ? Give one example.
Answer:
The crops which are grown in july and harvested in November are called Kharif crops, eg. rice, maize, etc.

Question 2.
Which are the major rice-producing regions in India ?
Answer:
The major rice – producing regions in India are states of Odisha, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Gujarat, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh, Punjab and Haryana.

Question 3.
What are cash crops ? Give two examples.
Answer:
The crops mainly grown for making profit are called cash crops, eg. sugarcane, oil seeds, etc.

Question 4.
What climatic conditions are suitable for the cultivation of cotton ?
Answer:
Cotton requires a long frost-free period of 6-8 months in a year. It requires plenty of sunshine and dry weather during harvest.

Question 5.
What are the climatic conditions required for growing tea?
Answer:
Tea—Tea is a perennial plant that grows well in both tropical and subtropical regions. It requires a moderately hot and humid climate. Temperatures between 13° and 32° C are ideal for growing tea. Tea requires frequent and well-distributed rain of 200 cm or more throughout the year.

Question 6.
Name the major coffee producing regions of India.
Answer:
Karnataka is the leading coffee producing state followed by Kerala and Tamil Nadu. Other states where some coffee is grown are Andhra Pradesh, Odisha, and the north-eastern states.

Question 7.
What are high yielding varieties of seeds ?
Answer:
The new dwarf and semi-dwarf varieties of seeds, especially of wheat which has lead to Green Revolution are called high yielding varieties of seeds.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
What are the crop-growing seasons in India ? List the different types of crops that grow in each season.
Answer:
There are mainly three crop-growing seasons in India.

  • Kharif season — From July to November — eg. Rice, sugarcane, maize.
  • Rabi season — From October to February — eg. Wheat, barley, mustard.
  • Zaid season — From March to June — eg. Musk melon, sweet potatoes, watermelon, etc.

Question 2.
Write a brief note on the cultivation of wheat in India.
Answer:
Wheat is mainly grown in winter months as it requires a temperature between 10° C and 15° C during growing season and 20°C to 25°C to ripen.
Uttar Pradesh is the leading wheat producing state in India.

Question 3.
What is sugarcane ? What are the different products that are made from sugar cane ?
Answer:
Sugarcane is a hardy crop that is cultivated in the tropical and sub-tropical regions of the world. It belongs to the grass family. It grows as large jointed stalks measuring 2 to 6 m in height. Products: It is from these stalks that raw sugarcane juice is obtained for making sugar. The juice is further processed to make products like molasses, jaggery (gur), ethanol, industrial alcohol, etc. The crushed fibre, known as bagarse, is used for the manufacture of paper and fibre boards.

Question 4.
What are the main areas of tea production in India and in the world ?
Answer:
In India the main tea-producing regions are Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Other tea growing regions of India are Sikkim, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh, and the Kangra Hills in northern India. The finest quality tea is grown on the hill slopes of Darjiling in West Bengal. China and Sri Lanka produce the best quality tea. India is the second largest tea producer in the world after China.

Question 5.
Describe the climatic conditions required for growing coffee.
Answer:
Coffee is a tropical and a sub-tropical plant that grows well on hill slopes. Tropical coffee grows best between 1,200 m and 2,000 m. Sub-tropical coffee grows best at altitudes between 600 m and 1,200 m. It is sensitive to frost and direct heat and therefore grows well in the shade of evergreen trees. Coffee requires rainfall between 160 cm and 200 cm annually. Humidify ranging between 70 and 80 per cent is ideal for the growth of coffee. Coffee plantations must avoid strong sunshine and heavy monsoon rains for better growth. Soil should be rich and fertile and well-drained. Labour for plucking, sowing, weeding, pruning, packaging and handling of coffee should be well-trained, skilled and cheap.

Question 6.
Give any three climatic conditions most suitable for growing rubber.
Answer:
Rubber is a tropical tree that requires a hot and humid climate. It requires rainfall between 200 cm and 300 cm annually and plenty of sunshine. The ideal temperature should range between 20° C and 34° C. Rubber requires high humidity above 80 per cent. Rubber trees are planted on slopes to avoid water stagnation.

Question 7.
What was the Green Revolution ? List its main features.
Answer:
Green Revolution is the increase in the production of food grains in 1960’s in India.
Its main features are :

  1. Traditional agricultural practices gave way to modem and scientific methods of cultivation.
  2. There was marked decrease in shifting agriculture in many parts of India.
  3. In India, farmers had the opportunity for multiple cropping, thereby increasing their income considerably.
  4. The genetically improved high yielding varieties of seeds of wheat, rice and maize were the most important component of the Green Revolution.

Question 8.
Why was the Green Revolution not beneficial for poor farmers ?
Answer:
Green Revolution was not beneficial for poor farmers as they couldn’t afford to buy expensive seeds, fertilizers, machinery, etc. It lead to unemployment as new machinery replaced manual labour. It encouraged farmers to take loans but ended up with large debts on the farmers.

E. On an outline map of Asia mark the following

  1. Rice growing regions in green
  2. Wheat growing regions in pink
  3. Sugar cane growing regions in red
  4. Cotton growing regions in purple
  5. Jute growing regions in brown
  6. Tea growing regions in yellow
  7. Coffee growing regions in orange
  8. Rubber growing regions in blue

Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 6 Major Crops 3

F. Picture Study
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 6 Major Crops 4
The photograph here shows an important feature of an agricultural movement.

Question 1.
Identify the agricultural movement.
Answer:
This picture shows the Green Revolution which came to India in 1960‘s under the supervision of Dr. Norman Borlaug.

Question 2.
Who supervised this movement in India ?
Answer:
The Indian government encouraged fanners to grow new dwarf and semi-dwarf varieties of seed particularly of wheat in the plains of Punjab and Haryana.

Question 3.
List any four demerits of this movement.
Answer:
The main demerits of this revolution were.

  1. It leads to over dependence on fertilizers and pesticides.
  2. Unemployment, as new machinery replaced manual labour.
  3. It was confined to rich farmers as the cost of fertilizers, hybrid „ seeds, pesticides was high.
  4. The farm water polluted with fertilizers and pesticides is affecting human health.