ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Rise and Spread of Islam

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics – Rise and Spread of Islam

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 History & CivicsGeographyMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

Important Words

  • Mecca was the town in Arabia where Prophet Muhammad was bom. It is a holy place for Muslims.
  • Medina was the town to which Prophet Muhammad and his followers shifted in 622 CE.
  • Hijrat marks the departure of Prophet Muhammad from Mecca to Median in 622 CE.
  • Hijri is the Muslim calendar which begins from the year 622 CE.
  • Abu Bakr was the faithful friend and follower of Prophet Muhammad, who was selected as the Prophet’s successor after his death.
  • Khalifa or Caliph means successor of the Prophet. It was the title given to the head of the Muslim community in medieval times.
  • AI Beruni was a Muslim scholar who came to India with Mahmud of Ghazni. His book is a rich source of information about India culture, philosophy and scientific achievements of the period.

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Prophet Muhammad was bom at Mecca in AD 570.
  2. Muslims worship only one God Allah.
  3. Muhammad preached against idol worship.
  4. Prophet Muhammad’s successors were known as Caliphs or Khalifas.
  5. The greatest king of Abbasid dynasty was Harun-Al-Rashid.

II. Match Column A with Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 2

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. Muhammad was born at Medina.
     False.Muhammad was born at Mecca.
  2. He shifted from Mecca to Medina in AD 615.
    False. He shifted from Mecca to Medina in AD 622.
  3. A Muslim should not worship an idol.
     True.
  4. Abu Bakr was the last Khalifa.
    False.Ali Bakr was the last Khalifa.
  5. The Ottoman Turks Captured Constantinople in AD 1480.
    False.The Ottoman Turks Captured Constantinople in AD 1453.

IV. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Discuss the early life of Muhammad.
Answer:
Until mid-life, Prophet Muhammad lived the life of a prosperous trader. In AD 610, Muhammad had his spiritual experience and became a prophet. Fie called himself the messenger of the supreme being – Allah, whose message he had to spread. He preached against idol worship. Arabia at that time was ruled by a number of tribes, who worshiped many gods and performed many rites and sacrifices. They did not like Muhammad’s teachings. Muhammad was forced to leave Mecca and moved to Medina in AD 622 with his followers. This year of ‘Emigration’ is known as Hijrat.

Question 2.
Describe the teachings of Muhammad.
Answer:
Some of the main teachings of Prophet Muhammad are the following:

  1. God is one and he is all powerful, all wise and all merciful.
  2. Idol worship is a curse and everybody should shirk doing it.
  3. The Koran is a Divine book and its authority is unquestionable.
  4. Islam believes that sinners will go to hell and the good and faithful will go to heaven.
  5. All men are equal and there is no question of superiority of inferiority.
  6. The Prophet enjoined upon his followers to perform the five duties of ‘Raima’, ‘Namaz’, ‘Zaqaat’, ‘Ramzan’ and ‘Haji’.
  7. One must treat the slaves kindly and leniently.
  8. The women should be given kind treatment but they must observe ‘purdah’.
  9. One must abstain from drinking, gambling etc. and practise justice and respect for elders.

Question 3.
What are the five main religious obligations of Islam.
Answer:
A Muslim has five religious obligation, called the five pillars.They are:

  1. Shahada (Confession of Faith): A Muslim’s most essential obligation is to repeat “There is no God but Allah’ Mohammad is His Prophet.”
  2. Salat (Prayer): He must offer prayers (namaaz) five times everyday and on Friday afternoons in a mosque.
  3. Zakaat (Alms Giving): He must give alms to the poor as an offering to Allah and a religious act.
  4. Sawm or Siyam (Fasting): Muslims must keep fast from dawn to dusk during Ramadan (Ramzan), the ninth month of their lunar year.
  5. Haj (Pilgrimage to Mecca): Once in his lifetime, every Muslim who is financially and physically able, must travel to Mecca. This pilgrimage is called

Question 4.
Discuss the spread of Islamic civilisation after the passing away of Prophet Muhammad.
Answer:
Muhammad’s successors were known as Caliphs or Khalifas and they were both religious and political leaders of Muslims. The caliphs who succeeded Muhammad were Abu Bakr, Umar, Usman and Ali. Within a short period of just one century, the Khalifas and their generals conquered Iran, Syria, Egypt, Central Asia, North Africa and Spain.

Question 5.
Describe the main contributions of the Umayyads and the Abbasids.
Answer:
The main contributions of the Umayyad Dynasty are:

  1. The capital of Islam was moved to Damascus, Syria
  2. Expansion of Islam touched the regions of India, China, North Africa, and Spain
  3. Arabic became the official language.
  4. Arabian currency was used in the Empire
  5. Roads were built
  6. Postal routes were created.

The main contributions of the Abbasids Dynasty are:

  1. The Abbasids established their capital at Baghdad, near the ruins of the ancient Iranian metropolis, Ctesiphon.
  2. The army and bureaucracy were reorganised on a non- tribal basis to ensure greater participation by Iraq and Khurasan.
  3. The Abbasid rulers strengthened the religious status and functions of the caliphate and patronised Islamic institutions and scholars.
  4. They maintained the magnificent imperial architecture and elaborate court ceremonials of the Umayyads.

Additional Questions
(Rise and Spread of Islam)

A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Prophet Muhammad, the founder of Islam, was bom in Mecca in the year 570 ce.
  2. Muhammad forbade idol worship and stressed the importance of God and kind behaviour.
  3. The two holy places of the Muslims are Mecca and Medina.
  4. Ans. Muhammad was succeeded by Abu Bakr, who was known as Caliph. He transformed the Arabs into an excellent fighting force and inspired them to carry the word of Allah throughout the world.
  5. The first Arab expedition to India took place in 712 ce under the leadership of Muhammad bin Qasim.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 3
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 4

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 5

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. As a young man, Muhammad worked as a trader/farmer/ craftsman.
    Ans. As a young rhan, Muhammad worked as a trader.
  2. During Muhammad’s time, the Arabs were divided into a number of kingdoms/tribes/empires.
    Ans. During Muhammad’s time, the Arabs were divided into a number of tribes.
  3. Muslims must say their prayers four/five/six times a day.
    Ans. Muslims must say their prayers five times a day.
  4. The Abbasid Caliphs shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Medina/Mecca/Baghdad.
    Ans. The Abbasid Caliphs shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Baghdad.
  5. The Arab traders established trade settlements on the eastern/western/southern coast of India.
    Ans. The Arab traders established trade settlements on the western coast of India.

D. State whether the following are true or false:

  1. The Medieval Period in India stretches from the 8th century CE to the 16th century
    False.
    Correct : The Medieval Period in India stretches from the 8th century CE to the 18th century ce.
  2. Before the rise of Islam, the Arabs practised idol worship.
    True.
  3. The Arab empire under the Abbasid Caliphs was one of the most powerful and enlightened regions in the world.
    True.
  4. The occupation of Sind ended with the death of Muhammad bin Qasim.
    True.
  5. In the 9th century ce, the power of the Caliphs declined.
    True.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

1. Where was Prophet Muhammad born?
Ans. Prophet Muhammad was bom in Mecca

2.What important event took place in Muhammad’s life around 610 ce?
Ans. When Muhammad was about forty years old, he had a vision of God, who revealed to him the-divine message, to carry the word of God or Allah to the people of Mecca. He declared that Allah was the one and only God and Muhammad was his Prophet. This gave way to a new religion called Islam.

3.What does the term Hijrat mean?
Ans. Hijrat marks the departure of Prophet Muhammad from Mecca to Medina in 622 ce.

4.What title did Abu Bakr assume after he succeeded Prophet Muhammad?
Ans. Abu Bakr took the title of Khalifa or Caliph.

5.Under whose reign did the Arabs achieve their greatest heights of intellectual and cultural excellence?
Ans. The greatest intellectual and cultural excellence was seen during the reign of the Abbasid Caliphs.

6.Why was the House of Wisdom established?
Ans. The house of Wisdom was set up in Baghdad as it was advised by Prophet Muhammad to pursue learning among Arabs. So Baghdad become the place of wisdom where various ancient civilizations such as Greek, Byzantine, Egyptian, Chinese, Indian and Persian were translated into Arabic.

7.Which Arab city became the preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world?
Ans. Baghdad became the repository and preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world.

8.What were the chief items of export and import in India’s trade relations with the Arabs?
Ans. The chief items of export during India’s trade relations with the Arabs were Pepper. Muslin, Indigo etc. and import were luxury items and fine Arabian horses.

9. Why were the Indians not receptive to Arab learning and civilization during this period?
Ans. The spirit of exclusiveness among the Hindus made them reject foreign cultural influence. The Hindus believed that no other country on earth but theirs had any knowledge of Science. Hence, they were not receptive to the rich treasures of Arabic learning and civilization.

10.Name any one independent state established by the Turks in Central Asia.
Ans. Two independent states established by the Turks in Central Aisa were Ghazni and Ghor.

F. Answer the following questions briefly:

Question 1.
Why did Muhammad shift from Mecca to Medina? Discuss the events that followed this move.
Answer:
Muhammad forbade idol worship and stressed the importance of good and kind behaviour. His teachings angered the rich Arabs, and Muhammad and his small band of followers were forced to shift to Medina in 622 ce. Muhammad’s move from Mecca to Medina is known as Hijrat.

Question 2.
State the main principles of Islam.
Answer:
The main principles of Islam:

  1. There is only one God and Muhammad is his Prophet, (z’z) Muslims must turn towards Mecca and say their prayers five times a day.
  2. They must fast from dawn to dusk during the holy month of Ramzan.
  3. They must help the poor and needy by giving away a portion of their wealth in charity.
  4. They must make a pilgrimage to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 3.
The greatest intellectual and cultural excellence was seen during the reign of the Abbasid Caliphs. Discuss.
Answer:
The Abbasids shifted the Caliphate from Damascus to Baghdad (capital of modem Iraq). For the next 150 years, the Arab empire under the Abbasids emerged as one of the most powerful, prosperous and enlightened regions in the world. The Arabs absorbed and assimilated the best of what other cultures and civilizations had to offer in terms of ideas, skills and scientific knowledge.
Muhammad had advised the Arabs to pursue learning. One of the Abbasid Caliphs established a House of Wisdom at Baghdad to translate into Arabic the collective wisdom of various ancient civilizations such as the Greek, Byzantine, Egyptian, Chinese, Indian and Persian civilizations. Baghdad became the repository and preserve of the rich cultural heritage of the ancient world.

