ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Local Self-Government: Urban Local Institutions

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Local Self-Government: Urban Local Institutions

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EXERCISES

Question 1.
By whom are the members of a City Corporation (Municipal Corporation) elected?
Answer:
The members of a City Corporation (Municipal Corporation) are elected by all the adult citizens registered as voters in the Municipal Area.

Question 2.
Who is elected head of a Municipal Corporation? OR Name the Presiding Officer of a Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
The Mayor is elected head of a Municipal Corporation.

Question 3.
Mention any two functions of the Mayor of a City Corporation.
Answer:
Two functions of the Mayor of a City Corporation are:

  1. To preside over the meeting of the Corporation and to regulate the conduct of business in such meetings.
  2.  To maintain decorum and discipline in the meetings.

Question 4.
Who is the Chief Executive (Administrative) Officer of a Municipal Corporation?
Answer:
The Chief Executive (Administrative) Officer of a Municipal Corporation is the Municipal Commissioner.

Question 5.
Mention one obligatory and one discretionary function of a Municipal Corporation (or a Municipality).
Answer:
Obligatory Function: Public Health and Sanitation. Discretionary Function : Transport Facility.

Question 6.
What is an important function of a Municipal Corporation (or a Municipality) in the field of education?
Answer:
The Municipal Corporation (or a Municipality) establishes primary and secondary schools, night-schools and adult education centers.

Question 7.
Name two local self-governing institution in the urban areas.
Answer:

  1. Town Area Committee
  2. Cantonment Board.

Question 8.
Who is elected Head (or Presiding Officer) of a Municipality?
Answer:
The President or Chairman is elected Head (or Presiding Officer) of a Municipality. .

Question 9.
Mention any two limitations in efficient working of local self-governments.
Answer:

  1. Unethical Means Adopted in Elections.
  2. Low Rate of Literacy.

Question 10.
In which urban area is a Notified Area Committee constituted? Why is it so called?
Answer:
A Notified Area Committee (Nagar Panchayat) is set up in town having a population of less than 10 thousand. It is so called because it’s formation was notified by the Government in the State Gazette.

Question 11.
Name the local body (authority) in an area where the armed forces personnel are living.
Answer:
Cantonment Board has been set up in an area where the armed forces personnel are living.

Question 12.
Under whose administrative control does a Cantonment Board function?
Answer:
Under the administrative control of the Army General Officer in Command, a Cantonment Board functions.

Question 13.
By whom are the Cantonment Boards funded?
Answer:
The Cantonment Boards are funded by the Ministry of Defense.

Question 14.
What is the main function of a Port Trust?
Answer:
The main function of a Port Trust is to see that all types of Cargo traffic is properly handled at the port.

Question 15.
What is the main function of an Improvement Trust?
Answer:
The main function of an Improvement Trust (Development Authority) is to properly plan all types of constructions— buildings, roads, shopping centers, flyonvers and bridges  in a city.

Question 16.
Mention any two defects in the working of a local self­ government institutions.
Answer:
Two defects in the working of a local self-government institutions are;

  1. Interference by Political Bosses.
  2. Paucity of Funds.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
With regard to the Municipal Corporation answer the following questions:
(a) What is meant by the Municipal Corporation ?
(b) What are the functions of a Mayor of a Corporation?
Answer:
(a) 
The given questions with regard to the Municipal Corporation are answered as follows:
The Municipal Corporation is “an elected body that is responsible for running the civic affairs of a large city and looking after various needs of the people who live there.” The Contitution lists 18 subjects in the 12th Schedule which the municipal bodies have a duty to be involve with. These include mainly the town planning, roads, water supply, public health, slum improvement and public amenities (street lighting, public parks, public conveniences, etc.)

(b)
The main functions of the Mayor of a Corporation are as follows:

  1. To preside over the meetings of the Corporation and to regulate the conduct of business in such meetings.
  2. To maintain decorum and discipline in the meetings.
  3. To act as the channel of communication between the Corporation and the Government.
  4. As ‘First Citizen’ of town to receive the foreign dignitaries visiting the city.
  5. The Mayor has access to all papers and records of the
  6. Corporation. Despite these powers, the Mayor is merely a figurehead if he is not elected directly by the people. Only a directly elected Mayor would have real power.

Question 2.
Describe the functions of a Municipal Corporation regarding:
(a) Public Health and Sanitation.
(b) Electricity and Water Supply.
(c) Education and Sports.
(d) Public Works.
(e) Record of Births and Deaths.
Answer:
Following are the subject concerned functions of a Municipal Corporation:
(a) Public Health and Water Supply:

The Municipal Corporation establishes and maintains hospitals, dispensaries, maternity homes and child welfare centers. It provides vaccination and inoculation, disposal of garbage and rules against adulteration of milk, drugs and foodstuffs.

(b) Electricity and Water Supply:
It incorporates provision of safe drinking-water, construction and maintenance of water-works and supply of electricity.

(c) Education and Sports:
The Corporation establishes primary and secondary schools, night-schools and adult education centres. They provide facilities to young boys and girls, to develop their aptitude for sports.

(d) Public Works:
It includes

  1. The maintenance and naming of public roads and streets;
  2. Framing rules regarding the construction of shopping centers, restaurants and hotels; and
  3. Serving notice for the demolition of such buildings as are in bad condition.

(e) Record of Births and Death:
The Municipal Corporation maintains an account of births and deaths.

Question 3.
Describe the Discretionary Functions of a Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
The Discretionary functions of a Municipal Corporation are

  1. Transport Facilities:
    Local authorities may manage a bus service for carrying people from one place to another.
  2. Cultural Activities:
    The Municipal Corporations may establish libraries and museums. Cultural activities like— drama, music and painting are also encouraged by Municipal Corporations.
  3. Sports and Recreation:
    The Corporation organises fairs, exhibitions and wrestling events. Recreational facilities may also be provided.
  4.  Welfare Services:
    Municipal Corporation are expected to launch family welfare schemes and to undertake poverty alleviation programmers. The Corporation can look after public distribution system too.

Question 4.
With regard to a Municipality (Municipal Committee) answer the following questions:
(a) What is meant by a Municipal Committee ?
(b) What are the three Discretionary functions of a Municipal Committee ?
(c) What are the three Obligatory functions of a Municipal Committee ?
Answer:
(a)
Municipal Committee is an elected body that is responsible for running the civic affairs of a smaller town or an urban area. It looks after many needs of the people, such as health and sanitation, water supply, fire services, street lighting and urban amenities like parks and playgrounds.
(b)
The Discretionary functions of a Municipal Committee are: establishing libraries and reading rooms, constructing stadiums for sport activity, organising fairs and exhibitions, providing transport facilities and other amenities for people’s convenience.
(c)
Three obligatory function of Municipality include

  1. Public Health and Sanitation: The Municipality takes responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten foodstuffs and adulterated milk, etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply: It is the duty of the Municipal Committees to provide safe drinking water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports: The Municipalities establish primary and secondary schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Construction of road and registration of birth and deaths.

Question 5.
With regard to the composition of a Municipality(Municipal Committee), answer the following questions:
(a) How are the members of a Municipality elected?
(b) Who can be elected as Members of the Board (Council)?
(c) Who presides over the meeting of a Municipal Board and what are his powers and responsibilities?
Answer:
The above questions with regard to the composition of a Municipality (Municipal Committee) are answered as under:
(a)
The members of the Municipality are elected by the adult citizens living within the Municipal area. The size of the Council, varies from town to town, depending on the population of the city. The New Nagarpalika Act, provides for reservation of seats in every Municipality for SCs, STs and women. There is provision of aldermen. They are elected by the Councillors.
(b)
Only those persons can be elected as Councillors,

  1. who have attained the age of 21 or 25 years;
  2. who do not hold an office of profit under the Government or any local body;
  3. whose names are registered as voters in the Municipal area. Under the New Nagarpalika Act, every Municipality will have a uniform five-year term. In the event of dissolution, election would be compulsorily held within six months.

(c)
The President or Chairman presides over the meeting of a Municipal Board. His powers are :

  1. He presides over the meetings of the Board and regulates the conduct of business in such meetings;
  2. He is the channel of communication between the Municipal Board and the Government;
  3. He has access to all records and documents of the Municipality. In some states, the Presidents are empowered to appoint teachers of primary schools and members of the lower staff. The President can suspend municipal employees, except the Executive officer or such other officers as are drawn from State Civil Service.

Question 6.
With regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality, answer the following questions;
(a) What are the functions of a Municipal Committee?
(b) What are the sources of income of a Municipality?
Answer:
The above questions with regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality are answered as below
The functions of a Municipal Committee :

(a) Obligatory Functions:

  1. Public Health and Sanitation: It undertakes the responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten food-stuffs and adulterated milk etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply: It provides safe drinking- water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports: The Municipalities establish primary and secondary schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Public Works: The public works mainly include the construction of roads, shopping centres and community halls.
  5. Registration of Births and Deaths: The Municipals Boards maintain an account of births and deaths in the city.

(b) Discretionary Functions:
Municipalities establish libraries and reading rooms, constructing stadiums for sport activity, organising fairs and exhibitions, providing, transport facilities and other amenities for peoples, convenience. Under Afe/zrw Rozgar Yojana, financial assistance was given  to small artisans for self-employment. There was also a provision for housing and slum clearance programmes.
The sources of income of a Municipality are:

  1. Income from Taxes: It includes tax on property, tax on vehicles, tax on advertisements and entertainment tax.
  2.  Cases Rates: The citizens are required to pay ceses on consumption water and electricity and licence fees for various vocations. Other such ceses are octroi duty and toll tax.
  3. Grants-in-Aid: Grants from State Government constitute an important source of funding.
  4. Remunerative Enterprises: The Municipal Committee may set up commercial complexes or establish other remunerative enterprises.

Question 7.
Although a legal framework for delegating Power to the People has been established, it is yet to be given an iron content. Explain briefly the limitations in efficient working of local self-governments under the following headlines:
(a)Unethical means adopted in elections
(b) Low rate of Literacy
(c) Suppressed position of rural women.
Answer:
(a) Unethical means:
Unfortunately ‘money’ nowadays plays a big role in elections. The rich farmers in rural areas and traders and propertied classes in towns and cities squander a lot of money. This can mar the electoral prospects of those candidates who can not spend much on elections. We also find a connection between criminals and some powerful persons both in rural and urban areas. This may well distort election results. It is a great threat to cleaner polls.

(b) Low rate of Literacy:
Ignorance and democracy cannot go hand in hand. To remain in power needs to have a sound knowledge of facts. People should know the persons whom they elect to act as their representatives. In 2001, The Literacy-rate was recorded at 65.38 in the country. But in a certain districts and regions the number of illiterates is alarming even now.

(c) Suppressed position of rural women:
The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts lay down that l/3rd of the total number of seats at all levels would be reserved for women. The socio-economic condition of tribal women or those belonging to rural or backward regions, is no better than second-rate citizens. They have to face a stiff opposition from their parents or in-laws, if they wish to enter public life. At many places, women elected as Sarpanchas were not allowed to take charge of their work. They are discouraged from going to Panchayat’s office and if they dare go there, they would simply be required to sign some documents and go back to their homes.

Question 8.
There are many defects in the working of local self ­government institutions. Analyse them under the following headlines:
(a) Communal and Caste factors.
(b) Role of Money in Elections
(c)  Paucity of funds.
Answer:
Following are the defects regarding the concerned headlines in the working of local self-government institutions:
(a) 
Communal and Caste factors: Democracy loses its substance if voters are swayed by communal or caste factors. It is unfortunate that candidates are selected on the basis of their caste or community and voters are persuaded to vote on caste and communal lines.

(b )Role of Money in Elections:
In the heat of the election- campaign, the rich, farmers and traders squander a lot of money, usually in a wasteful way. This tendency gives a severe set-back blow to the electoral prospects of the capable candidates who are not in a position to spend much on elections.

(c) Paucity of Funds:
The most serious confronting the rural and the urban bodies is the shortage of funds. These institutions have been entrusted with the responsibility of preparing plans for economic and social development, rural electrification, poverty alleviation slum improvement and urban forestry. To undertake such onerous tasks, the local bodies are yet to start functioning with independence and sufficient resources. Panchayats and urban bodies can become responsive to the local needs through effective participation of the people and sufficient funds at their command.

Question 9.
Describe the shortcomings (limitations in efficient working) of the Panchayati Raj System with reference to the following:
(a) Unethical Means adopted in elections
(b) Poverty and Illiteracy in the country
(c) Communal trends in voting.
Answer:
(a) Unethical Means adopted in elections:
There are some unethical means which are adopted in elections such as

  1. Money game in elections,
  2. Connection between criminals and some powerful persons in rural areas, and
  3. And appeal to voters’s caste feelings.

(b) Poverty and Illiteracy in the country:
The illiterate and poor masses do not understand what their rights are. Ignorance and poverty causes to public apathy and lack of enthusiam about Panchayati Raj.

(c) Communal Trends in Voting:
The voters are not abvoe communal or religious prejudices. Very often the Muslims, the Sikhs, the Christians and other communities vote along communal lines. The Hindus are divided into numerous caste grouping. Unfortunately, caste has become a significant factor in electoral politics. The rural India needs forward looking leaders to take the reins of Panchayati Raj institutions in their hands.

Additional Questions

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Define the term ‘Urban area
Answer:
An urban area is regarded as one which is a town or a city.

Question 2.
Mention any two salient features of the Constitution (74th Amendment Act), 1992.
Answer:
The salient features of the Act are the following:

  1.  The Act gives constitutional status to urban local bodies.
  2. The Act provides for direct election to all the local self­government bodies.
  3.  A fixed tenure of five years for the municipalities has been prescribed.
  4.  33 per cent of the seats should be reserved for women under each category of SC/ST/Backward Classes.

Question 3.
How is a Municipal Corporation set up ?
Answer:
The cities with a population of one lakh and above can have a Municipal Corporation. It is set up under a special statute passed by the State Legislative.

Question 4.
Who is known as Mayor ? State one of his most important functions ?
Answer:
Mayor is selected by the councillors and Aldermen as the representative of the city. One of his functions is to preside over the meetings of the Corporation.

Question 5.
Who is the Municipal Commissioner ? How is he appointed?
Answer:
The Municipal Commissioner is the Chief Executive of the Corporation. He is appointed by the Governor usually for a term of 5 years.

Question 6.
Name one compulsory and one optional function of the Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Compulsory function—Provision of electricity water, sewage disposal.
Optional function—Public housing through housing boards or other bodies.

Question 7.
What is known as Municipal Committee ? Who is its head?
Answer:
Municipal Committee is set up for smaller Towns with a population between20,000to 3 lakhs.
The Chairperson is its head.

Question 8.
Who is the Chief Executive Officer of a Municipal Committee ?
Answer:
Chief Executive officer is an appointee of the State Government. He looks after the administrative wing of the Municipal Committee.

Question 9.
Give two points of difference between a Municipal Committee and a Municipal Corporation.
Answer:
Municipal Corporation

  1. It is meant for big cities with a population of more than 10 lakhs.
  2. The head is known as Mayor.

Municipal Committee

  1. It is meant for Towns with a population between 20,000 to 3 lakhs.
  2. The head is known as Chairperson.

Question 10.
State one important function of a Municipal Committee.
Answer:
Ideals with the State Government through the District Administration with respect to Education, Health, Engineering, Taxation etc.

Question 11.
Name the self-government body in an area having military establishment.
Answer:
Cantonment Board.

Question 12.
What is the minimum age to be eligible to stand for Municipal Elections ?
Answer:
The minimum age should be 21 years.

Question 13.
Give one point of difference between a Town area Committee and the Notified Area Committee
Answer:
Town Area Committee
It is set up in Towns with population between 10.000 to 20000.
Notified Area Committee
It is set up in areas which are in Transition from rural to urban. mostly in the outskirts of big

Question 14.
Where can you find a Cantonment Board ? bow is a Cantonment Board set llP
Answer:
It is an urban area. often on the outskirts of a large city with  military establishment has a cantonment Board. It is set up by the Union Ministry of Defense for providing basic amenities to defense personnel and managing the local affairs of these areas.

Question 15.
What is known as Improvement Trust ?
Answer:
The Improvement Trust looks after the specialised functions of the city. This is a government body.

Question 16.
What are the functions of the Improvement Trust ?
Answer:
The functions of the Improvement Trust are to handle special activities related to medical facilities, Social improvement, national sports, big ceremonies transport etc. e.g. in big cities like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata, Lucknow etc.

Question 17.
Differentiate between Local Self-Government and Local Government.
Answer:
Local Self-Government refers to “management of local affairs by the natives of the area itself or their representatives.” Local Self-Government is a “democratic government”. Local Government means, administration of a locality by officials appointed by the government.

Question 18.
Mention any two advantages of Local Self-Government.
Answer:
Two advantage of Local Self-Government are:

  1.  Effective Management of the Local Affairs.
  2. Good Training for running the Central and State Governments.

Question 19.
What is meant by Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj:
Gram Panchayat at village level—Panchayat Samiti at the Block level—Zila Parishad at the district level.

Question 20
Name any two institutions of Local Self-Government in rural areas.
Answer:

  1. Gram Sabha.
  2. Gram Panchayat.

Question 21.
Explain the term ‘Gram Sabha’.
Answer:
‘Gram Sabha’ is a body of all the adult members registered as Voters in the Panchayat area.

Question 22.
Mention any two functions of a Gram Sabha.
Answer:
Two functions of a Gram Sabha are:

  1. To approve the budget for the year.
  2. To review the audit report of the last year’s accounts of the Panchayat.

Question 23.
Who elects the members of a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
The members of a Gram Panchayat are elected by the. Gram Sabha.

Question 24.
What is the Head of a Village Panchayat called?
Answer:
The Head of a Village Panchayat is called the Sarpanch.

Question 25.
Name any two ex-officio members of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
The Pradhan (President) and the Vice-President of the Gram Sabha.

Question 26.
Mention any two Civic and Welfare functions of a Gram Panchayat
Answer:
Two Civic and Welfare functions of a Gram Panchayat are:

  1. Provision of safe drinking-water which involves construction and maintenance of public wells and tanks.
  2. Health care facilities for which the Panchayats set up dispensaries and health centers.

Question 27.
Mention any two Developmental functions of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Development functions of a Gram Panchayat are:

  1.  Minor irrigation schemes.
  2. Preparation and execution of agricultural plans.

Question 28.
Mention any two Regulatory or General Administrative functions of a Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Regulatory or General Administrative-functions of a Village Panchayat are:

  1. Registration of births, deaths and marriages.
  2. Maintenance of watch and ward service (Chowkidars etc.).

Question 29.
What is the function of a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
The function of a Nyaya Panchayat is to secure speedy and inexpensive justice to the villagers.

Question 30.
Mention any two sources of income of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Gram Panchayat are:

  1. Panchayats have right to levy taxes on property, land, goods and cattle.
  2. Panchayats collect taxes on sale of goods in fairs and makeshift bazars (markets).

Question 31.
Name the intermediate level institution of the Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti.

Question 32.
Who are the ex-officio members of a Panchayat Samiti?
Answer:
All the Sarpanchas (President) of the Panchayats within the Block are the ex-officio members of a Panchayat Samiti.

Question 33.
Mention any two Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti are:

  1. Development of Cottage Industries.
  2. Functions relative to Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Fisheries.

Question 34.
Mention any two Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti are:

  1. The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of the Gram Panchayats.
  2. The Samiti examines the Budget of the Panchayats and may make suitable modifications in it.

Question 35.
Give two sources of income of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Panchayat Samiti are:

  1. Grant given by the State Government.
  2. Income accruing from the taxes levied by the Samiti.

Question 36.
Name the highest organ of the Panchayati Raj institutions at the district level.
Answer:
Zila Parishad (To District Level).

Question 37.
Mention any two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad are:

  1. Construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges and culverts.
  2. Construction of parks.

Question 38.
Mention any two Supervisor functions of a Zila Parishad.
Ans.
Two Supervisory-functions of a Zila Parishad are:

  1. The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of a Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.
  2. It co-ordinates the development plans prepared by the Panchayat Samitis in the District.

Question 39.
Give two sources of income of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two sources of income of a Zila Parishad are:

  1.  Share in the Land-Revenue.
  2. Taxes and cesses, licence fees and market fees.

Long Answer Questions.

Question 1.
With reference to Municipal Corporation, answer the following questions:
(a) State its composition.
(b) State the functions of the Mayor.
(c) State the functions of the Corporation.
Answer:
(a) A Municipal Corporation comprises the following.

  1. General Council formed of elected members known as Municipal Councillors.
  2. The Mayor: It is elected by councillors and the Aldermen.
  3. The Standing Committee: includes members of general council through elections.
  4. The Municipal Commissioner: It is appointed by the Governor usually for 5 years.

(b) The main functions of the Mayor of a Corporation are as follows:

  1. To preside over the meetings of the Corporation and to regulate the conduct of business in such meetings.
  2. To maintain decorum and discipline in the meetings.
  3. To act as the channel of communication between the Corporation and the State or the Union Government, as the case may be.
  4.  To receive the foreign dignitaries visiting the city.The Mayor has access to all papers and records of the Corporation. Despite these powers, the Mayor is merely a figurehead if he is not elected directly by the people. Only a directly elected Mayor would have real power.

(c) The municipal Corporation deals with two types of functions, e.g.

  1. Compulsory Functions:
    Provision of electricity, water sewage disposal etc, Public health, transport, education, births and deaths records, managing the disasters e.g. floods, earthquakes etc.
  2. Optional Functions:
    Public housing, Public parks, museums, libraries, children homes, orphanages, old age homes, rest houses, fairs and beautification of the city.

Question 2.
Give the role of each of the following in the Municipal Corporation,
(a) General Council of the Corporation
(b) Standing Committees.
(c) Municipal Commissioner.
Answer:
(a) General Council:
The General Council consists of the Members elected by all the adult citizens registered as voters in the Municipal area. They are called as Councillors. Size of the Council depends on the population of the city. Seats would be reserved for SCs and STs in proportional to their population „ and l/3rd of the total number of seats shall be reserved for women. In addition to the elected members, the Council has a few Aldermen. They are usually elected by the Councillors. The General Council appoints many other officials except the municipal commissioner .It deals with various departments of Education, Health, Taxation etc.
(b) The role of the Standing Committees:
The General Council performs different functions through the Standing Committees. These Committees deal with one or more of the subject like—Taxation, Finance and Preparation of Budget, Engineering, Health, Education Services, Plan for Economic Development. Welfare Schemes for Weaker Sections etc.

Following are the functions performed by the Municipal Commissioner:

  1. The Municipal Commissioner gives necessary directions to all other officers of the Corporation.
  2. He is responsible for the implementation of all rules, decisions and policies of the Corporation.
  3. He takes part in the meeting and deliberations of the General Council. He acts as Secretary to the Council and maintains a record of the things decided at its meeting.
  4. He prepares the budget-estimates and places the same before the General Council.
  5. He is the custodian of all records and personal files of all staff members.

Question 3.
With regard to the working of a Municipal Corporation answer the following questions.
(a) Giving examples, state how are compulsory functions distinguished from optional functions.
(b) What organisational system exists for carrying out these functions ?
Answer:
(a)
From the following we can better understand the difference between the compulsory functions and optional functions.
Compulsory Functions:
Public Health and Sanitation:

  1. It undertakes the responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten food-stuffs and adulterated milk etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply: It provides safe drinking- water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports: The Municipalities establish primary and secondary .schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Public Works: The public works mainly’ include the construction of roads, shopping centers and community halls.
  5. Registration of Births and Deaths: The Municipals Boards maintain an account of births and deaths in the city.

Optional Functions:

  1. Transport Facilities: Local authorities may manage a bus service for carrying people from one place to another.
  2. Cultural Activities: The Municipal Corporations may establish libraries and museums. Cultural activities like— drama, music and painting are also encouraged by Municipal Corporations.
  3. Sports and Recreation: The Corporation organises fairs, exhibitions and wrestling events. Recreational facilities may also be provide.
  4. Welfare Services: Municipal Corporation are expected to launch family welfare schemes and to undertake poverty alleviation programmers. The Corporation can look after public distribution system too.

(b)
For carrying out the above functions an organisation system that exists is known as Municipal Corporation. Which comprises of the following bodies.

  1. General Council
  2. The Mayor
  3. The Standing Committee
  4. A Municipal Commissioner.

Question 4.
With  regards to the municipal corporation
(a) Distinguish between Municipal Corporation and Municipal Committee.
(b) Describe the three wings of the Municipal Committee.
Answer:
Municipal Corporation

  1. It is for cities with more than 10 lakh population
  2. The head is Mayor.
  3.  It deals with the State Government directly.
  4. It has more powers and more sources of revenue.

Municipal Committee

  1. It is for 20,000-3 lakh population cities.
  2. The head is Chairperson.
  3.  It deals with state government through the District Administration.

It has comparatively less powers and fewer sources of revenue.
(b) Three wing are:

  1. General body of the Municipal Committee:
    The members of the General Body of the Municipal Committee are called Councillors. They are elected from Municipal wards. The number of members depends on the population of the city.
  2. Chairperson/President:
    A Chairperson and a Vice­Chairperson are elected indirectly by the members from among themselves. The Chairperson of a Municipality enjoys vast powers. His functions are similar to those of the Mayor.
  3. Chief Executive officer:
    The Chief-Executive Officer is an appointee of the State government and usually belongs to the State Civil Services. He looks after the administrative wing of the municipal community .General body is the main administrative body. Chairperson looks after every activity and programmer and the Chief Executive Officer looks after the administrative wing of the Municipal Committee.

Question 5.
Give a brief account of each of the following local self­ government bodies.
(a) Town Area Committee.
(b) Notified Area Committee.
(c) Cantonment Board.
Answer:
(a)
Town Area Committee:

It is set up in towns with population between 10,000 to 20,000 .It looks after sanitation, water, electricity, health services, transport, shopping markets etc.
(b)
Notified Area Committee:
It is set up in areas in transition from rural to urban areas. The functions are similar to town area committee.
(c) Cantonment Board:
It is an urban area at the out skirt of a large city, with military establishment has a Cantonment Board. It is significant for the safety and welfare of the city. The head is an Army officer. It looks after health, cleanliness, electricity recreation for the residents of the area.

Question 6.
With regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality, answer the following questions:
(a) What are the functions of a Municipal Committee?
(b) What are the sources of income of a Municipality?
Answer:
The above questions with regard to the functions and sources of income of a Municipality are answered as below:
(a) The functions of a Municipal Committee:
Obligatory Functions:

  1. Public Health and Sanitation: It undertakes the responsibility of maintaining hospitals and dispensaries, cleaning public lanes and preventing the sale of rotten food-stuffs and adulterated milk etc.
  2. Electricity and Water Supply: It provides safe drinking-water and electricity for domestic and commercial use.
  3. Education and Sports: The Municipalities establish primary and secondary schools. They also provide facilities to young boys and girls to develop their aptitude for sports.
  4. Public Works: The public works mainly include the construction of roads, shopping centres and community halls.
  5. Registration of Births and Deaths: The Municipals Boards maintain an account of births and deaths in the city.

(b) Discretionary Functions:
Municipalities establish libraries and reading rooms, constructing stadiums for sport activity, organizing fairs and exhibitions, providing, transport facilities and other amenities for peoples, convenience. Under Nehru Rozgar Yojana, financial assistance was given to small artisans for self employment. There was also a provision for housing and slum clearance programmers.

(c) The sources of income of a Municipality are:

  1.  Income from Taxes: It includes tax on property, tax on vehicles, tax on advertisements and entertainment tax.
  2. Casses Rates: The citizens are required to pay less on consumption water and electricity and licence fees for various vocations. Other such cesses are octroi duty and toll tax.
  3. Grants-in-Aid: Grants from State Government constitute an important source of funding.
  4. Remunerative Enterprises: The Municipal Committee may set up commercial complexes or establish other remunerative enterprises.

Question 7.
There are many defects in the working of local self ­government institutions. Analyse them under the following headlines:
(a) Role of Money in Elections
(b) Paucity of funds.
Answer:
Following are the defects regarding the concerned headlines in the working of local self-government institutions:
(a) Role of Money in Elections:
In the heat of the election- campaign, the rich farmers and traders squander a lot of money, usually in a wasteful way. This tendency gives a severe set-back blow to the electoral prospects of the capable candidates who are not in a position to spend much on elections.

(b) Paucity of Funds: The most serious confronting the rural and the urban bodies is the shortage of funds. These institutions have been entrusted with the responsibility of preparing plans for economic and social development, rural electrification, poverty alleviation slum improvement and urban forestry. To undertake such onerous tasks, the local bodies are yet to (start functioning with independence and sufficient resources. Panchayats and urban bodies can become responsive to the local needs through effective participation of the people and sufficient funds at their command.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Local Self-Government: Rural Local Institutions

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Local Self-Government: Rural Local Institutions

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What is meant by Local Self-Government?
Answer:
The local Self-Government stands for an Elected body enjoying certain degree of autonomy and serving as an administrative unit for local affairs.

Question 2.
What is the main difference between Local Self Government and Local Government ?
Answer:
Local Self-Government refers to “management of local affairs by the natives of the area itself or their representatives.” Local Self-Government is a “democratic government”. Local Government means, “administration of a locality by officials appointed by the government.

Question 3.
Mention the need (any two advantages) of Local Self Government.
Answer:
Two advantage of Local Self-Government are:
(a)
Effective Management of the Local Affairs.
(b) Good Training for running the Central and State Governments.

Question 4.
What is meant by Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
Answer:
Three-tier system of Panchayati Raj : Gram Panchayat at village level—Panchayat Samiti at the Block level— Zilla Parishad at the district level.

Question 5.
What is meant by the term ‘Gram Sabha’.
Answer:
‘Gram Sabha’ is a body of all the adult members registered as voters in the Panchayat area.

Question 6.
Mention any two functions of a Gram Sabha.
Answer:
Two functions of a Gram Sabha are:
(a)
To approve the budget for the year.
(b) To review the audit report of the last year’s accounts of the Panchayat.

Question 7.
What is meant by Gram Panchayat ? Who elects the members of a Gram Panchayat?
Answer:
Gram Panchayat is an ‘Executive Wing’ of the Gram Sabha. It ensures that Constitution makers’ dream of ‘Gram Swaraj’ is realised. The members of a Gram Panchayat are elected by the Gram Sabha.

Question 8.
What is the Head of a Village Panchayat called?
Answer:
The Head of a Village Panchayat is called the Sarpanch.

Question 9.
Mention any two Civic functions of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Civic functions of a Gram Panchayat are:

  1.  Provision of safe drinking-water which involves construction and maintenance of public wells and tanks.
  2. Health care facilities for which the Panchayats set up dispensaries and health centers.

Question 10.
Mention any two Developmental functions of a Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Development functions of a Gram Panchayat are

  1. Minor irrigation schemes.
  2. Preparation and execution of agricultural plans.

Question 11.
Mention any two Regulatory or General Administrative functions of a Village Panchayat.
Answer:
Two Regulatory or General Administrative-functions of a Village Panchayat are:

  1.  Registration of births, deaths and marriages.
  2.  Maintenance of watch and ward service (Chowkidars etc.).

Question 12.
What is the function of a Nyaya Panchayat?
Answer:
The function of a Nyaya Panchayat is to secure speedy and inexpensive justice to the villagers.

Question 13.
Why are lawyers not allowed to appear before a Nyaya Panchayat to plead any body’s case ?
Answer:
Lawyers are not allowed to appear before a Nyaya Panchayat to plead any body’s case, because, this ensure inexpensive justice to village folks.

Question 14.
Name the intermediate level institution of the Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
The intermediate level institution of the Panchayati Raj is Panchayat Samiti.

Question 15.
What is meant by the Panchayat Samiti ?
Answer:
A Panchayat Samiti is an intermediate body which coordinates the activities of all the Village Panchayats in each Block.

Question 16.
Mention any two Civic and Developmental functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti are: 

  1. Development of Cottage Industries.
  2.  Functions relating to Agriculture, Animal Husbandry and Fisheries.

Question 17.
Mention any two Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti.
Answer:
Two Supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti are:

  1. The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of the Gram Panchayats.
  2. The Samiti examines the Budget of the Panchayats and may make suitable modifications in it.

Question 18.
Name the highest organ of the Pahchayati Raj institutions at the district level.
Answer:
The highest organ of the Panchayati Raj institutions at the district level is Zila Parishad (Top District Level).

Question 19.
Mention any two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad are:

  1. Construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges and culverts.
  2. Construction of parks.

Question 20.
Mention any two Supervisory functions of a Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Two Supervisory-functions of a Zila Parishad are:

  1. The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of a Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats.
  2. It co-ordinates the developmental plans prepared by the Panchayat Samitis in the District.

Question 21.
Mention two major problems which hamper the effective working of Village Panchayats. OR
Mention any two limitations (weaknesses) in efficient working of the Panchayati Raj system.
Answer:
Two major problems which hamper the effective working of Village Panchayats are as follows:

  1. Domination of Upper Caste Landed Aristocracy.
  2. Ignorance, Illiteracy and Poverty of the People.

Question 22.
Mention any two features of the new Panchayati Raj Act. OR Mention any two features of the Constitution Seventy third Amendment Act.
Answer:
Two features of the new Panchayati Raj Act are:

  1. There shall be three-tier system of Panchayats at village, intermediate and district level.
  2. In the event of dissolution, elections will be compulsorily held within six months.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
A free people are a people who participate in decisions affecting their lives and destinies. In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) What is meant by Local Self-Government?
(b) What is the need and importance of Local Self­ Government?
Answer:
A free people are a people who participate in decisions affecting their lives and destinies, with reference to this statement the given questions are answered as follows:
(a)
The Local Self-Government and its affairs are managed by the natives of the area itself or their representatives. Thus, Local Self-Government is a “democratic government” in a very real sense.This type of government is formed by the people who are right-conscious, they freely commit to undertake all such works that go in favor and welfare of society. Their way of thinking is constructive and broad that they efficiently participate in decisions that may affect their lives and destinies.
(b)
The Local Self-Government has multi-dimensional  significance. Local people can effectively manage the local affairs like sanitation, electricity, water supply, education, public works and other utilities. Local Self-Government provides opportunity to the people to govern themselves. Local bodies provide a good training to manage national or State affairs later on in life. Most people who reached great heights, began their public career as a member of local bodies. Local Institutions relieve State Administration of some of its burden. Hence, it can concentrate better on matters like—public order, criminal law, police, prisons and trade and commerce within the State. This ensures efficiency at all levels—national, regional and local. Moreover, this system is extremely Economical. These bodies consist of honorary members, serving without pay or very little emoluments.

Question 2.
Freedom becomes meaningful in the right sense of the word only when there are Gram-Panchayats in India. In this context describe the following functions of a Gram Panchayat.
(a) Welfare Functions,
(b) Developmental Functions and
(c) Regulatory and General Administrative Functions.
Answer:
Gram Panchayat is an ‘Executive Wing’ of the Gram Sabha. It ensures that Constitution makers’ dream of ‘Gram Swaraj’ is realised. Freedom becomes meaningful in the right sense of the word only when there are Gram-Panchayats in India.
In this context the given headlines are described below:
(a) Welfare Functions — Welfare functions include

  1. Arrangements for primary and secondary education,
  2. Welfare of expectant mothers and their babies, and ;
  3. Launching welfare programmes for women, youth and children.

(b) Developmental Functions — The developmental functions  include

  1. Minor irrigation schemes,
  2. Rural electrification,
  3. Vocational education,
  4. Cottage and small-scale industries including food processing industries,
  5. Rural housing, especially for the poor and deprived sections of society.

(c) Regulatory and General Administrative Functions —
The Regulatory and General administrative functions are

  1. Registration of births, deaths and marriages,
  2. Maintenance of watch and ward services (Chowkidars, ),
  3. Maintenance of the common property of the village,
  4. Helping the government in maintaining law and order.

Question 3.
With regard to the Panchayat Samiti answer the following questions:
(a) What are the Civic and Developmental functions of a Panchyat Samiti?
(b) What are the supervisory functions of a Panchayat Samiti?
Answer:
In context of the mentioned questions with regard to the Panchayat Samiti the answers are given below:
(a) The Civic and Development functions of a Panchayat Samiti are as follows:

  1. Rural Health Programme: By 31 March, 2001, some 23,000 Primary Health centres and 3,043 Community Health centres had been set-up to provide medical care to the villagers.
  2. Rural water supply, Rural Roads and Regulation of Markets: It is the responsibility of a Panchayat Samiti to meet the fundamental needs like—drinking-water. Further, it gets built and maintain the rural roads and regulates the markets.
  3. Functions relating to Agricuture, Animal Husbandry and Fisheries: These comprise the provision of improved variety of seeds and chemical fertilizers, distribution of pesticides and improved variety of agricultural implements.
  4. Development of cottage Industries: To augment job opportunities, hand looms, handicrafts and village industries have been promoted.
  5. Social Welfare: Panchayat Samiti have to endeavour to promote the welfare of SCs and STs and other backward classes. Various programmes were implemented to bring about improvement in status of women and children. ‘Anganwadis’ were set up in rural areas.
  6. Rural Employment: A new self-employment programme, namely Swcirna Jayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana (SGSR) was launched in 1999. It aims at establishing a large number of small enterprises in the rural areas.

(b) The Panchayat Samiti supervises the work of the Gram Panchayats. The Samiti examines the budget of the Panchayats. It exercises control over the functioning of Block Development officer and his assistants.

Question 4.
At the top level in the Panchayati Raj system, there stands the Zila Parishad. In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) What are the Civic and Welfare functions of a Zila Parishad ?
(b) What are Supervisory functions of a Zila Parishad?
Answer:
With regard to the Zila Parishad, the given questions are answer as under:
(a)

The civic and the welfare functions of Zila Parishad are

  1. construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges and culverts,
  2. to develop the land, water and human resources of the area,
  3. to establish libraries, educational institutions and dispensaries,
  4. to promote the welfare of weaker sections of society, and
  5. to provide relief in times of distress, drought and scarcity.
  6. Construction of parks
  7. To implement programmes concerning agriculture.

(b)
The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of the Panchayat Samitis.and the Gram Panchayats. The Zila Parishad examines and approves the budgets of the Panchayat Samities. The government promoted e-govemance in order to monitor Panchayat Samiti’s functioning, including budgeting and accounting, etc.

Question 5.
Describe the shortcomings (limitations in efficient working) of the Panchayati Raj System with reference to the following:
(a) Unethical Means adopted in elections
(b) Poverty and Illiteracy in the country
(c) Communal trends in voting.
Answer:
(a)
Unethical means adopted in elections, such as

  1. Money game in elections,
  2. Connection between criminals and some powerful persons in rural areas, and
  3. An appeal to voters caste feelings.

(b)
The illiterate and poor masses do not understand what their rights are. Ignorance and poverty contribute to public apathy and lack of enthusiasm about Panchayati Raj.
(c)
The voters are not above communal or religious prejudices. Very often the Muslims, the Sikhs, the Christians and other communities vote along communal lines. The Hindus are divided into numerous caste groupings. Unfortunately, caste has become a significant factor in electoral politics. The rural India needs forward-looking leaders to take the reins of Panchayati Raj institutions in their hands.

Question 6.
With reference to the Constitution, Seventy-third Amendment Act, answer the following questions:
(a) What does the Act lay down about the reservation of seats for SCs, STs and women?
(b) What specific responsibilities have been entrusted to the Panchayats under Schedule XI of the Constitution?
Answer:
The questions given above with reference to the Constitution, 73rd Amendment Act are answered below:
(a)
The 73rd Amendment Act has prudently sympathised with the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes by seeking reservation of the seats in all the Panchayati Raj bodies in proportion to their population. l/3rd of the total number of seats have been reserved for women.Offices of the Chairpersons of the Panchayats at all levels shall be reserved for SCs and STs in proportion to their population in the State. l/3rd offices of the Chairpersons shall also be reserved for women.

(b)
Specific responsibilities have been entrusted to the Panchayats in respect of matters listed in Schedule XI of the Constitution. The Schedule confers 29 items such as agriculture and allied activities, minor irrigation schemes, land-reforms, small
  
industries, rural housing, drinking- water, rural electrification, primary and secondary education, public distribution system and welfare schemes for weaker sections of society.

Additional Questions

I. Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
Name one difference between local government and local self-government unit.
Answer:

  1. Local-government
    The administration of a locality is looked after by the officials appointed by the state.
  2. Local-self-government
    It is an institution of locally elected representatives managing the affairs of the locality and providing them with basic amenities.

Question 2.
Give two advantage of having the local self-government.
Answer:
The local self-government play an important role in the functioning of democracy at grass roots level, because it makes possible for local people to take interest in their own affairs.

Question 3.
Name the three tier institutions of the Panchayati Raj.
Answer:
The three-tier system comprises the following:

  1. Gram Panchayats at Village level.
  2. Panchayat Samiti at block level or middle level.
  3. Zila Parishad at District level.

Question 4.
What is a Gram Sabha ?
Answer:
The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by the Gram Sabha. In essence Gram Sabha (the group of the village people) functions as the general body of the Gram Panchayat.