Question 4.
What knowledge did the Arabs gather from
(a) Indian and
(b) various other ancient civilizations?
Answer:
(a)
The Arabs, learnt a great deal from the ancient Indian civilization. Knowledge of Indian mathematics, medicine, astronomy, philosophy and the art of administration were assimilated by the Arabs, leading to further enrichment of the Arab civilization and culture.
(b)
Knowledge absorbed and assimilated by Arab scholars from different civilizations

  1. Chinese:
    • Art of paper making,
    • Glass making techniques,
    • Use of mariner’s compass.
  2. Greeks:
    • Geometry.
  3. Persian:
    • Astronomy.
  4. Indians:
    • Mathematical theories
    • medicine
    • Astronomy
    • Philosophy
    • Administration

G Picture study:
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 History and Civics - Rise and Spread of Islam 6

This is a picture of a mosque where Muslims go to pray

Question 1.
Name (a) their religion (b) their holy book and (c) the founder of their religion.
Answer:
(a) Islam, (b) Quran Sharif, (c) Prophet Muhammad.

Question 2. Name the two holy places of the Muslim.
Answer:
(a) Mecca (b) Medina

Question 3.
Why does the Muslim calendar begin from the year 622 ce?
Answer:
Muhammad and his small band of followers were forced to flee to Medina in 622 ce. Muhammad’s departure from Mecca to Medina is known as hijrat. The Muslim calendar, hijri, begins from that year.

Question 4.
Mention any four important principles of the religion.
Answer:
The main four principles of Islam are as follows:

  1. There is only one God and Muhammad is His Prophet.
  2. Muslims must say their prayers five times a day.
  3. They must help the poor and needy by giving away a portion of their wealth in charity.
  4. They must make a pilgrimage to Mecca at least once in their lifetime.

Question 5.
Briefly describe the role of Abu Bakr in the spread of the this religion.
Answer:
Abu Bakr mobilized and transformed the Arabs into an excellent fighting force. He and his successors inspired the Arab armies to sweep across countries and continents and carry the word of Allah throughout the world. Inspired by missionary zeal, these invincible and extraordinary Arab armies conquered vast territories. Their empire stretched over Iran, Syria, Central Asia, North Africa and Spain.

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Mineral and Power Resources

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Mineral and Power Resources

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks with the correct answer.

  1. The northern parts of North America are colder than the southern parts.
  2. The South Westerlies cause rain throughout the year along the north – west coast in the northern part of North America.
  3. The Alaskan Current warms the Alaskan Coast and keeps it frost-free in winter.
  4. The tropical regions mainly experience rainfall in the summer season.
  5. The prairies are a vast stretch of tall grasses.

B. Match the following
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 1
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 2

C. Select the appropriate term from the list given below to fill in the blank after each statement

  • the prairies
  • chaparral
  • the taiga
  • the tundra
  • Mediterranean climate
  1. An extremely cold region which is treeless, the tundra.
  2. A vast stretch of coniferous forests in the cool temperate latitudes, the taiga.
  3. The only climate in North America which gets winter rain. Mediterranean climate.
  4. Grasslands where the bison are nearing extinction. The Prairies.
  5. The scrub-like vegetation found in coastal California. Chaparral.

D. Differentiate between each of the following pairs.

Question 1.
Cool temperate east coast and west coast climates
Answer:
Cool temperate east coast:

  1. The cool temperate East coast experiences milder summer and winter due to the influence of the oceans.
  2. The region receives abundant rainfall throughout the year, which is more than that received in the cool temperate climatic region.

West coast climates :

  1. The cool temperate west coast type experiences summer warms and dry while winters are mild and wet.
  2. Receive abundant rainfall throughout the year brought by the Westerly winds.

Question 2.
Warm temperate west coast and east coast climates.
Answer:
Temperate west coast :
This climate type is found just south of the cool temperate west coast climatic region, along a narrow belt on the west coast in California.

  • Here, summers are warm and dry, while winters are mild and wet.
  • The region comes under the influence of the Westerlies in winter.

East coast climates :

  • In this climatic region, summers are warm and winters are mild. Rainfall occurs all year round, but mostly in summer brought by the North-East. Trade Winds blowing from the Atlantic Ocean. The rainfall gradually decreases westwards. The south-eastern part of the continent and the coastal areas around the Gulf of Mexico in the USA experience this type of climate.

Question 3.
Deciduous and coniferous vegetation.
Answer:
Differences between deciduous and coniferous vegetation
Deciduous :

  1. They have broad leaves.
  2. All trees of one species shed their leaves once a year in the dry season so trees are bare for some time.
  3. They yield hardwood.
  4. They have wide trunks with wide spread branches at the top.

Coniferous :

  1. They have needle – like leaves.
  2. The trees do not shed their leaves in any particular season so the forests appear green at all times.
  3. They yield softwood.
  4. They have tall, slender trunks, wider at the base and tapering at the top.

E. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
How does the latitudinal extent of North America affect its climate ?
Answer:
North America lies within the temperate zone. Some parts in the north of the continent lie in the frigid zone. So the northern part of the continent is colder than the southern part.

Question 2.
Identify the winds that bring summer rainfall and winter rainfall to North America.
Answer:
North-East Trade Winds and South Westerlies bring rainfall in North America. The North-East Trade Winds bring heavy rainfall to the east coast and southern parts of North America during summer. The South Westerlies, coming from the Pacific Ocean, bring rain throughout the year to places in the north-west of North America and winter rain to places in south-west North America.

Question 3.
Why does the Alaskan Coast remain frost-free in the winter season ?
Answer:
The Gulf Stream in the south-east and the Alaskan Current in the north-west are warm currents. The coastal parts of Alaska are frost-free even in winter because of the Alaskan Current.

Question 4.
Which areas of North America experience the cool temperate or mid-latitude continental type of climate ? Name the type of natural vegetation found here.
Answer:
The interior of North America in the middle latitudes. The southern part of central Canada and the northern part of central USA experience this climate which is characterized by warm summers and cool and cold winters. This region receives moderate rainfall in summer and snow in winter.
The natural vegetation of this region is adapted to withstand the drought conditions. The cork oak, olive, Mediterranean pine, laurel, and cedar are the trees found in this region. Fruit trees such as orange, peach, apricot, lemon, and walnut thrive.

Question 5.
Bring out the difference between the wildlife of the tropical and taiga forests of North America.
Answer:
The tropical regions of Central America have hardwood vegetation consisting mainly of mahogany, palms, rubber, and cocoa trees. These forests are dense and large animals are rare. Instead a variety of birds, monkeys, insects, and reptiles thrive in these forests.

Question 6.
Name the areas of important coal deposits in North America.
Answer:
Coal is mainly found in the Appalachians and is of the high grade bituminous and anthracite variety. Northeastern Pennsylvania, Kentucky, Illinois, and West Virginia are some important coal producing centres. Large deposits of coal are also found in the Rockies of Colorado, Wyoming, and Montana.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
How do the mountain ranges affect the climate of North America ?
Answer:
In North America, both the Western Cordilleras and the Eastern Highlands extend in a north-south direction parallel to the coast. Thus, in winter, the cold winds from the tundra region can easily reach the interior of the continent as there is no east-west range to block it.
Likewise, in summer, the warm winds from the torrid zone raise the temperature of places situated in the temperate latitudes. The direction of the mountain ranges also cuts off the interior central plains from the maritime influence of the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.

Question 2.
Write about the climatic characteristics of the hot desert type of climate in North America.
Answer:
The desert climate is mainly found in northern Mexico and in the south-west of the USA.
Where the influence of the rain-bearing Westerlies and the North-East Trade Winds is not felt, a dry climate with very hot summers and little or no rainfall is experienced.

Question 3.
The vegetation of North America is closely related to the climatic conditions. Explain this statement and give examples from any two regions.
Answer:
The great variety of climates has resulted in a great variety of vegetation in North America—tropical forests in Central America, desert vegetation in Mexico and southern USA, Mediterranean vegetation along the Californian Coast, coniferous forests in Canada, and tundra vegetation in the areas of Arctic climate.

Question 4.
Where are the prairies situated ? What are the major human activities in this region ?
Answer:
The prairies are the natural vegetation of the interior parts of North America in the cool temperate latitudes. Very little summer rainfall can support only the rich, tall grasses, which occur in vast stretches. Cattle rearing is, therefore, the main occupation here. But at several places, the grass has been replaced by wheat farms, another major occupation of the region.

Question 5.
Describe the climate and vegetation of the Mediterranean climate region of North America.
Answer:
The west coast of North America, especially the Californian Coast, experiences hot dry summers and cool wet winters. So, the natural vegetation of this region is adapted to withstand the drought conditions. The cork oak, olive, Mediterranean pine, laurel, and cedar are the trees found in this region. Fruit trees such as orange, peach, apricot, lemon, and walnut thrive. Fruit orchards have replaced much of the original scrub-like vegetation called chaparral.

Question 6.
What is natural gas ? What are its uses ?
Answer:
Natural gas is a mixture of hydrocarbons such as methane, ethane, and propane. It is usually found together with petroleum in the same region. It is an important fuel and is used for lighting, heating and generating electricity for industrial and domestic use. Nowadays natural gas is transported by pipelines and in special tankers or barges as liquefied natural gas.

Question 7.
North America has vast water power resources. Explain.
Answer:
North America also has vast water power resources. Large dams have been constructed across rivers such as the Columbia, the Tennessee and the Colorado to produce hydroelectric power. Many power projects have also been developed in the Appalachian and the Rocky Mountains. The Niagara Falls provide water power to both Canada and the USA.

G Map work.
On a blank outline map of North America, do as directed

Question 1.
Show with black arrows the North-East Trade Winds and the South Westerlies.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 3

Question 2.
Use red arrows to show the warm ocean currents and blue arrows to show the cold currents that wash the shores of North America in the east and the west.
Answer:
See answer Q.1. above

Question 3.
Make a key and show with different colours the different climates found in North America.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 4

Question 4.
In each of the above climatic regions write the name/ names of the tree species that thrive there.
Answer:

  1. Arctic or tundra – Mosses, lichens grasses and dwarf bushes.
  2. Cold – Continental
  3. Cool temperate mid-latitude
  4. Cool temperate East Coast
  5. Cool temperate West Coast
  6. Warm temperate West Coast
  7. Warm temperate East Coast
  8. Desert : Saguaro (against cactus), coarse grass and creosote brushes.
  9. Tropical : Mahogny, palms, rubber and coca trees.

H. Picture study.
1.This is a photograph of the coniferous forests in North America.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 5

Question 1.
Where in North America is this variety of trees found ?
Answer:
California

Question 2.
How do the animals of this region protect themselves from extreme temperatures ?
Answer:
The animals of the region also have thick fur to protect them from extreme cold. Some animals hibernate or sleep all through winters. The thick layers of fat under their skin proves useful during this period.

2. This is a photograph of a famous waterfall in North America.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 9 North America Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Mineral and Power Resources 6

Question 1.
Name the waterfall seen in the picture.
Answer:
Niagara falls

Question 2.
Which countries get hydroelectricity from this waterfall?
Answer:
Canada and USA

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Minerals

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife; Minerals

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

THINK AND ANSWER

The northern and southern parts of Africa have opposite seasons at any time of the year. Why ?
Answer:
A large part of Africa lies between the tropics, and, therefore, most of the continent has a warm or hot climate. However, the amount of rainfall and humidity varies from area to area.
Anoteworthy feature ofthe climate of Africa is that the northern and southern parts of the continent have opposite climates at any time ofthe year. In other words, when the northern part experiences summer, the southern part experiences winter.