Question 5.
What did the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act 1992 provide for in respect pf organisation of Panchayats ?
Answer:
The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act. 1992 relating to Panchayats and Part IX A relating to Municipalities provide for among other things a uniform and fixed term of 5 years for both the rural and urban local bodies.                                                              .

Question 6.
What was the view of Gandhiji on Panchayats ?
Answer:
Gandhiji gave stress on the composition of Panchayats for the welfare of the villages. India’s larger part lives in the villages Gandhiji’s dream of a village-republic has become true.

Question 7.
Who is the head of the Village Panchayat ?
Answer:
‘Sarpanch’ is the head of the Village Panchayat.

Question 8.
Under the system of local self-government which local body discharges judicial functions in a rural area?
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayats also called Panchayati Adalats. There is usually one such body for every three or four Gram Panchayats. These Panchayats exist only in some states and perform only judicial functions.

Question 9.
What is known as the Panchayat Samiti ?
Answer:
PanchayatiRaj System at block ormiddle level is called Panchayat Samiti.

Question 10.
Who is the head of the Panchayat Samiti ? How is he appointed ?
Answer:
The head of the Panchayat Samiti is called Chairman. He is appointed by his own members.

Question 11.
Who is the head of local government at the district level?
Answer:
Chairperson is the head of local government at the district level.

Question 12.
What is Nyaya Panchayat ? Give two functions.
Answer:
Nyaya Panchayat also called Panchayati Adalat is set up for every three or four Gram Panchayats. These Panchayats exist only in some States and perform judicial functions.
The chief functions-of Nyaya Panchayats are the following:

  1. They ensure quick and inexpensive justice to villagers.
  2. They can impose a fine of up to Rs. 100.

Question 13.
State two points of importance of having local-self ­government.
Answer:
Local self-government in villages as Panchayat and in urban areas as Municipal Board, provides basic leadership qualities promotion and direct and easy solutions of the local problems.

Question 14.
Point out two differences between Gram Sabha and Gram Panchayat.
Answer:
Both are complementary, as Gram Panchayat is selected by Gram Sabha which functions as the general body of Gram Panchayat. Gram Panchayat is a body of a few selected member for the j udgement of the local people, while Gram Sabha is a larger body including eminent persons of the villagers.

Question 15.
What are the functions of the Panchayat Samiti ?
Answer:
Panchayat Samiti does coordination of the working Panchayats under it, management of schools and colleges, maintenance of hospitals and health services and development of agriculture.

Question 16.
Briefly state the composition of Zila Parishad.
Answer:
Zila Parishad is composed of Deputy Commissioner, BDOs and Chairmen of Deputy Commissioner, MLAs, belonging to the district, including 40-60 members

Structured Questions:

1. With reference to local self-government today, answer the following questions:
Question 1(a).
Name important local self-government institutions in rural areas.
Answer:
In rural areas the local self government institutions is known as Panchayat. It consists of elected representatives. They receive government grants for their activities like sanitation, providing elementary education and settling elementary education and settling disputes.

Question 1(b).
What is the significance of self-government institution?
Answer:
The Local Self-Government has multi-dimensional significance. Local people can effectively manage the local, affairs like sanitation, electricity, water supply, education, public works and other utilities. Local Self-Government provides opportunity to the people to govern themselves.Local bodies provide a good training to manage national or State affairs later on in life. Most people who reached great heights, began their public career as a member of local bodies. Local Institutions relive State Administration of some of its burden. Hence, it can concentrate better on matters like—public order, criminal law, police, prisons and trade and commerce within the State. This ensures efficiency at all levels—national, regional and local. Moreover, this system is extremely Economical. These bodies consist of honorary members, serving without pay or very little emoluments.

Question 1(c).
Mention any three salient features of the Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992.
Answer:
Three salient features of the Constitution are as follows:

  1. To provide three-tier system of Panchayati Raj for all States having population of over 20 lakh.
  2. To hold Panchayat elections regularly every five years.
  3. To provide reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and women.
  4. To appoint State Finance Commissions to make recommendations on financial powers of the Panchayats.

2. With respect to Panchayat Raj System answer the following questions:
Question 2(a).
How did the Panchayats come to be set up on a uniform basis all over the country ?
Answer:
The Constitution (73rd Amendment) Act, 1992 relating to Panchayats provide for among other things a uniform and fixed term of 5 years. On the basis of Gandhiji’s dream and recommendations of Balwant Rai Mehta Committee of 1956, a three-tier system of Local-self Government for rural areas came into effect in April 1993.

Question 2(b).
Describe the common features of the three-tier Panchayat Raj System.
Answer:
Common features are:

  1. Member should be a citizen of India and atleast 21 years of age.
  2. He must be registered voter.
  3. He should not be a convict. .
  4.  He should not hold any other government service.

Question 2(c).
Mention any two achievements of the Panchayati Raj System.
Answer:
The achievements of the Panchayati Raj System are:

  1. Panchayati Raj system now ensures effective coordination between Government programmes and those of voluntary agencies.
  2. The District Rural Development Agencies in close cooperation with Zila Parishadas release funds to Gram Panchayats under the Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojna.

Question 3.
With reference to the Gram Panchayat, state the following.
(a) It composition
(b) Its Function
(c) Important office bearers.
Answer:
(a) The composition of Gram Panchayat is as follows:

  1. Sarpanch:
    He is the head of the Gram Panchayat. In some states a Sarpanch is elected directly dnd in others indirectly by members of the Gram Panchayat. A Vice-Sarpanch from amongst its own members is also elected.
  2. Members:
    Number of members of the Panchayat is fixed by the State. The membership of a Village Panchayat is between 5 to 31. In most of the States a Village Panchayat has 5 to 9 members. One-third of the seats of the Panchayat are reserved for women. Seats are also reserved for Scheduled Castes/Tribes in proportion to their population in the village. The members are elected on the principle of Adult Franchise.
  3. Office Bearers:
    The Sarpanch and Vice-Sarpanch are honorary members. They are not paid salary. A paid Secretary to the Panchayat and a Treasurer, if the Panchayat is large, are also appointed by the State Govemment through the district authorities.

(b) Function: The Gram Panchayat performs the following functions:

Administrative functions:

  1. All public works and public welfare functions like construction, repair and maintenance of village roads, cart tracks, bridges, drains,.tanks and wells.
  2. Upkeep of cremation and burial grounds.
  3. Sanitation, health, setting up of health centres and dispensaries.
  4. Providing primary education.
  5. Arranging irrigation facilities, seeds, fertilisers.
  6. Registration of births and deaths.
  7. Maintaining records of common village property, their sale and purchase and land grants.

Social and economic functions:
These functions are not obligatory and can be performed according to the availability of funds. These functions include:

  1. Construction of guest houses, libraries, marriage halls, etc.
  2. Organising regular village melas, fairsand exhibitions.
  3. Planting of trees, parks, gardens and playgrounds for recreation.
  4. Establishing fair price shops, Cooperative Credit Societies.

Judicial functions: These are discussed under Nyaya Panchayats.

(c)
Officer bearers:
The Sarpanch and Vice-Sarpanch are honorary members. They are not paid salaiy. A paid Secretary to the Panchayat and a Treasurer, ifthe Panchayat is large, are also appointed by the State Government through the district authorities.

Question 4.
With reference to the Panchayat Samiti, write short notes on the following:
(a) Composition of the Panchayat Samiti.
(b) Its functions
Answer:
(a)
Composition of the Panchayat Samiti:
It has the representatives of Panchayat and some others as its members as given below:

  1. Sarpanchs of all Panchayats concerned.
  2. Members of Legislative Assembly of the State from the area.
  3. Members of Parliament belonging to the area.
  4. Block Development Officers of the block or the area served by them.
    Co-opted members (provisional) representing women, Scheduled Castes/Tribes.
  5. Representatives of Cooperative Societies (only in certain States).
    The Samiti appoints various Standing Committees to undertake specialised works. These committees may have outside members as well.

(b)
Functions:

  1. To supervise and coordinate the working of Gram Panchayats.
  2. To conduct higher education (higher secondary level and above) for a group of villages or at block level.
  3. To provide hospital and health services with various facilities at community block level.
  4. To pay special attention to development of agriculture through undertaking minor irrigation schemes, distribution of quality seeds and fertilisers.
  5. To approve buildingplans, undertake other development works including roads and bridges within the circle of Panchayats.
  6. To provide drinking water and execute other community development programmes/schemes.
  7. To act as a link between the Gram Panchayat and Zila Parishad.

Question 5.
Name the apex body of the Panchayat Raj System State its composition, functions and sources of income.
Answer:
With regard to the Zila Parishad, the given questions are answer as under:
Composition:
The Zila Parishad is an apex body under the Panchayati Raj. It co-ordinates the activities of the various Panchayat Samitis. It consists of

  1. Pradhans of the Panchayat Samitis of the District;
  2. Members of Parliament and Members of State Legislature from that district;
  3. One representative of each of the co-operative societies of the district;
  4. Representative of women, Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes;
  5. Chairpersons of the Municipalities in the district. In some states, the District Magistrate is empowered to attend the meetings of the Zila Parishad, but he does not have the right to vote. Zila Parishads shall have to uniform 5-year term as per the norms and conditions of the new Panchayati Raj Acts. Each Zila Parishad has a Chairperson who is elected by the members of the Parishad. In proportion to their population in the State, Chairpersons shall be reserved in favour of SCs and STs l/3rd of the offices are reserved for women.

(a) The main functions of the Zila Parishad are:
Civic Facilities and Welfare Functions:
These consist of

  1. Construction and maintenance of public roads, bridges . and culverts;
  2. Construction of parks;
  3. To implement programmes concerning agriculture;
  4. To develop the land, water and human resources of the area;
  5.  To establish libraries, educational institutions and dispensaries;
  6. To promote the welfare of weaker sections of society;
  7.  To provide relief in times of distress, drought and scarcity,

(b).Coordinating and Supervisory Functions: The Zila Parishad supervises the activities of the Panchayat Samitis and Gram Panchayats. It coordinates the developmental plans prepared by the Panchayat Samitis in the District. The Zila Parishad examines and approves the budgets of the Panchayat Samitis.

(c).Advisory and Financial Functions: The Zila Parishad renders advice of the State-Government regarding needs of the people in rural areas. It receives funds from the Union or State-Government, which it distributes among the Panchayat Samitis.

(d).Developmental functions: It undertakes developmental functions such as irrigation schemes, rural electrification, poverty alleviation programmes and public distribution system etc. The District Board is expected to strive for yet more efficiently for the development of its area and people.
The main sources of income of the Zila Parishad are:

  1. Share in the Land Revenue.
  2. Taxes and casses, licence fees and market fees.
  3. Grants from the the State Government.
  4. Income from the property of the Zila Parishad.
  5. Funds allotted by the Center under Centrally-sponsored Schemes.

Question 6.
Using the following points, explain the eactors (reasons) responsible for the emergence of Regional Parties:
(a) Ethnic and Cultural factors.
(b) Fear concerning North’s domination.
(c) Centre-State relations.
(d) Organisational weakness of the Congress.
Answer:
Following are the factors responsible for the emergence of Regional Parties:
(a)
Ethnic and Cultural factors:

India is a country of enormous size and diversities—ethnic and linguistic. There are regions which are far away from the National Capital. People dominating some of the regions, blame the national parties for not knowing their problems. Consequently, their attachment to the regional parties is quite natural. They believe the regional parties like—Biju Janata Dal, Goa People’s Congress, Mizo National Front and Telugu Desam Party could voice their aspirations in a well to do manner.
(b)
Fear concerning North’s domination:
Some of the leaders of the South India had been against the domination of North India. The DMK and All-India Anna DMK were the parties being fed on anti-North and anti-Hindi stance. But now, the two Southern parties are getting rid of their old prejudicies.
(c) 
Centre-State relations:
By 1970s the Centre-State relations began to attenuate. A movenlent for real State autonomy arose in Punjab, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal and North­eastern regions.
The main demands of the regional parties are:

  1. Regional imbalances should be done away with,
  2. President’s rule should not be imposed in State to promote partisan interests, and
  3.  The States should have a better share in Central revenues.

(d)
Organisational weakness of the Congress:
When the Congress was strong in organisation, regional parties were practically non-existent. As the Congress weakened, regional parties gained the upper hand in some of the States.

Question 7.
Regional parties have captured governmental power in many States. In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) What is the criteria for a party’s recognition as a Regional or State Party?                                      ‘
(b) How are the Regional Parties different from All-India (National) Parties?
Answer:
Regional parties have captured governmental power in many States in this context the given questions are answered below:
(a)
The criteria for a party’s recognition as a Regional or State Party:
A minimum of 6 per cent of votes at an election either to the Lok Sabha or the Assembly of votes at an election either to the Lok Sabha or the Assembly of the concerned State and atleast two seats in the Assembly, Alternatively, 3 per cent of seats in Assembly or a minimum of three seats, whichever is more.
(b)
National parties have influence over the country or in many States of India. The influence of the Regional parties extends to one State or a few regions. National parties are more concerned with national interests, whereas regional parties protect and promote mainly regional interests. The Regional parties concern themselves with the local or regional matters. National parties have to harmonise many conflicting regional interests. The Regional parties usually stand for greater autonomy for States. An exclusive symbol is reserved for a national party throughout the country. In case of a Regional party a symbol is reserved for it in the State or the Union Territory in which it is recognised.

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Elections and the Election Commission

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Elections and the Election Commission

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What is meant by Elections? Mention any one principles according to which elections are conducted in a democracy.
Answer:
An election is an organised process in which people vote to choose the persons who shall represent them in Parliament or the State Legislature. Elections are also held to elect those persons who hold a constitutional position, such as the President or the Vice-President of India.
Elections in a democracy are conducted according to the following principles:

  1. Universal Adult Franchise,
  2. The Secret Ballot, and  Electoral choice offered by competition between political parties or between many candidates.

Question 2.
Who can become a Voter in India?
Answer:
The Constitution of India permits every person, who is a Citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law’, is eligible to become a Voter in India.

Question 3.
What is the significance of Elections in a democracy? OR Mention any one need for Elections.
Answer:
Elections are the lifeline of democracy. We need elections for the following reasons:

  1. It is the best way by which representatives of the people can be chosen and sent to legislatures.
  2. When there is a contest between different candidates for the same position, it gives the voters a greater choice of selection and makes it easy to elect candidates by casting their vote.
  3. Elections help the people to put a check on the activities of the government because political parties know that they will be ousted from power if they do not perform according to the expectations of the people.
  4. By contesting elections, either as members of a political party or as an independent candidate, people get a chance to form the government and make laws and policies for the welfare of their people and their country.

Question 4.
What is a General Election?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha election is said to be a General Election.

Question 5.
What is a By-Election?
Answer:
A By-Election is held to choose a member of the Lok Sabha or that the State legislature “to replace a previous member who has resigned suddenly or died.”

Question 6.
What is meant by Midterm-Election?
Answer:
A midterm-poll that is held in consequence to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha or the State Assembly before its term is over is called as Midterm-Election.

Question 7.
What is meant by Direct Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters directly choose their representatives to the legislatures is known as Direct Election.

Question 8.
What is Indirect Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters do not directly elect their representatives to the legislatures or Head of State, but elect an intermediate body which finally proceeds to elect the representative or the President, such an election is called as Indirect Election.

Question 9.
Name two bodies whose members are elected by Indirect Election.
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad (State Legislative Council) are the two bodies, whose members are elected by Indirect Election.

Question 10.
Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of Direct Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Direct Election: It stimulates the interest of the people in elections.
Disadvantage of Direct Election: The masses, under the influence of emotions or religious leaders, may reject someone who is rational and is able to think clearly.

Question 11.
Mention one main advantage and one disadvantage of Indirect Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Indirect Election: It reduces the heat of the election campaign.
Disadvantage of Indirect Election: It may lead to horsetrading or evil practices such as bribery, because the final electors are very few in number.

Question 12.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners?
Answer:
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

Question 13.
Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission.

Question 14.
What is the term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years.

Question 15.
The Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 16.
Mention any two powers (functions) of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Two powers (functions) of the Election Commission are:

  1. Preparation of the Electoral Rolls.
  2. Conduct of Elections.

Question 17.
What is meant by a Single-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Single-Member Constituency is one, which returns only one representative from each area.

Question 18.
What is a Multi-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Multi-Member Constituency is one, which elects more than one representative.

Question 19.
What is meant by a Reserve Constituency?
Answer:
It was the Scheme of Communal Electorates that falls under Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced by the British Government. The Act provided for separate representation of the Muslim Community at the Center as well as in Provincial Legislatures. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended this privilege to the minorities such as the Sikhs, the Anglo-Indians, Europeans and the Indian Christians. In due course of time, the Constitution of India abolished Communal Electorates.

Question 20.
Mention any two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign begins.
Answer:
Two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign are:

  1. Nomination of Candidates
  2. Scrutiny of Nominations.

Question 21.
Mention any two techniques of Election Campaign.
Answer:
The two techniques of Election Campaign are:

  1. Public meetings and rallies are organised.
  2. The candidates do door-to-door canvassing.

Question 22.
What is an Election Manifesto? OR What is the use of an Election Manifesto?
Answer:
An Election Manifesto is a formal statement of the programme and objectives of a political party. The Manifesto contains programmers and promises for all sections of the society.

Question 23.
What is Secret Ballot?
Answer:
‘Secret Ballot’ means that each voter elects the candidates of his choice and the ballot paper is not shown to any one else.

Question 24.
Mention any two reasons why a Ballot Paper becomes invalid.
Answer:
A ballot paper becomes invalid when

  1.  It is not marked at all.
  2.  The voter indicates his choice for more than one candidate.

Question 25.
What is the maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest?
Answer:
The maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest amounts at Rs. 15 lacs.

Question 26.
Mention any two measures that ensure that elections are free and fair in India.
Answer:
The two measures that ensure free and fair elections in India are:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.

Question 27.
Mention any one measure that has been taken to discourage non-serious candidates from jumping into the election fray.
Answer:
For election to the Lok Sabha the Security Deposit was raised in 1996 from Rs. 500 to Rs. 10,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. For Assembly elections it was raised from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 125 to Rs. 2,500 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. The security deposit of such candidates as have obtained less than one-sixth of the total number of votes is forfeited.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
With reference to the composition of the Election Commission, explain the following:
(a) Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.
(b) Their Terms of Office and Conditions of Service.
Answer:
Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners:
(a) 
The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are appointed by the President.
(b) Terms of Office and Conditions of Service of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner shall hold office for a term of six years. However, if the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner has attained the age of 65 years, he shall vacate office on the date on which he attains the said age.
  2. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are paid a salary equal to the salary of a judge of the Supreme Court e., Rs. 30,000 per month. On retirement, they are entitled to a pension.
  3. If the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners differ in opinion on any matter, such matter shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority.

Question 2.
What measures have been taken to ensure Independence of Election Commission?
Answer:
The Election Commission’s independence is secured by the following provisions:

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. The other commissioners can not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. Their conditions of service shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.
  3. It is the duty of the President or the Governor of a State to make available to the Commission such staff as may be necessary for the conduct of elections.

Question 3.
With reference to the powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following:
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll
(b) Recognition of Political Parties
(c) Allotment of Symbols
Answer:
The given headlines with reference to the powers and functions of the Election commission are discussed below:
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll:

The Constitution lays down that there shall be one ‘General Electoral Roll’ for every territorial constituency. The Lok Sabha or any of the Assemblies may be dissolved before its terms of five years has expired. Therefore, the electoral rolls will have to be kept up-to-date all the time so that the new election may take place without any difficulty.

(b) Recognition of Political Parties: The Election Commission grants recognition to the political parties for Election purposes. These national parties are Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP), Indian National Congress (INC) (Cong. I), the CPI (M), the Communist Party of India (CPI), Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).

(c) Allotment of Symbols:
The National and State level parties can have a reserved symbol for all the candidates nominated by them. The independent candidates, can select any symbol out of a list of ‘Free Symbols’. The purpose behind allotting symbols is that illiterate masses can not read the names of the candidates of their parties. It is easy for them to identify the symbols for electing candidates of their choice. Secondly ‘reserved symbols’ become so popular that the parties do not have to do canvassing for their candidates.

Question 4.
Elections are the barometer of democracy. In this context mention any four measures that have been taken to ensure free and fair elections in India ?
Answer:
In context of elections as the barometer of democracy, the given questions are answered as follows:

To ensure free and fair elections in India, many measures have been taken by the Election Commission:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies;
  2.  The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns;
  3. The Commission creates conditions for free and fair poll. Recent amendments to the Representation of the People Act provide severe punishment for booth-capturing.

Question 5.
With reference to powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following:
(a) Conduct of Elections
(b) Ensuring Free and Fair Elections
Answer:
(a) Conduct of Elections:
The Commission conducts all elections to Parliament and the State Legislature. Besides, it supervises and directs elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President Exact dates or polls and finalised after consultations with the Election Commission.
(b) Ensuring Free and Fair Elections:
The Commission takes the following measures to ensure free and fair elections:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.
  3. The Commission creates conditions for a free and fair poll. Recent amendments to the Representation of the People Act provide severe punishment for booth-capturing.

Additional Questions

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by an election ?
Answer:
Election is a procedure whereby persons are chosen, by voting, to represent the voters for running the government.

Question 2.
Under which method of elections are the elections to Lok Sabha held ?
Answer:
The elections to Lok Sabha are held directly. People of India directly elect their representatives to the Lok Sabha.

Question 3.
Name the system of election to the office of the President of India.
Answer:
The system of election to the office of the President of India is Indirect.

Question 4.
What is meant by a by-election ?
Answer:
When a seat held by any member of the Legislative Assembly in the Centre or States falls vacant due to death or resignation of the member, before completion of the term, to fill up this vacancy the election is called By-Election.

Question 5.
Who allots the symbols to political parties ?
Answer:
Election Commission allots the symbols to political parties.

Question 6.
When is a mid-term election held ?
Answer:
This type of election is held when a State Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its full term (5 years).

Question 7.
Who appoints the Election Commissioners ?
Answer:
The Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India.

Question 8.
What is the normal term of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners ?
Answer:
The normal term is of 6 years, but the retirement age is 65.

Question 9.
Name two important powers and functions of the Election Commission.
Answer:
The Election Commission has given wide range of power as: Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996. The functions and power of the Election Commission with respect to the conduct of elections to are given below:

  1. Preparation of Electoral Rolls and Photo Identity Cards.
  2. Registration and Recognition of Political Parties.
  3. Allotment of Symbols etc.

Question 10.
Name one advisory function of the Election Compassion.
Answer:
The Election Commission also advises the President or the Governors of the State in respect of Electoral matters.

Question 11.
What is known as the Voters List ? Who prepares it ?
Answer:
The Commission identifies eligible voters in each constituency and prepares the list of eligible voters. This is called ‘Voters List’.

Question 12.
What is the need for elections ?
Answer:
Elections are the lifeline of democracy. We need elections for the following reasons:

  1. It is the best way by which representatives of the people can be chosen and sent to legislatures.
  2. When there is a contest between different candidates for the same position, it gives the voters a greater choice of selection and makes it easy to elect candidates by casting their vote.
  3. Elections help the people to put a check on the activities of the government because political parties know that they will be ousted from power if they do not perform according to the expectations of the people.
  4. By contesting elections, either as members of a political party or as an independent candidate, people get a chance to form the government and make laws and policies for the welfare of their people and their country.

Question 13.
Define the term Constituency. Name the types of constituencies.
Answer:
The division of country or a State into a number of representative areas is called constituencies. So, a constituency is a fixed area with a body of voters or residents with voting rights. The types of constituencies are the Parliamentary Constituency and the Assembly Constituency.

Question 14.
What is the main purpose of allotting symbols to political parties ?
Answer:
Political parties are allotted reserved common symbols, while the independent candidates may select them  from the list of free symbols. Main purpose is that these symbols may be easily recognized by illiterate people.

Question 15.
Mention two functions of the Returning Officer.
Answer:
The Returning officer has to scrutinise the nomination papers and has authority to reject the nomination papers.

Question 16.
What is meant by the term ‘election by secret ballot’ ?
Answer:
This means that the voter chooses the candidates of his choice secretly.

Question 17.
What is called the ‘simple majority’ ?
Answer:
The person who gets ‘the highest number of votes’ or the ‘simple majority’ is declared the winner.

Question 18.
When is a vote declared invalid and not counted ?
Answer:
The ballot paper which is not properly stamped or bears more than one stamp is declared invalid.

Question 19.
What is meant by election petition ?
Answer:
In case any defeated candidate has a reasonable doubt about rigging of elections, voter or a defeated candidate can file a petition in the court of law.

Question 20.
When is repoll at a booth held ?
Answer:
The Election Commission orders are poll within two or three days after the first polling, in case there is a threat to voters security or other genuine reasons prevailing.

Question 21.
State one limitation of democracy in respect of elections.
Answer:
One limitation of democracy in respect of elections is the ‘Proportionate Representation’ i.e. a system in which parties in an election gain seats in proportion to the number of votes cast for them.

Question 22.
Name one important duty of an enlightened electorate.
Answer:
An enlightened electorate works out the election procedure keeping in view all the basic rules fixed for the election, in a disciplined manner with honesty and peace.

Question 23.
What is meant by Elections? Mention any one principles according to which elections are conducted in a democracy.
Answer:
An election is an organised process in which people vote to choose the persons who shall represent them in Parliament or the State Legislature. Elections are also held to elect those persons who hold a constitutional position, such as the President or the Vice-President of India.
Elections in a democracy are conducted according to the following principles:

  1. Universal Adult Franchise,
  2.  The Secret Ballot, and
  3. Electoral choice offered by competition between political parties or between many candidates.

Question 24.
Who can become a Voter in India?
Answer:
The Constitution of India permits every person, who is a Citizen of India and who is not less than eighteen years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law, is eligible to become a Voter in India.

Question 25.
Mention any one advantage of Elections.
Answer:
People Elect their Rulers:
It is through elections that Parliament and the State legislatures are constituted. The party or the parties which get the verdict in their favor form the government. The elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies elect the President of India. The Prime Minister and other ministers are appointed by the President. They are held responsible to the Lok Sabha. Thus it is through elections that various government structures are established and made functional.

Question 26.
What is a General Election?
Answer:
The Lok Sabha election is said to be a General Election.

Question 27.
What is a By-Election?
Answer:
A By-Election is held to choose a member of the Lok Sabha or that the State legislature “to replace a previous member who has resigned suddenly or died.”

Question 28.
What is meant by Midterm-Election?
Answer:
A midterm-poll that is held in consequence to the dissolution of the Lok Sabha or the State Assembly before its term is over is called as Midterm-Election.

Question 29.
What is meant by Direct Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters directly choose their representatives to the legislatures is know as Direct Election.

Question 30.
What is Indirect Election?
Answer:
The election in which the voters do not directly elect their representatives to the legislatures or Head of State, but elect an intermediate body which finally proceeds to elect the representative or the President, such an election is called as Indirect Election.

Question 31.
Name two bodies whose members are elected by Indirect Election.
Answer:
The Rajya Sabha and Vidhan Parishad (State Legislative Council) are the two bodies, whose members are elected by Indirect Election.

Question 32.
Mention one advantage and one disadvantage of Direct Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Direct Election: It stimulates the interest of the people in elections.
Disadvantage of Direct Election: The masses, under the influence of emotions or religious leaders, may reject someone who is rational and is able to think clearly.

Question 33.
Mention one main advantage and one disadvantage of Indirect Election.
Answer:
Advantage of Indirect Election: It reduces the heat of the election campaign.
Disadvantage of Indirect Election: It may lead to horse ­trading or evil practices such as bribery, because the final electors are very few in number.

Question 34.
What is meant by a Single-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Single-Member Constituency is one, which returns only one representative from each area.

Question 35.
What is a Multip-Member Constituency?
Answer:
A Multi-Member Constituency is one, which elects more than one representative.

Question 36.
What is meant by a Reserve Constituency?
Answer:
It was the Scheme of Communal Electorates that falls under Indian Councils Act of 1909 introduced by the British Government. The Act provided for separate representation of the Muslim Community at the Centre as well as in Provincial Legislatures. The Government of India Act, 1919 extended this privilege to the minorities such as the Sikhs, the Anglo- Indians, Europeans and the Indian Christians. In due course of time, the Constitution of India abolished Communal Electorates.

Question 37.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners?
Answer:
The President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

Question 38.
Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission.

Question 39.
What is the term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner?
Answer:
The term of office of the Chief Election Commissioner is six years.

Question 40.
How can the Chief Election Commissioner be removed from his office?
Answer:
The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed in the manner as a judge of the Supreme Court.

Question 41.
Mention any two powers (functions) of the Election Commission.
Answer:
Two powers (functions) of the Election Commission are:

  1. Preparation of the Electoral Rolls.
  2. Conduct of Elections.

Question 42.
Mention any two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign begins.
Answer:
Two stages in the election process before the Election Campaign are:

  1.  Nomination of Candidates
  2. Scrutiny of Nominations.

Question 43.
Mention any two techniquest of Election Campaign.
Answer:
The two techniques of Election Campaign are:

  1. Public meetings and rallies are organised.
  2. The candidates do door-to-door canvassing.

Question 44.
What is an Election Manifesto? OR What is the use of an Election Manifesto?
Answer:
An Election Manifesto is a formal statement of the programmer and objectives of a political party. The Manifesto contains programmers and promises for all sections of the society.

Question 45.
Mention any two reasons why a Ballot Paper becomes invalid.
Answer:
A ballot paper becomes invalid when

  1. It is not marked at all.
  2. The voter indicates his choice for more than one candidate.

Question 46.
What is the maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest?
Answer:
The maximum limit of the expenses for a Parliamentary contest amounts at Rs. 15 lacs.

Question 47.
Mention any two measures that ensure that elections are free and fair in India.
Answer:
The two measures that ensure free and fair elections in India are:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.

Question 48.
Mention any one measure that has been taken to discourage non-serious candidates from jumping into the election fray.
Answer:
For election to the Lok Sabha the Security Deposit was raised in 1996 from Rs. 500 to Rs. 10,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. For Assembly elections it was raised from Rs. 250 to Rs. 5,000 for the general candidates and from Rs. 125 to Rs. 2,500 for candidates belonging to SCs and STs. The security deposit of such candidates as have obtained less than one- sixth of the total number of votes is forfeited.

II. Structured Questions:
Question 1.
With reference to Democracy and Elections, answer the following questions:
(a) Distinguish between two types of elections.
(b) What type of elections are direct and what type are indirect in a Parliamentary Democracy ?
(c) How are elections of the President and Vice-President of India held ?
Answer:
(a)
Direct Elections

  1. People vote directly for their representatives.
  2. Law regulates the eligibility of voters and officials.
  3. Every adult holds right to  vote.
  4. There is a very large body of voters called electorate.
  5. M.L.A. and M.P.’s are elected directly indirectly

Indirect Elections

  1. People elect their representatives indirectly through their elected representative
  2. All elected representatives are treated as perfect.
  3. Every elected repres­entative hold right to vote
  4. There is very small body of voters.
  5. The members of State Legislative Councils, Members of Rajya Sabha the President and the Vice-President are elected

(b)
Direct elections are held for electing M.L.A. and M.P. Indirect elections are held for M.L.C., members of Rajya Sabha, the President and Vice-President.

(c)
The President of India is elected by a system of proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote by the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the M.L.A.’s of the States. The Vice-President is elected by members of both House of Parliament assembled at a joint meeting.

Question 2.
With reference to types of elections, answer the following:
(a) What is known as General Elections ?
(b) State two points of difference between a by-election and mid-term elections.
(c) When were the last General Elections held in India?
Answer:
(a)
The elections held to elect the members of the Lok Sabha after expiry of the normal term of five years are called the General Elections.
(b)
Mid-Term Election: Is held when a State Legislative Assembly or the Lok Sabha is dissolved before the completion of its full term (5 years)
By -Election when a seat held by any member of the Legislative Assembly in the Centre or State falls vacant due to death or resignation of the member before the completion of his/her term.
(c)
The Last General Elections were held in India in the year 2009 in April and May.

Question 3.
With reference to terms of office and conditions of service of the Election Commission, answer the following questions
(a) Who is the head of the Election Commission ?
(b) How is he appointed ?
(c) State any two functions of the Chief Election Commissioner.
Answer:
(a)
Chief Election Commissioner is the head of the Election Commission.
(b)
The Chief Commissioner is appointed by the President of India and is done at the behest of the Prime Minister as per Article 74.
(c)
The two functions are:

  1.  Preparation of Electoral rolls
  2.  Sole authority for superintendence and conduct of elections.

4. With reference to powers and functions of the Election Commission, answer the following:
Question 4(a).
Explain the role of the Election Commission in fixing the dates for elections and conducting the elections.
Answer:
The Election Commission fixes dates for elections. Under the Constitution, the Government decides as to when the elections should be held. The fixing of exact dates rests with the Election Commission.

Question 4(b).
How does the Election Commission ensure free and fair elections ?
Answer:
The Election Commission tries to ensure free and fair elections through prescribing code of conduct, central observers, countermanding, severe punishment for booth capturing etc.

Question 5.
With reference to Election procedures, answer the following questions.
(a) State the procedure for allotment of symbols, state its advantages.
(b) State the nomination procedure. What happens when a nomination paper is incomplete ?
(c) State the procedure by secret ballot ?
Answer:
(a)
The allotment of symbols is done much before the election by the Election Commission. The symbols help the illiterate to identify their candidate by the symbol, to avoid confusion of duplicate names and to carry elections systematically.
(b)
The candidate who intend to contest the elections either as individual candidate or from a political party have to fill in a form called -Nomination paper. If it is incomplete, the Returning officers have the authority to reject the Nomination Paper.
(c)
Secret ballot: It is the method of stamping ballot paper secretly and then placing the ballot paper in a sealed box or casting a vote on the Electronic Voting Machine by pressing a button.

Question 6.
With reference to elections, answer the following question:
(a) State the difference between secret ballot and open ballot.
(b) What is known as Election Petition ? State the procedure of filling an election petition.
(c) When is a repoll ordered ?
Answer:
(a)
Secret Ballot

  1.  It is the method of stamping ballot paper secretly.
  2.  This process is conducted by Election Commission
  3. It is safe and does not create jealousy.

Open Ballot

  1.  It is the method of raising hands by the voters.
  2.  This process is done in certain cases.
  3. It creates the feeling of jealousy against the voter.

(b)
If the defeated candidate has any doubt regarding unjust elections, he can file a petition in a court of law especially in High Court. He may be declared winner on the basis of . merits of the case; however, litigations have always a final . choice to appeal to the Supreme Court.

(c)
The Election Commission on its own can countermand an  election. It can also suspend polling when it fears a threat to voter’s security or other genuine reasons. Then the Election Commission orders a repoll which takes place within two or three days after the first polling.

Question 7.
What is the need for Elections? What are the comparative advantages and disadvantages of Direct and Indirect Elections?
Answer:
It is generally said, ‘No elections, no democracy’. This saying is not without meaning, it simple words it devotes that without the elections a democratic government cannot be set up.

  1. People Elect their Rulers:
    It is through elections that Parliament and the State legislatures are constituted. The party or the parties which get the verdict in their favour form the government. The elected members of Parliament and State Legislative.
  2. People Exercise Control over their Representative:
    Representatives are elected for a fixed tenure and they have to seek fresh mandate from the people at regular intervals. In 2002 the Congress and the PDP (People’s Democratic Party) had formed a coalition government in Jammu and Kashmir. But in 2008 the people voted for a change. Oman Abdul led the National Conference.
  3. Protection of Human Freedoms:
    A government based on the consent of the citizens is relatively more secured than one in which people have no right of participation. In complete democracy no one can complain that he has not a chance to be heard.

Question 8.
With reference to the composition of the Election Commission, explain the following:
(a) Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.
(b) Their Terms of Office and Conditions of Service.
Answer:
Appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners:
(a) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are appointed by the President.
(b) Terms of Office and Conditions of Service of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners.

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner shall hold office for a term of six years.
  2. However, if the Chief Election Commissioner or an Election Commissioner has attained the age of 65 years, the shall vacate office on the date on which he attains the said age.
  3. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Commissioners are paid a salary equal to the salary of a judge of the Supreme Court e., Rs. 30,000 per month. On retirement, they are entitled to a pension.
  4. If the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election commissioners differ in opinion on any matter, such matter shall be decided according to the opinion of the majority.

Question 9.
What measures have been taken to ensure Independence of Election Commission?
Answer:
The Election Commission’s independence is secured by the following provisions:

  1. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from office except in like manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. The other commissioners can not be removed from office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.
  2. Their conditions of service shall not be varied to their disadvantage after their appointment.
  3. It is the duty of the President or the Governor of a State to make available to the Commission such staff as may be necessary for the conduct of elections.

Question 10.
With reference to the powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following:
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll
(b) Recognition of Political Parties
(c) Allotment of Symbols
Answer:
The given headlines with reference to the powers and functions of the Election commission are discussed below:
(a) Preparation of the Electoral Roll:

The Constitution lays down that there shall be one ‘General Electoral Roll’ for every territorial constituency. The Lok Sabha or any of the Assemblies may be dissolved before its terms of five years has expired. Therefore, the electoral rolls will have to be kept up-to-date all the time so that the new election may take place without any difficulty.

(b) Recognition of Political Parties:

The Election Commission grants recognition to the political parties for Election Commission grants recognition to the political parties for Electioon purposes. These national parties are Bhartiya Janata Party (BJP), Indian National Congress (INC) (Cong. I), the CPI (M), the Communist Party of India (CPI), Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) and Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP).

(c) Allotment of Symbols:
The National and State level parties can have a reserved symbol for all the candidates nominated by them. The independent candidates, can select any symbol out of a list of ‘Free Symbols’.The purpose behind alloting symbols is that illiterate masses can not read the names of the candidates of their parties. It is easy for them to identify the symbols for electing candidates of their choice. Secondly ‘reserved symbols’ become so popular that the parties do not have to do canvassing for their candidates.

Question 11.
With reference to powers and functions of the Election Commission, discuss the following:
(a) Conduct of Elections
(b) Ensuring Free and Fair Elections
Answer:
(a) Conduct of Elections:
The Commission conducts all elections to Parliament and the State Legislature. Besides, it supervises and directs elections to the offices of the President and Vice-President Exact dates or polls and finalised after consultations with the Election Commission.

(b)  Ensuring Free and Fair Elections:
The Commission takes the following measures to ensure free and fair elections:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies.
  2. The Commission prescribes the code of conduct for the election campaigns.
  3. The Commission creates conditions for a free and fair poll. Recent amendments to the Representation of the People Act provide severe punishment for booth-capturing.

Question 12.
Write a detailed note on the nomination of candidates and the Scrutiny of Nominations.
Answer:
Nomination of Candidates and the Scrutiny of Nominations: In order to be chosen a member of the Rajya Sabha or the State Legislative Council, a person must be not less than 30 years of age. For election to the Lok Sabha or the State Legislative Assembly a person should have attained an age of 25 years. A person is disqualified for being a member of any House on a number of grounds, such as being of unsound mind or holding of an office of profit.On the date fixed for scrutiny, the Returning Officer examines the nomination papers. He may reject any nomination if the candidates is not qualified for being chosen to fill the seat.

Question 13.
Elections are the barometer of democracy. In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) Mention any three measures that have been taken to ensure free and fair elections in India?
(b) What reforms would you suggest to curb the rigging and violence (use of muscle power) in elections?
Answer:
In context of elections as the barometer of democracy, the given questions are answered as follows:

(a)
To ensure free and fair elections in India, many measures have been taken by the Election Commission:

  1. The Commission sends central observers to sensitive constituencies;
  2. The Commission prescribes the’code of conduct for the election campaigns;
  3. The Commission creates conditions for free and fair poll. Recent amendments to the Representation of the People Act provide severe punishment for booth-capturing.

(b)
To curb the evil of money and muscle-power during elections, persons with proven criminal record should be debarred from contesting elections; elections should positively be annulled in those constituencies, where unfair means were resorted to; severe penalities should be laid down for offences like rigging and booth-capturing.

 

 

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Our Constitution and Its Preamble

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Our Constitution and Its Preamble

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

Exercises

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Constitution’?
Answer:
‘Constitution’ is the body of rules and laws according to which a State is governed within the framework of the legislature, the executive and the judiciary.

Question 2.
What is ‘Rule of Law’ ?
Answer:
‘Rule of Law’ means “the absence of arbitrary powers, equality before the law and freedom from illogical, unfair and unjust laws.”

Question 3.
Why is our Constitution known as the ‘Fundamental Law of the Land’?
Answer:
Being superior to the ordinary laws of the State, the Constitution of India is known as the “Fundamental Law of Land”. Every that law is redundant that violates any of the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 4.
Which body framed the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The ‘Constituent Assembly’ is the Constitution-making body that framed the Constitution of India.

Question 5.
Name three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly were:

  1. Lord Pethic Lawrence
  2. Sir Stafford Cripps
  3. Mr. Alexander.

Question 6.
Who was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 7.
Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 8.
Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.