Discuss

Discuss how the location of Africa has affected the climate ofthe country.
Answer:
Since most of Africa lies within the tropics, the temperatures are high throughout the year. The variations between summer and winter temperatures are only slight.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Africa rainforests are one of the densest forests on earth. A large number of trees grow in a relatively small area because the region receives a lot of rain and sunshine, both importance for the growth of plants. Human being also fourish when they get the right conditions.
Can you enlist a few factors that affect the growth of human beings ?
What factors adversely affect the growth of people in an area ?
Answer:
The factors that affect the growth of human beings are :

  1. Proper balanced and nutrionational diet.
  2. Proper health and sanitary facilities.
  3. Proper temperature.

The factors that adversely affect the growth of people in an area are :

  1. Poor or unhealthy diet.
  2. Poor sanitation
  3. Poor water facilities
  4. Lack of awareness.

EXERCISES

A. Write True or False. Correct the false statements.

1. Nights are very hot in the Sahara Desert.
Answer. False.
Nights are very cold in the Sahara Desert.

2. The cold Canaries Current washes the north-west coast of Africa ?
Answer. True.

3. Savannah is another name for the Sudan type of climate.
Answer. True.

4. Temperate grasslands have dry, tall grasses.
Answer. False.
Temperate grasslands have green, short grasses.

5. The Kalahari Desert is located in north Africa.
Answer. False.
The Kalahari Desert is located in south-central Africa.

B. Give geographical reasons.

Question 1.
The equatorial region has dense forests.
Answer:
The equatorial region has dense forests as trees grow in this region to different heights, giving an impression of a three-tier formation. The topmost layer is the emergent layer. The giant trees thrust above the dense layer of trees and have huge mushroom shaped crowns. The trees in this layer receive a lot of sunlight and rain. The second layer is the canopy layer. The broad irregular crown of these trees form a tight, continuous canopy 20-30 m above the ground. The branches are often densely covered with other plants and tied together with vines.
The third layer is the understorey, which receives very little sunlight and is very dark. It has young trees, shrubs, ferns, creepers, and orchids. The forest floor usually has a layer of decomposed leaves, branches, and fruits that have fallen from the trees above. As there is very little sunlight here, the growth of plants is poor. Thus, these forests are very dense and gloomy.

Question 2.
The grasses of the savannah and the veldt are different.
Answer:
Veldts or temperate grasslands are found in South Africa. The vegetation consists of short grasses, less coarse and green than those in the savannahs. On the hill slopes, poplars and willows are common.

Question 3.
Plants in the Sahara are thorny and dry.
Answer:
Plants in the Sahara are thorny and dry as these plants have thorny leaves, thick waxy stems, and long thin roots which penetrate deep for underground water.

Question 4.
Not much wildlife is found in the Mediterranean region ofAfrica.
Answer:
Not much wildlife is found in the Mediterranean as the forests in the Mediterranean region are not extensive and most of the natural vegetation has been cut down, not much wildlife is found in the this region.

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Most ofAfrica is hot. Why ?
Answer:
A large part of Africa lies between the tropics, and, therefore, most of the continent has a warm or hot climate. However, the amount of rainfall and humidity varies from area to area.

Question 2.
What factors influence the climate of Africa ?
Answer:
The factors that affects the climate of Africa are latitudinal extent, land and sea contrast, ocean currents, and altitude.

Question 3.
Name a cold and a warm current that affect the climate of Africa.
Answer:
The cold Canaries Current washes the north-west coast of Africa, while the cold Benguela Current washes the shores of south-west Africa and has a cooling influence on the adjacent land. Winds blowing over these cold currents become cold and do not pick up moisture.

Question 4.
What are 4 o’clock showers ? In which climatic region of Africa do they occur ?
Answer:
This type of climate is found in the lowlands on either side of the equator in the Congo Basin, the coastal region around the Gulf of Guinea and coastal Kenya. The climate is characterized by a high temperature of 27°C throughout the year and heavy annual rainfall of200-250 cm. Thus, there is high humidity all through the year and there are no clearly marked seasons. There is a daily occurrence of convectional rainfall. This type of rainfall is the result of intense heating of the land surface. During the day, there is a lot of evaporation. By afternoon, when it starts cooling, the water vapour condenses and falls as rain. Since it pours around 4 o’clock every day, it is known as ‘4 o’clock showers’.

Question 5.
Which region is called an open air zoo ? Why ?
Answer:
Savannah or Tropical sub-humid type of region is often referred to as an open air zoo.
The savannah has vast grassy plains with tall, coarse grasses. Many herbivorous animals such as giraffes, elephants, and zebras and carnivorous animals such as lions, cheetahs, and leopards are found here in large numbers and, therefore, this region is referred to as an open air zoo.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs.

Question 1.
Describe the three-tier forest of the equatorial region.
Answer:
The equatorial region has dense forests. Trees grow in this region to different heights, giving an impression of a three-tier formation. The topmost layer is the emergent layer. The giant trees thrust above the dense layer of trees and have huge mushroom shaped crowns. The trees in this layer receive a lot of sunlight and rain. The second layer is the canopy layer. The broad irregular crown of these trees form a tight, continuous canppy 20-30 m above the ground. The branches are often densely covered with other plants and tied together with vines.
The third layer is the understorey, which receives very little sunlight and is very dark. It has young trees, shrubs, ferns, creepers, and orchids. The forest floor usually has a layer of decomposed leaves, branches, and fruits that have fallen from the trees above. As there is very little sunlight here, the growth of plants is poor. Thus, these forests are very dense and gloomy. The hardwood trees are valuable for making good quality furniture as the wood is heavy, but the trees are difficult to exploit as they do not grow in pure stand.

Question 2.
Give examples of herbivorous and carnivorous animals found in the savannah grasslands.
Answer:
Herbivorous animals such as the elephant, deer, giraffe, and zebra and carnivorous animals such as the lion, cheetah, and leopard are found in large numbers.

Question 3.
Identify the hot deserts of Africa and briefly describe the climatic conditions in terms of temperature and rainfall.
Answer:
Summers are hot and winters are cool in the hot desert regions. The daily as well as annual range of temperature is large-due
to the absence of cloud cover and the sandy nature of the soil. There is hardly any rainfall. These climatic conditions are found both in the northern and the southern hemispheres. In north Africa it is mainly experienced in the Sahara Desert and in south-central Africa in the Kalahari Desert.

Question 4.
Why is the camel called ‘the ship of the desert’ ?
Answer:
The camel is called ‘the ship of the desert’ for the following reasons:

  1. It carries goods and people across the vast sandy deserts.
  2. It stores fat in its hump.
  3. Its padded feet prevent it from sinking in the sea of sand.
  4. It has double eyelids and long eyelashes to protect its eyes from sand during storms.
  5. It can close its nostrils during sandstorms.

Question 5.
Describe the Mediterranean climate.
Answer:
The coastal areas of north-west Africa and a small area in the south-west of South Africa experience the Mediterranean climate. Summers are hot with plentiful sunshine but no rainfall. Winters are mild and wet. Shifting Westerlies bring rain to these regions in their respective winter seasons.

E. In the outline map of Africa give here, mark the features and answer the questions.

Question 1.
Colour dark green the area where equatorial forests are found. What difficulties were faced by the explorers because of rivers and natural vegetation of the region ?
Answer:
The equator passes through the middle of the continent and most of Africa lies within the tropics. It is, therefore, the hottest continent.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa. In the north, the Sahara, the world’s largest desert, was impenetrable due to severe heat and dry conditions. Most of Africa consists of undulating plateaus, so it was difficult to reach the interior from the coastal areas. The rivers of Africa have many rapids and waterfalls, and are not fit for navigation. The extensive equatorial forests and swampy lands teeming with dangerous tsetse flies and poisonous insects discouraged explorers from entering the heart of the continent.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 15 Africa Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Minerals 1

Question 2.
Mark the area that is called an ‘open air zoo’. Name thevegetation of this region.
Answer:
These vast grassy plains with tall, coarse grasses are called the savannahs or tropical grasslands. Several varieties of grass, including elephant grass, grow here. Some acacia and baobab trees are found interspersed between the grasses. Please check Map given on Textbook page 126 (Africa : Climatic and vegetation regions)

Question 3.
Mark the Sahara Desert. Name a plant that best survives in the climate of this region. What are the characteristic features of this plant that help it survive ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

Question 4.
Mark the area north of the Atlas Mountains where the Mediterranean climate is found. Which crops does this climate support ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

F. Picture study

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 15 Africa Climate, Natural Vegetation, Wildlife Minerals 2

Question 1.
What kind of climate is experienced in the region shown in the picture ?
Answer:
Summers are hot and winters are cool in the hot desert regions. The daily as well as annual range of temperature is large due to the absence of cloud cover and the sandy nature of the soil. There is hardly any rainfall. These climatic conditions are found both in the northern and the southern hemispheres. In north Africa it is mainly experienced in the Sahara Desert and in south-central Africa in the Kalahari Desert.

Question 2.
What kind of vegetation grows in such a climate ?
Answer:
The trees have long roots, small waxy leaves, and thick spongy bark, which help them survive in the dry summers. Examples include cork, oak, laurel, olive, and fig. Forests are not extensive as most of them have been cut down and replaced by orchards of citrus fruit trees such as oranges, lemons, and grapes.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks : The animal seen in the picture is often referred to as the _____ of the _____
Answer:
Fill in the blanks: The animal seen in the picture is often referred to as the ship of the desert.

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Matter

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions – Matter

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Chemistry. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 6 Chemistry ICSE SolutionsPhysicsBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Chemistry Chapter 3 Matter

POINTS TO REMEMBER

  1. Horse, mango tree, dog, animals, plants are living, while stone, pen, glass, water, book, table, air are non-living.
  2. All the above mentioned things living and non-living are matter.
  3. Energies like light, sound, heat are not matter, as these have no mass.
  4. Matter : “Anything that has mass and occupies space is called matter.” Matter (mass) remains same at all places.
  5. Molecules of matter are in motion.
  6. The things which are similar in one or more ways are grouped together and this practice is classification.
  7. There are inter-molecular gaps (spaces) and inter-molecular attraction (force of attraction) between molecules.
  8. Solids are rigid, have definite volume, retain their shape and are incompressible.
  9. Liquids can flow, have definite vol., have no definite shape. Have only one free surface.
  10. Gases Have no definite volume, no definite shape can flow are compressible.
  11. Inter-molecular force : Solids > Liquids > Gases.
  12. Inter-molecular volume : Solids < Liquids < Gases.

Activity 1

Question 1.
List five substances made using each of the following materials:
Answer:

  1. Wood : Chair
  2. Paper : Book
  3. Plastic : Bucket
  4. Metals : Copper wire
  5. Leather : Shoes
  6. Cloth : Shirt or bag

EXERCISE- I

Question 1.
Define matter.
Answer:
Anything that has mass and occupies space is called matter.

Question 2.
What are the two main types of matter? Give two examples for each type.
Answer:
The two main types of matter are :

  1. Living matter: The earth is home to all kinds of plants and animals. They can grow, move and reproduce on their own. Examples : Plant, lotus, animals, human etc.
  2. Non-living matter : Most of the matter in the universe is non-living. It means that it does not grow, move or reproduce on its own. It can be natural or man made.

(a) Natural matter: It occurs in nature and can be used to make more useful substances, e.g., wood, coal, silk, water, stone, cotton, jute, cereals, fruits, etc.
(b) Man-made matter : It is produce artificially from natural matter, e.g., plastics, soaps, detergents, medicines, glass, nylon, steel, ceramic, etc.

Question 3.
Differentiate between living and non-living matter.
Answer:
Living matter:

  1. The earth is home to all kinds of plants and animals. They can grow, move and reproduce on their own.
  2. It is natural only.

Non-living matter:

  1. Most of the matter in the universe is non-living. It means that it does not grow, move or reproduce on its own.
  2. It can be natural or man made.

Question 4.
Select natural and man made matter from the following
list: Wood, plastic, silk, medicines, detergents, coal, water, ceramic, cotton, glass, nylon, fruits.

Answer:
Natural matter: Wood, silk, coal, water, fruits.
Man made matter: Plastic, medicines, detergents, ceramic, cotton, glass, nylon.

EXERCISE-II

Question 1.
Name the smallest particle from which matter is made up.
Answer:
The smallest particle from which matter is made up is atom.

Question 2.
What are molecules ?
Answer:
Molecules are the smallest unit of matter. They exhibit all the properties of that kind of matter and is capable of independent existence.

Question 3.
Give one difference between atoms and molecules.
Answer:
Atoms may or may not have independent existance. While molecules have independent existence.

Question 4.
Define:
(a) Intermodular force of attraction.
(b) Intermodular space.

Answer:
(a) The molecules of matter are always in motion and attract each other with a force, and this force is called intermodular force of attraction due to which they are held together.
(b) The molecules can move only when there are gaps or space between them, this space is called intermodular space.

Question 5.
Name the three states of matter and define them.
Answer:
The three states of matter are :

  1. Solid State
  2. Liquids
  3. Gases :

Solid State : The molecules are very close to each other hence intermodular spaces are small and intermodular force is strong.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 1
Hence solids have definite volume, rigid, retain definite shape and are incompressible.
Liquids : The molecules are less closely packed have more intermolecular spaces than solid, less stronger forces than solids.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 2
Hence liquids have definite volume but no definite shape. They take the shape of container in which they are put.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 3
Gases : The molecules in the gases are far apart with weakest force of attraction. Hence gases have neither definite volume nor definite shape but easily compressible.

Question 6.
What are fluids ? Give two examples
Answer:
Substances that can flow are called fluids. Both gases and liquids are fluids, e.g. gases (carbon dioxide, hydrogen), liquids (water, petrol and sulphuric acid).

Question 7.
Classify the following into solids, liquids and gases.
Oxygen, milk, common salt, wax, stone, L.P.G, carbon- dioxide, sugar, mercury, coal, blood, butter, copper, coconut oil, kerosene.
Answer:
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 4

Question 8.
Give reasons
(a) Liquids and gases flow but solids do not ?
(b) A gas Alls up the space available to it.
(c) The odour of scent spreads in a room.
(d) We can walk through air.
(e) Liquids have definite volume but no definite shape.
(f) When a teaspoon of sugar is added to half a glass of water and stirred, the water level in the glass remains unchanged.
(g) When an empty gas jar is inverted over a gas jar containing a coloured gas, the gas also spreads into the empty jar.
(h) A red ink drop added to small amount of water in a glass turns the water red in some time.

Answer:
(a) The molecules of liquids and gases are far apart i.e. have more gaps, intermolecular attraction force is very less as compared to solids, hence liquids and gases can flow but solids do not as gaps*in solid molecules is less and molecular force of attraction very strong.
(b) Intermolecular force of attraction is least and intermolecular spaces are very large, hence gases can fill up the space available to them.
(c) Scent fumes (molecules) being gases fill the spaces between air molecules and the molecules of air fill the spaces between scent molecules due to diffusion, fumes spread into a room.
OR
Due to inter-mixing of scent molecules and air molecules, scent fumes spread into the room.
(d) The molecules of air are far apart i.e. large gaps and we can walk through air easily.
(e) The molecules of liquid are loosely packed and intermolecular force of attraction is small but number of molecules in it remain the same. Hence liquids have definite volume but no definite shape.
(f) When a teaspoon of sugar is added to half a glass of water and stirred, the water level in the glass remains unchanged because the sugar particles are adjusted between the water molecules as inter-molecular gaps are more in liquids.
(g) This is because Gases can diffuse or flow in all directions.
(h) When we put a drop of red ink in a glass of water, its particles diffuse with particles of water slowly but continuously and the water turns red.

Question 9.
Define:
(a) cohesive force
(b) diffusion
(c) Brownian movement

Answer:
(a) Cohesive force : The force of attraction between particles of the same substance is called cohesive force.
(b) Diffusion: The phenomenon of intermixing of particles of one kind with another kind is called diffusion.
(c) Brownian movement: The zig-zag motion of particles suspended in a medium is called Brownian movement

Question 10.
Why is an egg kicked out of a bottle when air is blown inside the bottle?
Answer:
When we invert the bottle and blow air into the bottle throw the side opening. It creates high pressure inside the bottles and the egg is kicked out of the bottle.

EXERCISE-III

Question 1.
State the three effects of heat on matter.
Answer:
When a substance is heated, it can cause.

  1. Interconversion of states of matter.
  2. Thermal expansion of the substance.
  3. Chemical change.

Question 2.
(a) Define : interconversion of states of matter.
(b) What are the two conditions for the interconversion of states of matter ?

Answer:
(a) The process by which matter changes from one state to another and back to original state, without any change in its chemical composition.
(b) Two conditions are :

  1. Change in temperature
  2. By applying pressure

Question 3.
Define the following terms:
(a) Fusion
(b) Vaporisation
(c) Condensation
(d) Sublimation
(e) Diffusion
(f) Melting point
(g) Boiling point
(h) Liquefaction

Answer:
(a) Fusion : The heating process by which a solid changes into the liquid state is called fusion.
(b) Vaporisation : The heating process by which a liquid changes into its vapour state is called vaporisation.
(c) Condensation : The process by which a substance in gaseous state changes into its liquid state is called condensation.
(d) Sublimation: The change of solid on heating to vapours directly and vice-versa without passing through the liquid state is called sublimation.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 5
(e) Diffusion : The phenomenon of intermixing or spreading of gaseous molecules is called diffusion.
(f) Melting point: The fixed temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid at a given pressure is called its melting point. The temperature remains constant as long as the conversion is going on.
(g) Boiling point: The fixed temperature at which a liquid starts changing into gaseous state is called its boiling point. The temperature remains constant till the whole of the liquid changes into gaseous state.
(h) Liquefaction : Change of vapours on cooling to liquid is called liquefaction.

Question 4.
Differentiate between:
(a) Solidification and condensation
(b) Melting and boiling
(c) Gas and vapour
(d) Miscible and immiscible liquids.

Answer:
(a) Solidification : The process of changing liquid into a solid state by cooling is known as solidification.
Example : water → ice.
Condensation : The process of changing a gas or vapour state to a liquid state by cooling is known as condensation. Example : steam → water.
(b) Melting : The fixed temperature at which a solid changes into a liquid at a given pressure is called its melting point.
e.g. ice → water.
Boiling : The fixed temperature at which a liquid starts changing into gaseous state is called its boiling point.
e.g. water → steam.
(c) Vapourisation : The process by which a substance changes from a liquid state to vapour state is called vaporisation or evaporation.
e.g., Water changes into gaseous state on heating.
Gas : The substance which remain in the gaseous state under normal conditions of temperature and pressure are called gases.
e.g, Oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen.
(d) Miscible: Liquids which mix with each other are called miscible liquids. Example : Water and alcohol.
Immiscible liquids : Liquids which do not mix with each other are called immiscible liquids. Example Water and oil.

Question 5.
Give reasons :
(a) How is interconversion of states of matter different from chemical reaction ?
(b) Why a solid does not flow, but a liquid flows ?
Answer:
(a) During interconversion of state of matter composition
of substance remains the same matter changes from one state to another and back to the original state, while chemical reaction involves re-arrangement of the molecular structure and composition changes.
(b) In solids there is a strong force of attraction between the molecules and the space between them is very negligible. The molecules are therefore, not free to move. They merely vibrate about their mean positions. But in the case of liquids, the molecules are not very closely packed. They do not attract each other as strongly as the molecules of solids. Thus, the intermolecular spaces are larger and the molecules are able to move about more freely. This makes a liquid flow.

Question 6.
How does a liquid changes into its gaseous state? Explain ?
Answer:
As a liquid is heated, its particles starts gaining energy and move more vigorously which increases the gaps between the particles and decreasing the force of attraction. Ultimately a liquid changes into gaseous state.

Question 7.
Water cycle is an example of interconversion of states of water. Explain.
Answer:
Water from oceans, rivers, lakes from leaves of trees (transpiration) changes into vapours when temperature increases or evaporates and enters the atomsphere as clouds when temperature falls the vapours change into water and some of it in the form of snow fall on mountains and earth in the form of water and hales and this continues. Thus water cycle is example of interconvertion of states of water.

Question 8.
What happens to a metal ball when it is heated? What does this show?
Answer:
When metal ball is heated, it expands. This can be proved by following experiment:
Take a metallic ring and ball. Try to pass the metal ball through the ring. The ball is able to pass through the ring. Now heat the metal ball for 5-6 minutes. The hot ball is not be able to pass through the ring.
This shows that a solid expands on heating. Now cool the ball, it again passes through the ring. This shows that a solid contacts on cooling.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 6

Question 9.
Why does a candle become smaller on burning with time?
Answer:
On heating, candle wax melts, then turns into vapour which reacts with air to produce two new substances, carbondioxide and water.
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 7
Therefore a candle on burning becomes smaller and smaller and the part of wax which has undergone chemical change cannot be recovered.

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTIONS

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks :

(a) Water is a matter because it has mass and occupies space.
(b) Any matter which has a definite volume but no definite shape is called a liquid.
(c) Liquids and gases can flow.
(d) The molecules are at a greater distance in gases compared to liquids.
(e) Water boils at 100 °C.
(f) The physical state of a substance, which has neither fixed volume nor fixed shape is a gas.

Question 2.
Write whether the following statements are true or false.