Question 9.
When was the Constitution of India enacted and adopted?
Answer:
On November 26, 1949 the Constitution of India was enacted and adopted.

Question 10.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
On January 26, 1950 the Constitution of India came into force.

Question 11.
What is the importance of January 26 in India’s struggle for Puma Swaraj (Complete Independence)?
Answer:
After a long trail of freedom-struggle and innumerable sacrifices, ultimately India succeeded in attaining the freedom from at the hands of ‘Union Jack’. It was\on the 26th of January, 1950 when India got Complete Independence or Puma Swaraj that was absolutely free from the influence of the British government. This very day embodied the dream of freedom of the great freedom-fighters and patriots.

Question 12.
Name any two prominent features of the Constitution of India.
Answer:
The two prominent features of the Constitution of India are:

  1. It is a Written Constitution
  2. It is the Lengthiest Constitution in the world.

Question 13.
What is meant by Universal Adult Franchise?
Answer:
Adult or Universal Franchise means, every such person whether male or female, is eligible to cast vote to elect the government, who is a citizen of India, is not less than 18 years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law.

Question 14.
What argument was given for lowering the voting age from 21 to 18 years in 1989 ?
Answer:
The argument given for lowering the voting age was that “enfranchisement of the youth shall make them more sensible and more creative.”

Question 15.
Define a Welfare State.
Answer:
A Welfare State is the one that provides for its citizens a wide range of social services such as education, medical care and monetary aid during old age, sickness or unemployment.

Question 16.
Mention any two implications of a Democratic Government, as established by the Constitution of India.
Answer:
Implications of a Democratic government, as promised by the Constitution of India is as:

  1. It implies that the formed government is the government made by the people, of the people and for the people. In other words, a democratic government is fully devoted to the citizens of the country.
  2. It promises the citizens provide them physical and social security. If the citizens of the country feel dissatisfied with the government, they can dissolve such government through franchise process. Thus, public welfare is the sole motive of a Democratic Government.

Question 17.
What is the opposite of a Secular State? Name any one State that is not Secular.
Answer:
The opposite of a Secular State is a Theocratic State. Pakistan is a Theocratic State.

Question 18.
Mention any two features illustrating the nature of Indian Polity or State.
Answer:
Two features illustrating the nature of Indian Polity or State are as follows:

  1. India is a Sovereign State:
    India is Independent both internally and externally. She can frame her own socio­economic policies and develop her resources the way she likes. No foreign State can claim her control over her. She is free to frame her foreign policies and choose her allies in peace and war alike.
  2. Socialist Order of Society: The word ‘Socialist’ was inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Socialism guarantees “fair distribution of wealth” and “securing a decent standard of life to the people”. The Directive Principles laid down in view of State Policy ensure for its people adequate means of livelihood, fair distribution of wealth, equal pay for equal work for both men and women, protection of children and the working people against exploitation. The conditions of work in mines and factories are regulated by the Equal Remuneration Act and Workmen’s Compensation Act. The Minimum Wages Act provides for fixation and revision of wages from time to time.

Question 19.
Mention any two of the main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Answer:
The two main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution, are as under:

  1. Justice—Social, Economic and Political: It is the fundamental right of every citizen in the society to seek justice whether it is associated with society, economy or politics. Justice ensures of protection of rights and interests of an individual and the society respectively. The constitution makes it possible to achieve such an object by securing to all citizens certain fundamental rights. It also lays down certain Directive Principles guiding the State to work efficiently. Social Justice in the sense, providing equal opportunities of education work and labour irrespective of religion, race, caste or sex. It also discourages social abuses like—Untouchability and , religion fanaticism. It is liable to uplift the backward and downtroddens in the society. The directive Principles aim at making the sound economic position of all the citizens by allocating Economic Justice to all of them by means of equal distribution of wealth system. All the citizens have the right to participate in the political activities. They have right to cast their vote, they have right to contest the election as per the norms and conditions of the election commission. Thus, Political Justice is meant for all.
  2. Liberty of Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith and Worship: There is provision in the Constitution as the Preamble refers to i.e., every individual has the right to write, speak or express his thoughts, beliefs while keeping himself within the restrictions imposed on this right. Likewise, every person is free to follow any religion.He is free to have faith or belief in any God or Goddess. He can go to any Pilgrimage to worship in the country.

Question 20.
Mention what the Preamble says about ‘Equality’
Answer:
While speaking in context of ‘Equality’, the distinction made in the Preamble goes on two levels. On one hand, Equality serves equality for all before law, status and opportunity in matters of public employment, while on the other hand, equality always means “equality among equals”. There can be no equality between paupers and princes. To discriminate between them is not a violation of the Constitution. Consequently, the state can make special provision for women, children and the backward classes of citizens.

Question 21.
Mention w hat the Preamble states about ‘Fraternity’.
Answer:
‘Fraternity’ means spirit of brotherhood. As our society is divided by a number of classes castes, religions and languages, therefore it is very essential to establish harmony amongst them for that reason our constitution-makers added the word ‘fraternity’ in the Preamble. Thus, securing the Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

Question 22.
Mention the words introduced in the Preamble by the Constitution Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976.
Answer:
The words Socialist, Secular, Unity and Integrity of the Nation were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act of 1976. It came into effect on January 3, 1977.

Question 23.
What is the significance of the Preamble to the Constitution ?
Answer:
The Preamble to the Constitution is significant in many ways.

  1. The Preamble declares that the source of the Constitution is the People of India.
  2. It indicates the secular, socialist and democratic basis of the .Constitution.
  3. It states the basic objects or ideals of the Indian Republic. It leads the law and makes it go in the fight direction while providing ‘Social Justice’, and protecting the interests of the weaker sections of the society.
  4. It includes basic features of the constitution viz., Supremacy of the Constitution, India has the Republican and Democratic form of government, the Constitution is that of secular character. Segregation of Powers between the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary, the Constitution is also of Federal character under certain circumstances.

Question 24.
Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution ?
Answer:
Yes, the Preamble is a part of the Constitution because it contains the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

Question 25.
What do we mean when we say that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution of India ?
Answer:
It means, the Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution. It “walks before” the Constitution and tells us the source, the objects and contents of the Constitution.

Question 26.
The Preamble to the’Constitution describes India a Socialist State. What does the expression ‘Socialist’ mean here ?
Answer:
The expression ‘Socialist’ signifies the meaning of “fair distribution of wealth” and “Securing decent standard of life to the people.” India, which is a Socialist State, she does provide equal opportunities to all, irrespective of birth, sex and religion in all aspects of life.

Question 27.
In what sense is India a Republic ?
Answer:
A Republic country is that, where equality, liberty and fraternity go hand in hand. Such a country is ruled over by the representatives that are nominated and elected from and by amongst the common mass. There is no hereditary monarch in such a state. The President of India holds office for a term of five years. He is the elected Head of the State. The legislators (the MPs and MLAs) are also elected by the people. As India enjoys all these relaxations, hence we can say India is a Republic.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS 

Question 1.
How can you say that the Constituent Assembly of India represented all major and smaller communities of the country ? OR Briefly comment on the statement that the Constituent Assembly looked like a Mini-India.
Answer:
Following the principle of “Unity in Diversification”, the Constituent Assembly of India came into existence. It was skillfully interwoven, taking the members from almost all major regions and all major sections and communities of India. The joint efforts of their, made the country venture into the sea of progress and prosperity in the near future.All the members had been committed to the national integration. They were liable to work in the interests of general public even when their aspirations tended lean to their respective regions and communities. As an evidence in this perspective, we find it included Dr. Ambedkar hailed from Maharashtra Rajendra Prasad and Satyanarayan Sinha belonged to Bihar, Mohammed Saddulla belonged to Assam, Hukam Singh and Ujjal Singh from East Punjab and so on. Also, it included the women members like Mrs. Sarojini Naidu, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur. Thus, in a way the scenario set forth by the Constituent Assembly is no less than A Microcosm of India
(Mini- India).

Question 2.
Examine the salient features of the Constitution of India with reference to the following:
(a) Universal Adult Franchise
(b) Single Citizenship
Answer:
(a) Universal Adult Franchise:
Our constitution is based on the principle of Universal (Adult) Franchise. It gives voting right to every person whether male or female. He/she is eligible to cast vote to elect the government. He/she must be citizen of India, is not less than 18 years of age and is not otherwise disqualified under any law.
(b) Single Citizenship:
The Constitution of India believes in the Single Citizenship. That means a person who belongs to India, is liable to take hold of Single Citizenship no matter in which State he/she resides. Single Citizenship allows a citizen to entertain the rights and laws of the country. However, in America, dual citizenship is prevalent.

Question 3.
Examine the salient features of the Constitution of India with reference to the following:
(a) India is a Welfare State
(b) India is a Secular State
(c) ‘Justice’ and ‘Liberty’ as the basic objects for which the Indian Republic exists. In this context explain political dimensions of Justice.  
Answer:
(a) India is a Welfare State:
It is very true that India is a Welfare State. A Welfare state in the sense that she provides for her citizens a wide range of social services such as education, medical care and financial aid during old age, sickness or unemployment. The Constitution of India proclaims, “the State shall strive to promote the welfare of the people”. Under Part-IV of the Constitution (which include Directive Principles of State Policy),
The State is directed to ensure to the people:

  1. Employment
  2. Education
  3.  Assistance in case of old age, sickness and disablement. Since 1951 India has followed the path of democratic planning.

(b)
India is a Secular State: The manner in which the word ‘Secular’ is introduced in Constitution of India, it refers to religious aspect. Ours is the country that is dominated by maximum number of religions. Every religion follows different traditions and rituals. In this light, the makers of the Constitution had to look into every religion with the same point of view, hence it was decided to treat all religions equally, so as to avoid any sort of dispute that might erupt in the name of religion. The impartial attitude adopted towards religion on legal grounds stepped into the need to mention a word like-‘Secular’ in the Constitution. That means. Anyone is free to adopt any religion.

(c)
Political Justice: The Preamble guarantees justice on different levels. Here, Justice is put in a comprehensive manner. Thus, Justice is closely associated to the following aspects that prevail in a democratic Republic State like that of India. Justice is confined to various dimensions when it is talked in Political context. Political Justice is related to the right to vote, free and fair elections and equal access to public offices. The Constitution of India guarantees a minimum number of seats to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. People belonging to various communities,

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

Question 1.
What is meant by the term Constitution ?
Answer:
‘Constitution’ is a comprehensive document containing the set of rules according to which the government of a country runs.

Question 2.
On the basis of which plan was the Constituent Assembly constituted ?.
Answer:
On the basis of the proposals of the Freedom Fighters a Constituent Assembly was set up, whose members were to be elected indirectly by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies.

Question 3.
What is known as the ‘Objectives Resolution’?
Answer:
‘Objective Resolution,’ was proposed by Pt.Nehruon December 13, 1946, for highlighting the ‘national goals’.

Question 4.
By whom and when was the Objective Resolution proposed and passed ?
Answer:
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru proposed the Resolution and it was passed on January 22,1947.

Question 5.
Who was appointed as the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constituent ?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee. Which was set up on August 29, 1947.

Question 6.
When was the Constitution adopted and passed ? When did it come into force ?
Answer:
The Constitution was adopted and passed by the Constituent Assembly on November 26,1949. The Constitution as a whole came into force with effect from January 26, 1950.

Question 7.
State the significance of January 26.
Answer:
It was on this date, January 26, in 1929, that the Lahore Session of the Indian National Congress had for the first time given the call for ‘Purna Swaraj’. Since then, the day was celebrated as Independence Day upto 1947, but later on, it was designated as the Republic Day.

Question 8.
What is known as the Preamble ? What is the importance of the opening words of the Preamble ?
Answer:
The Preamble is the introductory part of constitution, which sets out the main objectives of the Constitution.Though the Preamble is not an operative part of the Constitution, it has a hold on the governments. This is because when there is a dispute regarding the interpretation of the text of the Constitution, explanation given in the Preamble comes in handy.

Question 9.
How is the Indian Republic different from that of the USA?
Answer:
In the United States, the President is directly elected by the people whereas in the Indian Republic, the President is indirectly elected, by the elected representatives of the people.

Question 10.
Explain the significance of the term ‘Sovereign’.
Answer:
The Preamble declared India a ‘Sovereign state’. It means that India is its own ‘Supreme’ power and not a subject of any other state or country.

Question 11.
Why was the word ‘SECULAR’, incorporated in the Preamble ?
Answer:
The people of India form a significant mixture of the different religions and communities. So, it was indespensable to follow secularism, in order to maintain peace and order, because it concentrates on the respect and importance to every religion, as every religion is made for the welfare of humanity.

Question 12.
Explain the significance of the term ‘DEMOCRATIC’ in the Preamble.
Answer:
This term implies that India has chosen a form of government in which people have a say as to who should hold power and how it should be used i.e, Government by the people, of the people and for the people.

Question 13.
What is meant by the term ‘JUSTICE’ as an ideal of the Indian Constitution ?
Ans.
‘Justice’ implies not only administration of law in a fair and responsible way but also without any privilege or prejudice.

Question 14.
Give two examples to indicate that the Preamble to the Constitution has ensured political justice for all.
Answer:

  1. There is freedom for the citizens to have their political views as long as such views do not go against the interest of the country.
  2. There is freedom to vote for any recognised political party in the country.
  3. Every citizen of India except those who are debarred on account of criminal offences can stand for election and hold office if elected.

Question 15.
Mention any two features indicating the significance of the Preamble.
Answer:

  1. The Preamble represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the entire Constitution of India. The other parts and provisions of the Constitution are only an elaboration and an attempt to give concrete shape to the words of the Preamble.
  2. The Preamble contains the five basic features of the Constitution. That is India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. Besides, it reminds people of the Four Ideals of the State. That is, India should secure to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Question 16.
Why did the Muslims League boycott the meetings of the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer:
The Muslims League boycotted the Constituent Assembly to demand the creation of a separate state called Pakistan.

Question 17.
Who represented the Anglo-Indians in the Constituent Assembly ?
Answer:
The Anglo-Indians were represented by Mr. Frank Anthony and Mr. S.H. Prater, the Indian Christians, by Dr. H.C. Mukerjee and Joseph Dsauza.

Question 18.
Give two objectives of the Indian Republic as set forth in the constitution of India.
Ans.
Two objectives are as follows:

  1. Secularism equal respect and recognition of all religions from the state.
  2. Sovereign Declaration of India as it own supreme power.

Question 19.
What is one main strength of the Indian Constitution ?
Answer:
Indian Constitution is a lengthy document, most comprehensive and bulky Constitution ever adopted by any country.

Question 20.
Why is our Constitution known as the ‘Fundamental Law of the Land’?
Answer:
Being superior to the ordinary laws of the State, the Constitution of India is known as the “Fundamental Law of Land”. Every that law is redundant that violates any of the provisions of the Constitution.

Question 21.
Which body framed the Constitution of India?
Answer:
The ‘Constituent Assembly’ is the constitution-making body that framed the Constitution of India.

Question 22.
Name the three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly.
Answer:
The three prominent members of the Constituent Assembly were:

  1. Lord Pethic Lawrence
  2. Sir Stafford Cripps
  3. Alexander.

Question 23.
Who was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as Interim President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 24.
Who was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?
Answer:
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.

Question 25.
Who was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee?
Answer:
Dr. Bhim Rao Ambedkar, was the Chairman of the Constituent Assembly’s Drafting Committee.

Question 26.
When was the Constitution of India enacted and adopted?
Answer:
On November 26, 1949 the Constitution of India was enacted and adopted.

Question 27.
When did the Constitution of India come into force?
Answer:
On January 26, 1950 the Constitution of India came into force.

Question 28.
What is the importance of January 26 in India’s struggle for Puma Swaraj (Complete Independence)?
Answer:
After a long trail of freedom-struggle and innumerable sacrifices, ultimately India succeeded in attaining the freedom from at the hands of ‘Union Jack’. It was on the 26th of January, 1950 when India got Complete Independence or Puma Swaraj that was absolutely free from the influence of the British government. This very day embodied the dream of freedom of the great freedom- fighters and patriots.

Question 29.
What do you understand by the term ‘Preamble’ to the Constitution?
Answer:
‘Preamble’ is an introduction to the Constitution. It ‘walks before’ the Constitution and tells the source, the objects and contents of the Constitution. It imbibes the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

Question 30.
What do the words “We, the People of India” in the Preamble signify?
Answer:
The words “We, the People of India” in the Preamble relate to the natives from India who by birth belong to India.

Question 31.
Preamble to the Constitution describes India as a Sovereign State. What do you understand by the term ‘Sovereign’?
Answer:
The term ‘Sovereign’ suggests the meaning in terms of Political Power. That means, a nation which is politically endowed with ruling power in external and internal affairs.

Question 32.
Mention any two implications of a Democratic government, as promised by the Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
A Democratic government, as promised by the Preamble to the Constitution, it implies that the formed government is the government made by the people, of the people and for the people. In other words, a democratic government is fully devoted to the citizens of the country. It promises the citizens provide them physical and social security. If the citizens of the country feel dissatisfied with the government, they can dissolve such government through Franchise process. Thus, public welfare is the sole motive of a Democratic Government.

Question 33.
Mention any two steps taken by the Indian Republic in pursuance of its socialist objectives.
Answer:
In pursuance of socialist objectives, following are the two steps taken by the Indian Republic:

  1. Social Justice.
  2.  Economic Justice.

Question 34.
The Constitution of India stands for a Secular State. What does ‘Secularism’ mean?
Answer:
‘Secularism’ means the quality of having oneness while looking into the other religions. The country like-India incorporates a number of religions. There is no restrain in following the denomination. Everyone is free to adopt any religion, but side by side, one is to show respect for other religions too. Hence, the Constitution of India seeks uniformity on the religions level. The ideology of uniformity in the religions perspective makes India a Secular State.

Question 35.
What is the opposite of a Secular State? Name any one State that is not Secular.
Answer:
The opposite of a Secular State is a Theoratic State. Pakistan is a Theocratic State.

Question 36.
Mention any two features illustrating the nature of Indian Polity or State.
Answer:
Two features illustrating the nature of Indian Polity or State are as follows:

  1.  India is a Sovereign State: India is Independent both internally and externally. She can frame her own socio­economic policies and develop her resources the way she likes. No foreign State can claim her control over her. She is free to frame her foreign policies and choose her allies in peace and war alike.
  2. Socialist Order of Society: The work ‘Socialist’ was inserted in the Preamble by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976. Socialism guarantees “fair distribution ofwealth” and “securing a .decent standard of life to the people”. The Directive Principles laid down in view of State Policy ensure for its people adequate means of livelihood, fair distribution of wealth, equal pay for equal work for both men and women, protection of children and the working people against exploitation. The conditions of work in mines and factories are regulated by the Equal Remuneration Act and Workmen’s Compensation Act. The Minimum Wages Act provides for fixation and revision of wages from time to time.

Question 37.
Mention any two of the main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution.
Answer:
The two main objects (or ideals) of the Indian Republic as set forth in the Preamble to the Constitution, are as under:

  1. Justice-Social, Economic and Political: It is the fundamental right of every citizen in the society to seek jusitce whether it is associated with society, economy or politics. Justice ensures of protection of rights and interests of an individual and the society respectively. The constitution makes it possible to achieve such an object by securing to all citizens certain fundamental rights. It also lays down certain Directive Principles guiding the State to work efficiently. Social Justice in the sense, providing equal opportunities of education work and labour irrespective of religion, race, caste or sex. It also discourages social abuses like-Untouchability and religion fanaticism. It is liable to uplift the backward and downtroddens in the society. The directive Principles aim at making the sound economic position of all the citizens by allocating Economic Justice to all of them by means of equal distribution of wealth system. All the citizens have the right to participate in the political activities. They have right to cast their vote, they have right to contest the election as per the norms and conditions of the election commission. Thus, Political Justice is meant for all.
  2. Liberty of Thought, Expression, Belief, Faith and Worship: There is provision in the Constitution as the Preamble refers to i.e., every individual has the right to write, speak or express his thoughts, beliefs while keeping himself within the restrictions imposed on this right. Likewise, every person is free to follow any religion. He is free to have faith or belief in any God or Goddess. He can go to any Pilgrimage to worship in the country.

Question 38.
Mention what the Preamble says about ‘Equality’.
Answer:
While speaking in context of ‘Equality’, the distinction made in the Preamble goes on two levels. On one hand, Equality serves equality for all before law, status and opportunity in matters of public employment, while on the other hand, equality always means “equality among equals”. There can be no equality between paupers and princes. To discriminate between them is not a violation of the Constitution. Consequently, the state can make special provision for women, children and the backward classes of citizens.

Question 39.
Mention what the Preamble state about ‘Fraternity’.
Answer:
‘Fraternity’ means spirit of brotherhood. As our society is divided by a number of classes castes, religions and languages, therefore it is very essential to establish harmony amongst them for that reason our constitution-makers added the word ‘fraternity’ in the Preamble. Thus, securing the Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

Question 40.
Mention the words introduced in the Preamble by the Constitution Forty-second Amendment Act, 1976.
Answer:
The words Socialist, Secular, Unity and Integrity of the Nation were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitution Amendment Act of 1976. It came into effect on January 3, 1977.

Question 41.
What is the significance of the Preamble, to the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble to the Constitution is significant in many ways.

  1. The Preamble declares that the source of the Constitution is the People of India.
  2. It indicates the secular, socialist and democratic basis of the Constitution.
  3. It states the basic or ideals of the Indian Republic. It leads the law and makes it go in the right direction while providing ‘Social Justice’, and protecting the interests of the weaker sections of the society.
  4. It includes basic features of the constitution viz., Supremacy of the Constitution, India has the Republican and Democratic form of government, the Constitution is that of secular character. Segregation of Powers between the Executive, Legislature and Judiciary, the Constitution is also of Federal character under certain circumstances.

Question 42.
Is the Preamble a part of the Constitution?
Answer:
Yes, the Preamble is a part of the Constitution because it contains the basic structure or framework of the Constitution.

Question 43.
What do we mean when we say that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution of India?
Answer:
It means, the Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution. It “Walks before” the Constitution and tells US the sources, the objects and contents of the Constitution.

Question 44.
The Preamble to the Constitution describes India a Socialist State. What does the expression ‘Socialist’ mean here?
Answer:
The expression ‘Socialisty’ signifies the meaning of “fair distribution of wealth” and “Securing decent standard of life to the people”. India, which is a Socialist State, she does provide equal opportunities to all, irrespective of birth, sex and religion in all aspects of life.

Question 45.
In what sense is India a Republic?
Answer:
A Republic country is that, where equality, liberty and fraternity go hand in hand. Such a country is ruled over by the representatives that are nominated and elected from and by amongst the common mass. There is no hereditary monarch in such a state. The President of India holds office for a term of five years. He is the elected Head of the State. The legislators (the MPs and MLAs) are also elected by the people. As India enjoys all these relaxations, hence we can say India is a Republic.

Structured Questions:

Question 1.
With reference to the making of Indian Constitution explain the following:
(a) When and how were the members of the Constituent Assembly elected ?
(b) How was the membership of the Constituent Assembly reduced as a result of partition of the country?
(c) How do you say that the Constituent Assembly gave adequate representation to all sections of the Indian Society?
Answer:
(a)
The first sitting of the Assembly was held on December 9, 1946, presided by Dr. Sachidanand Sinha. The oldest member Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent chairman on December 11, 1946. The members were the leading personalities of the day, e.g. Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel, Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukerjee, Dr. S. Radhakrishnan, J.B. Kriplani, Maulana Azad, K.M. Munshi, Dr. Ambedkar, H.N. Kunzru, Sarojini Naidu, Vijayalaxmi Pandit, Rajagopalachari etc.
(b)
The membership of the Assembly of India stood at 299 against the original number of 385 members, due to the partition of the country.
(c)
The wide ranging membership of the Assembly gave representation to all shades of public opinion, e.g. Muslims and Sikhs, Congress leaders, Anglo-Indians, Indian Christians, Scheduled Castes and Tribes, all in one, got combined representation.

Question 2.
With reference to the Objective Resolution explain the following:
(a) When was the Resolution passed by the Constituent Assembly ?
(b) What were the main points of the Objective Resolution?
(c) What did the Resolution propose ?
Answer:
(a)
The Resolution was passed by the Constituent Assembly on January 22, 1947.
(b)
The Objective Resolution, focused on the ‘national goals’ of republic, ideals of democracy, fundamental (c)
Rights of citizens along with minorities and backward classes.
The Resolution proposed:

  1. Republic of India
  2. Ideals of social, political and economic democracy would be granted to all.
  3. Fundamental Rights to citizens.
  4. Safeguard the rights of minorities and backward classes.

Question 3.
With reference to commencement of the Constitution explain the following:
(a) The changes effected in the administration of the country with the commencement of the Constitution.
(b) The clause relating to citizenship was put into effect immediately after signing of the Constitution.
Ans.
(a)
Along with various important changes for safe side, with a meaningful perspective, the constitution of India is the real guide of the successive governments and their political ideologies.
(b)
Being an Indian or having Indian citizenship is just not enough without cementing bond of unity of nation. So an Indian citizen is expected to maintain both individual and national dignity.

Question 4.
With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, answer the following:
(a) What became the basis of incorporating the Preamble in the Indian Constitution ?                   ‘
(b) Give the significance of  We the people’ in the Preamble.
(c) How have the objectives of Indian Constitution been emphasised in the Preamble.
Answer:
(a)
Preamble is the introductory part of the Constitution summarising the main features and ideals of the nation in order to get proper clue and direction.
(b)
We, The People’. It has perhaps been inspired by a similar expression in the American Constitution. The words ‘ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION’ makes the people the holders of this authority. Speaking about this purpose and intention of the Constitution, Dr. Ambedkar said in the Constituent Assembly: “This Constitution has its roots in the people and it derives its authority from the people.”
(c)
The objectives of the Indian constitution are emphasised in the preamble in order to memorise the ideals and goals of the constitution to keep it unforgettable.

5. With reference to the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, answer the following questions:
Question 5(a) .
Explain the significance of the Preamble.
Answer:
The significance of the Preamble are as below:

  1. The Preamble represents the essence, the philosophy, the ideals of the entire Constitution of India. The other parts and provisions of the Constitution are only an elaboration and an attempt to give concrete shape to the words of the Preamble. Over the years so many amendments have been made to the Constitution but its basic features could not be altered.
  2. Disputes, ambiguities are to be resolved in a writing Constitution. In order to interpret the articles it is necessary to refer often to the Preamble which should form the basis for interpretation,
  3. The Preamble contains the five basic features of the Constitution. That is, India is a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic. Besides, it reminds people of the Four Ideals of the State. That is, India should secure to all its citizens Justice, Liberty, Equality and Fraternity.

Question 5(b) .
What is the significance of the words, ‘Sovereign Socialist Democratic Republic’ as given in the
Preamble ?
Answer:
‘Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic’. In the words of Chief Justice Hidyatullah : “It lays down the pattern of our political society.”Based on this significance, the Preamble is considered ‘the soul and spirit’ of our Constitution.

Question 6.
Explain the meaning following terms:
(a) Liberty
(b) Fraternity
(c) Equality.
Ans.
(a) Liberty: It means the Liberty of thoughts, expression belief, faith and worship.
(b) Fraternity: It is to assure the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation for brotherhood and friendship.
(c) Equality: It means the equality of status and of opportunity and to promote them among all.

Question 7.
How do you regard the Constitution of India as a real guide for the successive Governments in respect of the following:
(a) The Preamble
(b) Incorporation of Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
Answer:
(a)
The Preamble is an ideal guide to understand the actual objectives and aims of the Nation for easy and peaceful decisions practiced on the basis of it.

(b)
Fundamental Rights must be enjoyed by every citizen to satisfy the public opinion and the Directive Principles of State Policy ensure constant interaction between people and state which are basic roots to be successful for the successive governments in each and every type of circumstances i.e. the key to success is undoubtedly is to follow the constitution for proper guidance.

Question 8.
How can you say that the Constituent Assembly of India represented all major and smaller communities of the country?

OR

Briefly comment on the statement that the Constituent Assembly looked like a Mini-India.

Answer:
Following the principle of “Unity in Diversification”, the Constituent Assembly of India came into existence. It was skillfully interwoven, taking the members from almost all major regions and all major sections and communities of India. The joint efforts of their, made the country venture into the sea of progress and prosperity in the near future. All the members had been committed to the national integration. They were liable to work in the interests of general public even when their aspirations tended lean to their respective regions and communities. As an evidence in this perspective, we find it included Dr. Ambedkar hailed from maharashtra, Rajendra Prasad and Satyanarayan Sinha belonged to Bihar, Mohammed Saddulla belonged to Assam, Hukam Singh and Ujjal Singh from East Punjab and so on. Also, it included the women members like Mrs. Sarojini Naidu, Rajkumari Amrit Kaur. Thus, in a way the scenario set forth by the Constituent Assembly is no less than A Microcosm of India (Mini- India).

Question 9.
The Preamble to the Constitution declares India to be a Secular-Democratic Republic. In this context, answer the following questions:
(a) What does the expression ‘Secular’ mean here?
(b) Do you agree with the view that Indian Constitution promises not only political and social democracy, but economic democracy as well?
Answer:
The above questions in context of the Preamble to the constitution declaring India to be a Secular-Democratic Republic are.answered as under.
(a)
The manner in which the word ‘Secular’ is introduced into the Preamble of the Constitution of India, it refers to religious aspect. Ours is the country that is dominated by maximum number of religions. Every religion follows different traditions and rituals. In this light, the makers of the Constitution had to look into every religion with the same point of view, hence it was decided to treat all religions equally, so as to avoid any sort of dispute that might erupt in the name of religion. The impartial attitude adopted towards religion on legal grounds stepped into the need to mention a word like-‘Secular’ in the Constitution. That means. Anyone is free to adopt any religion.
(b)
Yes, we very much agree with the view that India Constitution promises not only political democracy, but economic democracy as well. In the Preamble, a just economic system is promised under Economic Justice. A sound democracy lies in a sound economy in a democratic nation. For the purpose, “fair distribution of wealth” and “a decent Standard of life to the people” has been secured in the Indian Constitution

Question 10.
The Preamble states ‘Justice’ and ‘Liberty’ as the basic objects for which the Indian Republic exists. In this context explain the social, economic and political dimensions of Justice.
Answer:
The Preamble guarantees justice on different levels. Here, Justice is put in a comprehensive manner. Thus, Justice is closely associated to the following aspects that prevail in a democratic Republic State like that of India. In context of Social Justice, one thing is made very clear in the Constitution i.e., all the individuals living in the society shall not be discriminated on the grounds of religion, race, caste or sex. They are supposed to enjoy the civil amenities in a subservient way.

There is no room for Untouchability in our Constitution. The State may make provision for the advancement and upliftment of socially and educationally backward classes of citizens. For Economic Justice, the Directive Principles promise to bring about a just economic system in the Preamble. Economic Justice means, all the citizens living in the society are liable to be financially sound so as to meet and enjoy their daily needs comfortably. As Justice Krishna Iyyer has rightly said in context of Economic Justice, he says, “Economic Justice means, wippingout the tear from every eye”. Justice is confined to various dimensions when it is talked in Political context.

Political Justice is related to the right to vote, free and fair elections and equal access to public offices. The Constitution of India guarantees a minimum number of seats to the Scheduled Castes and Tribes in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. People belonging to various communities, sects or groups are eligible to form their separate union or association to raise their voice against injustice or in favour of their reasonable demands before the government.

Question 11.
Explain the following terns in the context of the Preamble to the Constitution:
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality, and
Answer:
The given terms in context of the Preamble to the Constitution are answered as under:
(a) Liberty:

In the preamble, there is a provision of freedom or relaxation over a certain issues under the name of ‘Liberty’, that goes for the welfare of common mass. The liberty mentioned in the context of the Preamble to the Constitution relates to Liberty of Thought, Expression Belief, Faith and Worship. Freedom of throught and expression means, the right to speak or write freely on any subject, provided the speaker abides by the restrictions imposed on this right. A person has freedom of religion and conscience. The State gives equal freedom to all religions.
(b) Equality:
A person is ensured of equality before law. Social equality and equality of opportunity in matters of public employment, are yet another levels of Equality. But, equality is seen on the criterion which reveals “equality among equals”. A poor is no match to a rich. So, at this juncture, equality differs in its meaning. The Constitution too overlooks such a discrimination and rules out any violation while discriminating the both. Hence, the State can make special provision for women, children and the backward classes of citizens.
(c) Fraternity:
It is the spirit of brotherhood which is indispensable to bind the nation in a single string to provide strength and stability to the nation. Since, our society is divided by many classes, castes, religions and languages therefore, it is very essential to bring about harmony among them, lest any kind of friction differentiation of ideologies should bring forth any kind confrontation. Fraternity marks the dignity of the individual and the Unity and Integrity of the Nation.

Question 12.
What is the significance of the Preamble to the Constitution?
Answer:
The Preamble is a prologue that throws the light on the source, the objects and the contents compiled in the Constitution. It is an integral and vital part of the Constitution that consists of the basic structure or framework of the Constitution. It depicts the real, picture of the nation along with the description of its nature. The Preamble states that the source of the Constitution is the People of India. Again, it indicates that India is a secular, socialist and democratic country. It states the basic objects or ideals of the Indian Republic. It works as a lighthouse to Law-makers to bring about amendments time to time in the interests of weaker sections of the society.

Question 13.
What do you know about the Composition of the Constituent Assembly which framed the Constitution of India?
Answer:
To end the political deadlock, the Cabinet Mission brought forth the proposals of it’s members that contained details of the Constituent Assembly elections that were to be held in July, 1946. The Provincial Assemblies elected the members of the Constituent Assembly, under the scheme of Indirect Election proposed by the Cabinet Mission. The representatives included as per the nomination were from the Princely States, whom the rulers of these states had nominated. The Constituent Assembly had been equipped with 385 members in all. 292 seats went to the Provinces, whereas the Princely States were allocated 93 seats. However, the number of seats reduced to 308 after the partition of India. The eminent personality, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was appointed the President. Many other distinguished political leaders too joined hands in it’s composition. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of Assembly’s Committee i.e., the Drafting Committee. In other words, the Constituent Assembly presented the panorama of a Mini-India that included persons from different communities in the society. It also included the women members. Presumably, the Congress had the lion- share in the Constituent Assembly. It also propounded the supporters of Forward Bloc and members of the Hindu Maha Sabha and the Muslim League. In nutshell, the contribution of them led to the framing of the Constitution  of the Independent India.

 

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Industrial Revolution and Capitalism and Socialism

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Industrial Revolution and Capitalism and Socialism

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What is meant by Industrial Revolution?
Answer:
The word ‘Revolution means, something “sudden and quite swift”. Industrial Revolution resulted in revolutionary changes in all walks of life.

Question 2.
Mention any two causes responsible for Industrialisation in England.
Answer:
Reasons for the initiation of Industrialisation in England are:

  1. Enclosure Movement (Availability of Cheap Labour).
  2. Availability of Coal and Iron.

Question 3.
What is a Capitalist system?
Answer:
A Capitalist system is the economic system in which business and industries were owned by private individuals and not by the State.

Question 4.
Mention the two main features of Capitalism.
Ans.
Under this system the productive wealth remains in private hands. Therefore, the owners of wealth have exclusive right to the things that belonged to them.The entire economy is governed by the market forces, i.e., the forces of Demand and Supply. The word Demand here denotes What consumers are willing to consume. The word Supply refers to the quantity in which the producers are able to produce the goods in demand.

Question 5.
Mention any two abuses or evils of a Capitalist System.
Answer:
The people left their villages to work in the factories situated in areas near the coal-fields or the iron rocks or seaports, etc. Not much care was taken to provide houses for the industrial workers. They, therefore, were forced to live in slums where the living conditions were very bad. In 1840 s more than one- tenth of the population of Manchester was living in the rooms in the ground underneath. They were forced to live under dirty conditions. In fact, each new machine meant that manual labor would be replaced by mechanical devices. It did throw a large number of manual workers on the street. Since men lost their work, in some parts of the world there was a massive wave of riots.

Question 6.
What is meant by Socialism?
Answer:
Socialism consists of one demand, namely that the land and other instruments of production shall be the common property of the people and shall be used and governed by the people, for the people.

Question 7.
Name any two of the Early French socialists.
Answer:
Babeuf and Saint-Simon.

Question 8.
What is the role of Robert Owen in the history of socialist movement?
Answer:
Robert Owen has been called “the Father of British Socialism”. He owned a cotton mill in Scotland. It was he, who first used the word ‘Socialism’ and maintained that the object of Government was to make the people happy. He reduced 
the working-hours of the factory workers, paid the good wages and helped the Trade Union Movement to grow.

Question 9.
Name that famous work by Marx and Engels (published in 1848) which marked the advent of Marxism Socialism or Communism.
Answer:
The ‘Communist Manifesto’ was published in 1848. It marked the advent of Marxism or ‘Scientific Socialism’, as they called it. According to Karl Marx and Engels the interests of the capitalists and workers are all the time opposed to each other. They laid stress not he doctrine of Class Struggle. The struggle between the capitalists and the working classes is a ceaseless affair, until the workers have won and a new social system is bom.

Question 10.
Name any two prominent leaders of the Socialist Party founded in India in 1934.
Answer:
The prominent leaders of the party were Acharya Narendra Dev,’Achyut Patwardhan, Jayaprakash Narayan and Dr. Ram Manohar Lohia.

Question 11.
Mention the two main features of Socialism.
Answer:
Socialism favors ‘collectivism’, i.e., collective good or social welfare is of greater value than the good of an individual. Socialism, in addition to Equity, promotes Freedom or civil liberties also. Socialists have been great supporters of civil liberties, such as freedom of speech, freedom to form associations and freedom of religion, etc.The Socialists want to reduce class divisions. In other words, the goal of Socialism is the abolition of private ownership over means of production, such as land, mines, factories etc.

Question 12.
Mention any two differences between Capitalism and Socialism.
Answer:

  1. The first and the most important distinction between Capitalism and Socialism is that “the means of production in a Capitalist economy remain in private hands.” (the capitalists or the industrialists). The Socialist thinkers hold that the material resources of the country (land, coal, iron, railways, road- transport, and banks etc.) should be nationalised, i.e., brought under State-control.
  2. The spirit of capitalism is Market Economy. The economic life is organised according to the forces of demand and supply. The capitalists produce even those goods which are of no utility for the society. It leads to the wastage of valuable resources. The Socialists, on the other hand, placed too much emphasis on a planned economy.

Question 13.
Mention any two ideals of a Welfare State.
Answer:

  1. The state should take responsibility for the security and welfare of those who could not stand on their own feet. Gradually Britain, Canada, Australia, Sweden, Denmark and other European states had become truly Welfare States.
  2. These countries citizens received state assistance during sickness, unemployment and old age. Various social security measures have been taken in India also, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), the National Food Security Act and the Pradhan  Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY).

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Industrial Revolution in England may be attributed to many factors. What was the role of the following factors:
(a) Availability of Coal and Iron.
(b) Improved Transportation.
(c) A vast Overseas Market
Answer:
The role of the given factors in stimulating industrial expansion in England in the 18th Century are described as under: 

  1. Availability of Coal and Iron: Coal and Iron was immensely available in England. In the north of England, lay both the coalfields and the deposits of iron. Most factories sprang up in northern regions, which became the most populous part of the country.
  2. Improved Transportation: In the 18th century, James Watt developed an engine in which the steam was employed to drive the piston backwards and forwards and the piston could be used to turn the wheels. Then came the invention of the railways. Goods and people could now be carried far faster than by previous modes of transport.
  3. A vast Overseas Market: Overseas trade, brought into plenty of money to England. After the Battle of Plassev (1757), the East India Company compelled our people to sell their goods below the market-rate and purchase the commodities they had brought at very high prices. As England had acquired Canada also, her trade developed considerably. She had now, a big market for her products.

Question 2.
Industrial Revolution and the Capitalist mode of production might have been helpful in some ways, it also caused problems in other ways. Discuss its disadvantages under the following heads:
(a) A System of Mass Exploitation
(b) Unemployment
(c) Increase in Slums
Answer:
(a) A System of Mass Exploitation:
The Capitalist System, created two new classes: the Capitalist Class and the Class of Wage-earners. The capitalists were anxious to make as large profits as possible and in order to do that they exploited the working class. Workers share in the profits of industry was very small. It is terrible to think that even women and little children had to work for as many as fifteen hours a day, with very short interval for food. Factory owners and managers paid the minimum amount necessary for a workforce, often recruiting women and children to tend the machines because they could be hired for very low wages.

(b) Unemployment:
Introduction of new machines, threw a large number of manual workers on the street. Since men lost their work, in some parts of the world, there was a massive wave of riots.

(c) Increase in Slums:
The introduction of machinery took the work out of the homes into newly built factories. Since, most of the population lived in villages, the people life the countryside to work in the factories. The domestic system of production came to an end, with considerable loss to rural England or the rural France, as the case may be. Poverty in rural areas increased. Exodus to the cities led to an increase in Slums. Usually, the factories were situated in areas near the coal-fields or sea-ports. Not much care was taken to provide houses for the industrial workers. They, therefore, were forced to live in slums. In 1840s, more than 1/10th of the population of Manchester was living in the rooms in the ground underneath. The workers needed recreation and sometimes fell prey to harmful practices, such as drinks or gambling.