(a) Only water can exist in three different states.
(b) If the container in which a gas is collected has an opening, the gas will flow out and spread itself indefinitely.
(c) Solids have the large inter-molecular space.
(d) There is no difference between evaporation and boiling.
(e) All solids, on heating, first change to the liquid and then to the gaseous state always.
(f) The intermolecular force of attraction is the weakest in gases.
(g) A gas has no free surface.

Answer:
(a) True
(b) True
(c) False
Correct: Solids have the very small (negligible) inter-molecular space.
(d) False
Correct : There is a difference between evaporation and boiling.
(e) False
Correct : Few solids, on heating, first change to the liquid and then to the gaseous state always.
(f) True
(g) True

Question 3.
For each of the following statements, say whether it describes a solid, a liquid or a gas.

(a) Particles move about very quickly but do not leave the surface : Liquid
(b) Particles are quite close together : Solid
(c) Particles are far apart and move in all directions : Gas

Question 4.
Match the following :
Selina Concise Chemistry Class 6 ICSE Solutions Chapter 3 Matter 8

Question 5.
Name the phenomenon which causes the following changes:
(a) Formation of water vapour from water.
(b) Disappearance of camphor when exposed to air.
(c) Conversion of ice into water.
(d) Conversion of water into steam.

Answer:
(a) Formation of water vapour from water is vaporisation.
(b) Disappearance of camphor is sublimation.
(c) Conversion of ice into water is melting.
(d) Conversion of water into steam is boiling.

Question 6.
Give two examples for each of the following :
(a) Substances which sublime.
(b) Substances which do not change their states.
(c) Substances which are rigid and not compressible.

Answer:
(a) Naphthalene, camphor, dry ice.
(b) Oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen
(c) Glass, stone, pen.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one is a kind of matter :
(a) light
(b) petroleum
(c) sound
(d) heat

2. the state of matter which has no definite shape or volume is called
(a) solid
(b) liquid
(c) gas
(d) water

3. There are large intermolecular gaps in
(a) water
(b) iron ball
(c) common salt ..
(d) air

4. All kinds of matter
(a) occupy space and have a definite mass
(b) have mass and a definite shape
(c) can change their states
(d) have a definite volume

5. A kind of matter which can sublime is
(a) water
(b) plastic
(c) milk
(d) iodine

6. A substance which can change its state
(a) wood
(b) oxygen
(c) paper
(d) cloth

7. The process by which a solid changes into a liquid is called
(a) freezing
(b) melting
(c) condensation
(d) evaporation

PROJECT

Question 1.
Fill the following chart showing twelve solids, twelve liquids, four gases and eight materials.
Answer:
Solids : (1) Mobile. (2) Pen. (3) Pair of shoes. (4) A T.V. set (5) Chair. (6) Telephone. (7) Remote control. (8) Wood. (9) Ornaments. (10) Scissors. (11) Eraser. (12) Mirror.
Liquids : (1) Ink. (2) Water. (3) Lemon juice. (4) Cough syrup. (5) Mouth wash. (6) Petrol. (7) Kerosene oil. (8) Spirit. (9) Thinner. (10) Mercury. (11) Milk. (12) Copper sulphate solution.
Gases : (1) Hydrogen. (2) Oxygen. (3) Sulphur dioxide. (4) Chlorine gas.
Materials : (1) Paper. (2) Wood. (3) Iron nails. (4) Cement. (5) Tiles. (6) Plaster of paris. (6) Sand. (7) Iron rods. (8) Bricks.

Question 2.
Think and try to find a way to demonstrate water cycle in class.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

Question 3.
To identify materials of common use 
Procedure – Just move around in your house – in the drawing room, sitting room, bedroom, kitchen, bathroom etc.
Identify the things and All in the blanks in the table given below:

  • Study room
  •  Drawing room
  •  Kitchen
  •  bathroom
  • another place
S.No. Place Name of the thing Material used for making the thing
  1. Study room
  2. Drawing room
  3. Kitchen
  4. bathroom
  5. Any other place

Answer:

S.No. Place Name of the thing Material used for making the thing
1. Study room Table, chair, books pens, pencils, table lamp, computer, fan Wood, plastic, paper, glass, bakelite, connecting wires made of metal and plastics
2. Drawing room Sofa, table, chairs, fan, curtains, windows etc. Wood, cloth, coir, paint, plastics, aluminium, glass etc.
3. Kitchen Taps, wash basin, cupboards, utencils, heating vessels strainer, containers aqua pure etc. Steel, aluminium, glass, china clay, iron, plastic, copper, stainless steel, brass etc.
4. Bathroom Taps, tubs, mugs, tooth brush, tooth paste, soap, pail etc. Iron, brass, stainless steel, plastics etc.
5. Any other place Scooter, car, road, rooms, trucks, shops. Iron, rubber, coaltar, bricks, wood, plastics, clothes.

 

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Motion

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Motion

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

Selina Class 7 Physics ICSE SolutionsChemistryBiologyMathsGeographyHistory & Civics

Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 2 Motion

  • Points to Remember
  •  Motion— Motion is the change in position with respect to a set of stationary landmarks.
  •  Types of motion are translatory, rotatory and oscillatory.
  •  A body is said to move in a translatory motion if the whole body moves through the same distance in the same interval of time.
  •  A body is said to be in rotatory motion if it moves about a fixed point without changing the radius of its motion.
  •  A body is said to be in oscillatory motion if it moves to and fro about its mean position.
  •  A body is said to be in vibratory motion if the body moves to and fro in a particular style.
  •  Oscillation of pendulum is one complete to and fro motion.
  •  The maximum displacement on either side of a mean position is called amplitude.
  •  A motion which repeats itself at regular intervals of time is called periodic motion.
  •  A physical quantity which has only magnitude and no direction is called a scalar quantity.
  •  A physical quantity which has magnitude as well as direction is called a vector quantity.
  •  Speed is the distance travelled per unit time. It is a scalar quantity.
  •  The displacement per unit time is known as the velocity of the body. It is a vector quantity.
  •  The rate of change of velocity is called acceleration. It is a vector quantity.
  •  Frequency is the number of complete oscillations in one second.
  •  Unit of frequency is Hertz.
  •  Motion is of two types (a) uniform (b) non-uniform motion.

Test yourself

A. Objective Questions

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) Two trains going in opposite directions with the same speed are at rest relative to each other.
Answer. False.

(b) A ball is thrown vertically upwards. Its motion is uniform throughout.
Answer. False.

(c) The motion of a train starting from one station and reaching at another station is non-uniform.
Answer. True.

(d) A motion which repeats itself after a fixed interval of time is called periodic motion.
Answer. True.

(e) A ball thrown by a boy from a roof-top has oscillatory motion.
Answer. False.

(f) Mass has both magnitude and direction.
Answer. False.

(g) .Weight always acts vertically downwards.
Answer. True

(h) Mass varies from place to place but weight does not.
Answer. False

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) Two boys cycling on the road with the same speed are at rest relative to each other.
(b) The motion in a straight line is rectilinear motion.
(c) One to and fro motion of a clock pendulum takes time = 2 s
(d) 36 km h-1 = 10 m s-1
(e) Total distance travelled = average speed × total time taken.
(f) The weight of a girl is 36 kgf. Her mass will be 36 kg.
(g) The weight of a body is measured using a spring balance.

Activity

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 1

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 2

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 3

3. Match the following

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 4

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) A book lying on a table is an example of

  1.  a body at rest
  2.  a body in motion
  3.  a body neither at rest nor in motion
  4.  none of these

(b) The motion of a pendulum is

  1.  rotatory
  2. oscillatory
  3.  curvilinear
  4.  rectilinear

(c) A car moving on a straight road is an example of

  1.  rotatory motion
  2.  rectilinear motion
  3.  oscillatory motion
  4.  periodic motion

(d) A ball falls down vertically. Its motion is

  1.  periodic
  2.  linear
  3.  circular
  4.  vibratory

(e) If a body covers equal distance in equal interval of time, the motion is said to be

  1.  uniform
  2.  non-uniform
  3.  oscillatory
  4.   rotatory

(f) A boy goes from his house to school by bus at a speed of 20 km h-1 and returns back through the same route at a speed of 30 km h_1. The average speed of his journey is

  1.  24 km h-1
  2.  25 km h-1
  3.  30 km h-1
  4.  20 km h-1

(g) The earth attracts a body of mass 1 kg with a force of 10 N. The mass of a boy is 50 kg. His weight will be

  1.  50 kg
  2.  500 N
  3.  50 N
  4.  5 N

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
Explain the meaning of the terms rest and motion.
Answer:
Rest— A body is said to be at rest if it does not change its position with respect to its immediate surroundings.
Motion— A body is said to be in motion if it changes its position with respect to its immediate surroundings.

Question 2.
Comment on the statement ‘rest and motion are relative terms’. Give an example.
Answer:
Imagine you are sitting inside a moving bus. When you look outside you will observe that you are moving. Now look to the roof of the bus. With respect to the roof of bus, you are at rest. Hence it is concluded that rest and motion are relative terms.

Question 3.
Fill in the blanks using one of the words : at rest, in motion.
(a) A person walking in a compartment of a stationary train is relative to the compartment and is relative to the platform.
(b) A person sitting in a compartment of a moving train is relative to the other person sitting by his side and is relative to the platform.
Answer:
(a) A person walking in a compartment of a stationary train is in motion relative to the compartment and is in motion relative to the platform.
(b) A person sitting in a compartment of a moving train is at rest . relative to the other person sitting by his side and is in motion relative to the platform.

Question 4.
Name five different types of motion you know.
Answer:
The different types of motion are :
1. Translatory motion
2. Rotatory motion
3. Oscillatory motion
4. Vibratory motion
5. Periodic motion
6. Multiple motion
7. Random motion.

Question 5.
What do you mean by translatory motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
If an object like a vehicle, moves in a line in such a way that every point of the object moves through the same distance in the same time, then the motion of the object is called translatory motion.
Example :
The motion of an apple falling from a tree, the motion of a man walking on a road, the motion of a box when pushed from one comer of a room to the other, are all the translatory motion.

Question 6.
Explain the meanings of (i) rectilinear motion, and (ii) curvilinear motion. Give one example of each.
Answer:
(i) Rectilinear motion — If the motion of a body is along a straight line, it is said to be the rectilinear or linear motion. The motion of bullet fired from a gun.
(ii) Curvilinear motion — If the motion of a body is along a curved path, it is said to be the curvilinear motion. For example, the motion of a cycle while taking a turn on the road, a car moving along a curved path, a ball thrown by an athlete are in curvilinear motion.

Question 7.
What is rotatory motion ? Give two examples.
Answer:
Rotatory motion— A body is said to be in a rotatory motion or a circular motion if it moves about a fixed axis without changing the radius of its motion.
Examples : The blades of a fan, a spinning wheel.

Question 8.
What is meant by circular motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
The motion of a body along a circular path is called circular motion.
Example : A girl is whirling a stone tied at the end of a string in a circular path.

Question 9.
How does a rotatory motion differ from the circular motion?
Answer:
(i) In rotatory motion, the axis of rotation passes from a point
in the body itself whereas in circular motion, the axis of revolution passes through a point outside the body. Thus the motion of earth around the sun is the circular motion whereas the motion of earth about its own axis is the rotational motion.
(ii) In the circular and rotatory motions, the distance of a point of a the body from a fixed point always remains same, whereas it is not same in curvilinear motion.

Question 10.
Explain oscillatory motion by giving one example.
Answer:
Oscillatory motion— The to and fro motion of a simple pendulum is an oscillatory motion.
Example : 1. The motion of a swing, 2. Piston of an engine.

Question 11.
What is vibratory motion ? Give one example.
Answer:
In vibratory motion, a part of the body always remains fixed and the rest part moves to and fro about its mean position. During the vibratory motion, the shape and size of the body changes. Example : When we breath, our chest expands and contracts. This motion is vibratory motion.

Question 12.
Differentiate between periodic and non-periodic motions by giving an example of each.
Answer:
Periodic motion : A motion which gets repeated after regular intervals of time is called a periodic motion.
Examples : The earth moving around the sun takes 365 days to complete one revolution and this motion gets repeated after every 365 days.
Non-periodic motion : The motion which does not repeat itself after regular interval of time is called non-periodic motion.
Examples : A footballer running on a field, application of brakes in a moving vehicle, a ball rolling down the ground gradually slows down and finally stops, motion of tides in the sea, etc.

Question 13.
What is random motion. Give one example.
Answer:
Random motion— When an object in a motion has no specific path and which suddenly changes its motion is said to have a random motion.
Example : A flying kite.

Question 14.
Name the type/types of motion being performed by each of the following:
(a) Vehicle on a straight road
(b) Blades of an electric fan in motion
(c) Pendulum of a wall clock
(d) Smoke particles from chimney
(e) Hands of a clock
(f) Earth around the sun
(g) A spinning top.
Answer:
(a) Rectilinear motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Oscillatory motion, periodic motion
(d) Non-periodic motion
(e) Uniform circular and periodic motion
(f) Rotatory motion, circular motion and periodic motion
(g) Rotatory motion

Question 15.
Give two examples to illustrate that a body can have two or more types of motion simultaneously.
Answer:
Sometime a body can have more than one type of motion. Such a motion is called the mixed motion.
Example :
(i) The wheels of a moving train have both the translatory as well as the rotatory motions as it moves from position A to position B while rotating.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 6
(ii) The earth rotates about its axis (rotatory motion) and at the same time it revolves around the sun in a curved path (curvilinear or circular motion) in a fixed time interval (periodic motion).

Question 16.
State the types of motion of the following :
(a) The needle of a sewing machine
(b) The wheel of a bicycle
(c) The drill machine
(d) The carpenter’s saw
Answer:
(a) Periodic motion
(b) Rotatory motion
(c) Mixed = Translatory and Rotatory motion
(d) Mixed = Translatory and Oscillatory motion

Question 17.
Distinguish between uniform and non-uniform motions, giving an example of each.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 7

Question 18.
How do you determine the average speed of a body in non-uniform motion ?
Answer:
In a non-uniform motion, the average speed of a body is calculated by dividing the total distance travelled by the body, with the total time of its journey. Thus,
Average speed = Total distance travelled by the body / Total time of joumey

Question 19.
Define the term weight and state its S.I. unit.
Answer:
The weight of a body is the force with which earth attracts the body i.e. the weight of a body is the force of gravity on it. The weight of a body is not constant, but it changes from place to place. It is represented by the symbol W. The S.I. unit of weight is newton (N).

Question 20.
How are the units of weight, kgf and newton related ?
Answer:
1 kg F = 10 N

Question 21.
State three differences between mass and weight.
Answer:
Mass

It is the quantity of matter contained in a body.
Its S.J. unit is kilogram (kg)
It is constant for a body and it does not change by changing the place of the body.
It is measured by a beam balance.

Weight

It is the force with which the earth attracts the body.
Its S.I. unit is newton (N) and other unit is kilogram-force (kgf) where 1 kgf= 10N(nearly).
It is not constant for a body, but it changes from place to place.
It is measured by a spring balance.

Question 22.
Which quantity : mass or weight, does not change by change of place ?
Answer:
The mass of a body is constant and it does not change by changing the position of the body.

Question 23.
State which of the quantities, mass or weight is always directed vertically downwards.
Answer:
Mass is the quantity of matter contained in a body. Weight is the force with which the earth attracts the body. Weight is always directed vertically downwards.

 

C. Numericals

Question 1.
A car covers a distance of 160 km between two cities in 4 h. What is the average speed of the car ?
Answer:
Distance =160 km
Time taken = 4h
Speed = ?
Speed = Distance covered / Time taken
= 160km / 4h = 40 km h-1

Question 2.
A train travels a distance of 300 km with an average speed of 60 km h_1. How much time does it take to cover the distance?
Answer:
Speed = 60 km h-1
Distance covered = 300 km
Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 8

Question 3.
A boy travels with an average speed of 10 m s-1 for 20 min. How much distance does he travel ?
Answer:
Average speed of boy = 10 m s-1
Time taken = 20 min
Distance travelled = Speed × Time taken
Convert minutes into seconds
1 minute = 60 sec.
20 minutes = 20 × 60 = 1200 sec.
Distance travelled = 10 m s-1 × 1200 sec.
= 12000 m Or 12 km

Question 4.
A boy walks a distance 30 m in 1 minute and another 30 m in 1.5 minute. Describe the type of motion of the boy and find his average speed in m s-1.
Answer:
As the speed does not remain constant throughout the journey the motion is non-uniform
Total distance travelled in going and coming back
d = 30 m + 30 m = 60 m
Total time taken in going and coming back

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 9

Question 5.
A cyclist travels a distance of 1 km in the first hour, 0.5 km in the second hour and 0.3 km in the third hour. Find the average speed of the cyclist in
(i) km h-1, (ii) m s-1.
Answer:
(a) Distance travelled in first hour = 1 km
Distance travelled in second hour = 0.5 km
Distance travelled in third hour = 0.3 km
Total time taken = 3 hr
Total distance travelled = 1 + 0.5 + 0.3 = 1.8 km
(i) Average speed in km h-1

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 10
Average speed in m s-1
1 km = 1000 m
1.8 km = 1.8 × 1000 m
= 1800 m
1 hour = 3600 seconds
3 hour = 3600 × 3 = 10800 sec.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 11

Question 6.
A car travels with speed 30 km h-1 for 30 minute and then with speed 40 km h-1 for one hour. Find :
(a) the total distance travelled by the car
(b) the total time of travel, and
(c) the average speed of car
Answer:
Speed of car for first 30 minutes = 30 km h-1
Speed of car for next 1 hour = 40 km h-1
(a) Total distance travelled by the car

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 2 Motion 12

Question 7.
On earth the weight of a body of mass 1.0 kg is 10 N. What will be the weight of a boy of mass 37 kg in (a) kgf (b) N ?
Answer:
Weight of a body of mass 1.0 kg body = 10 N
(a) Weight of a boy of mass = 37 kg
(b) Weight of a boy of 37 kg in newton will be 1 kgf = 10N
∴ 37 kgf = 37 × 10 N
= 370 N

Question 8.
The weight of a body of mass 6.0 kg on moon is 10 N. If a boy of mass 30 kg goes from earth to the moon surface, what will be his (a) mass, (b) weight ?
Answer:
(a) Mass remains same it does not change
So mass of boy 30 kg on earth = 30 kg on moon surface
(b) Weight of boy on moon becomes 1 / 6
∴ 30 kg boy will weight 30 x 1/6 = 5kg
1 kg = 10 N ⇒ 5 × 10 N = 50 N
∴ Weight of boy on moon surface = 50 N

 

 

 

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Maps and Diagrams

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – Maps and Diagrams

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

POINTS TO REMEMBER

  • The various ways of representing the earth are globes, maps, pictures, sketches, plans and diagrams.
  • A globe is the most accurate three-dimensional, spherical representation of the earth. However, not many details of the earth can be shown on a globe.
  • Selected features are shown on a map using different signs, symbols and colours.
  • A sketch is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area. They are not drawn to scale.
  • Plans are drawn to scale and are very similar to maps. While a map shows a large area, a plan is normally drawn for a small area or a building.
  • A scale is the ratio of the distance between two places on a map to the actual distance between the same two places on the ground.
  • Map scales are given in three different ways: verbal or statement scale, graphical or linear scale and representative fraction.
  • Colourful signs and symbols used in a map to show natural and man-made features are called conventional signs and symbols.

IMPORTANT TERMS

Atlas : Acollection of different types of maps in the form of a book.
Cardinal directions : the four principal directions—north, south, east and west.
Conventional signs and symbols : Internationally recognized signs and symbols used to show natural and man-made features on maps.
Fold : A bending of the earth’s crust due to large scale earth movements.
Globe : An object representing the spherical shape of the earth with a map of the world on its surface, usually on a stand so that it can be rotated.
Map : A drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
Plan : A drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or building accurately.
Scale : The ratio of the distance between two places on a map to the actual distance between the same two places on the ground.
Sketch : A rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area Trough : The dip of a fold.

THINK AND ANSWER

Do you think it will be easy to understand a map which does not use conventional signs and symbols ? Give reasons for your answer.
Answer:
No, It will be very difficult to understand a map which doesnot use conventional signs and symbols. Maps make use of different signs, symbols and colours to provide distinct information. And it ensures that the information is presented in a clear and concise manner with minimal scope of misinterpretation.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Maps and sketches are great tools. They help us to navigate our way to our destination. Prepare a sketch of the route you take from your house to your school for the new school bus driver. Do not forget to mark the important places in the route.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 1

Exercises

A. Choose the correct answer

1. Which of these is shown by a thematic map ?

  1. mountains
  2. rivers
  3. climate
  4. state capitals

2. These maps are useful to surveyors and civil engineers engaged in building roads, bridges, canals, and other structures.

  1. physical
  2. political
  3. topographic
  4. thematic

3. This is a true model of the earth.

  1. sketch
  2. map
  3. globe
  4. plan

4. This is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few features of an area.

  1. globe
  2. map
  3. sketch
  4. plan

5. This is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area drawn to scale.

  1. sketch
  2. plan
  3. map
  4. globe

6. These are taken from space and show that the earth is spherical in shape.

  1. graphs
  2. plans
  3. aerial photographs
  4. sketches

B. Explain the differences between each of the following pairs.

  1. An aerial photograph and a plan
  2. A globe and an atlas
  3. A sketch and a map

Answer:

  1. An aerial photograph and a plan — A plan is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or a building. It is drawn to scale. It is useful because it tells us where exactly things are on the ground.
    Aerial photographs is a tool for representing the earth or a part of it is aerial photography. Photographs of the earth are taken from a camera mounted on an aircraft, an unmanned drone or an artificial satellite. In fact, such photographs have been used widely in the preparation of accurate maps.
  2. A globe and an atlas — Map : a drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
  3. Asketch and a map — Arough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features in an area.
    A map — A drawing of the who le earth or a part of it on a flat surface.