Question 3.
Socialism emerged as a reaction to Capitalism. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) What were the main Ideas of Marx and Engels ?
(b) What were the key areas of disagreement between Marxian Socialists and Democratic Socialists ?
Answer:
(a)
Karl Marx went to Paris where he met Engels. Karl Marx and Engels drew the Communist Manifesto in 1848. According to Karl Marx and Engels, the interests of the capitalists and workers are all the time opposed to each other. They laid stress on the doctrine of Class Struggle.
(b)
Democratic Socialists  such as Bernstein Jean Juares Bernard Shaw and Sidney Webb were not in agreement with the principle of Class Struggle advocated by Marx. They believed that socialist objectives should be achieved through democratic means.

Question 4.
Socialists prefer .Co-operation to Competition and favor Collectivism over Individualism. Mention the three key features of Socialism.
Answer:
Socialists believe that democratic means should be employed for achieving their objectives, i.e., The Goal of Socialism. They rejected the revolutionary overthrow of the existing political and economic system. Almost all nations of the world (with the possible exception of America) have had strong socialist parties. After attaining success in elections, the Socialists adopt policies which would strengthen socialism. In Britain the labor party for the first time gained an absolute majority in the House of Commons in 1945. The Labor Government, then, nationalised a number of industries and adopted such programmes as public housing and National Insurance to pay money to people who were ill, unemployed, or had retired.

Question 5.
Describe the differences or dissimilarities between Capitalism and Socialism under the following headings:
(a) Private Ownership versus State Ownership
(b) Market Economy versus Planned Economy
(c) Profit Maximisation versus Social Cohesion
Answer:
(a)
The first and the most important distinction between Capitalism and Socialism is that “the means of production in a Capitalist economy remain in private hands.” (the capitalists or the industrialists). The Socialist thinkers hold that the material resources of the country (land, coal, iron, railways, road- transport, and banks etc.) should be nationalised, i.e., brought under State-control.
(b)
The spirit of capitalism is Market Economy. The economic life is organised according to the forces of demand and supply. The capitalists produce even those goods which are of no utility for the society. It leads to the wastage of valuable resources. The Socialists, on the other hand, placed too much emphasis on a planned economy.
(c)
Profit maximisation is the main motive for an industrialist. Under a Socialist economy even such things shall be produced, for the benefit of the poor and the needy, whose production costs more and yields lesser gains or no gains at all. The State, through Fair Price Shops, sells goods even at a loss, e., a) a price which is less than it costs to produce some of the goods.

Question 6.
Most political thinkers nowadays endorse a reformed or humanised capitalist system. In this context explain the ideal of a Welfare State ?
Answer:
These countries citizens received state assistance during sickness, unemployment and old age. Various social security measures have been taken in India also, such as the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MGNREGA), the National Food Security Act and the Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY).

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Reformation

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Reformation

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What do you understand by the term ‘Reformation’?
Answer:
‘Reformation’ was a religious Movement launched by Martin Luther. It protested against the dogmas of Roman Catholic Church.

Question 2.
Mention two important causes of the Reformation.
Answer:
Two important causes of the Reformation are:

  1. Evils of the Catholic Church.
  2. Financial Burden on People in General.

Question 3.
What is meant by the Sale of Indulgences?
Answer:
Tetzel, who was sent to Germany by Pope, he used to sell Indulgences, offering pardon to those who paid money. This practice of his is said to be the Sale of Indulgences.

Question 4.
How did the Pope Leo X try to collect funds for building St. Peter’s Basilica?
Answer:
The Pope Leo X, tried to collect funds for building St. Peter’s Basilica by sending missionaries to sell Indulgences.

Question 5.
Name the English priest who translated the Holy Bible into English.
Answer:
Wycliff.

Question 6.
Who started the revolt against the authority of the Church in Germany?
Answer:
Martin Luther.

Question 7.
Why did Marin Luther object to the power of Pope?
Answer:
The Pope used to forgive sins of all that paid, regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions, which made Martin Luther to raise his objection against the power of the Pope.

Question 8.
Why was Martin Luthur Excommunicated from the Church?
Answer:
Martin Luther was very much against the worldliness of the Pope Leo X, the Clergy and the spiritual emptiness of the Catholic Church. All his resentment provoked the Pope and he declared Martin Luther as a heretic and sent a letter, warning him that he would be excommunicated from the Church. Martin Luther defiantly burnt the Papal’s Bull of Excommunication in the presence of the public at Writen berg on December 10, 1520, theory marking his revolt.

Question 9.
Who translated the Holy Bible from Latin into German language?
Answer:
Martin Luther translated the Holy Bible from Latin to German language.

Question 10.
What was the immediate cause of the division of the Roman Catholic Church?
Answer:
The Reformation in Europe was the immediate cause of the division of the Roman Catholic church.

Question 11.
Which are the two factions of the Church?
Answer:
The Roman Catholic and the Protestant.

Question 12.
What were the two main decision made by the Council of Trent?
Answer:
The Council of Trent took up steps to enforce strict discipline among the Church officials. The sale of Church offices were stopped. It condemned and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminars were to be started for imparting education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.

Question 13.
Who founded the Society of Jesus?
Answer:
Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish nobleman founded the Society of Jesus.

Question 14.
What were the important terms of the peace of Augsburg  in 1555?
Answer:
The important terms of the peace of Augsburg in 1555 were:

  1. The ruler will have the right to determine his static-religion.
  2. Lutheran subjects in Catholic states in Germany will not be asked to renounce their faith.

Question 15.
Who heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland?
Answer:
Ulrich Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland.

Question 16.
What did the Puritans want people to do?
Answer:
Puritans condemned and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminaries were to be started for importing education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.

Question 17.
Mention the names of two Jesuit missionaries who helped in restoring the prestige of the Catholic Church.
Answer:
St. Francis Xavier and Loyola.

Question 18.
What is meant by the term ‘Nation-State’?
Answer:
The Nation State refers to a country with well defined natural boundaries, having people with common history, culture and character.

Question 19.
How Reformation led to the formation of Nation-States in Europe.
Answer:
As the Protestant revolt grew in strength, many rulers who wanted to be freed of leading-strings of the Pope sided with Martine Luther or Calvin. Many European kings now declared themselves as Head of the Church as well as of the Government. The kings had already crushed the feudal lords. Now another great rival of the Crown i.e., the Church also submitted to King’s authority. That completed the edifice of a National-State.

Question 20.
What was ‘Mercantilism’?
Answer:
Mercantilism meant ‘complete government control over trade, commerce and industry.’

Question 21.
Mention the main point on which Luther and Zwingli disagreed.
Answer:
The ‘Lord’s Supper’ was the main point on which Luther and Zwingli disagreed.

Sturctured Questions

Question 1.
The Movement against the Roman Catholic Church is called the Reformation. Discuss its causes with reference to the following:
(a) Sale of Indulgences
(b) Tithe
(c) Raising Funds to build St. Peter’s Basilica
Answer:
(a) Sale of Indulgences:
Another way of collecting money was the sale of letters which remitted punishment for sin. Those who had money would be made free from doing penance for their sins by buying a Letter of Indulgence. The clergy claimed that those who bought the Indulgences got remission of their sins by God.
(b) Tithe:
The people were required to pay ‘tithe’ (one-tenth of their income) to support churches and priests. Besides, the clergy collected another tax called ‘Peter’s pence’ from the people. The burden fell mainly on the peasants and the middle class families.
(c) Raising Funds to build St. Peter’s Basilica:
Pope Leo X wanted to build St. Peter’s Basilica (Church) with the new architectural designs. He sent emissaries to sell Indulgences and to collect funds for the new project. John Tetzel, an agent of the Pope, went to Writen berg with the mission of raising sums for the building. It provoked Martin Luther.

Question 2.
How did the following causes contribute to the 16th- century Reformation Movement in Europe:
(a) Humanist Movement
(b) Spread of New Learning
Answer:
(a) Humanist Movement:
The pretensions of the Church was much discredited by Humanist Movement. Reuchlin and Erasmus criticised the Church for its corruption and worldly business. Reuchlin brought to light many inconsistencies in the interpretation of the Bible that were made by theological scholars. The Dutch scholar Erasmus, criticized the conduct of the clergy and he wanted them to change their lifestyle. Unfortunately, Pope Leo X could not see the danger signal.

(b) Spread of New Learning:
The New Learning and the spirit of inquiry that was developed by the Renaissance scholars, the invention of printing press and printing of Bible in vernacular languages brought a complete change in people’s outlook. They now questioned superiority of the Church. It also led to the growth of secular ideas. Nobles and merchants believed that there was nothing wrong in acquiring wealth to lead a worldly life. The monarchs and capitalists were jealous of the wealth of the Church. The common people in Europe looked upon Church- taxes with contempt.

Question 3.
Early in the sixteenth century there rose in Germany Martin Luther who became the great leader of the Reformation Movement. In this context describe:
(a) Luther’s Beliefs and Doctrines
(b) Luther’s Theses
Answer:
(a) Luther’s Beliefs and Doctrines: Martin Luther belonged to a peasant family of Saxony, in Germany. After his theological education in the University of St. Augustine in 1505, he was appointed a Professor of Theology at Writenberg University. His thorough knowledge of the Bible, led him to believe that man could attain salvation only by repentance. Salvation is the Gift of God, and can be had if the penance be done. Luther questioned Tetzel’s authority to sell Indulgences and he had at once the moral support of many princes and ordinary people alike.He was shocked to learn the worldliness of the Pope, the clergy and the spiritual shallowness after he visited Rome. In 1517, he nailed on the door of the Castle-Church at Writenberg, ninety-five these is (statements), which he thought, people should know and think about carefully. The first thesis was : When our Lord and Master Jesus Christ says Repent, he means that the entire life of believers should be a repentance ?’’ Luther’s insistence was that, Tetzel was quite unscrupulous in his misinterpretation of Scripture. He questioned the power of the Pope and priests to forgive sins of all who paid, regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions.
(b)
When Luther visited Rome he was grieved to witness the worldliness of the Pope and the Clergy. In 1517 he nailed on the door of the Castle-Church at Writenberg Ninety-five Theses (Statements), which he thought people should know and think about carefully. The first Thesis was : “When our Lord and Master Jesus Christ says Repent, he means that the entire life of belivers should be a repentance.” All other Statements were an elaboration of this Thesis. Luther questioned the powers of Pope and priests to forgive sins of all who paid/regardless of whether they sincerely regretted their actions.

Question 4.
Lutheran Church was the Protestant Church founded on the doctrines of Martin Luther. In this context describe:
(a) Luther’s Excommunication by the Pope
(b) His success in mobilising Princes’ and People’s support
Answer:
(a) His Excommunication:
Pope Leo X, declared Martin Luther as a heretic and sent a letter, warning him that he would be excommunicated from the Church. He defiantly burnt the Papal’s Bull of Excommunication in the presence of the public at Wittenberg on December 10, 1520, thereby making his revolt. In 1521, Emperor Charles V summoned Luther to attend the Diet at Worms to answer charges levelled against him by the Pope. Though his friends and well-wishers persuaded him not/to attend, Luther appeared before the Diet to defy the Church. He boldly declared that he would not revoke any of his statements as his conscience “is taken captive by the word of God.” The Emperor issued the famous Edict of Worms, declaring Luther as heretic and ordered for his arrest.

(b) His success in mobilising princes’ and peoples’ support:
Frederick the Wise, Duke of Saxony, saved Luther’s life by forcing him to hide. Luther spent one year in a lonely castle during which time, he translated the Holy Bible from Latin to German. Many German princes who supported Luther, raised their banner of revolt against the authority of the Church and formed a League to ‘protect Luther. Those who favored the new protest movement, broke away from the Catholic Church and came to be known as Protestants. Lutheran Churches were established all over the country. It divided Germany into two factions-one group, under Emperor Charles V and the other group, under the Protestant rulers of Germany. It led to religious conflict, which took a heavy toll and ended in the Peace of Augsburg in 1555. The Peace acknowledged the right of a ruler to determine his state- religion. Lutheran subjects in Catholic states in Germany were not asked to renounce their faith. Thus, the power and prestige of the Catholic Church led by the Pope suffered a serious setback.

Question 5.
A series of measures were taken to restore the reputation of the Catholic Church. In this context answer the following questions:
(a) What is known as Counter-Reformation ?
(b) What measures were taken to introduce reforms in the Catholic Church ?
Answer:
In context of measures taken to restore the reputation of Catholic Chinch, the given questions are answered as under:
(a)
The Reformation movement greatly damaged the very foundation of the Roman Catholic Church in the 16th century and brought about the birth of the Protestant Church. In order to restore the reputation of the Catholic Church, a large number of dedicated ^Christians; including some Popes, had adopted certain reforms within the Church. A Church Council was convened at Trent, in northern Italy in 1545 by Pope Paul III
(b)
The Council of Trent took up strict measures to maintain discipline among the Church officials. The sale of Church offices was stopped. It condemned and prohibited Sale of Indulgences. Seminaries were to be started for importing education and training to priests. The Church should not charge any fees for conducting- religious services; sermons should be preached in the language of the people.The Society of Jesus was founded by Ignatius Loyola, a Spanish noble man. He took a vow to serve Christ and turned into a Missionary after studying the life of Jesus Christ and other saints. He studied theology in Sorbonne University. He founded a religious Order by the name Society of Jesus with the permission of the Pope.St. Francis Xavier was one of the Jesuit followers of Ignatius Loyola. He went to China and Japan for the propagation of Christianity. He came to India and worked till he died. His mortal – remains were placed at the Church of Bom Jesus in old Goa. The selfless and dedicated service rendered by the Jesuits helped in restoring the prestige of the Roman Catholic Church.

Question 6.
Explain the impact and consequences of the Reformation under the following headings:
(a) How Reformation led to the formation of Nation-States?
(b) How did the rulers of Nation-States work on Mercantilist theories ?
Answer:
(a)
Reformation gave rise to nationalism, particularly in Germany and England. Rulers declared them as heads of Church and government. Control on the. Church caused a common national government within the Nation States.
(b)
Mercantilism was a theory that the state should regulate economic activities in order to achieve some national objectives. It should follow the policy of ‘Protectionism’. Large nation-states had come into existence in England, France, Spain and Portugal. The rulers of these countries had imposed numerous restrictions on international trade in the national interest. Under the influence of mercantilist theories, the governments encouraged ‘Protectionism’, which meant  protecting home producers from foreign competition by taxing imported goods.

Question 7.
John Calvin was one of the later leaders of the Protestant Movement. In this context. Explain the following:
(a) Calvin’s Teachings.
(b) His large following in Europe.
Answer:
John Calvin was one of the later leaders of the Protestant Movement, In this context, the given headings are explained as follows:
(a) Calvin’s Teachings:

Calvin insisted upon the strict interpretation of the Bible. He enjoined upon all his followers a strict Code of Conduct. Places of worship were made as simple as possible and many amusements and leisurely activities were forbidden.Calvin’s important teaching was that of the Doctrine of Predestination, which he popularised in his book ‘Institutes of the Christian Religion’. This work was dedicated to the French King, Francis I. The Doctrine of Predestination stresses that it is divinely ordained that God has chosen His own Elect and man’s good works in themselves are not sufficient to ensure the Granting of Grace. God will grant righteousness to those who believe in Him, for it is by the Grace of God that man is saved.

(b) His large Following in Europe:
Calvin’s ideas and doctrines spread widely. He founded the University of Geneva. The distinguished scholars, who studied at this University spread Calvinism to Netherlands, Hungary, France, England and Scotland. Calvin’s teachings became the basis of the Presbyterian Church in Scotland. The followers of Calvin were the first English Puritans. “In their zeal for a simple form of Church service”, said Dr. Tickner, “they objected to surplice or fasting, to the use of marriage ring or baptismal cross…… or to music or procession.” Calvin was so intolerant, he persecuted and severely punished those who were free-thinkers and did not agree with his doctrines. The religion, which Calvin established, did not bring religious liberty to Europe.

Question 8.
Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland. In this context describe.
(a) Main events of his life, (b) Zwingli’s Teachings.
Answer:
Zwingli heralded the Protestant Movement in Switzerland. In this context, the given heads are described below:
(a
Main events of his life:
Ulrich Zwingli heralded the, Protestant Movement in Switzerland. He was a contemporary of Martin Luther. Born at Wildhaus in 1484, he was trained as a priest. Glarus was the first town, where he became a clergyman in 1514. He studied the Greek text of the New Testament authored by Erasmus. In 1518, he became a priest at the Cathedral in Zurich. By 1520, he had become convinced of the need for reforming the Church. He developed his Protestant Theology and preached against the sale of The Catholic Bishop of Zurich tried to silence Zwingli. But by that time, he had become a “Peoples’ Priest”. The civil authorities intervened at this stage. They took charge of city’s religious affairs and called a Public Debate to decide whether people should accept Catholicism or Zwingli’s Protestantism.

After an intensive debate, Zwingli brought the majority of the people over to his side. In course of time, most of the Swiss Cantons (Provinces) were on Zwingli’s side. Only the rural communities (Forest Cantons) continued to cling to old emotional values. The conflict erupted into open warfare between Catholics and the Protestant troops. Zwingli was killed at the Battle of Kappel in 1531. Written on his gravestone are the words: “They may kill the body but not the soul.”

(b) Zwingli’s Teachings:
Zwingli accepted the Bible’s supremacy as the “Universal Priesthood of all Believers.” That means, priests did not constitute a class separate from lay people. All Believers should be regarded as priests. Zwingli considered the Lord’s Supper as a thanks-giving ceremony. According to him, the Gift of Gospel is God’s biggest  favor (Grace) for which Mankind is expressing it’s Gratitude. He believed in “total rebirth of humanity and society”. He fought for people’s right to control church and city’s religious affairs.

Question 9.
What were the results (Impacts) of the Reformation
Answer:
The results (Impacts) of the Reformation were as follows:

  1. The Church was split up: It led to the birth of Protestantism. With the spread of the Protestant Movement, some of the kings and princes of Europe sided with one faction, while others with the other. Luther was supported greatly by the masses, as there was a strong feeling against the abuses of power by the Roman Church.
  2. Religious Conflicts and Wars: The fanatics who never showed any respect to the sublime teachings of Jesus Christ, always encouraged cruel persecutions. Religious intolerance resulted in civil war in Germany. Subsequently, the Holy Roman Empire underwent Thirty Years War. The main object was to force the Protestant states to become Catholic. Religious frenzy drove the English Puritans to North America, that led to formation of the United States of America in the course of time.
  3. Counter Reformation (Rgjform in Catholic Religion): Reformation resulted in Counter-Reformation. Roman-Catholics under the Pope at the Council of Trent, took measures to revive the prestige of the Church. Christianity became more liberal, more tolerant of different kinds of opinions.
  4. The Rise of National Monarchies: Those princes who wanted to be freed of leading-strings of the Pope, stated with Martin Luther or Calvin. The Reformation assumed the form of nationalism particularly in Germany and in England. Had it not been for the support of English Parliament, Henry VIII would not have succeeded in his struggle against the Catholic Church.
  5. Rapid Economic Growth: The Clergy were hurt and crashed. The new age that was dawning, was “the age of traders, bankers or financiers”. Much of the Church property had passed to the kings. Therefore, they had considerable wealth at their disposal. They could now give attention to those sufferings, poverty and beggary.

Question 10.
What forces and factors contributed to the rise of Nation-States in Europe ?
Answer:
The forces and factors that contributed to the rise of Nation­ States in Europe are as follows:

  1. Political Factors (Need for a strong Control Authority): Fighting was the chief occupation of the feudal lords. People were fed up of anarchy and disorder. They were prepared to lend moral and material support to those kings who could reduce the power of the nobles. The Tudor Monarch, Henry VII (1485-1509) destroyed the power of the feudal lords in England. Cardinal Richelieu, the leading statesman of France, strengthened the authority of the French Crown. He reduced the power of the nobles. At this time, Spain and Portugal also had very powerful monarchs.
  2. Economic Factors: The merchants and traders resented all such barriers as prevented them from moving from one part of the country to another. This new class gave presents and also advanced loans to the kings that added to their military strength. The kings could now raise their independent armies to crush the plots and rebellions of their nobles.
  3. Intellectual Factors (Renaissance): Science and literature also forged ahead during this period. England, Italy, France and Spain produced writers, inspired by nationalist ideas. Machiavelli, for instance, wanted to unite Italy under a strong central government. In his book ‘ The Prince’ He pleaded for a strong monarchy for Italians at that time.
  4. Religious Factors (Reformation): In view of the Protestant revolt, many princes of Germany and other European kings, sided with Reformation. They now, declared themselves as heads of the Church as well as of the Government. The kings had already crushed the feudal lords. Now, another great rival of the Crown
    i.e the Church also submitted to king’s authority. That completed the edifice of a Nation-State. In England, it was king Henry VIII (1509-1547) who championed the cause of Protestantism. He got the English Parliament to pass the Act of Supremacy to nullify Pope’s power over the churches in England. This made the king, the supreme Head of the Church of England.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
What is known as the Reformation ?
Answer:
It is the 16th century movement in Europe for the reform of the Church and the objectionable practices of the clergyman.

Question 2.
What are known as indulgences ?
Answer:
Pope Leo X wanted to build St. Peter’s Church. So he issued “pardon certificates” called ‘Indulgences” to those who gave money to build the Church. ‘Indulgences’ were letters which remitted punishments of the sinners who bought them, both in this life and after their death.

Question 3.
What is known as the Protestant Movement ?
Answer:
In the second quarter of 16th century, Martin Luther, a German clergyman and professor of Theology at University of Writenburg, openly criticised papacy (office of pope). He accused the Church for the sale of indulgences. In 1512, in a pilgrimage to Rome he found the clergymen living in luxurious life. He strongly opposed the Church. The ‘Diet of Worms’ (council of Princes and high dignitaries in 1521) ordered to burn the writings of Luther and to outlaw him. But the support of German rulers saved him and the movement was described as the German Protestant Movement.

Question 4.
How did Luther challenge the authority of the Church?
Answer:
Luther (1483-1546), openly challenged the Church, on the basis of false practices and drawbacks practiced by the Church and clergymen. He wrote 95 theses or statements dealing with the gap between the beliefs and practices of the Church and nailed them on the Church door at Writenburg.

Question 5.
What is known as the Diet of Worms ? What did it decide about Luther ?
Answer:
‘Diet of Worms’ was a council of Princes and high dignitaries in 1521, which ordered to burn the writings of Martin Luther and to outlaw him.

Question 6.
What role did Henry VIII play in curbing the power of the Pope ?
Answer:
King Henry VIII of England hardly cared for the Pope. He got the Church lands and in 1536 passed an Act for the dissolution of monasteries, whereby small monasteries with an income of less than £200 a year were closed and their buildings, land and money taken by the Crown. By another Act of 1539, larger monasteries were closed. Henry’s lavish lifestyle, along with his wars, had led to a lack of money. By destroying the monastic system, Henry could acquire all its wealth and property, while at the same time removing the influence of the Pope.

Question 7.
What was the Counter Reformation ? What were its consequences ?
Answer:
The Reformation Movement was against the Roman Catholic Church in the 16th Century and brought about the birth of Protestant Church. So, Catholic Church through dedicated Christians and some Popes introduced certain reforms within the Church. This movement is known as the Counter Reformation. A Church Council was held at Trent in northern Italy in 1545 by Pope Paul III.

Question 8.
What were the decisions made by the Church Council at Trent ?
Answer:
The Council of Trent (1545-1563) made a number of changes in the Catholic Church. It expanded its doctrines in the light of the changed attitudes of the times. It condemned leading an irresponsible religious life by the clergy. Books, which were considered to have had ideas against the Catholic teaching were banned. The Pope was regarded as the head of the Catholic Church and the final interpreter of the Christian doctrine. The Council of Trent was responsible for establishing centers known as seminaries to educate and train priests. It forbade the Church to charge fees for conducting religious services, and advocated the use of the local language for preaching in the Church.

Question 9.
Who was John Calvin ? By what names were the Calvanists known in different countries ?
Answer:
John Calvin (1509-1564), a French scholar, popularised the Protestant movement in Switzerland after the death of Zwingli,who declared Bible as the sole authority. Calvanists were known as the ‘Puritans’ in England, ‘Huguenots’ in France and ‘Presbyterians’ in Scotland.

Question 10.
Who was Ulrich Zwingli ?
Answer:
He was a French reformer and declared the Bible as the sole authority for attaining salvation.

Question 11.
What role did Henry VIII help to. spreading the Protestant movement in England ?
Answer:
At first, Tuder ruler Henry VIII was a devout Catholic Christian and also wrote a book in praise of the Pope, but afterwards, due to some personal reasons, he stood against the Catholic Church. He made himself the Supreme Head of the Church of England.

Question 12.
Which of the two divisions of the Church prevailed in the Scandanivian countries ?
Answer:
Two divisions of the Church prevailed in the Scandanivian countries were Protestant Lutheran Church and Roman Catholic Church.

Question 13.
What were the important terms of the Peace of Augsburg in 1555 ?
Answer:
The Peace of Augsburg in 1555, in Germany was based on the terms of the spirit of nationalism and strengthened absolute monarchies.

Question 14.
Define a Nation State ?
Answer:
The Nation State refers to a country with well defined natural boundaries, having people with common history, culture and character.

Question 15.
How did the feudal societies contribute to the emergence of Nation States.
Answer:
During the feudal (landlord system) times, there was unrest and disorder. Continuous fighting resulted in collapsing the system and so to save the pattern Nation States were created with particular creed and character.

Question 16.
How did Reformation cause formation of Nation States?
Answer:
Reformation gave rise to nationalism, particularly in Germany and England. Rulers declared them as heads of Church and government. Control on the Church caused a common national government within the Nation States.

Question 17.
Name two achievements of Nation States.
Answer:
Establishment of Nation States, gave a peaceful system of the common religion of the king and the people. This imparted a practical and simple government dealing with the common interests of the king and the people within Nation States.

Structured Questions:

1. With reference to the Reformation, explain the following:
Question 1(a).
The meaning of Reformation.
Answer:
The Reformation is the name given to a group of religious movements of sixteenth century launched by the Christians against the various drawbacks of the Church and the objectionable practices of the clergymen. The main target of these movements was the Pope, the highest authority in the Church hiearchy. These movements created a split in the Christian Church between those who continued to remain loyal to the Pope at Rome and those who broke away from the Church at Rome. The former were known as Roman Catholics and the latter as Protestants.

Question 1(b).
Who were the Protestants ? By what other names was Protestantism known ?
Answer:
The Christian who broke away from the Church at Rome was known as Protestants. An extreme form of Protestantism was Calvinism. Presbyterianism of Scotland and Puritanism of England were similar to Calvinism in simplicity, strictness and austerity. Although these movements were organised by different people under different names, they are collectively termed as Reformation because they were aimed at reforming the then existing Church.

2. With reference to the Reformation, answer the following:
(a) Mention any three Church practices that caused dissatisfaction among the people.
(b) How did New Learning become a factor that led to the reformation ?
Answer:
Question 2(a).
Dissatisfaction with the practices of the Catholic

  1. Church: The Catholic Church, during the early medieval period, had become a vast hierarchical organisation headed by the Pope if Rome. The Pope was the supreme authority over the entire hierarchy and he exercised this authority directly. Systematic efforts were made to extend the authority of the Church over everyone, high or low. But during the 14th century, people became dissatisfied with some of the Church practices and this dissatisfaction paved the way for Reformation.
  2. Corruption in the Church: Moral decay crept into some areas in the functioning of the Church. Some of the clergymen lacked proper education and some lived in luxury and neglected their religious duties. The priests promised salvation in exchange for fees. They could pronounce a marriage lawful or unlawful. In fact, there were fees for every transaction in life, from birth to death, fees for the peace of the soul and fees for the souls of the people dead long ago. These practices were severely criticised and opposed by the people.
  3. Movement against the Church: Anti-Church movements began in Europe in the middle ages. These movements directed their attacks on the wrong doings of the Church. John Wycliffe, an English priest and Oxford professor, criticised the worldliness of the Church and some of its practices. He laid emphasis on the Bible as the sole guide for salvation. The Church ordered his expulsion from the Oxford University where he was teaching. This create dissatisfaction among the scholars.

Question 2(b).
New Learning:
The spread of new learning and spin of inquiry was developed by Renaissance scholars. The invention of printing press and the printing of the Bible in vernacular languages brought a new outlook among laymen. The Renaissance encouraged spirit of inquiry, developed critical attitude and broadened the mental outlook of man. The people then began to question everything including the authority of the Pope. They criticised the Church practices, rituals and the lifestyles of some of the clergymen. New learning led to a secular outlook among the people. Nobles and merchants were jealous of the wealth of the Church. The common people in Europe looked upon the Church taxes with contempt. The changing attitude of the people towards the Church led to the growth of secular ideas.

Question 3.
With respect to the Protestant Movement, answer the following questions.
(a) Why did Martin Luther rise in revolt against the Church?
(b) What action did the Diet of Worms take against Martin Luther ?
(c) What was known as Schmal kaldic League ? What was its contribution ?
Answer:
Diet of Worms consisting of Council of Princes and high dignitaries in 1521. The Diet ordered that Luther’s writings be burnt and Luther be outlawed. But Luther had the support of German rulers ; and so no harm was done to him.
(a)
He accused the Church for sale of ‘indulgences’ He wrote 95 theses in revolt against the difference between beliefs and practices.
(b)
‘Diet of Worms ’ was a council of Princes and high class people in 1521. The Diet ordered to burn the writings of Martin Luther and to outlaw him.
(c)
Lutheranism was recognised as a legal form of Christianity by the Treaty known as “The Peace of Augsburg’ in AD 1555; this Treaty was signed between the ‘Schmalkaldic League’, formed by Luther and some German Princes) and the Roman Catholic Church after a long civil war. In Germany, the southern states continued to remain loyal to the Catholic Church whereas the Northern states accepted Lutheranism.

Question 4
State the contribution of each of the following to the protestant movement.
(a) John Calvin;
(b) King Henry VIII of England
(c) Ulrich Zwingli
Answer:
(a)
John Calvin: A French Scholar, popularised the Protestant movement in Switzerland. Calvanists disliked feasting on a  lavish scale.
(b)
King Henry VIII: He became against the Church due to not receiving a permission from the Pope, he broke away from the Catholic Church and made himself the Supreme Head of the Church in England.
(c)
Ulrich Zwingli: He spread Lutheranism in Switzerland. He regarded the Bible as the sole guide to right living. He was killed in a religious war against the Pope that broke out in AD 1531.

5. The respect to the growth of Nation States, answer the following questions:
Question 5(a)
How did the Reformation contribute to emergence of Nation States.
Answer:
On account of the disorder and unrest during the feudal times, people came to the conclusion that there must be a peaceful condition and atmosphere with peaceful and amicable . relationship which could only be possible through formation of the Nation States with common creed and religion.

Question 5(b) 
Describe the other factors that contributed to growth of Nation States.
Answer:
Main factors that contributed to growth ofNation States were as follows:

  1. Rise of nationalism
  2.  Church were submitted to King’s authority.
  3. Rulers opposed the Supremacy of Church.
  4. After the long tussle between the rulers and the Church, after Reformation religion of the King became the religion of the people and at last the Nation States came into existence.

6. With reference to Mercantilism answer the following questions:
Question 6(a) 
What is meant by the term Mercantilism ?
Answer:
Mercantilism refers to a collection of economic maxims of strict practical utility aimed at maintaining a favorable  balance of trade by discouraging imports and encouraging exports. These were meant to ensure the prosperity and security of the state.

Question 6(b) 
Explain briefly the basic principles of Mercantilism.
Answer:
The basic principles of mercantilism were identical in all the countries. These were the following:

  1. Foreign Trade: The Mercantilists believed that the strength and richness of a country depends on two things — the possession of gold and silver mines and favorable balance of trade. As all the countries did not have mines of gold and silver, they could built up stocks of these metals by exporting maximum of their manufactured goods and importing minimum of commodities from other countries. They, therefore, insisted on discouraging imports through imposition of heavy duties and prohibition on foreign goods and encouraging exports by promoting domestic agriculture and industry.
  2. Importance of Wealth: Mercantilists considered wealth as the sources of all power and laid great emphasis on the importance of gold and silver.
  3. Interest: Mercantilists favored charging of low rate of interest on the money as it could be profitably employed in trade to make profit. The high rates of interest made the money scare.
  4. Factors of Production: Mercantilists considered the land and the labor as the sole factors of production. Most of them laid emphasis on the need to increase production to attain self ­sufficiency in food-stuffs and to encourage exports. They laid emphasis on the cultivation of wastelands to increase production in agriculture.
  5. Large Population: Mercantilism emphasised the need of having large population for increasing production and participation in war. They regarded large population as the real strength of the community as it made inventions and developed industries which brought riches.to the nation.
  6. Commercial Regulations: For the maintenance of a favorable balance of trade the mercantilists favored commercial regulations. The European countries frame  regulations to restrict the import of foreign goods and encourage exports.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Renaissance

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Renaissance

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What it meant by Renaissance ?
Answer:
The term ‘Renaissance’ is derived from the Latin ‘word ‘Renascence’. It implies rebirth and it is used to describe the rebirth of thought and learning of Greco-Roman classics, revival of art and growth of humanism.

Question 2.
Why is Renaissance known as an Intellectual Movement?
Answer:
Renaissance is known as an Intellectual Movement because it brought new developments in the fields of literature, religion, philosophy, politics, art and science.

Question 3.
Mention any two causes that led to the advent of Renaissance.
Answer:
Two causes that led to the advent of Renaissance are:

  1. The Capture of Constantinople by the Turks.
  2. Decline of Feudalism.

Question 4.
Name the country where the scholars took refuge after the siege of Constantinople.
Answer:
After the siege of Constantinople, the scholars took refuge in Italy.

Question 5.
What caused the Greek scholars to come to Italy? Or Give an important reason why the Renaissance began in Italy.
Answer:
In 1453, the Ottoman Turks sieged the City Constantinople and the Greek scholars fled to Italy.

Question 6.
Who reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1498?
Answer:
Vasco-de-Gama, a Portuguese explorer reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1498.

Question 7.
How did the invention of printing press bring new awakening in Europe?
Answer:
The invention of printing press made it possible to product books in large numbers. The holy Bible and many other religious and classical books were printed and made available all over Europe.

Question 8.
Mention an outstanding impact of the Renaissance ii the field of literature.
Answer:
The use of native languages for literary writings.

Question 9.
Who wrote ‘The Prince’? What is its importance?
Answer:
Machiavelli, wrote ‘The Prince’. It influenced the polity o that time, suggesting that political matters should b separated from religion.

Question 10.
Who was the famous English poet and dramatist the 16th century?
Answer:
William Shakespeare was the famous English poet am dramatist of the 16th century.

Question 11.
Name any two literary works of Shakespeare.
Answer:
Shakespeare wrote 38 Plays, more than 150 Sonnets am many Poems. His historical dramas included Richard II Henry V and Henry VI. He also wrote tragedies, such a Hamlet and Macbeth.

Question 12.
Who translated the Holy Bible into German Language
Answer:
Martin Luther translated the Holy Bible into Germai Language.

Question 13.
Mention the names of two celebrated artists of the 16th century?
Answer:
Leonardo de Vinci and Michael Angelo.

Question 14.
Mention the contributions of:
(a) Leonardo de Vinci.
(b) Mithaelangelo in the field of painting.
Answer:
(a)
Leonardo de Vinci was a great painter and sculptor, he painted famous pictures, ‘The Last Supper’ and ‘Mona Lisa’.
(b)
Michael Angelo was also a great painter and a sculptor. The ceiling frescoes in the Sistine Chapel in the Papal palace of the Vatican was his masterpiece.

Question 15.
Name two famous sculptors of Italy.
Answer:
Lorenzo Ghiberti and Michael Angelo.

Question 16.
Mention the contributions of Lorenzo Ghiberti in the field of sculpture.
Ans.
The contribution of the mentioned sculpturs is as follows:
Lorenzo Ghiberti:

He was a famous Italian sculptor. He worked for 20 years to make two pairs of bronze doors for the Baptistery at Florence.

Question 17.
Name the finest example of the Renaissance architecture in Rome.
Answer:
The St. Peter’s Church.

Question 18.
What was the famous theory introduced by Copernicus?
Answer:
Copernicus was a Polish priest. He introduced the theory that it was not the Sun and the stars that move round the Earth, but it is the Earth that rotates on its axis around the sun.

Question 19.
Who invented the Telescope?
Answer:
Italian astronomer Galileo invented the Telescope.

Question 20.
Who proved the theory of Law of Gravitation?
Answer:
Sir Isaac Newton, an English scientist proved the theory of Law of Gravitation.

Question 21.
Mention two important effects or consequences of the Renaissance.
Answer:
Two important effects of the Renaissance are:

  1. The Renaissance led to the Reformation Movement.
  2. Great Outflow of Vernacular Literature.

Question 22.
Who discovered the Eastern Coast of Canada? What did it lead to?
Answer:
John Cabot, an Italian explorer discovered, the Eastern Coast of Canada. It enabled the British to claim much of North America.

Question 23.
Name the rulers who patronised the works of literature and art in Europe.
Answer:
Rulers like—King Francis I of France, King Henry VIII and Queen Elizabeth I of England, Charles V of Spain and Christian II of Denmark encouraged the movement.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
The 15th and 16th centuries are by and large regarded as the ‘Renaissance Period’. In this context explain how each of the following led to the advent and growth of Renaissance:
(a) Capture of Constantinople by the Turks
(b) Decline of Feudalism
Answer:
(a) Capture of Constantinople by the Turks: In the years 1453, the Ottoman Turks captured Constantinople, the Capital of the Byzantme Empire which remained in Christian hands for more than thousand years. Its libraries contained the manuscripts of world-famous Greek and Roman writers. As the siege of the City began, the students and scholars fled with a number of priceless manuscripts. They went to various parts of Europe. They were especially welcome in Italy because, as George Guest puts it, “that land had already given birth to famous men of letters- Dante Petrarch and Boccaccio”. Nobles, merchants and Churchmen flocked to the new teachers.

(b) Decline of Feudalism: Feudal lords had possessed huge estates, who exploited the peasants ‘Social mobility’ and progress were badly affected by this system. Freedom or equality of rights was denied. Towards 13th and 14th centuries, started the decline of feudalism. It led to develop the habit of free-thinking. It paved the way for New Learning Consequently, new development came into being in the fields of art, literature, science and philosophy.

Question 2.
The word ‘Renaissance’ signifies the freedom-loving thoughts of man. In this context explain the role of
(a) Original thinkers, and
(b) Men with advanced scientific ideas in bringing about a spirit of Inquiry among people of Europe.
Answer:
(a)
During the Medieval Age, the Church discouraged original thinking and called upon scholars to put faith in the Church dogmas. However, original thinking could not be suppressed for a long time and certain bold and independent thinkers criticised the Church and asked the people to develop their own thinking. Thinkers like Roger Bacon, Abelard. Thomas Aquinas revolutionised the thought process and laid great stress on reasoning.
(b)
Roger Bacon (1214-1294) was a thirteenth century scholar, but look at the ‘modernity’ of his thoughts in these words: “Machines for navigating are possible without rowers, so that great ships, guided by one man may be borne with greater speed than if they were full of men… Likewise, cars may be made.” Similarly, “flying machines are possible, so that a man may sit in the middle turning some device by which artificial wings may beat the air in the manner of a flying bird.”All the above thinkers are called the forerunners of Renaissance.

Question 3.
How did the following factors help in the advent and growth of Renaissance:
(a) New Trade routes between Europe and the East
(b)Invention of the Printing Press
Answer:
(a)
The Turkish invasion made trade in the eastern Mediterranean too risky. With the result, new trade-routes to India and the East were felt to come in force. ‘Henry 
the Navigator’, a royal Portuguese became the pioneer in the field of geographical explorations. He started a school for navigators. The sailors were taught how to make use of the Mariner’s Compass and astrolabe. Many voyages were undertaken by his sailors along the coastline of West Africa. They discovered Azores and Material Inland and went as far as Sudan and Senegal. Bartholomew Diaz, a Portuguese, reached the southernmost tip of Africa, which came to be called ‘Cape of Good Hope’. In 1497 Vasco-de-Gama, sailed across the Indian Ocean and reached Kerala’s coastal town of Calicut in 1948. Two years later Cabral, a Portuguese Commander discovered Brazil in 1500.

The urge of discovering new routes made Vasco-de-Gama discover India, while he went round the ‘Cape of Good Hope’ in 1948. Similarly, Ferdinand Magellan, a Portuguese nobleman, went around the Globe between 1520 and 1522. Italy became the centre of all trade routes. Christopher Columbus was the first to sail across the Atlantic Ocean, taking with him three ships— The Santa Maria, the Nina and Pinta. A voyage of two months led him and his crew members land on the island of Bahamas, which he named San Salvador. He visited Cube and Haiti nearby and he called the people there Indians. He undertook three more sea-voyages and discovered Jamaica, Puerto Rica, Trinidad and the coasts of Venezuela. The coast, which he took for the Coast of Indies, was actually a new continent, which he had discovered unknowingly .Amerigo Vespucci, an Italian adventurer made four voyages to the region visited by Columbus. He gave a detailed description about the land and its people.

This New World was named as America after Amerigo Vespucci. Magellan, in September 1519, reached the coast of  South America and sailed down towards the south through straits now called Straits of Magellan. Finally, he reached the Philippines. He went ashore with his sailors. The natives attacked and killed him. Hernando Cortezm a Spanish adventurer, made a normal expedition to explore the coast of Central America. He landed the Coast of Mexico. The natives called Aztecs resisted his advance on their land, but he defeated them, conquering the Azetic Empire for the Spanish King John Cabot, an Italian explorer, was employed by the British King Henry-VII to discover the northwest route across the Atlantic. He reached the Cape Briton Island near Newfoundland. This discovery of the eastern coast of Canada enabled the British to claim much of the North Americ. Sir Francis Drake, an English sailor sailed around the globe between 1577 and 1580.

(b)
Invention of the Printing Press: In the middle of the 15th century, the invention of printing press played a vital role to enlighten the people on religious grounds. It enabled to produce books in large number. The holy Bible and many other religious and classical books were printed and made available all over Europe.

Question 4.
The Renaissance was a period of great intellectual activity. Given an account of the outstanding works of the following writers:
(a) Machivelli
(b) Shakespeare
Answer:
(a) Machivelli:
He was from Florence. He was a historian who is known as the father of modem political philosophy. In his work, ‘The Prince’, he dealt with political conditions that prevailed in the Italian states during the close of the 15th and early 16th century. His ideas and suggestions had a profound influence on the minds of political leaders and rulers in those days in Europe. He suggested that political matters should be separated from religion.

(b) Shakespeare:
The English poet, Chaucer (1340-1400) wrote the enjoyable ‘Canterbury Tales’. Shakespeare, the famous English poet and dramatist of 16th century, through his outstanding contribution had elevated English literature to world status. He was the greatest poet and playwright, England had ever produced. John Milton’s epci-poetry, ‘Paradise Lost’ elevated him to be a distinguished poet in England. His great works gave a great impetus to English literature.

Question 5.
The Renaissance artists tried to put life in canvas and stone. Describe their achievements in the fields of:(a) Painting
(b)Architecture
Answer:
(a) Painting: The city of Florence (Italy), produced in the second half of the 15th century very great artists and painters.

  1. Leonardo de Vinci: Leonardo de Vinci was a great painter, sculptor a great musician and a scientist. ‘The last Supper’ and ‘Mona Lisa’ are the great masterpieces of European art. New techniques were adopted in his paintings to give a fine feeling of reality.
  2. Michael Angelo: He was painter of the first rank and also an outstanding sculptor. The ceiling frescoes in the Sistine Chapel in the papal palace of the Vatican was his masterpiece. His paintings were based on Biblical themes and the Grand Fresco of the ‘Last Judgement’ is considered the most famous painting in the world.
  3. Raphael: He was a great artist of the Florentine school and his most celebrated painting was ‘Sistine Madonna’. He lived several years in Rome in the service of Pope, decorating the Vatican and designing the St. Peter’s Church. During the early Renaissance period, artists used to have their paintings based on the themes from the Holy  Scriptures and covered the walls of churches and palaces, painting scenes depicting Biblical characters and events. With the revival of interest in old Greek and Roman mythology, later artists started painting of the themes from Christian Literature in Greco-Roman Style.

(b) Architecture:
The Renaissance architects rejected the Gothic style arid accepted the Greco-Roman classical architecture. Some of the outstanding features of architecture were; imposing dome, round arches and tall columns. St. Peter’s Church in Rome, which can hold 80,000 people is the finest example of the Renaissance architecture. Its grand dome which was designed by Michael Angelo rises to a height of more than 400 ft. above the ground level.

Question 6.
There was a splendid galaxy of scientific persons whose discoveries revolutionised our ideas of the universe. In this context mention the discoveries of the following men:
(a) Copernicus
(b) Galileo
Answer:
(a) Copernicus:
He was a mathematician and astronomer, who formulated a model of the universe that placed the sun rather than the earth at the center of the universe. The publication of this model in his book De revolutionists orbium celestium (On the Revolutions of the Celestial Spheres) just before his death in 1543 is regarded as a major event in the history of science, triggering the Copernican Revolution.

Copernicus based his Heliocentric theory on the following:

  1. There is no one center of all celestial circles or spheres.
  2. The center of the earth is not the center of the universe, but only of gravity and of the lunar sphere.
  3. All the spheres revolve about the sun as their midpoint and therefore, the sun is the center of the universe.
  4. The earth has more than one motion, turning on its axis and moving in a spherical orbit around the sun.

(b) Galileo:
Galileo, an Italian Astronomer (1564-1642) used a telescope, the greatest scientific instrument of the period, to study the movements of heavenly bodies for Copernicus’ theory. Galileo was tried by the Church for challenging its belief and authority. His book was burnt. Three years later, Giordano Bruno was burnt in Rome by the Church for insisting that the Earth goes round the Sun.

Question 7.
Study this picture carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Give the name by which the portrait is known.
(b) Name the artist who portrayed it?
(c) Mention the main features of this painting?
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - The Renaissance 1
Answer:
(a) ‘Mona Lisa’
(b) Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519)
(c) His painting ‘Mona Lisa’ is a perfect depiction of beauty and harmony. In fact, it is more beautiful than any Creation of Nature. There is a mild smile on the face and with eyes, half closed and half revealing, as if she has something to say, the total effect is such as any heart could desire.

Question 8.
What were the effects of the Renaissance?
Answer:
The effects of the Renaissance were as follows:

  1. The Renaissance led to the Reformation Movement: The urge to know the unknown by questioning, observation and experimentation brought an end to the supremacy and’ domination of the Church, which eventually led to Reformation.
  2. Great overflow of Vernacular Literature: The Renaissance helped in the growth of vernaculars. In England, there was the famous Shakespeare and a contemporary of Shakespeare in Spain was Cervantes, who wrote ‘Done Quixote’. In France, Moliere became the founder of the ‘Comedie Francaise’, the National Theatre.
  3. Consequences of Geographical Explorations: Geographical discoveries, commercial relations were established between Europe and the East. Trade brought unprecedented prosperity to the countries of Europe. For England and Spain, America also yielded immense wealth. This led to Colonialism. European countries controlled America, Asia and Africa and used their resources to increase their own power.
  4. The Humanist’s Belief in Man: Earlier people subordinated themselves to the interests of the Church or the Class to which they belonged. Now, they began to look at themselves as ‘Individuals’. They believed in man’s’ability to achieve happiness and freedom without the need for religion. The Renaissance art and literature reflected aspirations of the ordinary people at that time.
  5. Rise and Growth of Nation-Slates: The feelings of nationality and progress of national literature led to the rise and growth of Nation-States.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS


Short Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is meant by the term ‘Renaissance’ ?
Answer:
The term ‘Renaissance’, means re-birth or revival. It stands for a complex transitional movement in Europe between medieval and modem times beginning in the 14th century in Italy and lasting into the 17th century.

Question 2.
Mention any two causes of the Renaissance.
Answer:
Two causes were:

  1. The decline of feudalism gave way to ‘ Social mobility’
  2. Co-operation of kings, nobles and wealthy people patronised this movement e.g. The Medici family of Florence patronised the Renaissance artists.

Question 3.
What role did the victory of the Turks over Constantipole play in the rise of Renaissance.
Answer:
Constantipole fell into the hands of the Turks in AD 1453. Many Greek and Roman Scholars were forced to Rome and other parts of Europe with their manuscripts. They spread the knowledge of Greek culture to European countries.

Question 4.
How did the decline of feudalism contribute to the rise of Renaissance ?
Answer:
Decline of feudalism in the 13 th and 14th centuries provided an impetus to free thinking. The peace and freedom that prevailed after the decline of feudalism favored the growth of New Learning. It led to the new developments in the spheres of art, literature, philosophy and science and contributed to the rise of Renaissance.

Question 5.
Why did the Renaissance began in Italy ? Give two reasons.
Answer:

  1. Italy was the seat of the glorious Roman Empire and all the historical remains and relics of the Roman were found there. These attracted a number of scholars and artists.
  2. The enormous wealth which Italy had accumulated as a result of trade with the East also contributed to the rise of Renaissance.

Question 6.
How did the invention of the printing press bring in a new awakening in Europe ?
Answer:
The first printing press was set up in Germany in 1456 by  Gutenberg. Later on, Caxton introduced it in England. The invention of printing press in the middle of 15th century in Europe made it possible to produce books in large numbers e.g. the Bible and many other religious and classical books ! were printed all over Europe.

Question 7.
Explain briefly the term ‘Humanism’
Answer:
Humanism is derived from the Latin words ‘Studia humanitatis’, or ‘the studies of mankind’. It meant a decisive shift in concern for human as distinct from divine matters. Humanism extolled man and stressed his essential dignity. It opposed religious asceticism. It defended his right to pleasure and satisfaction of earthly desires and requirements.

Question 8.
Who is known as the Father of Humanism ?
Answer:
Petrarch, a great scholar and writer, has been called ‘the father of humanism’. His sonnets and lyrics were popular throughout Europe.

Question 9.
Mention any two factors that led to the growth of the spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe.
Answer:
The following were the factors which were responsible for the development of the spirit of enquiry:
(a)
 Crusades: The Crusades were the religious expeditionary wars with the goal of restoring the Church’s access to holy places in and near Jerusalem. They brought the people of Europe into direct contact with the people of Asia, the Crusades brought to Western Europe ideas from the East. It widened their outlook on life and destroyed dogmatic attitude. People began reason rather than on blind faith.

(b) Development of Science: In the age of faith, science had little scope for development. But certain medieval scholars showed a scientific attitude and asked their students to observe things in nature. This brought in many new inventions and discoveries. Development of science created the spirit of enquiry and scientific temper. Roger Bacon contemplated the use of horseless carriages and flying machines. Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun. Galileo invented the telescope. These inventions broadened the mental outlook of the people and put an end to the old beliefs and traditions.

Question 10.
Mention the impact of the Renaissance in the field of English literature.
Answer:
The most significant impact of Renaissance was the use of local languages instead of Latin. England produced a number of writers, poets and dramatists, of repute. Geoffrey Chaucer “Father of English Poetry’, “The Canterbury Tales’, is his outstanding work. ‘Utopia’ written by Thomas More about an ideal island in America. Famous writers were Francis Bacon, William Shakespeare, Ben Johnson and Marlowe. ‘Paradise Lost’ is an immortal work of Milton. Edmund Spencer wrote the poem ‘Faerie Queene”.

Question 11.
Mention the theory introduced by Copernicus.
Answer:
Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun.

Question 12.
How did Renaissance lead to the rise of monarchical form of governments in Europe.
Answer:
Renaissance provided great impetus to the evolution of strong monarchical system of Government in Europe. The decline of the authority of the Church and the feudal system strengthened the desire of the people to have peace, security and political stability. Thus, they readily provided support to the kings and enhanced the power of monarchs.

Question 13.
Mention two outstanding features of the Renaissance Art.
Answer:

  1. Remarkable statues of bronze e.g. statue of David by Donatello and ‘Pieta’ by Michelangelo.
  2. Lorenzo Ghiberti in Italy made two pairs of bronze doors for the Baptistery at Florence.

Question 14.
Mention any two consequences of the geographical explorations.
Answer:
The navigators of Portugal and Spain played an important part in the geographical explorations. Constantinopale fell into the hands of the Turks in AD 1453, and so the trade sea-routes between the West and the East were closed. Hence, in search of new sea-routes
The following were the main discoveries: 

  1. Prince Hemy, the navigator of Portugal discovered a f sea-route to Africa.
  2. Bartholomew Diaz was successful in reaching the Cape of Good Hope.
  3. Vasco-da-Gama sailed as far as India in AD 1498.
  4. Columbus discovered America in AD 1492.

Question 15.
Who wrote “The Canterbury Tales” ?
Answer:
Geoffrey Chaucer wrote “The Canterbury Tales”.

Question 16.
Mention two of the paintings of Michelangelo.
Answer:
The Last Judgement’ and “The Fall of Man”.

Question 17.
Mention any two statues sculpted by Michelangelo.
Answer:
Michelangelo was a painter, sculptor, architect and poet.
His famous statues are: Pieta; David and Moses etc.

II. Structured Questions:

Question 1.
Many factors contributed to usher in the spirit of Renaissance, which had far-reaching consequences for the entire world. In this context, write short notes on:
(a) Invention of the printing press
(b) Decline of Feudalism.
(c) Capture of Constantinople.
Answer:
(a)
The invention of printing press in the middle of the 15th .century in Europe made it possible to produce books in large number e.g. the Bible and other religious and classical books. This brought a new awakening in life and thoughts in Europe.
(b)
Decline of Feudalism — Decline of feudalism in the 13th and 14th centuries provided an impetus to free thinking. The peace and freedom that prevailed after the decline of feudalism favored the growth of New Learning. It led to the new developments in the spheres of art, literature, philosophy  and science and contributed to the rise of Renaissance.
(c)
Capture of Constantinople — Constantinople was the capital of the East Roman Empire and was a center of Greek and Roman cultures. It had the valuable manuscripts of the Greek and the Roman writers. But Constantinople fell into the hands of the Turks in 1453. Many Greek and Roman scholars were thus, forced to shift to Rome and other parts of Europe with their manuscripts. Rome then became the center of Greek culture. These scholars were geniuses, men of liberal outlook, humanism and logical thinking. Wherever they went, they spread their new spirit and ideas. In ttys way they revived the interest of the people in the study of Greek philosophy, science, art and literature. The revival of the learning of Greek classics paved the way for the Renaissance.

2. Renaissance brought in a spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe. In this context, answer the following questions
Question 2(a).
How did the development of science create the spirit of inquiry ?
Answer:
Development of science created the spirt of inquiry and scientific temper. Roger Bacon contemplated the use of horseless carriages and flying machines. Copernicus proved that the earth moves round the sun. Galileo invented the telescope. These inventions broadened the mental outlook of the people and put an end to the old beliefs and traditions.

Question 2(b).
Explain briefly the role of original thinkers in promoting the spirit of enquiry among the people of Europe.
Answer:
During the Medieval Age, the Church discouraged original thinking and called upon scholars to put faith in the Church dogmas. However, original thinking could not be suppressed for a long time and certain bold and independent thinkers criticised the Church and asked the people to develop their own thinking. Thinkers like Roger Bacon, Abelard. Thomas Aquinas revolutionised the thought process and laid great stress on reasoning.

Question 2(c).
What was the role of Crusades in ushering in the spirit of inquiry ?
Answer:
The Crusades were the religious expeditionary wars with the goal of restoring the Church’s access to holy places in and near Jerusalem. They brought the people of Europe into direct contact with the people of Asia. The Crusades brought to Western Europe ideas from the East. It widened their outlook on life and destroyed dogmatic attitude.

3. Renaissance of lists tried to depict life on canvas and stone. With reference to this statement, describe the following:
Question 3(a).
Progress in the art of painting
Ans.
The art of painting raised to a significant level and depicted various real pictures of life appreciated by the people who also got inspiration from the lively paintings. The artists used geometrical ratios in paintings along with human anatomy for gestures and expressions.
The famous artists and paintings are:

  1. Leonardo da Vinci (1452-1519)- ‘Virgin of the Rocks’, ‘Last Super’ and ‘Mona Lisa’ etc.
  2. Michelangelo (1475-1564)- ‘Last judgement’, ‘The Fall of Man’.
  3. Raphael (1483-1520) – ‘Sistine Madonna’ and Designing of St. Peter’s Church.

Question 3(b).
Progress in the art of sculpture.
Answer:
The revival of the study of antiquity left a great impact in the field of sculpture. Some of the Renaissance artists copied the great masterpieces of the Greeks and Romans, while the others produced outstanding pieces which could rival the Greek creations.
Some of the outstanding sculptors of the Renaissance period were:

  1.  Donatello (1386-1466) – bronze statue of David.
  2.  Lorenzo Ghiberti, bronze doors for Baptistery at Florence.
  3. Michelangelo, ‘Pieta’, showing Mother Mary and Jesus. Statues of David and Moses.
  4. Many Italian sculptors worked to decorate Church and palaces. In this way architecture developed was very much in this period.

Question 4.
Renaissance was a period of intellectual activity. In the context, write briefly on the impact of Renaissance on
Science under the following heads:
(a)
Progress in astronomy
(b) Progress in medicine.
(c) Progress in mathematics.
Ans.
(a)
Copernicus (AD 1473-1543), held that the earth was round and earth, the moon and other planets moved round the sun in a circle. Later on, German Scientist John Kepler (1571-­1630) proved that the earth and the other planets move round the sun not in a circle but in elliptical orbits. Italian Scientist Galileo (1564-1642) invented telescope.Sir Isaac Newton (1642-1727) discovered the law of Gravitation.
(b)
Great discoveries were made in medical sciences.

  1. Vesalius (1514-1564) wrote a treatise on anatomy.
  2. William Harvey (1578-1657), discovered circulation of blood from heart to all parts of the body and back to the heart.
  3. Paracelsus (1493-1541) proved a close connection between medicine and chemistry.
  4. Cordus (1515-1544) prepared ether from alcohol and sulphuric acid.
  5. Helmontt (1577-1644), discovered carbon dioxide.

(c)
Arabs gave Algebra and numerals to the West. Modern Geometry was made systematic by Desargues (1593-1662). Stevin advocated decimal system of coins, weights and measures.

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Bhakti Movement, Sufism and Influence of Christianity on Indian Society

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – Bhakti Movement, Sufism and Influence of Christianity on Indian Society

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
What is meant by Composite Culture?
Answer:
It means that culture is made up of many elements drawn from several different traditions such as Classical Hindu tradition and the Islamic and Christian thoughts and beliefs.

Question 2.
Name any two factors responsible for the emergence of Composite Culture in India.
Answer:
When the Hindus and Muslims began living together, something new, something that was neither Muslim nor Hindu but a mixture of the two, was born. It was impossible for them to remain isolated from each other and both were influence mutually by each other’s faith and ideas. The spirit of tolerance, the desire to assimilate each other’s ideas and customs and the wider outlook of the Hindu and Muslim saints gave impetus to two religious movements — Sufism among the Muslims and the Bhakti cult among the Hindus.

Question 3.
Mention any one impact of the emergence of Composite Culture in India.
Answer:
Efforts at mutual understanding led to a process of accommodation in all fields of life, such as arts and architecture, music and literature, religious beliefs and even in the field of customs and rituals.The Hindu ideas of Yoga and Vedanta had a definite contribution to the development of Islamic philosophy in many ways. The Sufi Movement provided a common platform for both the Muslims and the Hindus.
Music and painting also showed a blending of Persian and Indian ideas. Abul Fazl’s Akbarnamah contains a number  of painting depicting customs and rituals of those days.

Question 4.
Name any two sources to reconstruct religious thoughts and ideas leading to the growth of Composite Culture.
Answer:
Main two sources to reconstruct religious thoughts and ideas leading to the growth of composite culture are:

  1. Bijak — Bijak is the compilation of the verses of Kabir. Kabir has drawn inspiration from various traditions—Islam, Vedas and yogic traditions to describe the Ultimate Reality. For example, he has used the terms like alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman and Atman, from Vedantic traditions.
  2. Guru Granth Sahib — Guru Granth Sahib is the only scripture of its kind which contains the songs, hymns and utterances of a wide variety of saints, sages and bards. This shows that Guru Arjan Dev wanted to affirm the fundamental unity of all religions and the unitary character of all mystic experience. It is indeed, a magnificent compendium of religions, mystic and metaphysical poetry written or uttered between the 12th and the 17th century in different parts of India. It is, also, at the same time, a mirror of the sociological, economic and political conditions of those days.

Question 5.
What is Bijak ?
Answer:
Bijak: Bijak is the compilation of the verses of Kabir. It comprises three main sections called Sakhi, Ramaini and Shabda.

Question 6.
Name any two Sikh Gurus whose sermons and hymns are included in the Adi Granth.
Answer:
Adi Granth is vast collection of Sermons and hymns of the five Sikh Gurus-Guru Nanak, Guru Angad, Guru Amardas, Guru Ramdas and Guru Arjun Dev Ji.

Question 7.
Name any two saints other than the Sikh Gurus whose devotional hymns are included in the Adi Granth.
Answer:
Kabir, Namedo, Raidasa and Baba Farid.

Question 8.
Who among the Sikh Gurus announced the end of personal Guruship and named Guru Granth Sahib as the Guru of the Sikhs ?
Answer:
Guru Gobind Singh Ji. The 10th Sikh Guru announced the end of personal Guruship and named Adi Granth as ‘Guru Granth Sahib”.

Question 9.
Who founded the Chisti Order (Silsila) ?
Answer:
Hazrat Muin-ud-Din, founded (Silsila) the Chisti Order.

Question 10.
Name the two stages in the Spiritual Path leading one to the Union with God ?
Answer:
Nizam-ud-din believed that one could embrace God with in this life by Talab (Deep Desire for Union With God) and Fana (Destruction of Ego).

Question 11.
Who sought the Raja’s permission to build a fort at Kochi ?
Answer:
Alfonsa, de Albuquerque was appointed Governor of Portuguese affairs in India. He was allowed by the Raya (Raja) of Cochin to build a fort at Kochi.

Question 12.
Mention any one historic merit of the St. Francis Assisi Church at Kochi.
Answer:
The Clock on this Church was erected in the year 1923 in memory of Hal Harrison Jones, the then Managing Director of Aspin wall and Company. There is in its premises a Cenotaph, a monument or a War Memorial in memory of the residents of Cochin who fell during the First World War.

Question 13.
Mention the two main features (principles) of the Bhakti Cult.
Answer:
The two main features of the Bhakti Culture:

  1. There is none too high or low with God. All are alike to God.
  2. Denouncement of idol worship and condemnation of formal rituals in religion.

Question 14.
Mention the contribution made by Sant Jnaneswar to Marathi literature.
Answer:
Sant Dhyaneshwar wrote in Marathi a famous commentary, called the Dhyaneshwari, on the Bhagavad Gita. He translated many Sanskrit works into Marathi including Amritanubhava, Atmanubhava and Bhavartha Dipika. The religious poems written by him are called Abhangas.

Question 15.
Mention the two main teachings of Kabir.
Answer:
The two main teachings of Kabir are:

  1. He denounced idol-worship, meaningless rituals and pilgrimages to holy places.
  2. Devotion to God was regarded as an effective means of salvation.

Question 16.
Mention the two important teachings of Guru Nanak
Answer:
Guru Nanak preached the gospel of Universal Brotherhood and religious tolerance. He exhorted the Hindus and the Muslims to forget their differences, because he believed in the equality of all religions.

Question 17.
Who was Mirabai ? What was her message to the people ?
Answer:
Mirabai was a Rajput princess married into the ruling family of Mewar (Udaipur). A devotes of Lord Krishna since childhood, she continued to devote her whole time to the Lord’s worship even after her marriage. She, in her devotional songs says, “People say, Mira has gone mad. I have myself become the eternal maid-servant of my Narayana.” Her message was: “There is but one means to experience Lord’s Divine Presnce—that is Bhakti.”

Question 18.
Name the two famous Sufi Saints of India.
Answer:
Hazrat Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chisti and Nizam-ud-din Auliya.

Question 19.
Mention the two main principles of Sufism.
Answer:
The two main principles of Sufism are:

  1. One could reach God through love and devotion and not through blind observance of rituals.
  2. God is one and all people are the children of God. Love of God meant love for humanity.

Question 20.
When and by whom was Christianity believed to have been introduced in India ?
Answer:
St. Thomas came to South India in the first century AD. He believed to introduce Christianity in India.

Question 21.
Who was St. Francis Xavier ?
Answer:
He was one of the founders of the Society of Jesus. He toured many regions of Asia, especially those areas that were controlled by the Portuguese at that time. He had gone to Japan and the islands of Borneo and Moluccas (now in Indonesia). However, as a missionary his most notable successes were only in India.                                                                         ‘

Question 22.
Which two principles did St. Francis Xavier include among the human values ?
Answer:
The principles included human values, such as Humility before God, Mercy, Purity of Heart and Love, for enemies as well as friends.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Explain the sources of reconstruct religion thoughts and ideas leading to the growth of Composite Culture with reference to:
(a) Bijak’s contents
(b) Guru Granth Sahib and Guru Nanak Dev’s teachings
Answer:
(a) Bijak — Bijak is the compilation of the verses of Kabir. It comprises three main sections called Sakhi, Ramaini and Shabda and a fourth section containing miscellaneous folk song forms.

  1. The sakhi is composed in the doha or couplet form.
  2. The Ramaini form is usually written in the meter called chaupai and is usually based upon a musical raga.
  3. The third form, the Shabda is meterically the loosest form. Since it is the popular song form it has been altered from region to region and from singer to singer. Kabir has drawn inspiration from various traditions — Islam, Vedas and yogic traditions to describe the Ultimate Reality. For example, he has used the terms like alakh (the unseen), nirakar (formless), Brahman and Atman, from Vedantic traditions.

(b) Guru Granth Sahib — Guru Granth Sahib is the only scripture of its kind which contains the songs, hymns and utterances of a wide variety of saints, sages and bards. This shows that Guru Arjan Dev wanted to affirm the fundamental unity of all religions and the unitary character of all mystic experience. It is indeed, magnificent compendium of religions, mystic and metaphysical poetry written or uttered between the 12th and the 17th century in different parts of India. It is,also, at the same time, a mirror of the sociological, economic and political conditions of those days. Guru Granth Sahib is regarded by the Sikhs as a ‘Living Guru’ and as a spiritual guide not only for them but for the entire humanity.

They regard it as a ‘Living Guru’ that has all the answers regarding religion and morality.The philosophy embodied in Guru Granth Sahib is that of action, deed and consequence. It lay’s emphasis on shared communal experience and the extinction of the ego or self is the corner-stone of its philosophy. It regards God as omnipotent and omniscient. Guru Nanak Dev’s teachings : Guru Nanak preached the gospel of Universal Brotherhood and religious tolerance. He exhorted the Hindus and the Muslims to forget their differences, because he believed in the equality of all religions.

Question 2.
Explain the importance of each of the following:
(a) Ajmer Sharief Dargah
(b) Historic merit of the St. Francis Assisi Church, Kochi.
Answer:
(a)
Ajmer Sharief Dargah — The dargah of Khwajah Moinuddin Chishti is one of the most revered sites in India not only for the Muslims but also for the people of other faiths, who hold the saint in high esteem. Every year thousands of people visit Ajmer Sharief Dargah to pay reverence at the sanctified dargah. A yearly carnival, known as Urs is held for six days in the honor of the beloved saint.
(b)
The Church has historic and aesthetic merit both. There are many types of services — the baptism, marriages, etc. — that the Church provided and their record could be found in Church’s Register from 1751 to 1804. For more than 40 years it was maintained in the handwriting of the Minister of the Church, Predikant Comelies. During 1930s the leaves of the Register were repair by handwriting experts in London. At present only their photocopy, and not the original leaves, could be examined by persons visiting the Church. The Clock on this Church was erected in the year 1923 in memory of Hal Harrison Jones, the then Managing Director of Aspin wall and Company. There is in its premises a Cenotaph, a monument or a War Memorial in memory of the residents of Cochin who fell during the First World War.

Question 3.
Explain the significance (impact) of the Bhakti movement under the following heads:
(a) Ensuring Harmony between Hindus and Muslims.
(b) Preaching the fundamental Equality of all human beings.
(c) Promoting regional languages and Devotional Literature.
Answer:
The impact of the Bhakti movement under the given heads is explained as under:     

  1. Ensuring Harmony between Hindus and Muslims: The Bhakti movement became popular in the whole of India. The saints and reformers offered the people a simple religion devoid of complicated rituals a religion, which required only sincere devotion to God. They tried to reform Hinduism so that it could successfully withstand the challenges of Islam and they also tried to ensure harmony between the two communities—Hindus and Muslims in an atmosphere of toleration and co-operation. The message of religious toleration made a profound impression on Several Muslim rulers. They attracted many devotes from both the communities and exercised a stabilizing influence on society.
  2. Preaching the fundamental Equality of all human beings: They tried to evolve a new social order by following the principle of equality and by denouncing caste distinctions. They exposed the futility of external rituals and set free the minds of the people from the domination of the priests. Thus, the movement brought in not only religious reforms, but also social changes.
  3. Promoting regional languages and Devotional Literature: The Bhakti reformers preached to the people in their mother-tongue and it provided an impetus for the development of regional languages such as Hindi Bengali,Marathi, Maithili, Gujarati etc. Their compositions rank very high in the devotional literature of the world.

Question 4.
Explain the rise and significance of the Sufi Movement with reference to:
(a) Nizam-ud-Din Auliya’s main beliefs
(b) Impact of Sufism on Indian Society
Answer:
(a)
Nizam-ud-din believed that one could embrace God within this life by Talab (Deep Desire for Union With God) and Fana (Destruction of Ego). Nizam-ud-din did not believe in discrimination on grounds of religion, caste or sex. H9 said, “be generous to the needy, the poor, the exploited and the oppressed.”
(b)
Sufism proved very helpful in birdging the gap between the followers of Hinduism and Islam and encouraged the feeling of Hindu-Muslim unity to a considerable extent in the following ways:

  1. Sufism preached religious tolerance, brotherhood and oneness of God. Inspite of the different rules of various religions, the ultimate aim is to reach the God.
  2. Equality and brotherhood of all human beings irrespective of caste, colour, cread and religion.
  3. Sufism believed in unity of all religions, because every religion points out the ultimate aim to reach the God and get his blessings.

Question 5.
Describe Francis Xavier’s missionary activities in India under the following headlines:
(a) His preachings among the pearl-fishers along the East Coast of Southern India.
(b) His love for children of born parents not legally married.
Answer:
(a)
Francis Xavier arrived in Goa in 1542. For the next three years he had been a Christian preacher in India among the pearl-fishers along the East Coast of Southern India as well as in northern areas of the Cape Comorin. His preaching made him immensely popular among the Paravas, Katesars, kadaiyars and Mukkuvars. He had become a missionary of great eminence and respectability among the Pattamkattiyars. Their family-members had been the head of the Fisher Coast.
(b)
Many Children were bom of parents (Portuguese sailors and Indian women) who were not legally married at that time. Francis Xavier gave such children instruction about beliefs of the Christian Church. In order to save the Child from the slur of being called ‘an illegitimate child’, he tried to see that the child’s parents united themselves in holy matrimony. Francis Xavier died in 1552. His embalmed body became the object of holy pilgrimages.

Question 6.
No survey of the Bhakti movement can omit the names of great woman figures who left the impression of their preaching upon future generations. In this context, explain briefly the preaching.
(a) Lallesvari. (b) Mirabai.
Answer:
The names of the great women figures of the Bhakti movement can never be omitted.
In this context,the given heads are explained as follows:

(a) Lallesvari (1317-1372): She was a Kashmiri Saint, whose life is full of legeds and miraculous deeds. She teaches that the path to God-realisationi lies in renouncement of worldly possessions, intense love of the divine and rising above the distinctions of caste and creed. She said, “I thought my mind to see the Lord in all my fellowmen. Do not discriminate between a Hindu and a Musalman. Let us give up fraud and untruth. ”

(b) Mirabai (1450-1512): She was a Rajput princess married into the ruling family of Mewar (Udaipur). A devotee of Lord Krishna since childhood, she continued to devote her whole time to the Lord’s worship even after her marriage. She incurred her husband’s displeasure and eventually, their marriage broke up. She wandered from place to place singing her beautiful songs. One of her hymns goes thus : “People say Mira has gone mad. I have myself become the eternal maid-servant of my ” Mira reached Dwarka, where she composed many songs in Gujarati. Next to Narsi Mehta, she is regarded as the greatest figure to contribute to devotional literature in Gujarati. She had Raidas as her Guru. Her message was : “there is but one means to experience Lord’s Divine Presence- that is Bhakti. ”

Question 7.
Name the book, where Kabir’s teachings are recorded.
Answer:
Bijak (the seed-book).

Question 8.
Mention two important aspects of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu.
Answer:
The two important aspects of the teachings of Chaitanya Mahaprabhu are:

  1. He believed in on Supreme Being, whom he called Krishna or Hari and exhorted others to have faith in Krishna.
  2. He preached universal brotherhood and denounced all distinctions based on Caste and Creed. He was opposed to the domination of the priestly class.

Question 9.
Who was Lallesvari? What are her teachings?
Answer:
Lallesvari was a Kashmiri Saint, whose life is full of legends and miraculous deeds. She teaches that the path to God- realisation lies in renouncement of worldly possessions, intense love of the divine and rising above the distginctions of caste and creed.

Question 10.
Explain the characteristics of Muslim architecture under these heads: Mosques and Tombs.
Answer:
The characteristics of Muslim architecture under the given heads are explained below:
Mosques and Tombs:
The Muslim structures are of two types : religious and secular. The religious structures are mosques and tombs. The mosque has an open courtyard surrounded by a pillared verandah. For congregational prayer-hall having a reces alcove called Mehrab in the western wall at the back of the hall. On the right side of the Mehrab, stands pulpit and a minaret or tower above the walls from which Muazzin summons the faithful to worship. Over the sanctuary, is the central dome. The tombs are the resting places for the dead. The Tomb has  a chamber, with a Mehrab in the western wall. The whole structure is surmounted by a graceful dome. Underneath the building, is the burial chamber with the grave (Kabr) in the center of it.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

Short Answer Questions.

Question 1.
What is meant by the term composite culture ?
Answer:
The interaction of the Turks with the Indians with strong religious beliefs, art, architecture and literature resdlted in a new composite culture known as the Indo-Islamic culture. This culture was neither purely Persian (or Muslim) nor entirely Indian (or Hindu), but a happy fusion of the best elements of the two.

Question 2.
Mention the two phases of the growth of Indo-Islamic culture.
Answer:
The two phases of the Indo-Islamic culture are the music and paintings.
Music: Music of India inherited the rich Arab tradition of music. Amir Khusrau, introduced many Perso-Arabic ragas with the Indian tunes. He developed the style of quwwalis and khayals. Music was patronised by several medieval rulers e.g. Gunyat-ut-Munya, in 14th century, was the first work in Indian music by a Muslim scholar. Akbar patronised 30 musicians, including Tansen. The famous musician composed many ragas.

Paintings: The wall-paintings of Ajanta are the best example. In the reign of Akbar, revival of paintings started. Out of 17 eminent artists employed by Akbar 13 were Hindus. The painters were given the task of illustrating the Persian text of the Mahabharata and Akbarnama. An unusual manuscript ‘Hamzanama’ has nearly 1200 paintings.

Question 3.
Mention any two factors which promoted composite culture during the Mughal Age.
Answer:
The following two factors were responsible for the growth of a composite culture during the Mughal period:

  1. The immense wealth and the unlimited power in the hands of the Mughal emperors enabled them to continue their patronage of fine arts and literature. They used their wealth and leisure to build palaces, forts and monuments.
  2. The Mughal Emperors had a great sense of beauty and art. Each of them was anxious to find an outlet for their expression in some visual arts.

Question 4.
Name the first work on Indian music compiled by a Islamic scholar.
Answer:
The first work on Indian music compiled by a Islamic scholar is ‘Gunyat-ut-Munya’.

Question 5.
Name the two Indian motifs used in Islamic architecture in India.
Answer:
The two Indian motifs used in Islamic architecture are swastika and lotus

Question 6.
Name a temple built on the arch and dome principle of Islamic architecture.
Answer:
The Golden Temple at Amritsar, was built on the arch and dome principle of the Islamic architecture.

Question 7.
Mention any two features of Mughal Architecture.
Answer:
Two features of Mughal Architecture are:

  1. Pronounced dome on the top of the structure.
  2. Entrance with rectangular opening under the arch.

Question 8.
Name any two poets who wrote in Urdu.
Answer:
Mir Dad and Mirza Ghalib.

Question 9.
What is meant by Sufism ? Name two Sufi saints.
Answer:
The word ‘Sufi’ has come from the Arabic word ‘Sufi meaning wool and was used for the mystics who used to wear only a coarse woolen garment some scholars say, it is derived from ‘Safa’, meaning purity. Sufis came to India with the Turkish invaders. Sufism is a sect of religion preaching tolerance, brotherhood and oneness of God.
Two Sufi Saints were:

  1. Hazarat Khwaja Muin-ud-Din Chisti.
  2. Hazarat Khwaja Nizam-ud-Din Auliya of Delhi.

Question 10.
Mention any two doctrines of Sufism.
Answer:

  1. fundamental unity of all religions.
  2. Equality and brotherhood of all human beings.

Question 11.
What is known as Chishti Silsila ?
Answer:
The word ‘silsila’ literallymeansachain, signifying a continuous link between the master and the disciple. The leader of the order was called the pir and the followers were called the murids. A wali was nominated by the pir as his successor. Each Sufi order had a hermitage where the sufi saints resided with their disciples. The sufi saints who settled in India belonged to Chisti and Suhrawardi orders. –

Question 12.
Mention any two doctrines of Bhakti cult.
Answer:

  1. God is one and must be worshiped with love and devotion.
  2. Guru, an enlightened teacher is indispensable for realising God.

Question 13.
Who was Kabir ? Mention any two of his teachings ?
Answer:
Kabir was a disciple of the Bhakti saint Ramananda. He was bom in about AD 1398 of a Brahmin widow and brought up by a Muslim weaver. He wanted to transform society by promoting peace and harmony among different communities.
His teachings are as follows:

  1. There is only one God. He may be worshiped under many names.
  2. Devotion to God and good actions are the only means of salvation.
  3. One must be free from dishonesty, insincerity and hypocrisy to reach God.

Question 14.
Mention any three teachings of Guru Nanak.
Answer:
The teachings of Guru Nanak are as follows:

  1. Gum Nanak preached the unity of God and the unity of mankind.
  2. He advocated devotion to God in place of ritualism.
  3. He believed that “there is one God, His name is Eternal Truth. He is the maker of all things”.
  4. He condemned idolatry in all its forms.

Question 15.
Who was St. Francis Xavier ? What did he do to spread Christianity among Indians ?
Answer:
St. Francis Xavier was bom on April 7, 1506 in the castle of Xavier in Spain. In 1537 he received the Holy orders. In 1541 he storted his missionary Journey towards India and landed at Goa in 1542. He would go through the streets ringing a little bell and inviting the children to hear the word of God. When he had gathered a large number of people, he would take them to a church and explain the beliefs related to Christianity to them.

Question 16.
Mention any two steps taken by the Christian missionaries to spread the belief of Christianity through language and literature.
Answer:

  1. The missionaries in order to understand and be understood by the Indian people brought out grammars and dictionaries of the Indian languages.
  2. St. Francis Xavier learnt the language of Malabar and brought out a manual of grammar and a vocabulary which helped the Jesuits and other missionaries to learn the language of the people of Malabar.

II. Structured Questions:

Question 1(a).
Explain briefly the Indo-Islamic culture. How can you say that it was a composite culture ?
Answer:
The establishment of the Delhi Sultanate towards the beginning of the 13th century, marked the beginning of a new phase in the cultural development of the country. The interaction of the Turks with the Indians, who had strong religious beliefs and well- developed ideas on art, architecture and literature, resulted in the development of a new composite culture, called the Indo- Islamic culture. This culture was neither purely Persian or Muslim nor entirely Indian or Hindu, but a happy fusion of the best elements of the two.There are two distinct phases of the growth of this culture — the Sultanate phase and the Mughal phase. The Sultanate phase was marked by the emergence of the fusion of the Indian traditions with the Turkish culture, whereas the Mughal phase marked the consolidation of this composite culture. There are various states and cities depicting this culture through common traditions, language, architecture and thoughts e.g. Delhi, Lucknow, Hyderabad are the main examples.

Question 1(b).
What were the factors that led to the emergence of composite culture during the Mughal Age ?
Answer:
The following factors were responsible for the growth of a composite culture during the Mughal period:

  1. The immense wealth and the unlimited power in the hands of the Mughal emperors enabled them to continue their patronage of fine arts and literature. They used their wealth and leisure to build palaces, forts and monuments.
  2. The Mughal Emperors had a great sense of beauty and art. Each of them was anxious to find an outlet for their expression in some visual arts. The glorious and rich cultural heritage of the Mughals on the one hand, and the Indians on the other hand, created a unique atmosphere for the brilliant output of letters and fine arts.

Question 1(c).
What were the salient features of Indo-Islamic architecture ?
Answer:
Islamic architecture added spaciousness, massiveness and majesty to the Indian architecture. The geometrical and floral designs with verses from Quran were another additional features to the buildings. The design of golden Kalash (the ornate lotus cresting) at the top of the temples was adopted by Muslims.