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
Define an atlas.
Answer:
A collection of different types of maps bound together in the form of a book is called an atlas.

Question 2.
What do you understand by topographic maps ?
Answer:
Topographic maps which give detailed information about local features of small areas on the surface of the earth.

Question 3.
Which map would be most useful to army personnel when constructing a bridge during a war ?
Answer:
In addition to these maps, there are topographic maps (topos = place; graphy = to describe) as these give detailed information about local and forms, streams, rivers, canals and other features of areas. These maps are based on an accurate survey of land.

Question 4.
How will you show the location of your house to a friend who is visiting you for the first time ?
Answer:
We can show the location of our house to a friend who is visiting us for the first time with the help of a sketch.

Question 5.
Differentiate between a plan and a sketch.
Answer:

Plan :

  1. A plan is a drawing that shows the horizontal section of a small area or building.
  2. It is drawn to the scale.
  3. It tells us exactly things are on the ground.
  4. It is accurate representation of an area.

Sketch :

  1. A sketch is a rough drawing showing the relative locations of a few chosen features of an area.
  2. It is not drawn to the scale.
  3. It does not show the true shape or size of the features.
  4. It is rough representation of an area.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
What is a map ? What are the different types of maps ?
Answer:
A map is a drawing of the whole earth or a part of it on a flat surface.
Maps can be divided into following categories based on the scale used to draw them are :

  • Small scale maps — They show a large land area in a small space Eg. 1 cm on small scale map could represent 200 kms on ground. The features of the area are not clearly visible.
  • Large – scale maps — They show smaller area of land in bigger space Eg. 1 cm = 1 km on land. They give detailed information of the area.

Question 2.
Describe a political and a physical map.
Answer:
Political maps: show the boundaries of countries, states, etc. and also the location of capital cities and important towns.
Physical maps: show mountains, valleys, plains, rivers, and other surface features. These maps generally use different colours to represent land of different heights.

Question 3.
Take the help of your atlas to make a list of thematic maps. Describe any two maps from your list.
Answer:
Thematic maps shows the distribution of forests, crops, minerals and industries.

The types of Thematic maps are :

  1. Ranged maps.
  2. Point density maps
  3. Proportional symbol maps
  4. Maps with pie or bar charts.
  5. Grided maps.

The other two maps are :

  1. Political maps shows the boundaries of administrative units such as countries, states and districts. Different types of boundaries are shown with different symbols. They also show the locations of cities, towns and villages.
  2. Physical maps show the landforms and water bodies on the Earth’s surface, such as mountains, plateaus, plains, rivers, lakes and seas. The different features are shown with different colours.

Question 4.
What are the advantages and disadvantages of using a globe ?
Answer:

Advantages :

  • It is the most accurate three dimensional representation of the earth.
  • It shows the distribution of continents and oceans accurately.
  • Lines of latitude and longitude are marked on a globe.

Disadvantages :

  • Only a part of the earth can be seen on a globe, at one glance.
  • All details cannot be marked on a globe.
  • A globe is difficult to carry around.

E. Draw a plan of your house showing clearly the position of each room in relation to the others. On the plan, mark clearly the positions of doors, windows and furniture.
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 2

F. Picture study.
ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 1 Maps and Diagrams 3

Question 1.
Do you know how this type of picture is taken ?
Answer:
An aerial photograph of Australia.

Question 2.
What is it used for ?
Answer:
These maps are used widely in the preparation of accurate maps.

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Study of Weather

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Study of Weather

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 7 Geography History & CivicsMathsPhysicsChemistryBiology

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

Many people leave their pets in parked cars. They think they will be gone for a few minutes, or it will be alright to leave a window open. The temperature inside a parked car can rise up to more than 50°C in a matter of few minutes, irrespective of it being a hot or a cloudy day.
What would be the right thing to do if you see a pet locked inside a car on a hot day ?
Answer:
Leaving pets locked in cars is never safe. But when the weather gets warmer, it can be deadly. High temperatures can cause irreparable organ damage and even death. Protecting animals from an unnecessary death is a problem we can all agree to prevent.

EXERCISES

A. Write true or false. Correct the false statements.

1. A rise in temperature causes more condensation while a fall in temperature results in evaporation.
Answer. False.
Correct : Arise in temperature causes more evaporation while a fall in temperature results in condensation.

2. ‘4 o’clock showers’ are caused by cyclonic rainfall.
Answer. False.
Correct : ‘4 o’clock showers’ are caused by convection currents.

3. Heavy rainfall occurs on the leeward or rain shadow side of a highland.
Answer. False.
Correct : Little rainfall occurs on the leeward or rain shadow side of a highland.

4. The direction of wind blowing on the surface of the earth is affected by the Coriolis force.
Answer. True.

5. Cyclones and anticyclones are examples of variable winds.
Answer. True.

B. Fill in the blanks.

1. The temperature of a place depends upon its latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, ocean currents, winds, cloud cover and slope and aspect.
2. Pressure difference causes horizontal movement of air called wind and vertical movement of air called current.
3. Humidity refers to the amount of moisture or water vapour present in the air.
4. Planetary winds are also called permanent or prevailing winds.
5. The amount of cloud cover in the sky is expressed in discs (shaded in different proportions).

C. Answer the following questions in brief.

Question 1.
What are the elements that determine weather and climate?
Answer:
The elements that determine climate are the same as those weather, namely temperature, atmospheric pressure, humidity, precipitation, wind direction and speed, cloud cover, and sunshine.

Question 2.
Name the factors that determine the temperature at a place.
Answer:
The factors that affect the temperature of a place are latitude, altitude, distance from the sea, ocean currents, winds, cloud cover, and slope and aspect.

Question 3.
How do the following elements influence the weather of a place :

  1. temperature
  2. pressure?

Answer:

  1. Temperature : When the temperature of a place increases, the air gets heated, expands and rises. This leads to a decrease in air pressure in the area. When the temperature falls, the air gets cold, contracts, and descends downwards. This leads to an increase in air pressure. Thus, air pressure decreases with an increase in temperature. This is the reason why areas close to the equator generally have low air pressure.
  2. Pressure : Atmospheric pressure is the pressure that the atmopshere exerts on the surface of the earth because of its weight. There is a close relationship between pressure and temperature — high temperature means low pressure and vice versa. Pressure difference causes horizontal movement of air called wind and vertical movement of air called current, which together cause circulation of air in the atmosphere.

Question 4.
Name the various forms of precipitation.
Answer:
Rain, drizzle, snow, sleet, and hail are all different forms of precipitation.

Question 5.
How is cloud cover shown on a weather map? Give examples.
Answer:
The cloud cover in the sky is expressed in eighths of the total sky or oktas, which are shown in weather maps as discs shaded in different proportions.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraph’s.

Question 1.
How is weather different from climate?
Answer:
Weather and climate are closely related terms but have different
meanings. Weather refers to the atmospheric conditions of a small area for a short period of time, usually 24 hours or one day, while climate is the average of the atmospheric conditions of a larger area, over a long period of time, usually 35 years.

Question 2.
What is condensation? Explain these different forms of condensation: fog, mist, and dew.
Answer:
Condensation is the process by which water vapour in the air gets converted into tiny droplets of water or ice. It is the opposite of evaporation. Evaporation takes place when air is dry, but condensation occurs only after air is saturated.
Fog and mist are formed at night, when air cools below its dew point near the earth’s surface. Fog is denser than mist and often dangerous because it reduces visibility. Dew forms in winter when the temperature is very low, but not below 0°C.

Question 3.
What do you understand by the term ‘4 o’clock showers’?
Answer:
In regions closer to the equator, the rate of evaporation is very high. Air gets heated because of the high temperature and starts rising in the form of convection currents. As it rises, it expands and cools. The cooling causes condensation, which results in heavy downpours. This rain is accompanied by thunder and lightning and since it mostly occurs around 4 p.m., it is often called the 4 o’ clock showers’.

Question 4.
What are planetary winds? Give a brief description of the Westerlies in the northern hemisphere.
Answer:
Planetary winds are also called permanent or prevailing winds as they blow the year round in the same areas. Westerlies blow in the middle latitudes between 30° and 60° latitude, and originate from the high pressure area in the horse latitudes towards the poles. Under the effect of the coriolis force, they become the South Westerlies in the north hemisphere and Northern Westerlies in the southern hemisphere.

Question 5.
What are local winds? Give a few examples.
Answer:
Local Winds blow for a short period of time over a very small area. Some local winds like Loo, Simoom, Chinook, and are warm winds. Others such as the Bora, Mistral, Buran, and Pampero are cold winds.

E. With the help of your atlas,encylopaedias, and the Internet, find out about the climate of these places.

  1. Mumbai
  2. Delhi
  3. Kolkata
  4. London
  5. New York
  6. Sydney

F. In your notebook, draw neat, labelled, coloured sketches of the three different types of rainfall. Alongside each diagram, briefly describe in your own words, how each type of rainfall occurs.
Answer:

(a) Convectional Rainfall : In regions closer to the equator, the rate of evaporation is very high. Air gets heated because of the high temperature and starts rising in the form of convection currents. As it rises, it expands and cools. The cooling causes condensation, which results in heavy downpours. This rain is accompanied by thunder and lightning and since it mostly occurs around 4 p.m., it is often called the 4 o’clock showers’.
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 1
(b) Relief or Orographic Rainfall : Sometimes moisture-bearing winds are forced to rise because of the presence of a physical
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 2
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 3

expands and cools, and the moisture in it condenses to form clouds. These clouds bring rainfall.

G. Picture study

Question 1.
The diagram alongside illustrates one of the factors that affect temperature. What is it ?
ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 5 Study of Weather 4
Answer:
Aspect refers to the direction of a slope with respect to the sun’s rays. In the northern hemisphere, all the south-facing slope receive the direct rays of the sun and are, therefore, warmer, while the north-facing slopes are cooler. In the southern hemisphere, all the north-facing slopes receive more sunlight than the south-facing slopes.

Question 2.
Which side of the mountain is likely to have houses and be covered with trees ?
Answer:
Side B.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Heat

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Heat

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics. You can download the Selina Concise Physics ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Physics for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Physics Chapter 5 Heat

  • Points to Remember
  •  Heat is a form of energy that leads to the sensations of hotness or coldness.
  •  Temperature is the degree of hotness and coldness of a body.
  •  Thermometer is used to measure temperature.
  •  The S.I. unit of temperature is °C.
  •  The most common liquid for a thermometer is mercury.
  •  The main sources of heat are (i) Fire (ii) Sun (iii) Electricity.
  •  Those substances which can easily catch fire are called inflammable substances.
  •  Those substances which are fire resistant are called non-inflammable substances.
  •  The fixed temperature at which freezing of liquid occurs is known as freezing point.
  •  The temperature at which vapourisation occurs is known as the boiling point.
  •  Substances through which heat is easily conducted are called good conductors e.g. silver, gold, copper etc.
  •  Substances through which heat is not easily conducted are called Insultors.
  •  Radiation is the process of transfer of heat from a hot body to a cold body without affecting the intermediate medium.