Question 2.
With reference to the composite culture, state briefly the impact of this culture on the following:
(a) Literature. (b) Architecture (c) Paintings
Answer:
(a) Literature — Language and literature also saw the influence of the two traditions. The language which the Mughal rulers used in the administration was Persian. Through the Persian language, India was able to develop close cultural relations with Central Asia and Iran. In course of time, Persian became the language of administration and the language of the upper classes .The greatest linguistic synthesis is seen in the development of Urdu, which is a mixture of Perisan, Arabic, Hindi and other  regional languages. Urdu was originally known as ‘Zaban-e- Hindvi’ because its grammatical structure is similar to that of Hindi.

(b) Architecture—
The fusion of two cultures is more profound in the field of architecture. Though the Indian and Islamic systems of art were fundamentally different in their ideas and techniques, they were mingled together to give rise to a new type of Indo-Islamic architecture.

The significant features adopted by the two from each other were the following:

  1. The Islamic architecture added to the Indian architecture the special characteristics of spaciousness, massiveness, majesty and width.
  2. In the sphere of decoration, the Turks avoided representation of human and animal figures in the buildings. Instead, they used geometrical and floral designs, combining them with panel s of inscriptions containing verses from the Holy Quran. They also borrowed Indian motifs like swastika, bell, lotus, etc.
  3. The design of the golden kalash at the top of the shikhara of temples was adopted by the Muslims in placing a stone kalash on the domes of mosques and tombs.
  4. Many temples of Vrindavan assimilated the Mughal style of architecture.
  5. The Mughal traditions influenced the palaces and forts of many provincial and local kingdoms. For example, the Golden Temple at Amritsar, was built on the arch and dome principle of the Islamic architecture and incorporated some features of the incorporated some features of the Mughal traditions of architecture.

(c) Paintings — During the reign of Akbar, there was a fusion of Persian and Indian style of painting. Painting was organised in one of the imperial establishments (karkhanas) and a number of painters from different parts of the country were made to paint. Out of 17 eminent artists employed by Akbar, 13 were Hindus. Besides illustrating Persian books of tables,the painters were given the task of illustrating the Persian text of the Mahabharata and Akbarnama. In these paintings,Indian themes and scenes were used along with Indian colours like peacock blue and the Indian red. The most important work produced during the Mughal period is an unusual manuscript, Dastan-i-Amir Hamza or Hamzanama, which has nearly 1200 paintings

Question 3.
Sufism was a liberal reform movement within Islam With reference to Sufism write short notes on the following:
(a) Devotion to God
(b) Caste distinctions
(c) Unity of all religions
Answer:
(a)
Sufism preached religious tolerance, brotherhood and oneness of God. Inspite of the different rules of various religions, the ultimate aim is to reach the God. So earnest devotion to God is essential.
(b)
Equality and brotherhood of all human beings irrespective of caste, colour, cread and religion.
(c)
Sufism believed in unity of all religions, because every religion points out the ultimate aim to reach the God and get his blessings.

Question 4.
Summarise the impact of Bhakti movement with regard to:
(a) Equality of all human beings.
(b) Fostering unity and harmony between different communities.
(c) Promoting regional languages and devotional literature.
Answer:
(a)
All are equal before God. Dignity of man depends on his actions. Universal brotherhood was the aim of Bhakti movement.
(b)
All Hindus and Muslims devoted Sufi saints. People respected and followed the teachings of Sufi saints like, Kabir, Rahim etc. and worshiped the works of Tulsidas and Surdas. The songs of Mirabai were cherished by Hindus and Muslims too. Akbar also went to hear the devotional songs of Mirabai.
(c)
The Bhakti saints preached in the language of the people.Languages such as Hindi, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Oriya became popular. Among important literary works of this period were Ramcharit Manas by Tulsidas, Gurmukhi literature of the Sikh Gurus and the Vaishnava literature in Bengal. The teachings of Kabir, Guru Nanak, Ravidas helped reform Indian society. They tried to evolve a new social order by following the principle of equality and by denouncing caste distinctions. By exposing the futility of empty rituals, they did away with the domination of priests. Thus, the Bhakti movement brought in social changes.

5. With reference to the influence of Christianity during the Mughal period, answer the following questions:
Question 5 (a).
Explain the role played by St. Francis Xavier and Robert de Nobili in spreading Christianity in India.
Answer:
St. Francis Xavier became the first Jesuit missionary to arrive in India in 1542. He was followed by Robert de Nobili in 1605. Both these missionaries played a significant role in spreading Christianity in India.St. Francis Xavier was bom on April 7, 1506 in the castle of Xavier in Spain. St. Xavier displayed zeal and charity in attending to the sick in hospitals. In 153 7, he received the Holy orders. In 1541, he started his missionary journey towards India and landed at Goa in 1542. He spent the first five months in preaching and attending to the sick in hospitals. He would go through the streets ringing a little bell and inviting the children to hear the word of God. When he had gathered a large number of people, he would take them Christianity to them.

Robert de Nobili was born at Tuscany in September 1577. He entered the Society of Jesus in 1597 and sailed for India in October 16.04. He arrived at Goa in 1605. After a short stay  Cochin, he took residence in Madurai in November 1606. He learnt Sanskrit, Tamil and Telugu and studied Indian philosophy and religious literature. He separated himself from his fellow missionaries and adopted the dress, diet and manner of the life of an ascetic. These methods won him a number of followers from the upper castes. His way of life aroused the opposition of his fellow missionaries. He was accused of watering down Christianity and had to defend himself before the Archbishop of Goa. He did this so ably that he received the permission from the Pope to continue his way of life.

Question 5(b).
Explain the role of Christian missionaries in promoting language, literature and art in India.
Answer:
The Christian missionaries spread Christianity in India and played a significant role in promoting language, literature and art.

  1. The missionaries in order to understand and be understood by the Indian people brought out grammars and dictionaries of the Indian languages.
  2. St. Francis Xavier learnt the language of Malabar and brought out a manual of grammar and a vocabulary which helped the Jesuits and other missionaries to learn the language of the people of Malabar.
  3. The English Jesuit, Thomas Stephens, brought out an epic in Konkani and a grammar book. Diogo Ribeiro, another English missionary, wrote a grammar book and booklets on Christian doctrines.
  4. The Missionaries, besides working in language and literature, contributed to other arts. They began teaching Western music in Church schools in India. Apart from music, they also taught dance and instrumental music. Many churches had music schools, so that in every church hymns were sung, accompanied by organ and instruments.
  5. The Missionaries and the Church were also teachers and patrons in India of the arts of painting, carving and sculpture. Most of the paintings were religious in theme and adorned the Churches. These paintings influenced the Mughals. Portuguese, English and Mughal records show the interest of Akbar and Jahangir in Christian works of arts.
  6. The Missionaries were the best interpreters of India to the Western world with their popular letters from the mission field.

6. With reference to the given pictures, answer the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - Bhakti Movement, Sufism and Influence of Christianity on Indian Society 1
Question 6(a).
Name the Bhakti Saints given in the pictures. Where were they born ?
Answer:
Kabir was born in Banaras and Guru Nanak Dev Ji was bom in Talwandi, Nankana Sahib.

Question 6(b).
Mention any two teachings of each these two saints.
Answer:
Teachings of Kabir:

  1. There is only one God. He may be worshiped under many names.
  2. All men are equal before God.
  3. There are no caste distinctions and no supremacy of the priestly class.
  4. He denounced idol worship, empty rituals, meaningless ceremonies and pilgrimages to holy places.

Teaching of Guru Nanak Dev Ji

  1. Guru Nanak preached the unity of God.
  2. He advocated devotion to God in place of ritualism.
  3. He advocated a middle path in which spiritual life could be combined with the duties of the householders.
  4. He condemned idolatry in all its forms.

Question 6(c).
How did the Sufi and the Bhakti movements foster the growth of Indo-Islamic culture.
Answer:
Role of Sufism:

  1. It fostered the feelings of Hindu-Muslim unity.
  2. Sufism made its influence on the poets of the period, like Amir Khusro and Malik Mushammed Jayasi, who composed poems in Persian and Hindi in praise of Sufi principles.

Role of Bhakti Movement

  1. Bhakti saints preached universal brotherhood and emphasised equality of all men.
  2. The Bhakti saints preached in the language of the people. Languages such as Hindi, Bhojpuri, Maithili and Oriya became popular. Among important literary works of this period were Ramcharit Manas by Tulsidas, Gurmukhi literature of the Sikh Gurus and the Vaishnava literature in Bengal.

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Mughal Empire

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Mughal Empire

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
Name any two sources to reconstruct the Age of the Mughals.
Answer:
Ain-i-Akbari and Akbamamah.

Question 2.
Who wrote Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
The author of Ain-i-Akbari is Abul Fazal.

Question 3.
What information does Abul Fazl provide about Akbar’s Admiralty Department ?
Answer:
Abul Fazl write of ‘Admiratly Department’ whose functions were

  1. To build boats and
  2. To recruit skilled seamen.

Question 4.
Name any two monuments that help to reconstruct the history of the Mughals.
Answer:
The Agra Fort and Humayun’s Tomb.

Question 5.
Name the two magnificent buildings within the Red Fort.
Answer:

  1. Diwan-i-Aam: A public Darbar hall and a
  2. Diwan-i-Khas: A lavishly-ornamented hall where the Peacock Throne was placed. The hall was used by the emperor to give audience to the princes of the royal family, nobles and other important dignitaries.

Question 6.
Mention any two architectural features of the Jama Masjid at Delhi.
Answer:

  1. It is build on a lofty basement, about 9 m high and 1170 sq m in area. There are three gateways to the mosque, approached by majestic flights of steps on the South, North and Eastern sides. The Eastern Gateway, the highest and largest of all, was reserved for the use of Mughal Emperors only. The three gateways give access to an open courtyard.
  2. At its four external corners are placed twelve-pillared kiosks surmounted by marble domes. The central dome is the largest and highest.
  3. On the north and southern sides there are two elegant minarets, each rising to a total height of about 40 m and divided into three stages, each having a projected gallery.
  4. The face of the spacious prayer-hall consists of eleven arches of which the central arch rises far above the roof level.

Question 7.
In whose memory was the Taj Mahal built ?
Answer:
The Taj Mahal was buit by Shah Jahan’s in memory of beloved Queen Mumtaz Mahal.

Question 8.
Whom did Babur defeat at the battlefield of Panipat? What was its consequence?
Answer:
In April 1526 Babur defeated Sultan Ibrahim Lodi at the battlefield of Panipat.His victory was indeed a success of “consummate leadership” and “superior weapons” that he had acquired from Turkey. Babur was the king of India. The most formidable chieftain against whom Babur had yet to fight was Rana Sanga of Mewar, who had organised a huge confederacy of Rajputs against the Mughal invader. The victory of Khanua, a village near Agra, gave Babur complete control over the Central India.

Question 9.
What was the result of Babur’s encounter with a huge confederacy of Rajputs at Khanua?
Answer:
Babur’s encounter with a huge confederacy of Rajputs at Khanua, resulted in the victory of Babur. The victory gave Babur complete control over the Central India.

Question 10.
What is the significance of the Second Battle of Panipat (1556)?
Answer:
The second Battle of Panipat was fought between Hemu, a nephew of Sher Shah Suri and the Mughals in November 1556. In this battle, the Afghan army was defeated and Hemu was captured and killed.

Question 11.
Name any two Deccan territories included in Akbar’s empire.
Answer:
Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Golconda.

Question 12.
What was Akbar’s Mansabdari System ?
Answer:
The mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was a unique feature of the administrative system of the Mughal gmpire.The mansabdars formed the ruling group of the Mughal empire with a rank of (mansab). With a great power of civil and army control the rank ranged from number 10 to 5000 for nobles. The ranks were again divided into ‘zat’ and ‘sawar’. For every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdar had to maintain twenty horses.

Question 13.
Akbar’s Din-I-Ilahi was based on what principles or beliefs ?
Answer:
It is based on the principles of oneness of God, stressing on virtues like courage, loyalty and justice.

Question 14.
Name any two Departments of Government during the Mughal Age.
Answer:

  1. The Military Pay and Accounts Office held by Mir Bakshi.
  2. Imperial Household Department held by Khan-i-Saman.
  3. The Judiary under the Chief Qazi.

Question 15.
Who was at the head of the Finance Department under Mughal rule.
Answer:
Diwan was the head of the Finance Department under Mughal rule.

Question 16.
Name the master architect who designed the Taj Mahal.
Answer:
Ustad Isa was the architect who designed the Taj Mahal.

Question 17.
Diwan-i-Khas in the Red Fort was used by the Emperor for what purpose ?
Answer:
The Diwan-i-Khas: It is the lavishly-ornamented hall where the Peacock Throne was placed. The hall was used by the emperor to give audience to the princes of the royal family, nobles and other important dignitaries.

Question 18.
Mention any two factors responsible for Humayun’s failure against Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
Two factors responsible for Humayun’s failure against Sher Shah Suri were:

  1. Humayun was far less able soldier and general than his father.
  2. He seemed incapable of a sustained and continued policy.

Question 19.
Mention any two revenue reforms instituted by Sher Shah Suri.
Answer:
Two revenue reforms instituted by Sher Shah Suri were:

  1. Sher Shah Suri developed a systematic method of measuring the land.
  2. He assessed the land-revenue and collected it with great earnestness.

Question 20.
What is the significance of Akbar’s Mansabdari system?
Answer:
Under mansabdari system, the capable candidates were chosen the Mansabdars by the emperor Akbar. They were directly appointed by the emperor and they acted both as military commanders and civil administrators. This system made quite easy to administer the vast kingdom efficiently and conveniently.

Question 21.
Mention the nature of Akbar’s Din-I-Ilahi.
Answer:
Din-I-Ilahi was the new cult introduced by the emperor Akbar in 1580. It was based on the belief that there is only one God and required its members to accept such virtues as courage, chastity and justice. It also demanded loyalty to the Emperor.

Question 22.
How did Jahangir deal with the Sikh Guru, Guru Arjun Dev?
Answer:
Jahangir tortured and executed the Sikh Guru, Guru Arjun Dev.

Question 23.
Why was the title of ‘Shah Jahan’ conferred on Prince Khurram by Jahangir ?
Answer:
Prince Khurram was got married to the daughter of Asaf Khan, who was appointed Khan-i-Saman under the emperor Jahangir’s rule. Asaf Khan was also the brother to Begum Nur Mahal (Nur Jahan) who was the wife of Jahangir. Keeping all these things in mind, the title of ‘Shah Jahan was conferred on Prince Khurram.

Question 24.
Who was Nur Jahan?
Answer:
Nur Jahan was the widow of a Persian nobleman, Sher Afghan. Jahangir married Nur Jahan.

Question 25.
Why did Shah Jahan revolt against his father?
Answer:
Jahangir was fully under the influence of his spouse, Nur Jahan, who was a far-slighted woman and bore the dream at her heart to become the sole Empress. Shah Jahan smelled her political ambition. All this resulted in a rift between Nur Jahan and Shah Jahan. Shah Jahan at last, decided to raise a revolt against his father Jahangir.

Question 26.
Metnion Shah Jahan’s conquests in the Deccan.
Answer:
In the Deccan, Shah Jahan conquered Ahmadnagar, Bijapur and Golconda.

Question 27.
Where is Humayun’s Tomb located? Mention any two features of the monument.
Answer:
Humayun’s Tomb is located at Delhi under the instructions of his wife, Hamida Banu Begum. The monument rests on a high square platform and has archways on each side. Each archway opens into a room. The monument has a bulbous marble dome with slightly curved outlines arising from a narrower “neck”.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Akbar had both the time and inclination to look at the administrative problems of the Empire. In this context describe birefly.
(a) His Mansabdari System
(b) His Land Revenue System
Answer:
(a) Mansabdari System:
Akbar introduced the mansabdari system to organise his armed forces more effectively. All imperial officers except the qazis and sadars, were enrolled as members of mansabdari system and were reuined to maintain some troops proportionate, to their ranks. The Mansabdari held their appointments directly from the emperor. They got their remuneration in cash not in the form of land grants. In addition to meeting their personal expenses, the Mansabdar had to maintain out of his salary a required quota of horses, elephants mules and carts. The Mughal Mansabdari were required to serve in whatever place or capacity the Emperor desired. They acted both as military commanders and civil administrators. By giving them handsome salaries and high status, Akbar was able to recruit men of remarkable capabilities to the service of the empire. Mansabdari status was not hereditary. The Mansabdars could be promoted or dismissed by the Emperor.

(b) His Land Revenue System:
No efforts were made to improve the land system prevailing in the country in the early part of Akbar’s reign. It was only after, when Todar Mai became the Diwan-i-Ashraf (head of the land revenue department.) Todar mal devised a system based on

  1. A survey and measurement of land,
  2. classification of land according to its productive capacity, and
  3. fixation of rates payable in cash or kind by the cultivators.

Another important change that Akbar made was the introduction of the dahsala system. Under this system the average produce of different kinds of lands as well the prices of the last ten (dah) years were collected from the government records. The land revenue was fixed at one- third of the average produce. The benefit of the system was that there was now no necessity of settling the land revenue every year. The work of revenue collection was therefore expedited. In brief, Todar Mal started a system that enriched the state treasury without impoverishing the cultivators. The state advanced loans 10 the needy farmers. As a result, agriculture flourished that boosted trade and industry also.

Question 2.
Akbar was the greatest of all medieval rulers of India. In this context describe: His policy of racial pacification and religious tolerance.
Answer:
His Policy of Conciliation and Synthesis:
Akbar sought to bring about racial and religious conciliation in the country. Jiziya was abolished and the state services were opened for the Hindus, especially Rajput princes. The Emperor patronised Hindu writers and artists and welcomed matrimonial alliances with the Rajput families. In 1580, the Emperor promulgated a new cult called Din-i-Ilahi. It was based on the belief that there is only one God and required its members to accept such virtues as courage, chastity and justice. It also demanded loyalty to the Emperor. The new cult could not have many followers and it was never imposed.

PQ. Shah Jahan’s reign marks the climax of the Mughal dynasty and  empire. In this context explain briefly:
(a) His Conquests.
(b) Magnificence of the Imperial Court and his Architectural. Achievements.
Answer:
Shah Jahan’s reign marks the climax of the Mughal dynasty and empire.
In this context the given headlines are explained below:
(a)

His Conquests: In 1632, Shah Jahan started his military campaign against Ahmadnagar. He annexed Ahmadnagar. He ordered the states of Bijapur and Golconda to submit to Mughal authority. The Emperor himself marched to Deccan to seek compliance to his. orders. The ruler of Golconda acknowledged the Mughal suzerainty in 1636, but military action was needed to bring Bijapur into submission.In the North-West, the Mughals had suffered some reverses after Akbar’s death. Shah Jahan wanted to recover Kandhar which he did in 1638. But the Mughals could not retain it for long, because the Shah of Iran captured it again inl649. Three major campaigns to recover Kandhar failed and Kandhar was lost to the Mughals for good. The Emperor was successful in suppressing the revolt of Jujhar Singh, son of Bir Singh Bundela.
(b)
Magnificence of the Imperial Court and his Architectural Achievements: Shah Jahan modelled his court after the style of the old Persian monarchs. The exquisite Peacock Throne and the celebrated Kohinoor added to the magnificence of his court. Shah Jahan patronised men of letters and arts. The famous Taj at Agra and Jami Masjid at Delhi are some of the finest examples of Mughal architecture of his time. Music and painting also made great progress under Shah Jahan’s patronage.

Question 3.
Aurangzeb died forlorn and destitute. In this context, explain briefly:
(a) His dealings with the Sikh
(b) His attempts to suppress rebellion in the Deccan.
Answer:
Aurangzeb died forlorn and destitute. In this context, the given headlines are explained as under:
(a)

His dealings with the Sikh Gurus: Aurangzeb was a fanatic Fundamentalist (Sunni) Muslim ruler. He adopted a rigid policy, especially for the Hindus and emphatically converted them into Islam. The Hindu pandits from Kashmir, approached the Ninth Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadar at Anandpur Sahib in Punjab and they grieved and sought the help of the Guru to relieve them from the atrocities of Aurangzeb. Aurangzeb got infuriated at this act of the Guru to assist the Kashmiri, pandits. He captured Guru Tegh Bahadar and took him to Delhi. He kept forth the option of embracing Islam or facing death before the Guru. Seeing the Guru not converting his denomination and denying to adopt the Islam religion, Aurangzeb beheaded the Guru openly at a place called Chandani Chowk in Delhi. Now, there is erected the Gurudwara Sisganj in the memory of the martyred Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadar. In 1704, the Mughals attacked the fort of Anandpur, a fierce battle was fought between the Sikhs and the Mughals. Guru Gobind Singh, who led the Sikh warriors, fought heroically. His two sons Zorawar Singh and Fateh Singh, were captured and were bricked alive when they refused to adopt Islam. The Guru’s last encounter with Mughal forces took place at the battlefield of Muktsar, it claimed a huge loss of lives of the soldiers. Thus, an unending enmity existed between the Mughals and the Sikhs that continued even after the departing of Guru Gobind Singh.
(b)
His attempts to suppress rebellion in the Deccan: Shivaji was succeeded by his elder son Shambhaji. A new dimension that was added to the events in Deccan was the arrival of the rebel Prince Akbar at the Maratha Court. Aurangzeb feared that the Prince, the Marathas and the Sultans of Bijapur and Golconda could forge an alliance against the Empire. He therefore, reached the Deccan in 1681. He sought to crush the Marathas, but his efforts did not bear the desired results. He could annex Bijapur in 1686 and then came the fall of Golconda also. Shambhaji was also defeated, captured and killed in 1689. The Deccan, now seemed to be under the control of the Mughal Emperor. But the Marathas did not allow themselves to be carried into submission. They enthroned Shambhaji’s younger brother Raja Ram on the throne. When the Mughal army besieged  their Capital, they fled towards Jinji. The Mughals captured Shambhaji’s wife and her nine-year old son Sahuji. The Mughal- Maratha contest continued for many years. When Raja Ram died in 1700, his widow Tara Bai declared her four-year old son, Shivaji II, the king.From 1700-1705 Aurangzeb, though ill-managed to drag himself from the siege of one fort to another. After nearly twenty-five years of direct military action in southern India, Aurangzeb died at Aurangabad in 1707 – with little success, but substantial loss of wealth, prestige and self-esteem.

Question 4.
Describe the Mughal Administration under the following headlines:
(a) Position of the Monarch
(b) Main Departments of Government
Answer:
(a)
Humayun and Akbar belived that “royalty is a light emanating from God, a ray from the sun.” The Mughal state was a “centralized autocracy”. In other words, the king’s powers were unlimited. He was the “head of the government, the commander of the armed forces and the fountain of justice.” He was also the chief legislator, because his word was law.
(b)
The highest position below the Emperor was held by the Vizier, but the Exchequer (Finance Department) was in the hands of the Diwan.
Other important departments were:

  1. The Military Pay and Accounts Office held by Mir Bakshi.
  2. Imperial Household Department held by Khan-i-Saman.
  3. The Judiciary under the Chief Qazi.

The other Officers, somewhat lower in status-were:

  1. Daroga-i-Topkhana (head of the artillery)
  2. The Daroga of the Mint, and
  3. Mir Arz the officer-in­charge of Petitions seeking favour of the Monarch.

Question 5.
Describe the Mughal Administration with reference to the following:
(a) The Army and the Navy
(b) Administration of Law and Justice
Answer:
(a)
The armed forces were composed of

  1. Infantry
  2. Cavalry
  3. Artillery
  4. Navjy and
  5. War elephants.
    The artillery consisted of two sections — heavy guns, and the light artillery. The heavy guns were used for assaulting forts. The functions of the Admirality Department were

    1. To build boats
    2. To recruit professional seamen, and
    3. To collect river duties and tolls. The Navy was used for the suppression of piracy as well as for war. With the development of the flint-gun, the infantry had also become a powerful fighting force during the 17th century. An important factor that harmed the efficiency of the Mughal army was that the soldiers did not owe direct allegiance to the Emperor. They were more attached to their immediate officers. The Army looked like a “moving city”, with a portion of the ‘harem’ (wives of the nobles and chief officers), their offices the attendants, musicians and the soldiers moving from place to place during a war. This sort of affairs naturally brought in luxury and “indiscipline” in the army.

(b)
The Chief Qazi was the principal judicial officer in the realm. He appointed Qazis for the provinces. Justice was administered by Qazis, Muftis and Mir-adls. The Muftis acted as advocates; they interpreted the Muslim law. The Mir-adls drew up and announced judgement. Fines could be imposed and severe punishments, like amputaton of hand or leg could be inflicted by the courts without any reference to the Emperor, but capital punishment (death penalty) required Emperor’s sanction. Above all these courts was the Emperor himself.

PQ. Give an account of the social developments during the Mughal Age under the following headlines:
(a) Social Structure
(b) Position of Women
Answer:
(a)
The society comprised of, an general, three classes of people;

  1. Princes and the Nobles,
  2. The Middle Class, and
  3. The lower orders,i.e., the Ordinary People, the peasants and the laborers. As regards the princes and the nobles, they rolled in wealth and luxury, Costly silks and precious jewels graced their persons and beautiful carpets decked their dining halls. They ate the choicest food and could taste the choicest ‘ wines. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings. Many of them kept men and women as slaves who could be bought and sold as they liked. The middle classes, i.e., the merchants, traders, artists, musicians, scholars and those belonging to the class of priests and the clergy had a living standard suited to their respective professions. The living conditions of the lower orders were hard. The landless peasants and laborers could eke out a bare existence. Towards the end of Shah Jahan’s reign, the peasants got much harassed by the revenue officials. Whenever there was a famine it was this class of peasants who suffered the most.

(b)
The position of women was in many respects pitiful. The child marriage was a standing social evil. Akbar tried to check girls’ marriage before puberty, but his attempts did not seem to have been effective. Polygamy also was not uncommon. Moreover, Safi system was prevalent in Hindu society. The efforts of Akbar, Jahangir and Aurangzeb failed to uproot this evil. Despite constraints, instances of women taking on active part in social and political affairs are many. Rani Durgavati, Chand Sultana, Nur Jahan, Jijabai and Jahanara were highly alented women, who have left an enduring reputation behind.

PQ. The Growing harmony between various religious communities was a marked feature of social life during the reigns of rulers from Akbar to Shah Jahan. In this context explain briefly:
(a) 
Growing harmony between Hindus and Muslims
(b) Growth of the Bhakti Movement and Sufism in the Mughal period.
Ans.
(a)
The growing harmony between Hindus and Muslims was a marked feature of the social life at that time. Akbar’s liberalism went a great way to heal the rift between the two communities. The Jiziya (poll tax on the non-Muslims) was abolished and state services were opened for the Hindus, especially the Rajput princes. Akbar’s marriages with Hindu princesses led to the introduction of Hindu customs into the palace and Durga Puja was celebrated within the palace then and afterwards. On the other hand, Mughal etiquette, Mughal dress and dishes were adopted by the Hindu zamindars and people having a high social rank. The Muslims of high rank often took part in the Holi and Diwali festivals with their Hindu friends.
(b)
The Bhakti tradition continued to grow and several new cults had arisen in the 17th and 18th centuries. One of the most prominent saints of Maharashtra was Tukaram. Sufism also ‘ had a profound influence on society during the period. Akbar was deeply influenced by the mysteries of Sufism and teachings of the Hindu saints. Throughout the period, the Bhakti school of Shri Chaitanya Mahaprabhu held the field in Bengal and Orissa. In Rajasthani, Gujarat and South India also the Bhakti Movement retained its popularity. Raja Man Singh of Amber, in Rajasthan, was one of the greatest patrons of Vaishnavism.

Question 6.
Study the picture of the Red Ford and answer the following questions:
(a) Where is the Fort located ?
(b) Name the ruler who built it ?
(c) Mention two important buildings within its enclosure
(d) Mention three important features of the Fort
(e) Mention one occasion when the Fort is used by the Government of India
Answer:
On the basis of the study of the picture of the Red Fort, the given questions are answered below:
(a) 
The Red Fort is located in Delhi.
(b) The Mughal emperor, Shah Jahan built it during the period 1639-1648.
(c) Within this fort, there are magnificent buildings, including a public Darbar hall (Diwan-I-Aam) and Diwan-I-Khas.
(d) The Fort has massive walls around it, in which there are two Gateways. The western Gateway, known as the Lahori Gate, was used for ceremonial purposes and the other gateway for private use; The Diwan-I-Khas is the lavishly ornamented hall, where the Peacock Throne was placed.
(e) Every year on August 15, the Prime Minister of India addresses the nation from its ramparts to commence the Independence Day celebrations.

Question 7.
Identify the picture given below and answer the following question:
(a) Where is it located ?
(b) By whom was it built ?
(c) Name the architect who designed the monument
(d) Mention two architectural features of the monument.
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - The Mughal Empire 1
Answer:
On the basis -of the Study of the picture of the Taj Mahal, the given questions are answered below:
(a) The Taj Mhhal is located at Agra.
(b) It was built bv Shah Jahan.
(c) Ustad Isa designed the monument.
(d)

  1. It is made of pure  white marble
  2. It stands on a raised platform and is surmounted by cupolas at each corner
  3. Four Minarets stand at each corner of the terrace.

Question 8.
The Mughal rulers of India were patrons of learning and scholars. In this context, describe briefly:
(a) The growth of Persian Literature in those times.
(b) The growth of Hindi Literature during the age of the Mughals.
Answer:
The Mughal rulers of India were patrons of learning and scholars. In this context, the given questions are described as under:
(a)

The Persian language made a tremendous progress under the patronage of the Mughal emperors. Akbar’s court had many Persian scholars who migrated to India. One of the eminent historians of Akbar’s court was Abul Fazal, who wrote Ain-i-Akbari, gives information about the legal and revenue-systems of Akbar’s administration. While Akbarnama is about the life of Akbar and the Mughals in general. Two other historians of Akbar’s reign were Nizam-ud-din Ahmad, who wrote Tabakat-i-Akbari and Badauni, who wrote Muntakhab-ut-Twarikh. Akbar encouraged the translation of Sanskrit literary works into the Persian language. Different sections of the Mahabharata were translated into Persian and compiled into a book. Badauni completed the translation of the Ramayana. Abul Fazal translated the Panchatantra. Faizi was a renowned scholar who translated many Hindu classics into Persian.The translation of Sanskrit works in Persian continued under Jahangir.

(b)

Tulsidas was a great poet of the Rama cult, he wrote Ram Gitawali. His most famous work is Ram Charitmanas, singing the noble deeds of Lord Rama. It is a masterpiece of Hindi literature. Surdas wrote Sursagar which describes episodes from Krishna’s early life. Many scholars adorned the court of Akbar, who encouraged Hindi Literature. Akbar’s courtiers—Birbal, Raja Man Singh and Raja Bhagwan Das—were known for their poetic works in Hindi. Akbar conferred the title ‘Kavipriya’ on Birbal for his poetic works. Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khanan was the most distinguished Hindi poet of Akbar’s court. Till today, his dohas in Hindi have been greatly appreciated and read with interest. Malik Muhammad Javasi, one of the most well-known writers of Hindi, wrote the epic Padmawat. Sundar, who wrote Sundar Sringar was given the title ’Mahakavi Rai’ by Emperor Shahjahan.

Question 9.
What role did the following factors play in decline and downfall of the Mughal Empire:
(a) Aurangzeb’s policies.
(b) Incompetence of the Later Mughals.
(c) Foreign Invasions.
Answer:
The given factors played a significant role in the decline and downfall of the Mughal Empire, which are as explained as follows:
(a)  Aurangzeb’s Policies:

Aurangzeb was an orthodox Sunni Muslim. His personal life and austerity won him the support of the Muslim clergy who called him a Zinda Pir, a Living Saint. In 1669, the Emperor forbade the building of new temples and permitted the destruction of a few existing temples as well. The temples at Mathura and Varanasi became special targets of attack. He reimposed the old Jiziya on Hindus. This naturally cost him the sympathy and support of the Hindus, particularly, the Rajputs who had been the pillars of the Mughal Empire.

(b) Incompetence of the Later Mughals:
The later Mughals were incompetent and did not have the skills that were needed to keep the system in working order. They let the affairs drift in their own way. R.C. Majumdar writes, “Province after province the Deccan, Oudth and Bengal slipped out of imperial control.” The Marathas, the Jats and Sikhs had also become very’ powerful by now. And in 1739, Nadir Shah, returned home laden with immense treasure including the famous Peacock Throne and the Kohinoor The invasion left the empire “bleeding and prostrate.” The last Mughal Emperor Bahadur Shah II was a symbolic head of the Great Uprising of 1857. He was imprisoned and banished to Rangoon, where he died in 1862.

(c) Foreign Invasions:
In 1739, the Emperor of Delhi was literally at the mercy of Nadir Shah. The already Shrunk Mughal empire was left exposed to further invasions. Ahmad Shah Abdali led a number of expeditions and in 1757, he advanced into India as far as Delhi. In 1759, he finally conquered the Punjab. Since Marathas had also become strong contenders for supremacy in northern India, a contest between Ahmad Shah Abdali and the Marathas was inevitable. Ahmad Shah defeated the Maratha army at the Battle of Panipat in 1761. This defeat not only checked the growing power of the Marathas, it also hastened the process of the disintegration of the Mughal empire. It indirectly contributed to the rise of the Sikh-power in Punjab and the north-west and the spread of British influence in the rest of the subcontinent.

Question 10.
Akbar was tbe greatest of all medieval rulers of India, In this context describe:
(a)
His Concern about Law and Justice
Answer:
Law and Justice: Akbar regarded speedy administration of justice as one of his important duties. The Chief Quazi was the foremost Judicial officer in the realm. He nominated Qazis for the provinces. The Qazis were believed to be just and impartial. They tried both civil and criminal cases. The bigger towns had their own Qazis. The villagers settled their disputes through the institution of the Panchayat. Above all the local and provincial courts was the Emperor himself. He was ‘the fountain of justice and the final court of appeal’. The prisoners were kept in forts.

Question 11.
Describe Aurangzeb’s Administration under the following headlines:
A Setback to the Policy of Religious Toleration Provincial Government
Answer:
(a) A Setback to the Policy of Religious Toleration:
Soon after his accession, Aurangzeb abandoned the liberal religious viewpoints of his predecessors^ Though Akbar Jahangir and Shah Jahan’s approach to faith was more liberal than the empire’s founder. Aurangzeb’s position is not so obvious. While his conservative interpretation of Islam and belief in Shria (Islamic law) is well documented, how this affected the empire remains unclear. Despite claims of sweeping edicts and policies, contradictory accounts exists his compilation of the Fatwa-e-Alamgirie, a digest of Muslim law, was either intended for personal use, never enforced. While some assert that the lack of broad adoption was due to an inherent flow, others insist they were only intended for his observance. While it is possible the war of succession and continued incursions combined with Shah Jahan’s spending made cultural expenditures impossible.

(b) Provincial Government:
The number of proinces had  risen to’ twenty-one in the time of Aurangzeb. The Diwan or the Revenue Chief of the province was required to keep a strict watch over the Subahdar (the Governor) so that the latter would not become all powerful.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS

Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Name two important sources which provide information about the Mughals.
Answer:
Two important sources of information about the Mughals are Ain-i-Akbari and monuments of Fatehpur Sikri.

Question 2.
Name of the author of Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
The author of Ain-i-Akbari is Abul Fazal.

Question 3.
What was the title of the Mahabharata translated into Persian ?
Answer:
The title of the Mahabharata translated into Persian was Razm Namah.

Question 4.
Who was the architect who designed Humayun’s tomb?
Answer:
A Persian Mirak Mirza Ghiyas designed the tomb, but it was built by Indian artisans and craftsmen. The main building stands on a 8.5 meter high platform and has archways on its sides.

Question 5.
Who built the Agra Fort ?
Answer:
Agra Fort was built on the banks of the Yamuna river at Agra by Akbar during the period from 1565 to 1573.

Question 6.
Name two buildings located in Fatehpur Sikri.
Answer:
Two prominent buildings at Fatehpuri Sikri are:

  1. The Palace of Jodha Bhai, Akbar’s Rajput wife.
  2. Buland Darwaza.

Question 7.
Why did Akbar build Fatehpur Sikri ?
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri was built to symbolise the power of Akbar’s empire, to represent the meaning of Allah’s message to mankind and to display the wonders of the Islamic faith.

Question 8.
Between whom was the First Battle of Panipat fought ?
Answer:
The First Battle of Panipat was fought between Babar and Ibrahim Lodhi.

Question 9.
Who invited Babur to India ? Why ?
Answer:
Daulat Khan Lodhi Governor of Punjab invited Babur to India to oust Ibrahim Lodhi from the throne.

Question 10.
Who was defeated by Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576 ?
Answer:
Maharana Pratap was defeated by Akbar at the Battle of Haldighati in 1576 ?

Question 11.
Mention any two steps taken by Akbar to promote better understanding between the Hindus and the Muslims.
Answer:
Akbar, took the following measures to promote greater under standing between the Hindus and Muslims

  1. Akbar abolished the poll tax or jizyah, which the non-muslims were required to pay. He abolished the pilgrim tax on bathing at holy places such as Prayag and Benaras.
  2. He involved a number of Hindus into the nobility. Most of these were Rajput Rajas who entered into matrimonial alliances with Akbar. Mansabs were given to others on the basis of their competence.

Question 12.
Name the two taxes abolished by Akbar.
Answer:
The two taxes abolished by Akbar were Jizyah and pilgrim tax.

Question 13.
Name the Mughal ruler who forbade the evil practice of Sati.
Answer:
The Aurangzeb was the only ruler who forbade the evil practice of Sati.

Question 14.
What principles did Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi promote ?
Answer:
It was based on the principles of oneness of God ; stressing on virtues like courage, loyalty and justice.

Question 15.
When and for what purpose did Akbar built the Ibadat Khana?
Answer:
The Ibadat Khana was built in 1575 at Fatehpur Sikri. At this hall, he used to call selected theologians of all religions, mystics and intellectuals and discuss religious and spiritual matters with them.

Question 16.
Name the Mughal ruler whose reign was famous for ‘Chain of Justice’.
Answer:
Jahangir’s reign was famous for ‘Chain of Justice’.

Question 17.
Name the two important centers of’trade during the Mughal Period.
Answer:
Two important centres of trade were Lahore and Delhi.

Question 18.
Mention any two measures which indicate Nur Jahan’s important position during Jahangir’s reign.
Answer:

  1. She was promoted to the status of ‘Padshah Begum’.
  2. Coins were struck in her name and on all farmans; (permission) her name was attached to the imperial signature.

Question 19.
Name the two English, ambassadors who came to Jahangir’s court. Who sent them and for what ?
Answer:
English ambassadors Captain Hawkins and Sir Thomas Roe wanted to obtain favorable concessions for trade with India. They were sent to India by King James I of England.

Question 20.
Between whom was the Third Battle of Panipat fought ? Who emerged victorious in the battle ?
Answer:
The Third Battle of Panipat was fought between the Marathas and Ahmad Shah Abdali in 1761. The Marathas were defeated by Ahmad Shah Abdali.

Question 21.
Name the title given to the heads of the revenue department and the military department respectively in the Mughal Empire.
Answer:
The head of the revenue department was the wazir, known as diwan or diwan-i-ala.The head of the militaiy department was called the mir bakhshi.

Question 22.
Who were mansabdars ? How were they paid ?
Answer:
The term mansabdar refers to an individual who holds a mansab, meaning a position or rank. The mansabdars formed the ruling group in the Mughal empire.The mansabdars received their salaries as revenue assignments called jagirs. Most of the mansabdars did not actually reside in or administer their Jagirs. They only had rights to the revenue of their assignments which was collected from them by their servants.

Structured Questions

1. With reference to the Mughal Empire, explain briefly the significance of the following:
Question 1(a) .
Ain-i-Akbari.
Answer:
This book was written by Abul Fazl, the minister and one of the Nine jewels at Akbar’s court. It was part of a large project of history writing commissioned by Akbar. Ain-i-Akbari is regarded as a precious source material for knowing the , administration and culture during the reign of Akbar. The Ain-i-Akbari is divided into five books. The first book deals with the imperial household. The second book deals with the servants of the emperor, the military and civil services. The third book deals with the imperial administration. It consists of the regulations for the judicial and executive departments, and the divisions of the empire. The fourth book contains information about the Hindu philosophy, science, social customs and literature. The fifth book contains the wise sayings of Akbar. This also contains an account of the ancestry and biography of the author.

Question 1(b).
Monuments at Fatehpur Sikri.
Answer:
Fatehpur Sikri was built to symbolise the power of Akbar’s empire, to represent the meaning of Allah’s message to mankind and to display the wonders of the Islamic faith. Completed in 1578, Fatehpur Sikri has a grand palace where Akbar’s court functioned for a few years, until the shortage of water caused the city to be abandoned. Other grand monuments in Fatehpur Sikri are Panch Mahal, the Buland Darwaza, a mosque dedicated to Salim Chisti, tomb of Salim Chisti, a prayer hall for the new religion called Din-i-Ilahi started by Akbar ; halls of public and private audience, the Diwan-i-am and Diwan-i-Khas, Jodha Bai’s palace and Raja Birbal’s house.

2. With reference to the Mughal rule, state briefly:
Question 2(a).
Akbar’s policy towards the Rajputs.
Answer:
Friendly relations with Rajputs were appreciable of Akbar’s policy. He married the daughter of Bhara Mai (the ruler of Amber), Harkha Bai (Jodha Bai). He gave full respect to his wives e.g. he gave a separate worshiping palace to Jodha Bai in Fatehpur Sikhi. Rajputs were made equal partners in the Mughal Government.

Question 2(b).
Akbar’s policy of religious tolerance.
Answer:
Akbar is famous for his religious tolerance. He paid respect to every religion and was reasonable for every sect of society. The abolishment of ‘Jizyh’ tax, and forcibly converting prisoners of war to Islam. In 1575, Akbar built a hall called ‘Ibadat Khana’, where religious meetings were held to discuss about various religions.

3. With reference to the administrative system in the Mughal Period, answer the following questions:
Question 3(a) .
What was the position of the monarch ?
Answer:
There are a number of references in the court chronicles of the Mughals which show that the power of the Mughal kings came directly from God. One of the legends they narrated was that of the Mongol queen Alanqua, who was impregnated by a ray of sunshine while resting in her tent. The off spring she bore carried this Divine Light and passed it from generation to generation.

Question 3(b).
Who were the three important ministers ?
Answer:
In the days of Babur and Humayun, there used to be a Prime Minister, known as vakil, who was entrusted with large powers in civil and military affairs. During the early years of Akbar’s reign Bairam Khan was the vakil. The head of the revenue department was the wazir, known as diwan or diwan-i-ala. The diwan was responsible for all income and expenditure. The head of the military department was called the Mir  Bakhshi. The Mir Bakhshi was also the head of the intelligence and information agencies of the empire.

Question 3(c).
How was the provincial government organised ?
Answer:
The empire was divided into twelve provinces or subahs, which was further subdivided into sarkars and each sarkar into parganas or mahals. Each Subah was headed by one governor who was called the subahdar or sipah salar or nazim. He was usually a mansabdar of high rank. His functions included maintenance of law and order, enforcement of imperial decrees, administration of criminal justice and the smooth collection of revenue. The provincial diwan was incharge of revenue administration of the province. His responsibilities were similar to those of the central diwan. Besides the subahdar and the diwan, the other important officials in the province were faujdar, kotwal, bakhshi, sadr qazi and muhtasib.

4. With reference to Mansabdari system, answer the following questions:
Question 4(a).
What was the Mansabdari system
Answer:
The mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was a uqique feature of the administrative system of the lytughal empire. The mansabdars formed the ruling group of the Mughal empire with a rank of (mansab). With a great power of civil and army control the rank ranged from number 10 to 5000 for nobles. The ranks were again divided into ‘zat’ and ‘sawar’. For every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdar had to maintain twenty horses.

Question 4(b).
What was meant by zat and sawar rank ?
Answer:
Zat fixed the personal status of a person and the salary due to him. The higher the zat, the more prestigious was the noble’s position in court and the larger his salary.The sawar rank indicated the number of cavalrymen or sawar a mansabdar was required to maintain. For every ten cavalrymen, the mansabdar had to maintain twenty horses.

5. With reference to the social development during the Mughal Age, answer the following question:
Question 5(a).
Explain the division of society on the basis of wealth.
Answer:
During the Mughal Age, society looked like a feudal organisation with the king at its apex. Next in rank to the king were the nobles, who enjoyed special honors and privileges. With abundant resources at their disposal, the rich indulged in luxury and led a comfortable life. They lived in highly decorated palatial buildings and amused themselves with outdoor sports as well as indoor games.Below the nobles, there was the middle class, which was living according to the standard suited to their respective offices and professions.

The merchants in general led simple life. According to some European writers, the merchants of the western coast, having made much wealth out of their extensive commerce, lived in a comparatively rich style. The condition of the lower order was hard as compared with that of the two higher classes. They did not have sufficient clothing and woolen garments and shoes were above their means. As their other demands were few, they did not suffer from want of ordinary food but in times of famine and scarcity, their miseries must have been great. The shopkeepers, though sometimes rich and respected, generally kept their wealth hidden.

Question 5(b).
Explain briefly any two steps taken by Akbar towards integrating the Hindus and the Muslims.
Answer:
The Mughal Emperors, especially Akbar, took a number of measures to promote greater understanding between the Hindus and the Muslims.
Some of these measures were the following:

  1. Akbar abolished the poll taxorjizyah, which the non-Muslims were required to pay. He also abolished the pilgrim tax on bathing at holy places such as Prayag and Banaras. Further, he abolished the practice of forcibly converting prisoners of war to Islam.
  2. To strengthen the liberal principles, Akbar enrolled a number of Hindus into the nobility. While most of these were Rajput rajas, many of whom entered into matrimonial alliances with Akbar, mansabs were given to others also on the basis of their competence.

Question 5(c).
What steps were taken by the Mughal rulers to promote education ?
Answer:
The Mughal rulers introduced a number of educational reforms:

Akbar revised the educational syllabus, laying more emphasis on moral education and mathematics and on’secular subjects such as agriculture, geometry, astronomy, logic and history. The other Mughal emperors also were keen patrons of education and there was considerable development in this area. In fact one of the duties of the public works department. Shuhra-i-am was to build schools and colleges. Jahangir passed a law, whereby if a rich man was to die without an heir, his assets would be used by the State to help in the development and maintenance of educational institutes. Shah Jahan although more interested in building monuments, did take some significant educational initiatives like providing scholarships to assist students. Female education also existed in some form during the Mughal period. Girls from rich families were usually able to have an education, through private tuition at home. The Middle class girls were usually able to attend the same schools as the boys.

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Delhi Sultanate

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Delhi Sultanate

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
Who laid the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate?
Answer:
Qutub-ud-din Aibak laid the foundation of the Delhi Sultanate.

Question 2.
Name any two Inscriptions to reconstruct the age of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:

  1. The Pehowa Inscription,
  2. Sarban Inscription.

Question 3.
Mention any two ways in which Inscriptions may be used for reconstructing the history of the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:

  1. Inscriptions — These are valuable supplements and not the sole sources of information on the Delhi Sultanate. The inscriptions are found on coins, monuments, milestones and tombstones. Some of the inscriptions are in Sanskrit, some in Arabic and some in both the languages. For example, the first coin issued by Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khilji bears both Arabic and Sanskrit inscriptions. Similarly, the famous traveller Ibn Batuta noticed a commemorative inscription in the Jama Masjid in Delhi, which he deciphered.
  2. The Pehowa Inscription of the Pratihara king Mahendrapala suggests that Delhi was founded in 736 AD by the Tomaras, a clan of the Rajputs. It mentions that the Tomaras ruled over the Haryana region with Dhilika (Delhi) as their Capital. The Sarban Inscription (found in the village Sarban, South Delhi) contains a brief account of the history of Delhi until the reign of Muhammad Tughlaq (1325-1351).

Question 4.
Mention any two architectural features of Qutab Minar.
Answer:

  1. The entrance to the tower is through the doorway on the northern side. Inside, there is a spiral stairway leading upto each balcony.
  2. Red sandstone, marble and grey quartzite were used to construct the tower which is the highest stone tower in India.

Question 5.
Mention any two measures taken by Alauddin Khalji for control of the Market.
Answer:

  1. Alauddin is best known in history for his market regulations. He fixed the cost of all commodities from food grains, sugar and cooking oil to a needle, costly imported cloth, horses, cattle, slave boys and girls.
  2. He set up three markets at Delhi e.g., for food grains, cloth and horses, slave and cattle, under the control of ‘ Shahna’ or the controller. Strict punishment was given for cheating.

Question 6.
Mention any two schemes of Muhammed Tughlaq that failed and made him extremely unpopular.
Answer:
Two schemes of Muhammed Tughlaq that failed and made him extremely unpopular were:

  1. Muhammed Tughlaq increased the taxation in the Doab (the territory between the rivers Ganga and Yamuna).
  2. His decision to transfer his Capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) with a view to having the Capital situated in the middle of his kingdom. He was bent upon taking all the inhabitants of Delhi to the new Capital. Both of his schemes failed as people never accepted both the schemes of him.

Question 7.
Why did Muhammad Tughlak’s scheme for increased taxation in Doab fail ?
Answer:
There occurred a severe famine because of failure of rains. The people offered resistance, but the Sultan’s officers continued to realise taxes mercilessly. The cultivators were, therefore, forced to abandon their lands. The Sultan tried to help the cultivators by giving them loans to buy seeds bullocks etc. Arrangements were also made for the digging of wells for irrigation purposes. But the scheme failed.

Question 8.
Mention any one reason why Muhammad Tughlaq decided to transfer his Capital from Delhi to Devagiri (Daulatabad) ?
Answer:
In 1327 he decided to transfer his Capital from Delhi to Devagiri now Daulatabad with a view to having the Capital situated in the middle of his kingdom. He was bent upon taking all the inhabitants of Delhi to the new Capital. No one liked the forced move: it was doomed to failure. As the Sultan was convinced of the failure of his scheme, he ordered the people to return to their homes in Delhi.

Question 9.
Who was the greatest of the Lodi Kings?
Answer:
Sikandar Lodi was the greatest of the Lodi Kings.

Question 10.
Who was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period ?
Answer:
Sultan was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period.

Question 11.
Who was the highest officer in the government during the Delhi Sultanate ?
Answer:
The highest officer in the government was the Wazir, the Chief Minister.

Question 12.
Name the two important provinces under Khljis and the Tughlaqs.
Answer:
The most important provinces under Khaljis and the Tughlaq were those of Jaunpur, Malwa, Khandesh, Gujarat, Bengal and the Dakhin (Deccan).

Question 13.
Mention any two sources of revenue during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
The main sources of revenue were as under:

  1. Land tax, usually one-tenth of the produce,
  2. The booty captured, in wars.

Question 14.
Name any two archaeological sources to reconstruct the age fo the Delhi Sultanate.
Answer:

  1. Qutab Minar,
  2. Illahi Darwaza.

Question 15.
Mention any two ways in which Iltutmish consolidated the Turkish conquests in India?
Answer:
Iltutmish effectively suppressed the rebellions of Amirs and also defeated the governors of Sindh and Bengal who had risen in revolt. He then embarked upon a career of conquests. He made Delhi his Capital and was the first Turkish ruler to introduce a purely Arabic coinage. Finding his sons incompetent to rule, Iltutmish chose his daughter Raziya to be his successor.

Question 16.
Who was Razia Sultana? Who plotted against her?
Answer:
Raziya Sultana was the daughter of Iltutmish. She was put to death by her nobles, who plotted against her and her husband Altunia and got them murdered in 1240.

Question 17.
What measures were taken by Balban to crush the Turkish Nobles?
Answer:
Balban adopted a policy of sternness and severity. He established order in the neighborhood of Delhi and instilled fear in the minds of the Turkish nobles by inflicting severe punishment on them even for slight offences. Some of them were even publicity flogged. The north-west frontier posts were strongly garrisoned.

Question 18.
Mention any two new elements of architecture style introduced by the Muslims in India.
Answer:
Two new elements of architecture style introduced by the Muslims in India are:

  1. Open Airy and Spacious Buildings.
  2. Mosques and Tombs.

Question 19.
Mention two important features of mosques.
Answer:
Two important features of mosques are:

  1. The mosques have an open courtyard surrounded by a pillared varandah.
  2. There is a prayer-hall having a recess or alcove called Mehrab in the western wall at the back of the hall.

Question 20.
How did Alaudin Khalji expand his empire?
Answer:
Alauddin Khalji raided Malwa and Gujarat and also defeated the Rajput rulers of Ranthambhor and Chittor. Next, he faced to the four wealthy kingdoms of the Deccan—Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and Pandya Kingdom with its Capital at Madurai. The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander, Malik Kafur.

Question 21.
Who was Timur Lang?
Answer:
Timur Lang (Timur the Lame) was a foreign invader who had risen into power in central Asia and invaded Delhi.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
Question 1.
Give a brief account of the reign of Alauddin Khalji under the following headings.
(a) His main conquests
(b)Treatment meted out to the rulers of Southern India.
Answer:
(a)
Alauddin Khalji raided Malwa and Gujarat and also defeated the Rajput rulers of Ranthambhor and Chittor. Next, he faced to the four wealthy kingdoms of the deccan—Yadavas of Devagiri, the Kakatiyas of Warangal, Hoysalas of Dwarasamudra and Pandya Kingdom with its Capital at Madurai. The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander, malik Kafur.
(b)
The task of conquest of Deccan had been entrusted by Alauddin to his military commander Malik Kafur.Malik Kafur captured an immense booty which consisted of hundreds of elephants, thousands of horses and gold and jewels in large quantities. But Southern India was not annexed. Its rulers had to acknowledge the lordship of Delhi Sultan and pay him tribute in return for peace and protection.

Question 2.
Why did Muhammad Tughlaq’s following schemes prove a failure?
(a) An increase in taxation in the Doab.
(b) Introduction of Token Currency.
Answer:
(a)
He increased the taxation in the Doab, the territory between rivers Ganga and Yamuna with a view to augment his resources. This scheme was defeated because of consecutive years of drought.
(b)
In 1329 the Sultan introduced Token Currency by proclaiming that brass and copper coins could have the same use or function as that of gold and silver coins. This experiment also failed. Soon the gold and silver coins disappeared from the market and forged copper coins manufactured by people at their homes came into circulation. Trade and business came to a standstill.

Question 3.
Give an account of the administration of the Sultanate of Delhi under the following heads:
(a) Position of the Sultan (b) His Ministers
Answer:
(a)
The Sultan of Delhi was an unlimited despot. He was the chief executive of the state; he was also the highest judicial authority. The Sultan was the Commander-in-Chief of the army. His powers were very wide. He was responsible for the safety and security of the state. A direct appeal could be made to him against the highhandedness of any of his officials or judges. There was no constitutional method to remove a king from the throne. He could be removed  only by a successful revolt which meant a Civil War.
(b)
The Sultan, however, could not manage the task of administration single-handed. The highest officer in the government was the Wazir, the Chief Minister. Other key functionaries and ministers were the Diwan (the Finance Minister), the Qazi (Chief Judge) and the Ariz (the Army Minister). The special responsibility of the Army Minister was to recruit, equip and pay the soldiers.

Question 4.
Study the picture of Qutab Minar and answer the following questions:
(a) Where is it located ?
(b) Name the rulers who started and completed the construction of the structure.
(c) Name the Muslim Saint after whom the structure is named.
(d) Mention three important features of the structure.
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - The Delhi Sultanate 1
Answer:
On the basis of the study of Qutab Minar the given questions are answered as under:
(a) 
Qutab Minar is located in Delhi.
(b) The construction of Qutab Minar was started by Qutub-ud- din Aibak. It was completed by lltutmish.
(c) Qutub-ud-din, a Muslim saint of Ush, near Baghdad.
(d)

  1. The structure is a circular tower which rises to a height of 72.5 metres;
  2.  It has five storeys, tapering as they ascend and separated from each other by projected balconies. Each storey has a different pattern and has finely wrought Arabic inscription
  3. The entrance to the tower is through the doorway on the northern side. Inside, there is a spiral stairway leading upto each balcony

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Who was the founder of the slave dynasty in India ?
Answer:
Qutubuddin Aibak is regarded as the founder of the Slave dynasty.

Question 2.
Why was Qutubuddin known as Lakhbaksh ?
Answer:
Qutubuddin known as Lakhbaksh because of liberal distribution of money, he earned the title of ‘Lakhbaksh’.

Question 3.
Mention any two military reforms introduced by Alauddin.
Answer:
Military Reforms: Alauddin Khilji was the first ruler of Delhi who laid the foundation of a permanent standing army. He imported qaulity horses and started the system of branding horses (dagh) so that the soldiers could not replace them with inferior quality horses. He also introduced the system of chehra, i.e., giving a kind of identity card for every soldier.

Question 4.
How did Alauddin Khalji expand his empire ?
Answer:
A large region was ruled in northern India by Alauddin. Alauddin Khalji conquered many southern states in 1313, the states of Devagiri, Warangal, Dwarasamudra and Madurai. The annual tribute payed by these states was used for maintenance of his army.

Question 5.
Mention the two controversial steps taken by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq.
Answer:
Two controversial steps taken by Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, were as follows:

  1. Shifting of Capital from Delhi to Devagiri.
  2. Introduction of the “token currency”.

Question 6.
Which dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate built The Qutab Minar ?
Answer:
Slave dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate i.e. Qutb-ud-din Aibak in AD 1199, built the Qutab Minar.

Question 7.
Who was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period ?
Answer:
Sultan was the commander-in-chief of the army during the Sultanate period.

Question 8.
Name the department which dealt with state correspondence during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
Diwan-i-insha was department which dealt with state correspondence during the Sultanate period.

Question 9.
What was the iqta system ?
Answer:
During Sultanate the empire was divided into provinces called iqtas’. During this period, the practice of giving grants of revenue from a terrritory came to be known as the ‘ iqta system’. Those who were given iqtas were called ‘iqtadars’. Out of this grant, the iqtadars had to maintain themselves, their families and some soldiers for use by the Sultan during war.

Question 10.
Name the author of the book, Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi.
Answer:
The book, Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi was written by Ziauddin Barani.

Question 11.
Why were the early rulers of slave dynasty called the Mamluk Sultans ?
Answer:
The early rulers of slave dynasty were called the Mamluk Sultans because these Sultans were earlier either the slaves of the Turks or were the sons of the slaves.

Question 12.
Mention any two reasons for the defeat of Rajputs by the Turks.
Answer:

  1. The Turkish army comprised expert military leaders from different lands who employed new tactics of wars. The Rajputs, on the other hand, followed outdated tactics.
  2. The Rajput soldiers were highly efficient in the use of spear and sword and excellent in hand-to-hand fighting. But as archers, they were inferior to the Turks. The Turks were aware of the weak points of their opponents.

Question 13.
Who was Muhammad Ghori ? Why did he invade India ?
Answer:
Shahabuddin Muhammad, also known as Muizzuddin Muhammad bin Sam or Muhammad Ghori, ascended the throne at Ghazni (in present Afghanistan) in 1173. He was an ambitious ruler and wanted to establish his empire in India. The wealth  and military resources of India attracted Mohammad Ghori’s attention, which he thought could be utilised to safeguard the Ghurid empire. Therefore, he strengthened his position at Ghazni and turned his attention towards India. He invaded India several times between 1175 and 1206.

Question 14.
Mention the four architectural features brought in by the Turks in India.
Answer:
The architectural style brought in by the Turks in India had four main characteristic features — dome, minarets, ‘arches and propped roofs. In the sphere of decoration, the Turks used geometrical and floral designs, combining them with panels of inscriptions containing verses from the Holy Quran.

Question 15.
Who was Razia Sultana ? To which dynasty did she belong?
Answer:
Razia Sultana was the daughter of Iltutmish. She belonged to the Slave Dynasty.

Question 16.
What measures were taken by Alauddin Khalji for regulating the prices ?
Answer:
Alauddin was best known in history for his market regulations. He fixed the cost of all commodities from food grains, sugar and cooking oil to a needle, costly imported cloth, horses, cattle, slave boys and girls. He set up three markets at Delhi e.g. for food grains, cloth and horses, slave and cattle, under the control of ‘Shahna’ or the controller. Strict punishment was given for cheating.

Question 17.
Mention any two measures taken by Alauddin Khilji to crush the power of the nobles.
Answer:

  1. The Nobles were not allowed to hold parties or festivities or to form marriage alliances without the permission of the Sultan.
  2. The use of wine and intoxicants was banned.
  3. Gambling was forbidden and gamblers were severely punished.

Question 18.
With reference to the Delhi Sultanate, mention to which dynasties the following belonged:
(a) Razia Sultana
(b) lbrahim Lodhi
(c) Firoz Shah
(d) Qutb-ud-Din Aibak
Answer:
(a) Slave Dynasty
(b) Lodhi Dynasty
(c) Tughlaq Dynasty
(d) Slave Dynasty

Structured Questions.

Question 1.
With reference to the sources of information about the Delhi Sultanate, give the significance of the following:
(a) Inscriptions (b) Qutub Minar
Answer:
(a) Inscriptions — These are valuable supplements and not the sole sources of information on the Delhi Sultanate. The inscriptions are found on coins, monuments, milestones and tombstones. Some of the inscriptions are in Sanskrit, some in Arabic and some in both the languages. For example, the first coin issued by Muhammad Bakhtiyar Khilj i bears both Arabic and Sanskrit inscriptions. Similarly, the famous traveller Ibn Batuta noticed a commemorative inscription in the Jama Masjid in Delhi, which he deciphered.

(b) Qutub Minar —
It began to be built in AD 1199. It was started by Qutub-ud-din Aibak and was dedicated to the Sufi saint, Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki, who was greatly venerated by the people of Delhi. The structure was completed in 1230 bylltutmish. Verses from the Holy Quran and some intricate carvings, floral motifs are inscribed on this tower.

2. With reference to the Slave dynasty, answer the following questions:
Question 2(a).
Why were the early rulers of the Slave dynasty called the Mamluk Sultans ?
Answer:
The word Mamluk is an Arabic word that means ‘owned’. Since these Sultans were earlier either the slaves of the Turks or were the sons of the slaves, they were called Mamluk Sultans.

Question 2(b).
Who was Qutubuddin Aibak ? State any two of his qualities.
Answer:
Qutubuddin Aibak is regarded as the founder of the Slave dynasty. Qutubuddin Aibak was a man of letters. Scholars like Hasan Nizami and Fakhre Mudir adorned his court. Because of liberal distribution of money, he earned the title of ‘ Lakhbaksh ’. Qutubuddin Aibak laid the foundation of Qutub Minar in Delhi, after the name of the famous Sufi saint Khwaja Qutub-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.

3. With reference to the Khilji dynasty, answer the following questions:
Question 3(a).
What were the steps taken by Alauddin Khilji to regulate prices ?
Answer:
He fixed the cost of all commodities such as food grains, sugar and cooking oil. For this purpose, he set up three markets at Delhi — one market for food grains, the second for costly cloth, and the third for horses, slaves and cattle. Each market was put under the charge of a controller of market (Shahna). Very strict punishments were prescribed for cheating and under weighing the goods.

Question 3(b).
What were the methods adopted by Alauddin Khilji to crush the power of the nobility ?
Answer:
When Alauddin Khilji came to the throne, he had to face a series of rebellions from the nobles. So he took a number of measures to crush their power.

  1. The Nobles were not allowed to hold parties or festivities or to form marriage alliances without the permission of the Sultan.
  2. The use of wine and intoxicants was banned.
  3. Gambling was forbidden and gamblers were severely punished.
  4. He stopped paying the soldiers in land and introduced cash salaries.
  5. He established an efficient spy system to keep a check on the activities of the nobles.

Question 3(c).
What measures did Alauddin Khilji take to increase the revenue?
Answer:
Alauddin Khilji introduced a number of important measures to get maximum revenue. He brought all the land of the empire into his direct control. He introduced the practice of measuring land and fixing the state share accordingly. He increased the land revenue from one-third to one-half and demanded it to be paid in cash and not kind. He also appointed special officers to collect land revenue.

4. With reference to the reign of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq, explain the following:
Question 4(a).
His attempts to transfer the capital from Delhi to Daulatabad.
Answer:
During Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq’s reign the empire had also spread to the south. He shifted his capital to Devagiri near modern Aurangabad and renamed it Daulatabad. He did it for the following reasons:

  1. Daulatabad was centrally located from where he could control the Deccan territories; and
  2.  Delhi was in the grip of severe famine; and
  3. Delhi was constantly threatened by the Mongol invasions. He ordered the people of Delhi including religious heads to shift to Daulatabad in 1328-29.

Question 4(b).
Introduction of token currency.
Answer:
Muhammad Bin Tughlaq introduced the “token currency”. It meant introduction of bronze tanka in place of silver tankas. This was done because of the shortage of silver. But this experiment failed due to the circulation of counterfeit or fake coins on a very large scale.

Question 4(c).
Increased taxation in Doab and its consequences.
Answer:
Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq wanted to conquer territories not only in India but also in Central Asia. He required a large army and, therefore, large amounts of money to pay for the army. So in order to get more revenue, he increased the land tax in the fertile region of Ganga-Yamuna doab. At the same time, a severe famine broke out in the area and the people refused to pay the extra taxes and rose in rebellion. But the tax collectors showed no mercy and took stern measures to collect the taxes. This made some of the peasants to abandon their lands and flee to jungles.

5. With reference to the administrative system of the Delhi Sultanate, give the functions of each of the following officials:
(a) Ariz-i-mumalik
(b) Wazir
Answer:
(a) Ariz-i-mumalik — The minister in charge of the army was called ariz-i-mumalik’. The ariz was not the commander- in-chief of the army, since the Sultan himself commanded all the armed forces. The special responsibility of the ariz’s department was to recruit, equip and pay the army.
(b) Wazir — the key figure in administration was the wazir, who acted as the Prime Minister. The wazir supervised the work of the other officials.

6. Study the picture of Qutab Minar and answer the following questions:
(a) Who began erecting this monument ? Where is it located?
(b) Name the saint after whom the monument is named.
(c) Name the ruler who completed the construction of Qutab Minar.
(d) Mention three important features of the monument.
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - The Delhi Sultanate 2
Answer:
(a) Qutub-ud-Din Aibak began to erect this monument. It is located in Delhi.
(b) This monument is named after the Sufi saint, Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.
(c) The structure was completed only in AD 1230 by lllutmish.
(d) It has five storeys separated by balconies. Its height is 71.4 meters. It is of 13.8 meters in diameter. It is made of red sandstone, marble and grey quartzite.

7. With reference to the invasion of Muhammad Ghori,  answer the following questions:
Question 7(a).
Why did Muhammad Ghori invade India ?
Answer:
The reasons which made Muhammad Ghori to invade India.The wealth and military resources of India, which he thought could be utilised to safeguard the Ghurid empire. Therefore, he strengthened his position at Ghazni and turned his attention towards India. He invaded India several times between 1175 and 1206.

Question 7(b).
Briefly describe the conflict between Prithviraj Chauhan in the two battles of Tarain.
Answer:
In 1191, in the First Battle of Tarain, the forces ofMuhammad Ghori were completely routed by the forces of Prithviraj. Muhammad Ghori decided to avenge his defeat and made another bid for India in 1192. The Second Battle of Trarain in 1192 is regarded as one of the turning points of Indian history. The Turkish army of Muhammad Ghori won the battle. A large number of Rajput soldiers lost their lives. Prithviraj escaped, but was captured. Later on Turkish army attacked and captured Ajmer. It seems that Prithviraj was allowed to rule over Ajmer for some times as is evident from the coins of the period giving the date and the legend Prithviraj adeva on one side and the words ‘Sri Muhammad Sam’ on the other.

Question 7(c).
What were the cause of success of the Turks against the Rajputs ?
Answer:
The factors which led to the defeat of the Rajputs against the Turks were the following:

  1. The Turkish army consisted mainly of cavalry and its horses had greater stamina and endurance.
  2. The Turkish army comprised expert military leaders from different lands who employed new tactics of war. The Rajputs, on the other hand, followed outdated tactics.
  3. The Rajput soldiers were highly efficient in the use of spear and sword and excellent in hand-to-hand fighting. But as archers, they were inferior to the Turks. The Turks were aware of the weak points of their opponents. They avoided a close combat and usually made their attack from a safe distance. The Rajputs were divided into a number of clans, each of which laid greater importance to its own family traditions. The Turks had to fight not against a unified army but against a few dynasties

8. With reference to the social life during the Sultanate period, answer the following questions:
Question 8(a).
Explain the caste divisions which existed in the social structure.
Answer:
There were hardly any changes in the structure of the Hindu society during the period. According to the Smritis, the Brahmins were at the apex, followed by the Kshatriyas. The duty of the Kshatriyas was to protect the people. The Vaishyas were engaged in trade. It was the duty of the shudras to serve the other castes, but they were allowed to engage in all occupation. However, severe restrictions were placed on mingling with the outcasts. The Muslims were divided into ethnic and racial groups. There were Turkish, Iranian, Arab, Afghan and Abyssinian Muslims. During the 13th century, among all the foreigners, the Turkish Muslims were in a dominating position. Besides, the Muslims were divided into many groups on the basis of origin, religion and occupation.However, the caste divisions did not close social intercourse between the Muslims and the Hindus.

Question 8(b).
Explain the inequalities which existed between rulers and the ruled during the Sultanate period.
Answer:.
During the Sultanate period, the society was marked by inequalities. In towns, the nobles and merchants led a life of great luxury. The great mass of people lived in simple life and had to face many hardships. It was, however, not a life without joy, as numerous festivals and fairs held from time to time used to relieve them of their monotonous existence.

Question 8(c).
Describe the condition of women during the Sultanate period.
Answer:
There was hardly any change in the position of women among the Hindus. The old rules such as early marriage for girls and the wife’s obligation of sender and devotion to the husband continued. A number of travelers refers to the existence of the evil practice of Sati. According to Ibn Batuta, permission from the Sultan had to be taken for the performance of Sati.The practice of purdah was widespread among the upper class wom

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – South India and the Cholas

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – South India and the Cholas

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

EXERCISES

Question 1.
Mention two ways in which Inscriptions may be used for reconstructing the history of the Imperial Cholas.
Answer:
The inscriptions provide the following information about the Cholas.

  1. They tell us about the Chola administration.
  2. They record gifts and endowments to temples and brahmanas.
  3. They inform us about the construction of a temple or the setting up of a new image of the deity.
  4. Inscriptions on temple walls served the purpose of a public registrations by conserving a record of sales, mortageges and other forms of transfers of property rights in village lands.
  5. Inscriptions have preserved the decisions and agreements on meters of public importance.

Question 2.
Name one of the masterpieces of the temples built, by the Chola king Rajaraja I. Mention one architectural feature of the temple.
Answer:
He constructed the famous Brihadeswara Temple also known as Rajarajeshwar Temple at Thanjavur.The temple consists of the Nandi mandapa, a pillared portico and an assembly hall, all interconnected.

Question 3.
Under whose rule, the Cholas rose to imperial greatness towards the end of the 10th century AD?
Answer:
Under the ruler ship of Sundara Chola’s son, Rajaraja I, the Cholas rose to Imperial greatness towards the end of the 10th century AD.

Question 4.
Mention any two victories won by Cholas under Rajaraja I.
Answer:
Annexation of Kalinga and Maldives.

Question 5.
Who among the Chola kings adopted the title of ‘Gangaikonda’? Name the city commemorating the event.
Answer:
Rajendra I, adopted the title of ‘Gangaikonda’. Gangakundrapuram or Gangaikonda-Cholapuram.

Question 6.
What names were given to the following territorial divisions of the Chola kingdom:
(a) Province, and (b) the District?
Answer:
Following names were given to the following territorial divisions of the Chola kingdom:

  1. The Province was named as
  2. The District was named as

Question 7.
What was the method of electing members of the village assembly under the Cholas?
Answer:
The method of electing members of the village assembly was as such-name-slips of the candidates were thrown and mixed up in a pot, from which they were drawn one by one a small boy. The results were announced by the village-priest.

Question 8.
Mention any two duties assigned to a village assembly under the Cholas.
Answer:
Following are the two duties assigned to a village assembly under the Cholas:

  1. To regulate water supply,
  2. To provide education to children.

Question 9.
Give one evidence to suggest that the Brihadeswara Temple is a repository of every branch of art.
Answer:

  1. The temple consists of the Nandi mandapa, a pillared portico and an assembly hall, all interconnected.
  2. The Maha-mandapa was originally three-storeyed. The top storey was an open terrace, with a row of Nandis placed on the top of its walls.
  3. Like the outer doorway, other outer entrances are also flanked by dwarapalas.
  4. The numerous Sanskrit and Tamil inscriptions on it are in fine calligraphy.
  5. Another imposing structure in the Temple is the Amman Temple housing Brihannayaki, the consort of Brihadeshwara. In brief, the Brihadeswara Temple is a repository of every branch of art-architecture, sculpture, painting, jewelry, dance and music etc.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS

Question 1.
With the accession of Rajaraja I (985-1014 AD) began the most glorious epoch of the Cholas. In this context, explain briefly:
(a) His Conquests.
(b) His activities as a Great Builder and a Ruler.
Answer:
With the accession of Rajaraja I (985-1014 AD) began the most glorious epoch of the Cholas. In this context, the given headlines are described as below:
(a)
Rajaraja defeated the Cheras and then he seized Madurai and captured the Pandya king Amarbhujanga. He also annexed Kalinga. He carried out powerful raids into the territory of Western Chalukyas also. He invaded the Island of Sri Lanka and annexed its northern parts. Towards the end of his reign he conquered Maldives. Thus, Rajaraja made himself the overlord of almost the whole of the present state of Tamil Nadu, parts of the State of Karnataka, its adjoining regions, Sri Lanka arid other islands.
(b)
Rajaraja I was also a capable administrator, a great builder and a patron of arts and literature. A chief mark of his administrative system was an expansion of rural self-governing institutions. He constructed the famous Brihdeswara Temple (also known as ” Rajarajeshwara Temple) at Thanjavur. He endowed and built some Vishnu temples also. H0w worshiped Shiva, but was tolerant of other sects and religions, as is evident from the fact that he granted to a village to the Buddhist Vihara at Nagapattam in the Malay peninsula.

Question 2.
King Rajendra I (1014-1044 AD) raised the Chola empire to the pinnacle of glory. In this context explain:
(a) His main Conquests.
(b) His attainments as a Great Builder.
Answer:
King Rajendra I (1014-1044 AD) raised the Chola empire to the pinnacle of glory’. In this context the given headlines are explained as under:
(a)
His main Conquests: About 1017 AD, he annexed the whole of Sri Lanka. He organised the Pandya and Kerala territories and the Island of Sri Lanka into regular provinces of his empire. His armies marched through the northern region as far as the Ganga Valley. He overpowered Orissa and a portion of Eastern Bengal. To commemorate this event, he adopted the title of Gangaikonda and built a new Capital called Gangaikonda-Cholapuram, identified with Gangakundapuram. In 1025 AD, he despatched a naval expedition for the conquest of king Shailendra’s territories of Java and Sumatra.
(b)
His attainments as a Great Builder: Rajendra I got constructed an artificial lake, near his new Capital. Its embankments were more than 25 kms. in length. It was filled with water from the Kolerun and Vellar rivers. He also constructed a splendid temple at Gangaikonda-Cholapuram. Its huge lingam (a symbol of generative power) of solid granite is very impressive.

Question 3.
Under Cholas, the ruler was the pivot on which turned the whole machinery of the state, but actual administration was not highly centralised. In this context, explain briefly.
(a) The position of the Chola Monarch.
(b) Functioning of the autonomous rural institutions (Gram Sabhas).
Answer:
Under Cholas the ruler was the pivot on which turned the whole machinery of the state, but actual administration was not highly centralised. In this context given headlines are explained as under:
(a)
The position of the Chola Monarch: The king was the pivot, around, which the whole system was based. The coronation Ceremony was marked by many festivities. The power and glory of the monarch was enchanced with the huge resources of the kingdom, vast palace establishment and splendour of the Court. The verbal orders of the King were reduced to writing, before they were communicated to the officials concerned.
(b)
The functioning of the autonomous rural institutions (Gram Sabha): Gram Sabha enjoyed full powers in the management of local affairs. The village assemblies administered justice within the village except the cases involving serious crimes. They regulated water supply, gathered such as temples, schools etc. They could sell or donate land for religious purposes. Accounts were maintained with meticulous care. In case a defaulter embezzled money, he was severely dealt with.The village assembly on its affairs with the help of smaller committees, each looking after specific matters such as the tanks, gardens, temples, justice and general management.

Question 4.
Study the picture of the Brihadeswara Temple and answer the following questions:
(a) Name the place where the Temple is located.
(b) When and by whom was the Temple built?
(c) To which Deity was the temple dedicated?
(d) Mention outstanding features of the Temple
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - South India and the Cholas 1
Answer:
On the basis of the study of the picture of Brihadeswara Temples, the given headlines are answered as follows:
(a) 
The Brihadeswara Temple is located at Thanjavur.
(b) In 1000 AD, Rajaraja the Great, of the Chola dynasty built the Temple.
(c) The Temple was dedicated to Lord Shiva.
(d) The Temple consists of the Nandi mandapa, a pillared portico and an assembly hall, all interconnected and in the center of a spacious walled enclosure; Its massive tower rises to a height of 57 meters and is shaped like pyramid. It has thirteen successive story and its top is crowned by a single block stone, 8.6 meters high and it weighs about 80 tonnes. The interior walls of the temple are decorated with elaborate painting and magnificent sculptures.

Question 5.
Discuss people’s social life under Imperial Cholas with reference to:
(a) Caste System (b) Religion (c) Literature and Cultural Activities
Answer:
(a)
The caste system very much prevailed in Southern Ind.a. Besides the prosperous Brahmins, merchants had emerged as a powerful class by virtue of their wealth. The social status of the lower castes was pitiable. They could not draw water from the common wells, nor were they allowed to enter temples.
(b)
The Chola emperors were worshipers of Lord Shiva, but they were by no means intolerant of other sects and religions.
(c)
The Chola era, was the ‘Golden Age’ of Tamil literature. Kamban translated the Sanskrit epic ‘Ramayana’ into Tamil in the ninth century AD, it came to be known as Kamban Ramayana. Kamban had translated its earliest Kandas (parts). The later parts (Uttarakhanda) were translated by Qttakuttan. Another renowned poet Pugalendi flourished in the 12th century. He wrote Nalavenda, which is based on the love story of Nala and Damayanti. The Buddhist and the Jain scholars also made a rich contribution to Tamil literature. The Jain Scholar Amrit Sagar wrote a book on poetics, the art of writing poetry. The Buddhist Scholar Buddhamitra wrote ‘Rasolium’, a grammar book.

Question 6.
Write a brief note on the development of Tamil Literature under the Cholas.
Answer:
The development of literature, art and architecture of the Chola period promoted the cultural value of the Chola rule. The Cholas made lot of improvements in these fields. The Chola rule marked a milestone in the history of Tamil literatures. The Chola kings gave many concessions and patronage to Tamil scholars and writers. Sangam literature deals with emotional and material topics such as love, war, governance and trade with the revival of Cholas power in the middle of the ninth century, the awareness for the literature and art broadened for the first time in history, an imperial state encompassed the entire South India bringing with it the safety and security to the people and provided the opportunity for the people to experience cultures beyond their own. Tamil became a language of the people. One of the best known Tamil work of this period is the Kamban Ramayana by Kamban who flourished during the reign of Kulottunga III. It is the greatest epic in Tamil Literature, and although the author states that he followed Valmiki,his work is not a mere translation or even an adaptation of Sanskrit epic.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
Mention the significance of inscriptions for providing information about the Cholas.
Answer:
The inscriptions provide the following information about the Cholas.

  1. They tell us about the Chola administration.
  2. They record gifts and endowments to temples and brahmanas.
  3. They inform us about the construction of a temple or the setting up of a new image of the deity.
  4. Inscriptions on temple walls served the purpose of a public registrations by conserving a record of sales, mortageges and other forms of transfers of property rights in village lands.
  5. Inscriptions have preserved the decisions and agreements on metters of public importance.

Question 2.
Who established the rule of the Cholas ?
Answer:
Cholaruler Vijayalya(AD 846-871) established Chola rule in Tamil land with Tanjore as his capital during the middle of ninth century.

Question 3.
Why did Rajaraja undertake a naval expedition against Ceylon and Maldives ?
Answer:
Rajaraja (AD 985-1012) was a brilliant general and attacked the kingdoms of Pandyas and Cheras and parts of Mysore. This area was the main region of activities of Arabian traders. In order to strengthen his power along the coast of South India, he took out a naval expedition and attacked both Ceylon and Maldives islands.

Question 4.
Name any three great rulers of the Chola dynasty.
Answer:

  1. Rajaraja I (AD 985-1012)
  2. Raj endra Chola (AD 1012-1044)
  3. Rajadhiraj Chola (AD 1044-1052)

Question 5.
Give any two achievements of Rajendra Chola.
Answer:

  1. He defeated Mahipala, king of Bengal and adopted the title of Gangaikonda.
  2. With a huge navy he defeated Shrivijaya king and solved the problem of Indian merchants who were in trouble by the merchants of Shrivijaya.

Question 6.
Name the new capital built by Rajendra Chola.
Answer:
The new capital was Gangaikonda-Cholapuram.

Question 7.
Why did the Cholas build a strong naval fleet ?
Answer:
The Cholas built a strong naval fleet, in order to keep a strong control over the trade activities of Arabian traders with the Indian merchants of the southern coastal region.

Question 8.
What made the Chola administration strong and effective?
Answer:
The Cholas system of administration was highly organised and efficient, the king as the pivot of all administration. There was central government, provincial government and local self-government including ‘ur’ – assembly of normal villages, ‘ Sabha’- assembly of Brahmins and ‘nagaram’ – the assembly of merchants. All this well distributed and managed system of administration became strong and effective.

Question 9.
Name the two languages promoted by the Cholas.
Answer:
The two languages promoted by the Cholas were Sanskrit and Tamil. Poems and plays were also written in Tajnil by leading poets arid dramatists. The works of Tamil writers were collected in eleven volumes which are known as ‘Tirumurais’.

Question 10.
Name any two features of temple built by the Cholas.
Answer:
The chief features of Chola temples are their massive vimanas or towers and spacious courtyards. Most of the Chola temples were built in the Dravidian style.

Question 11.
Which is the best example of Chola temples ?
Answer:
The best example of Chola temple is the Brihadeshvara or Shiva temple at Tanjavur.

Question 12.
What is known as the ‘gopuram’ ?
Answer:
The ‘gopuram’ is the structure of entrance of the temple.

Question 13.
To what use was the temple put during the Chola period?
Answer:
The temple in the Chola kingdom was the center of social activity. The money donated by the people was used for decoration and maintenance of the temples. Some temples also participated in inland and overseas trade. The temples also provided employment to large number of people and also provided food, clothing and housing facilities and education. Medical aid and hospitals were also established by the temples.

Question 14.
Name one important literary source that gives information about the Cholas. Name the author of this text and the ruler, whose exploits its describes.
Answer:
Kalingattuparani is an important literary source about the Cholas. It was a war song by Jayankondar, the court poet of Kulottunga. It celebrates the victory of Kulottunga Chola I over the Kalinga King, Anantavarman Chodaganga in the Chola-Kalinga war. Kulottunga Chola I is the hero of this magnificent work.

Question 15.
Name the last ruler of the Cholas.
Answer:
Rajadhiraj Chola (AD 1044-1052) was the last great ruler of Chola dynasty.

Question 16.
Who finally defeated the Cholas ?
Answer:
Cholas were defeated by Chalukyas in AD 1052, in the famous battle of Koppam.

Question 17.
Give an example of sculpture during the Chola period.
Answer:
The Cholas excelled in making images of gods and goddesses made of stone and bronze; e.g., the bronze image of Lord Shiva as ‘Nat4raja’ – Lord of Dance, is an excellent work of art.

Question 18.
Who wrote the Tamil Ramayana ?
Answer:
Kamban wrote the Tamil Ramayana.

Question 1.
With reference to the sources of information about the Cholas, give the significance of the following:
(a) Chola Inscriptions.
(b) Brihadeshwara Temple.
Answer:
(a) Chola lnscriptions—The inscription provide the following information about the Cholas.

  1. They give information about the Chola administration. For example, the Uttaramerur inscription gives information on the village administration, taxation and land revenue.
  2. They record gifts and endowments to temples and brahmanas. Copper-plate inscriptions are the records of grants of villages, plots of land or other privileges to individuals or institutions by the Cholas. For example, the Leyden grant (so called as they are preserved in the Museum of Leyden in Holland) of Parantaka Chola and those of Parakesari Uttama Chola are among the most important.
  3. They tell us about the construction of a temple or the setting up of a new image of the deity.
  4. Some inscriptions have preserved the decisions and agreements on matters of public importance. These include royal orders on taxation and land revenue resolutions of village assemblies, judgement delivered against persons guilty of theft, murder and other crimes.
  5. Inscriptions on temple walls served the purpose of a public registrations by conserving a record of sales, mortgages and other forms of transfers of property rights in village lands.

(b) Brihadeshwara Temple — The Brihadeshwara temple is the finest monument of a splendid period of South Indian history and the most beautiful specimen of Tamil architecture. The temple has been declared as a World Heritage Sity by UNESCO. It is one of the best specimens of Dravidian style of architecture. The main structure of the temple has a great building to temples. The taxes on land were collected by the officials from the village councils vimana (tower) and is crowned by a massive dome consisting of a single block of stone. The massive temple building is covered from the base to the top with sculptures and decorative  mouldings. The shrine houses a gigantic ShivaLingam, cut in a monolithic rock.

Question 2.
With reference to the Chola period explain the following”
(a) Taxes imposed by the Cholas.
(b) Administration of the Kingdom,
(c) The three types of village assemblies.
Answer:
(a)
The revenue of the Chola Kingdom came from taxes on land and produce of the land and tax on trade. Part of the revenue was kept for the king and the rest was used for public works.
(b)
The administration was highly organised and divided into central, provincial and local self governments in order to get better results.
(c)
The three types of village assemblies were as follows:

  1. ‘ur’ — the assembly of common villages.
  2. ‘Sabha’ — the assembly of Brahmins.
  3. ‘nagaram’ — the assembly of merchants

Question 3.
With reference to the Chola Administration, write short notes on:
(a) The King, the chief administrator
(b) Local Self-Government
Answer:
(a)
TheKing was the pivot of administration with the help of the council of ministers. The King also went on tours to observe the public problems.
(b)
Cholas were good administrators. They believed in local self-government. In many of the villages the administration was carried out, not by the government officials but by the villagers themselves. These villages had three types of village assemblies, namely, the ur, the sabha and the nagaram. There are long inscriptions on the walls of some of the village temples giving details of how the ur and sabha were organised.

Question 4.
Study the picture of the Brihadeshwara Temple and answer the following questions:
(a) W’ho built this temple ?
(b) To which deity is the temple dedicated ?
(c) Mention two special features of this temple.
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - South India and the Cholas
Answer:
(a) Brihadesh vara temple at Tanjavur was built by the Chola King Rajaraja-1.
(b) It is dedicated to Lord Shiv.
(c) The main structure of the temple has a great vimana or tower consisting of 13 successive stores rising to a height of 190 feet.
Its top is crowned by a massive dome of a single block of stone about 25 feet high and weighing about 80 tons.

Question 5.
With reference to the South Indian temples answer the following questions:
(a) The role of the temple as an employer.
(b)The role of the temple as a landlord.
(c) The role of the temple as centres of learning.
Answer:
(a)
The temple provided employment to large number of people in various types of works and means of livelihood to a large number of people. The temples used to take care of the welfare of its workers by providing food, clothing and housing facilities and by arranging proper education and establishing hospitals.
(b)
The temple owned large areas of land, so the temple authorities worked as big landlords.
(c)
Various types of people from different communities came together in the temple and discussed several matters of public problems and views. This resulted in the promotion of knowing and learning the various aspects of social structure and state of progress.

Question 6.
With reference to Chola literature, write on the following:
(a) Kalingattuparani
(b) Religious and secular literature.
Answer:
(a)
It is a 12th century poem and a war song by Jayankondar, the court poet of Kulottunga I. It is the most fascinating historical work in Tamil literature which celebrates the victory of Kulottunga Chola I over the Kalinga King, Anantavarman Chodaganga in the Chola-Kalinga war. It gives a vivid and a graphic description of battle scenes and also provides details about the route taken by Kulottunga’s army. It is hailed as one of the masterpieces of Tamil literature with its majestic styles and diction.
(b)
Tamil Ramayan and stories from Ramayana and Mahabharat are the religious literature. The secular literature are treaties on grammar by Buddhamitra and Rawankashi

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Age of the Guptas

ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics – The Age of the Guptas

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

Exercises

Question 1.
Name one literary and another archaeological source to reconstruct the Age of the Gupta’s.
Answer:

  1. Literary Source: Fa-hein visit to India.
  2. Archaeological Source: Allahabad Pillar Inscriptions.

Question 2.
Name the famous Inscription that tells us about the character and military achievements of Samudragupta.
Answer:
Allahabad Pillar Inscription

Question 3.
Which great conquest enabled Chandragupta II to carry the title of Sakari ?
Answer:
The Conquest of Gujarat and Kathiawar peninsula dominated by the Saka power, enabled Chandragupta II to carry the title of Sakari.

Question 4.
Who was Fa-hien ? What is the title of the book that he wrote about India ?
Answer:
Fa-hien was a Chinese pilgrim, who traveled all over India for more than 13 years. The title of the book that he wrote about India was, Fo-Kwo-Ki (The Travels of Fa-hien).

Question 5.
What did Fa-hien write about the City of Pataliputra ?
Answer:
Fa-hien wrote about the City of Pataliputra that the City had two grand monasteries-one of the Hinayana and other of the Mahayana. He noticed the usual grandeur of Ashoka’s Palace as such. People living there, were quite prosper by all means. There w:as an excellent hospital run by the wealthy citizens of the town. Rest-houses existed in large towns and on highways for the comforts of the travelers. The relations between the followers of various sects w’ere cordial. The people were honest and law-abiding. No uneven restrictions were imposed on them to move about anywhere in the City The criminal law was mild. Capital punishment was out of practice.

PQ. Which Gupta ruler defeated the Hunas ?
Answer: Skandagupta defeated the Hunas.

Question 6.
What does Fa-hien write about the life of the people during the Gupta age?
Answer:
Fa-hien writes that the bulk of the population during the Gupta age was vegetarian and usually followed the principle of Ahimsa (non-violence)
The caste-system prevailed and untouch ability had become an established institution in this age. The Chandalas occupied the lowest rank in society. They were outcasts and lived away from the people. They did menial jobs. When they approached a city or a market, they had to strike a piece of wood, so that others might avoid coming in contact with them.
Slavery also existed, although the Brahmins could not be owned as slaves. Women were educated in fine arts and domestic virtues. Widow-remarriage was viewed with disfavor. The practice of Devadasi was prevalent. In other words, some girls were being maintained to many temples for the service of Gods.

Question 7.
Who was the greatest literary genius of the Gupta period?
Answer:
Kalidasa was the greatest literary genius of the Gupta period.

Question 8.
Name two dramas and two epics written by Kalidasa.
Answer:
Malavikagnimitra and Vikramorvasiya are the two dramas written by Kalidasa. The two epics are—Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava.

Question 9.
Mention the contributions of Aryabhatta in the field of astronomy.
Answer:
Aryabhatta was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth is spherical in shape and he proved that the earth revolves around the sun on its own axis.

Question 10.
Name the famous astronomer of the Gupta period after whom an Indian Satellite was named.
Answer:
Aryabhatta.

Question 11.
Mention the important contributions  of Varahamihira.
Answer:
Varahamihira was a great scientist of the Gupta age, he wrote Brihat Samhita which deals with Astronomy, Mathematics, Botany and Physical Geography. He also wrote a famous book on different branches of Jyotishastra and another work Pancha Siddhantika, giving an account of the five systems of Astronomy.

Question 12.
Mention two famous temples of the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Dasavatara Temple, also known as Vishnu Temple, at Deogarh near Jhansi, and Bhitargaon Temple near Kanpur.

Question 13.
Metion two important architectural features of the Dasavatara (Vishnu) Temple at Deogarh.
Answer:
The Temple stands on a wide basement with a flight of steps in the middle of each side. It had a spire and its roof was supported by pillars.

Question 14.
The Provincial Governors during the reign of the Gupta were called by which names ?
Answer:
The provincial governors were usually the princes of royal blood. As governors, they were called Uparika Maharaja or Pradeshikas.

Question 15.
The Districts (Vishyas) were placed under whose charge during the rule of Guptas ?
Answer:
A Bhukti was divided into districts called Vishyas, which were ruled by Vishayapatis or Ayuktas. They were usually appointed by the Provincial Governor. Many other persons had position of authority in the district administration. They were Prathamkayastlia who wrote letters and documents, Pushtapal, the keeper of records and Nagarshresthi, that is, the Chief Banker.

Question 16.
Mention an important cause for the revival of Brahmanical religion in the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Gupta monarchs were staunch supporters of Brahmanism, they gave a strong impetus to the restoration and enhancement of their religion.

Question 17.
What is the importance of Panchatantra?
Answer:
It is a collection of stories which intended to teach moral lessons to children.

Question 18.
Name three important sciences which made great progress during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Astronomy, mathematics and medicine.

Question 19.
Mention the famous work on medicine written by Vriddha-Vagabhatta.
Answer:
Ashtang Sangrah.

Question 20.
Which Gupta ruler defeated the Hunas?
Answer:
Skandagupta defeated the Hunas.

Question 21.
Mention two pieces of evidence to show that the art of Sculpture excelled during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The statue of the Standing Buddha discovered at Mathura and the figure of the Great Boar done in relief at the entrance of the Cave at Udayagiri are the two pieces of evidence that show that the art of Sculpture excelled during the Gupta period.

Question 22.
What is known as Frescoes ?
Ans.
The paintings done on the walls are called Frescoes.

Question 23.
Mention two places famous for the art of painting during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Ajanta Caves in Maharashtra State and the Bagh Caves near Gwalior in Madhya Pradesh.

Question 24.
Mention two important features of the paintings at Ajanta.
Answer:
Two important features of the paintings at Ajanta are as follows:

  1. The rock walls were first plastered with a thick coating of clay, mixed with straw, gypsum and other materials. Then a thin layer of lime-plaster was applied to produce a glazed surface for making the painting more effective.
  2. On the glazed surface of the wall the outlines of the figures were drawn first. The artists used water colours.

Question 25.
Name the Chinese pilgrim who studied at the Nalanda University.
Answer:
Hiuen-Tsang was the Chinese pilgrim who studied at the Nalanda University.

Question 26.
Mention the extent of King Harsha’s empire.
Answer:
The extent of King Harsha’s empire included

  1. Eastern Punjab
  2. Kanauj (Uttar Pradesh)
  3. Magadha (Bihar)
  4. Bengal
  5. Orissa.

Question 27.
How can we say that Harshavardhana w as a patron of learning ?
Answer:
Matang Diwakar was the court-poet to Harshavardhana. His patronage to authors like—Banabhatta, who wrote Harshcharita, and Mayur, who wrote Suryashataka, shows his interest in literature. Harsha himself was a scholar and an author of three plays—Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarshika. Nalanda University was patronised by Harshavardhana.

Question 28.
Who wrote Harshcharita ?
Answer:
Banabhatta wrote Harshcharita.

Question 29.
Where was the Fifth Buddhist Assembly held ? Who presided over the Assembly’s deliberations ?
Answer:
The Fifth Buddhist Assembly was held at Kanauj, Hiuen-Tsang presided over the Assembly’s deliberations.

Question 30.
Mention the main conquests of Pulakesin II.
Answer:
Pulakesin II, ruled, from 608 AD to 642 AD. He conquered northern Konkan and the Gujarat ahd Malwa regions.

Question 31.
Whose reign marks the climax of the Pallava power ?
Answer:
The reign of Narasimhavarman marks the climax of the Pallava power.

Question 32.
Mention the main conquests of the Pallava ruler Narasimhavarman.
Answer:
Narasimhavarman conquered the Chalukya’s Capital Badami and occupied it. He defeated Cholas, the Cheras and the

Question 33.
Name the Inscription that refers to the achievements of King Kharvela of Kalinga.
Answer:
The Hathigumpha Inscription on the Udayagiri hills, near Bhubaneshwar in Orrissa.

Question 34.
Who converted Kanishka to Buddhism ?
Answer:
A Buddhist monk Asvaghosa converted Kanishka to Buddhism.

Question 35.
Name the two sects into which Buddhism got split during Kanishka’s reign.
Answer:
During Kanishka’s reign, Buddhism got split into Hinayana (Lesser Vehicle) and the Mahay an a (Great Vehicle).

Question 36.
Give one evidence to suggest that the sculptural art flourished during the reign of Satvahanas of Deccan.
Answer:
The sculptures of Amaravati and Nagarjuna konda Stupas.

Question 37.
Name a fine specimen of rock-cut architecture during the reign of the Satvahanas.
Answer:
The Chaitya at Karle.

Question 38.
Name the two main crafts that flourished during the Gupta age.
Answer:
Jewellery-making and sculpture flourished during the Gupta age.

Question 39.
Mention an important cause for the revival of Brahmanical religion in the Gupta period.
Answer:
The Gupta monarchs were staunch supporters of Brahmanism, they gave a strong impetus to the restoration and enhancement of their religion.

Question 40.
Mention-any one cause that led to the decline of the mighty Gupta empire.
Answer:
The repeated invasions of the Hunas led to the decline of the mighty Gupta empire. Pandyas. He also sent two naval expeditions to Sri Lanka to help Sri Lankan prince, Manavarman to gain the throne of that island.

Question 41.
Mention the literary works of Dandin.
Answer:
Dandin wrote Daskumarcharita and Kavyadarsha.

Question 42.
Name the literary work of Perundevanar.
Answer:
Perundevanar wrote Bharatam.

Question 43.
How many Rathas are found at Mahabalipuram?
Answer:
Eight Rathas are found at Mahabalipuram.

Question 44.
Name the ‘Pancha Pandava’ Rathas.
Answer:
Draupadi Ratha, Dharamaraja Ratha, Arjuna Ratha, Bhima Ratha and Sahadeva Ratha.

Question 45.
Name the largest and the smallest of the
Answer:
The largest Ratha is the Dharamaraja Ratha. The smallest Ratha is the Draupadi Ratha.

STRUCTURED QUESTIONS
Question 1.
There are many literary sources to reconstruct the Age of the Guptas. In this context explain the literary accounts of Fa-hien.
Answer:
Accounts of Fa-hien — Fa-hien, in his book Fo-Kwo-Ki (The Travels of Fa-hien) mentioned about life of the people and religious conditions that prevailed in the early years. According to Fa-hien, Magadha was a prosperous country with large towns, teeming with wealthy population. Pataliputra was a flourishing city with numerous charitable institutions, including a hospital endowed by benevolent citizens. According to Fa-hien, although the people were wealthy, they led simple lives, generally observing the Buddhist rules of conduct. Fa-hien has mentioned that Vaishnavism, Shaivism and even Buddhism and Jainism existed in the society. People, however,had no ill-will towards other sects. Fa-hien said that Hindu gods and goddesses were depicted on coins and also in sculptures and paintings. Fa-hien was pleased with the mildness of the administration. According to him, the penal code was mild and the offences were ordinarily punished by fines only. From his accounts, it can be inferred that the Gupta Empire was prosperous and governed on enlightened principles.

Question 2.
Regarding archaeological sources to reconstruct the Age of the Gupta, explain what significance do the following have:
(a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription (b) Nalanda University
Answer:
(a) The Allahabad Pillar Inscription:
Allahabad Pillar Inscription is one of the most epigraphic evidence of the Imperial Gupta. Achievements of different rulers of the Gupta image are mentioned in Allahabad Pillar Inscription. It gives a vivid description of the reign and conquest of Samudragupta. Historians, both ancient and modem, have considered the historical value of Allahabad Pillar. It provides a pretty impressive lest of Kings and tribal republic that were conquered by Samudragupta.

(b) Nalanda University:
It was the most renowned educational institution of ancient India. Located at Nalanda in Rajagriha in Bihar, it was originally set up by Sakraditya in the 5th century AD during the reign of Kumaragupta-I. The University of Nalanda had imposing buildings. There were at least 8 colleges built by different patrons including one by Balaputradeva, King of Sumatra. According to Hiuen Tsang the whole university area was enclosed by a brick wall. The Nalanda University provided various facilities to the students for their studies. There were three great libraries called Ratnasagar, Ratnodadhi and Ratnaranjak.

There were more than 10,000 students including teachers of all kinds. They came from Korea, Mongolia, Japan, China, Tibet, Ceylon and various parts of India. The subjects of study at Nalanda University were all the four Vedas, logic, grammar, medicine, samkya, yoga, nyaya and the Buddhist works of the different schools. It was not an ordinary university. It was a post-graduate institution to which admission was very difficult. Before admission, an examination was held in which hardly 20% students passed and the rest of 80% were rejected. Only the most brilliant were admitted to the University. Nalanda continued to be a beacon of light up to 12th century AD when it was destroyed by Mohammad-bin- Bakhtiyar Khilji, a general of Mohammad Ghori. Today only the remains of its magnificence and glory can be seen.

Question 3.
Samudragupta earned a reputation as one of the greatest kings and conquerors. In this context, explain:(a) His Conquests, (b) His Personal Attainments.
Answer:
Samudragupta earned a reputation as one of the greatest kings and conquerors. In this context, the given heads are explained below:
(a) His Conquests:
Samudra gupta first defeated the rulers of northern India and annexed their dominions. They included the Nagas of Mathura, Padmavati (near Gwalior) and Ahicchetra (the region in the neighborhood of Bareli) and the ruling chiefs of western Uttar Pradesh and eastern India. He won victories over twelve rulers including those of Orissa, Andhra and Tamil Nadu. He defeated these rulers, but did not annex their kingdoms. He allowed them to rule as tributaries of the Gupta empire. The rulers of Bengal, Assam, Nepal, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh got impressed by his victories and submitted of their own free-will and agreed to pay tributes to him.

(b) His Personal Attainments:
Besides a great conqueror, Samudragupta was also a scholar, a poet and a lover of music. He was called He worshiped Lord Vishnu, but he showed respect for all religions. He was also a patron of learning.

Question 4
The reign of Chandragupta n marks the zenith of the Gupta glory. In this context briefly describe his conquests and the extent of his Empire.
Answer:
In context of the reign of Chandragupta II the given headlines are described below:
Chandragupta II was determined to overthrow the Saka power in Gujarat and Kathiawar peninsula. With a view to pursuing his plan against the Sakas. He married Kubemaga, a Naga princess. He gave the hand of his daughter to Rudrasena II, the Vakataka prince. Thus, he secured the friendship of those rulers who could be of much service to him in his campaign against the Saka satraps. He attacked the Saka satraps. He conquered the Saka rulers and obtained the title of Sakari. He put an end to the domination of foreigners in India, but added rich areas and prosperous parts to the empire. He defeated a united front of his enemies in Vanga (Bengal) and his victorious arms reached the northern Afghanistan (Vahilkas).

Question 5.
The Gupta era witnessed an unprecedented intellectual progress. In this context explain:
(a) Enrichment of Sanskrit literature with reference to the works of Kalidasa and Visakhadutta.
(b) Technical and Scientific works of Aryabhatta
Answer:
In context of the unprecedented intellectual progress that the Gupta era witnessed, the given headlines are explained as under:
(a)
The Gupta age had been aptly called the “Golden Age of Sanskrit Literature”. In this period, the great poet and dramatist, Kalidasa made a significant contribution in the field of Sanskrit literature. Abhi janash akuntalam popularly known as Shakuntala, is the well-known masterpiece of him, it is regarded as one of the best literary productions of the world. Malavikagnimitra and Vikramorvasiya are two other excellent dramas written by him. His literary skill is also displayed in his two epics—Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhava and in the lyric poetry of Ritu Samhara and Visakhadutta was the another literary genius, he wrote the well known political drama Mudrarakshasa, in which he described the political revolution that led to the fall of the  Nanda Dynasty and the establishment of the Mauryan empire. Devichandraguptam was another play of him, dealing with the early life of Chandragupta II.

(b)
Aryabhatta was a great astronmer and mathematician. He wrote two famous works, the Aryabhatiya and Surya Siddhanta. The former deals with Arithmetic, Geometry, Algebra and Trigonometry. He worked out the exact value of 7i (pi) viz, 3.1416 and discovered a formula to find the area of a triangle. In this famous work Surya Siddhanta, he explained scientifically the causes of the solar and lunar eclipses. He was the first Indian astronomer to declare that the earth revolves around the sun and rotates on its own axis. India’s first satellite sent into space was named ‘Aryabhatta’ after this great astronomer.

Question 6.
With reference to Nalanda University answer the following questions:
(a) Under whose patronage did the University develop into a famous Center of Learning ?
(b) Give three of its special features ?
(c) Who destroyed this University ?
Answer:
(a)
Nalanda University —
It was the most renowned educational institution of ancient India. Located at Nalanda in Rajagriha in Bihar, it was originally set up by Sakraditya in the 5th century AD during the reign of Kumaragupta-I. The University of Nalanda had imposing buildings. There were at least 8 colleges built by different patrons including one by Balaputradeva, King of Sumatra. According to Hiuen Tsang the whole university area was enclosed by a brick wall.
(b)
The Nalanda University provided various facilities to the students for their studies. There were three great libraries called Ratnasagar, Ratnodadhi and Ratnaranjak. There were more than 10,000 students including teachers of all kinds. They came from Korea, Mongolia, Japan, China, Tibet, Ceylon and various parts of India. The subjects of study atNalanda University were all the four Vedas, logic, grammar, medicine, samkya, yoga, nyaya and the Buddhist works of the different schools. It was not an, ordinary university. It was a post-graduate institution to which admission was very difficult. Before admission, an examination was held in which hardly 20% students passed and the rest of 80% were rejected. Only the most brilliant were admitted to the University.
(c)
Nalanda continued to be a beacon of light up to 12th century AD when it was destroyed by Mohammad-bin-Bakhtiyar Khilji,-a general of Mohammad Ghori. Today only the remains of its magnificence and glory can be seen.

Question 7.
Study the picture given here and answer the following questions:
ICSE Solutions for Class 9 History and Civics - The Age of the Guptas 1
(a) Where is this Vishnu Temple located ?
(b) Which period does it belong to ?
(c) What are the three main structural features of the temple?
Answer:
(a) This is the Vishnu temple located at Deogarh. It is also known as the Dashavatara Temple.
(b) Gupta Period.
(c) The Sanchi temple, another temple in the Gupta period has a flat roof. The columns of the portico are surmounted by a bell capital. A large number of Stupas, Viharas and Chaityas were cut out of solid rocks.

Question 8.
The Pallava period recorded brilliant achievements in the fields of literature, art and architecture. In this context explain: Architectural features of the Dharmaraja Rath.
Answer:
The main features of Dharamaraja Rath are as fellows:

  1. Dharamaraja Ratha is a monolithic structure, carved out of a single boulder on the seashore.
  2. It resembles a Buddhist Vihara and Chaitya. Its base is square but the tower is pyramidal.
  3. The tower has three tiers and a small stupa on top of the spire.
  4. The Ratha is adorned with magnificent sculptures.

Question 9.
Harshavardhana not only brought the greater part of northern India under his direct rule, he also consolidated his dominions by efficient administrative machinery. In this context explain:
(a) His Conquests and Extent of his Empire
(b) His Administration.
Answer:
Harshavardhana consolidated his dominions by efficient administrative machinery in this context the given headlines are explained below:

(a)
His Conquests and Extent of his Empire: Harshavardhana became the ruler of Thanesar after he succeeded his elder brother Rajyavardhana. After becoming the king, he immediately decided to rescue his sister and punish Sasanka. He advanced with a huge army and inflicted a crushing defeat on the enemy. Harsha administered the government of Kanauj in the name of his sister. Later, the kingdom of Kanauj was combined with that of Thanesar and the union, thus formed, was developed into an empire by Harsha.Hiuen-Tsang, the Chinese pilgrim, said Harsha brought the Five Indies under his control.
These regions included

  1. Eastern Punjab,
  2. Kanuaj (Uttar Pradesh),
  3. Magadha (Bihar),
  4. Bengal and
  5. Orissa

He tried to expand his empire beyond the river Narmada, but he suffered a defeat at the hands of Pulakesin II, the Chalukya king. He died in 648 AD. He had no heir.

(b) His Administration: Harsha raised the small state into the most powerful kindgom in northern India. Hiuen-Tsang remarks, “the king personally supervised the affairs of his vast kingdom. The day was too short for him. ’’ His officials and state-functionaries, both civil and military, worked very efficiently. The outlying provinces were put in charge of Governors and the provinces were further subdivided into districts, called Visayas. The penal law was exceptionally severe. Imprisonment for life was a common penalty for breach of laws and conspiracy against the king. For offences against social morality, the punishment was to cut off nose or an ear or a hand or foot. Minor offences were punished by ordering offenders to pay a fine.

Question 10.
The Pallava period recorded brilliant achievements in the fields of literature, art and architecture. In this context explain:
(a) Their patronage to literature.
(b) Contributions in the field of architecture.
Answer:
In contex of the brilliant achievements in the fields of literature during the Pallava period, the given headlines are explained as under:
(a)
 Their patronage to literature: The Pallava rulers patronised Sanskrit scholars. Mahendravarman himself was a scholar and a musician. He wrote Prahasans (farces) – Mattavilasa and Dandin, who wrote Daskumaracharita and Kavyadarsha, lived in the court of Narasimhavarman II. Dinnaga Vatsayana the author of Nyayabhasya, was also associated with Kanchipuram, Sanskrit was the language of courts and men of literature, but Tamil became the vehicle for popular composition of devotional poetry. It received encouragement from the rulers. Perundevanar wrote Bharatam and a court-poet of King ; Nandivarman III composed Nandikalambalkam.

(b) Contributions in the field of architecture: Many magnificent temples were built by the Pallava kings. Under the Pallava rulers; of Kanchipuram, two forms of temple-architecture were evolved in the South-—the rock-cut’and the structural shrinks. The rock-cut architecture includes two types of shrines—the Mandapas and the Rathas. Mandapas are open pavilions with one or more cells in the back-wall. This type of architecture is found in places like—Pallavaram, Trichinopoly and Dalavanur. Rathas are monolithic shrines. The best examples of monolithic shrines or Rathas are found at Mahabalipuram in Tamilnadu.

Question 11.
Study the picture of Dharmaraja Ratha and answer the following questions:
(a) Name the place and the State where the Ratha is located ?
(b) Under which Dynasty and in whose reign was the Ratha built ?
(c) When was it built ?
(d) Mention three architectural features of the
Answer:
On the basis of study of the picture of Dharmaraja Ratha, the given questions are answered as under:
(a) 
Mahabalipuram in Tamilnadu.
(b) Under the Pallava dynasty, King Narasimhavarman builtthe Ratha.
(c) It was built in the 7th century AD
(d) The temple is monolithic;

  1. Carved from a single massive granite stone, it resembles a Buddhist Vihara and Its base is square, but the tower is pyramidal;
  2. The tower has three tiers and a small stupa on top of the spire.

Question 12.
With reference to the Gupta administration, mention briefly: The position of the King and his Ministers.
Answer:
With reference to the Gupta administration, the given headlines are explained ahead

The position of the King and his Ministers: The Guptas discarded the modest title of Rajan and assumed titles like—Maharajadhiraja, Parambhattaraka and Paramadaivata. An important feature of the period was the emphasis on divine character of kingship. Titles such as ‘Paramadaivata’ raised rulers to the level of Gods. Several ministers assisted the king in the task of administration. The Mantri stood at the head of civil administration. Other important officials included the Senapati (General of the Army), the Chief of the Palace Guards and Sandhivigrahika that is, the Minister for foreign affairs.

ADDITIONAL QUESTIONS
Short Answer Questions:

Question 1.
When did Fa-hien visit India? Who was the ruler at that time ?
Answer:
Fa-hien started his journey from China in AD 399 and reached India in AD 405 and stayed in India up to 411. Chandragupta II was the ruler at that time.

Question 2.
During whose reign Hiuen Tasang visited India ?
Answer:
Hiuen Tasang visited India during the reign of Harsha.

Question 3.
Name the three dramas written by Kalidasa.
Answer:
The three dramas written by Kalidasa were Malavikagnimitram, Abhij nanshakuntalam and V ikramorvashiyam.

Question 4.
Why is the Gupta Period known as the Golden Age of Indian culture ?
Answer:
The Gupta Period is remarkable for all-around development in ideal administration, art, culture, economy, medicines, literature, education, astronomy etc. The famous universities of Taxila and Nalanda near Rawalpindi and in Bihar respectively. The temple of Bhitrigaon in Kanpur, Bhitari temple in Gazipur, Deogarh temple in Jhansi are examples of five architect. Aryabhatta, a famous astronomer and mathematician, Varahmibira, Brahmagupta was eminent astronomers. Charaka and Sushruta were excellent scholars of Ayurveda. The ‘Iron Pillar’ in New Delhi is the proof of high level metallurgy due to its high quality iron. Highly talented poets were Kalidas, Sudraka, Bhasa, Harishena, Dandin Subandhu, Bharavi, Banbhatta, Vishnusharma (writer of Panchatantra). Besides this, Puranas and Bhagvata Gita were written in this period. So it was the golden period of Indian culture, undoubtedly.

Question 5.
How was Samudragupta a bold and great conqueror ?
Answer:
Samudragupta was a brave conqueror. He defeated many rulers. His empire extended from Yamuna and Chambal in the west to Brahmaputra in the east. He was known as the ‘Napoleon of India’.

Question 6.
Who was Fa-hien ? What did he say about India ?
Answer:
The Chinese traveller Fa-hien, visited India at the time of Chandragupta-II (Vikramaditya). He was deeply impressed by the ideal and mild administration affected by Buddhism, economic prosperity of Pataliputra and Magadha, simplicity of the people. He had also mentioned about the versatile religions including Vaishnavism, Shaivism, Shaktism, Buddhism and Jainism etc.

Question 7.
Name two renowned Sanskrit authors and their important works during the Gupta period.
Answer:
Kalidasa: The famous poet of Vikramaditya’s court, wrote famous poetic works, e.g. Ritusamhara, Raghuvamsa. Sudraka: He wrote dramatic work ‘Mrichchhakatika’ or the ‘Little Clay Cart’, throwing light on socio-economic life of the people with a sense of humor.

Question 8.
Name two famous universities tliat existed during the Gupta period ?
Answer:
Two famous universities were Taxila near Rawalpindi and Nalanda university in Bihar.

Question 9.
Name any two titles adopted by the Gupta rulers ?
Answer:
‘Maharajadhiraja’ and ‘Napoleon of India’ were the two titles adopted by Gupta rulers.

Question 10.
Name the officer who collected the toll tax during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The officer who collected the toll tax during the Gupta period was known as ‘Shaulkika’

Question 11.
Name the officer who was in charge of a province or bhukti during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The officer who was incharge of a province or bhukti during the Gupta period was called Vishayapati.

Question 12.
What contribution did Aryabhatta and Varahamihira make in the field of science, astronomy and mathematics ?
Answer:
Aryabhatta discovered zero decimal system and calculated the value of pi (3.1416) and area of triangle in mathematics; movement of earth and sun in the astronomy. Varahamihira invented that the moon moves around the earth and studied the movement of planets.

Question 13.
What was the chief architectural feature of the brick temple at Bhitrigaon ?
Answer:
This temple dates back to 5th century AD. The temple has a pyramidal roof and its outer walls are decorated with statues and figures. There is a Shivalinga placed in the Garbagriha. The chief architectural feature is the arch, the curved structure supporting the weight of the roof.

Question 14.
Give two distinguishing features of Ajanta and Bagh paintings.
Answer:
Ajanta and Bagh paintings are very impressive and lively with human faces, limbs drawn with grace and action along with flowers and birds depicting living action views.

II. Structured Questions.

Question 1.
With reference to the sources of information about the Gupta Age, write short notes on the following:
(a) Accounts of Fa-hien
(b)The Allahabad Pillar Inscription
(c) Nalanda University
Answer:
(a)
Accounts of Fa-hien
— Fa-hien, in his book Fo-Kwo- Ki (The Travels of Fa-hien) mentioned about life of the people and religious conditions that prevailed in the early years. According to Fa-hien, Magadha was a prosperous country with large towns, teeming with wealthy population. Pataliputra was a flourishing city with numerous charitable institutions, including a hospital endowed by benevolent citizens. According to Fa-hien, although the people were wealthy, they led simple lives, generally observing the Buddhist rules of conduct. Fa-hien has mentioned that Vaishnavism, Shaivism and even Buddhism and Jainism existed in the society. People, however, had no ill-will towards other sects. Fa-hien said that Hindu gods and goddesses were depicted on coins and also in sculptures and paintings.Fa-hien was pleased with the mildness of the administration. According to him, the penal code was mild and the offences were ordinarily punished by fines only. From his accounts, it can be inferred that the Gupta Empire was prosperous and governed on enlightened principles.
(b)
The Allahabad Pillar Inscription
 — Allahabad Pillar Inscription is one of the most epigraphic evidences of the Imperial Gupta. Achievements of different rulers of the Gupta image are mentioned in Allahabad Pillar Inscription. It gives a vivid description of the reign and conquest of Samudra- gupta. Historians, both ancient and modem, have considered the historical value of Allahabad pillar. It provides a pretty impressive lest of Kings and tribal republic that were conquered by Samudragupta.
(c)
Nalanda University
—It was the most renowned educational institution of ancient India. Located at Nalanda in Rajagriha in Bihar, it was originally set up by Sakraditya in the 5th century AD during the reign of Kumaragupta-I. The University of Nalanda had imposing buildings. There were at least 8 colleges built by different patrons including one by Balaputradeva, King of Sumatra. According to Hiuen Tsang the whole university area was enclosed by a brick wall.The Nalanda University provided various facilities to the students for their studies. There were three great libraries called Ratnasagar, Ratnodadhi and Ratnaranjak. There were more than 10,000 students including teachers of all kinds. They came from Korea, Mongolia, Japan, China, Tibet, Ceylon and various parts of India.The subjects of study at Nalanda University were all the four Vedas, logic, grammar, medicine, samkya, yoga, nyaya and the Buddhist works of the different schools.It was’ not an ordinary university. It was a post-graduate institution to which admission was very difficult. Before admission, an examination was held in which hardly 20% students passed and the rest of 80% were rejected. Only the most brilliant were admitted to the University. Nalanda continued to be a beacon of light upto 12th century AD when it was destroyed by Mohammad-bin-Bakhtiyar Khilji, ageneral of Mohammad Ghori. Today only the remains of its magnificence and glory can be seen.

2. With reference to the Age of the Guptas, answer the following questions.
Question 2(a).
Explain the extent of samudragupta’s Empire based on the information given in the Allahabad Pillar Inscription.
Answer:
The Allahabad Pillar Inscription of Samudragupta describes four different kinds of rulers and tells us about Samudragupta’s policies towards them:

  1. The nine rulers of Aryavarta were up rooted and their kingdoms were made a part of Samudragupta’s empire.
  2. The twelve rulers of Dakshinpatha (South India), who surrendered to Samudra gupta after being defeated, were liberated and allowed to rule again over their kingdoms.
  3. The inner circle of neighboring states, including Assam, Coastal Bengal, Nepal and a number of gana sanghas (organisation of many kings) in the north-west. They brought tribute, followed his ordered and attended his court.
  4. The rulers of the outlying areas, who submitted to him and offered their daughters in marriage

Question 2(b).
Explain how Chandragupta II expanded his empire.
Answer:
Chandragupta II inherited the military genius of his father and extended the Gupta empire by conquest of his own. He annexed the territories of Sakas of Malwa, Gujarat and Saurashtra. For this he was given the title ‘ Sakari’ or conqueror of Sakas. According to noted historian, Dr. Vincent Smith, “the annexation of Saurashtra and Malwa not only added to the empire, provinces of exceptional wealth and fertility, but opened up access to the ports of the western coast; and thus placed Chandragupta II in direct touch with the seaborne commerce with Europe through Egypt.” Chandragupta-II entered into matrimonial alliances as a part of his foreign policy. He married Kuberanaga of the Naga family. The Nagas were a powerful ruling clan and this matrimonial alliance helped the Gupta ruler in expanding his empire. The marriage of Chandragupta’s daughter, Prabhavati with the Vakataka ruler, Rudrasena II helped him to establish his political influence in the Deccan.

3.With reference to the administrative system of the Guptas, answer the following questions:
Question 3(a).
Explain the position and powers of the king during the Gupta Age.
Answer:
The Gupta kings enjoyed a large number of powers which covered the political, administrative, military and judicial fields. They were the commanders-in-chief of the army. Samundragupta, Chandragupta II and Skandagupta personally led their armies. The kings appointed all the governors and important military and civil officers. The governors and their officers had to work under the control and guidance of the king. The central secretariat also worked under the supervision of the king. The king was the source of all honors and titles. All land in the country was the property of the king. He could construct dams, give shelter to foreigners, impose, recover and remit taxes and give justice. If any property was unclaimed, that went into the coffers of the king.

Question 3(b).
Describe briefly the administration of villages during the Gupta period.
Answer:
The village administration was managed by the village headman. The Gupta inscriptions refer to the participation of leading local elements in the administration of the village or small towns called vithis. No land transactions could be effected without their consent and this may have been also true of other important affairs.

4. With reference to Golden Age of Indian Culture answer the following questions.
Question 4(a) .
Briefly describe growth of Sanskrit literature.
Answer:
Sanskrit became the language of the learned and retained its supreme position for a thousand years. Guptas made Sanskrit official language for administrative purposes. They used Sanskrit instead of Prakrit in their inscriptions. Sanskrit was used in official documents as well as in inscriptions. The classical Sanskrit literature that flowered during the Gupta period consisted of epics, poetry, drama, lyrics and prose.

Question 4(b).
Give an account of the contribution of Aryabhatta,Varahamihira and Brahmagupta.                   ‘
Answer:
Aryabhatta (AD 471-500) — He wrote two famous books Aryabhattiyam and Surya Siddhanta. He told that the earth moves round the sun. He also discovered the rule for finding the area of a triangle. He calculated the exact value of pi which was equal to 3.1416. The credit for development of trigonometry should actually go to him. Aryabhatta was acquainted with the decimal system and use of ‘zero’. The decimal system has numbers from 1 to 9 and zero. Varahamihira — He composed two famous books Panch Siddhantika and Brihat Samhita. He proved that moon rotates round the earth and earth rotates round the sun. He also studied movements of planets. Brahmagupta — He wrote Brahma Sphutic Siddhanta and described law of gravitation, several centuries before Newton. This system is now in use throughout the world.

Question 4(c).
Describe the progress in medicine during this period.
Answer:
Ayurvedic medicines were created by Charak and Sushruta in the 2nd century A.D., which are still today the basic promoter of herbal medicines e.g. ‘Chyavanprash’ and various digestive medicines.