Test Yourself

A. Objective Questions 

1. Write true or false for each statement

(a) On touching a lump of ice, we feel cold because some heat passes from our body to the ice.
Answer. True.

(b) Heat flows from a body at a high temperature to a body at a low temperature when they are kept in contact. .
Answer. True.

(c) All solids expand by the same amount when heated to the same rise in temperature.
Answer. False.

(d) Telephone wires are kept tight between the two poles in summer.
Answer. False.

(e) Equal volumes of different liquids expand by different amounts when they are heated to the same rise in temperature.
Answer. True.

(f) Solids expand the least and gases expand the most on being heated.
Answer. True.

(g) A mercury thermometer makes use of the property of expansion of liquids on heating.
Answer. True.

(h) Kerosene contracts on heating.
Answer. False.

(i) Water is a bad conductor of heat.
Answer. True.

(j) Medium is necessary for the transfer of heat by radiation.
Answer. False.

(k) Land and sea breezes are convection currents of cold and warm air.
Answer. True.

(l) Liquids are heated by conduction and radiation.
Answer. False.

(m) Black surfaces are the poor absorbers of heat radiations.
Answer. False.

2. Fill in the blanks

(a) Heat is a form of energy.
(b) Temperature determines the degree of hotness or coldness of a body.
(c) On heating a body, its temperature rises.
(d) We use a thermometer for measuring the temperature of a body.
(e) The S.I. unit of temperature is kelvin.
(f) In a thermometer, the commonly used liquid is mercury.
(g) The temperature of a normal human body is 37 °C.
(h) A person is said to have fever if his body temperature is more than 98.6
(i) A hot metallic piece is placed in tap water contained in a bucket. Heat will flow from metallic piece to water.
(j) The temperature of boiling water is 100°C.
(k) Liquids expand more than the solids.
(l) Gases expand more than the liquids.
(m) Heat transfer in solids is by conduction.
(n) Heat transfer in liquids and gases is by convection.
(o)Metals are conductors of heat.
(p) Still air is an insulator of heat.
(q) Black and dull surfaces are good absorbers of heat.

3. Match the following

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 1

4. Select the correct alternative

(a) If we add a lump of ice to a tumbler containing water,

  1. heat flows from water to ice
  2.  heat flows from ice to water
  3.  heat flows from water to ice if water is more
  4.  heat flows from ice to water if ice is more

(b) The temperature of pure melting ice is

  1.  0°C
  2.  100°C
  3.  95°C
  4.  98.6°F

(c) A thermometer uses

  1.  water
  2. mercury
  3.  air
  4.  none of the above

(d) Which of the statement is correct

  1.  Iron rims are cooled before they are placed on cart wheels
  2.  A glass stopper gets tight on warming the neck of the bottle
  3.  Telephone wires sag in winter, but become tight in summer
  4. A little space is left between two rails on a railway track

(e) Heat in a liquid is transferred by

  1.  conduction
  2. convection
  3.  radiation
  4.  conduction and radiation

(f) In the process of convection, heat travels

  1.  sideways
  2.  downwards
  3. upwards
  4.  in all directions

(g) The vacuum kept in between the walls of a thermos flask reduces the heat transfer by

  1.  conduction only
  2.  convection only
  3.  radiation only
  4. conduction and convection

B. Short/Long Answer Questions

Question 1.
What is heat ? State its S.I. unit.
Answer:
Heat is a form of energy which flows. It is the energy of motion of molecules constituting the body.
The unit of heat is same as that of energy, The S.I. unit of heat is joule (abbreviated as J) and other common units of heat are calorie and kilo calorie, where 1 k cal = 1000 cal.

Question 2.
What is meant by the term temperature.
Answer:
Temperature is a quantity which tells the thermal state of a body (i.e. the degree of hotness or coldness). It determines the direction of flow of heat when the two bodies at different temperatures are placed in contact.

Question 3.
State the three units of temperature.
Answer:
The S.I. unit of temperature is kelvin or K. The other most common unit of temperature is degree Celsius (°C) and degree Fahrenheit (°F).

Question 4.
Name the instrument used to measure the temperature of a body.
Answer:
To measure the temperature of a body with the help of a thermometer.

Question 5.
Name two scales of temperature. How are they inter-related?
Answer:
Two scales of temperature are
(i) Celsius (ii) Fahrenheit
Relation:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 2

Question 6.
How is the size of a degree defined on a Celsius scale ?
Answer:
The interval between the ice point and steam point divided by 100 (hundred) equal parts is called a degree on the Celsius scale.

Question 7.
How is the size of a degree defined on a Fahrenheit scale?
Answer:
The interval between the ice point and steam point divided into 180 equal parts is called a degree on the Fahrenheit scale.

Question 8.
State the temperature of (i) ice point and (ii) steam point, on the Celsius scale.
Answer:
(i) Ice point. Is the the mark on Celsius scale at which ice melts. Ice point on the Celsius scale is 0°C.
(ii) Steam point. On the Celsius scale is the mark at which water changes into steam at normal atmospheric pressure. On Celsius scale it is 100°C.

Question 9.
Write down the temperature of (i) lower fixed point, and (ii) upper fixed point, on the Fahrenheit scale.
Answer:
Lower fixed point: On the Falirenheit scale is the mark at which pure ice melts. It is 32°F on Fahrenheit scale.
Upper fixed point: On the Fahrenheit scale is the mark at which water starts changing into steam at normal atmospheric pressure. It is 212°F.

Question 10.
What is the Celsius scale of temperature ?
Answer:
Celsius scale is that which has ice point as 0°C and steam point marked as 100°C.

Question 11.
What is the Fahrenheit scale of temperature ?
Answer:
Fahrenheit scale is that which has ice point as 32°F and the steam point marked as 100°C.

Question 12.
What is the Kelvin scale of temperature ?
Answer:
On Kelvin scale of temperature zero mark is when no molecular motion occurs. Ice point is at 273 and steam point is at 373 K. Thus 0 K = – 273°C and one degree on Kelvin scale is same as one degree on Celsius scale.

Question 13.
The fig. shows a glass tumbler containing hot milk which is placed in a tub of cold water. State the direction in which heat will flow.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 3
Answer:
When we bring two objects of different temperature together, energy will always be transferred from hotter to the cooler object.
Here, also heat will flow from hot milk tumbler to tub of cold water.

Question 14.
Draw a neat labelled diagram of a laboratory thermometer.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 4

Question 15.
Write down the body temperature of a healthy person.
Answer:
The temperature of a healthy persons is 98.6 degrees fahrenheit or 37.0 degree Celsius or 310 k.

Question 16.
What do you understand by thermal expansion of a substance ?
Answer:
The expansion of a substance when, heated, is called thermal expansion.
Or
Thermal expansion is the tendency of matter to change .in shape, area and volume in response to a change in temperature.

Question 17.
Name two substances which expand on heating.
Answer:
Mercury and Aluminium wire.

Question 18.
Why do telephone wires sag in summer ?
Answer:
The telephone wires will sag in summer due to expansions and will break in winter due to contraction.
Therefore, while putting up the wires between the poles, care is taken that in summer they are kept slightly loose so that they may not break in winter due to contraction.
While in winter they are kept light so that they may not sag too much in summer due to expansion.

Question 19.
Iron rims are heated before they are fixed on the wooden wheels. Explain the reason.
Answer:
The wooden wheels of a bullock-cart are fitted with iron tyres. To ensure a tight fit, the tyre is made slightly smaller in diameter than the wheel. The tyre is first heated due to which it expands. The heated tyre is then fitted on the wheel. When the tyre cools, it contracts and makes a tight fit on the wheel.

Question 20.
Why are gaps left between successive rails on a railway track ?
Answer:
The rails of railway track are made of steel. While laying the railway track, a small gap is left between the two successive length of rails. The reason is that the rails expand in summer. The gap is provided to allow for this expansion. If no gap is left, the expansion in summer will cause the rails to bend sideways. This may result in a train accidents.

Question 21.
A glass stopper stuck in the neck of a bottle can be removed by pouring hot water on the neck of the bottle. Explain why ?
Answer:
When hot water is poured over the neck of the bottle, it expands. As a result the stopper gets loosened and can be removed easily.

Question 22.
Why is a cement floor laid in small pieces with gaps in between?
Answer:
The floor is laid in small pieces with gaps in between to allow for the expansion during summer. However glass strips can be placed in the gaps.

Question 23.
One end of a steel girder in a bridge is not fixed, but is kept on roliers. Give the reason.
Answer:
In the construction of a bridge, steel girders are used. One end of the girder is fixed into the concrete or brick pillars and its other end is not fixed, but it is placed on rollers. The reason is that if there is any rise (or fall) in temperature of atmosphere, the girder can freely expand (or contract) without affecting the pillars.

Question 24.
Describe one experiment to show that liquids expand on heating.
Answer:
(i) Take an empty bottle with a tight fitting cork having a hole drilled in its middle, a drinking straw, two bricks, a wire guaze and a burner.
(ii) Fill the bottle completely with water and add few drops of ink in it to make it coloured.
(iii) Fix the cork in the mouth of the bottle and pass the drinking straw through the cork. Put some molten wax around the hole so as to avoid the leakage of water.
(iv) Pour some more water into the drinking straw so that water level in the straw can be seen. Mark the water level in the straw as shown in Figure.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 5
(v) Place the bottle on the wire gauze kept over the two bricks as shown in Figure. Then heat the bottle by means of a burner.
(vi) Look at the level of water in the straw.
You will notice that as the water is heated more and more, the level of water in the drinking straw rises. This shows that water expands on heating.

Question 25.
State one application of thermal expansion of liquids.
Answer:
Mercury is a metal found in liquid state. It expands more and uniformly over a wide range of temperature. So mercury is used as thermometric liquid.

Question 26.
Describe an experiment to show that air expands on heating.
Answer:
(i) Take an empty bottle. Actually the empty bottle contains air. Attach a rubber balloon to its neck as shown in Figure. Initially, the balloon is deflated.
(ii) Place the bottle in a water bath containing boiling water. After some time you will notice that the balloon gets inflated as shown in Figure. The reason is that the air inside the bottle expands on heating and it fills the balloon.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 6
(iii) Take the bottle out of the water bath and 7 allow it to cool by itself. We will notice that the balloon gets deflated and it collapses. This is because the air inside the balloon and the bottle, has contracted on cooling. The air from balloon passes to the bottle, so the balloon gets deflated.

Question 27.
An empty glass bottle is fitted with a narrow tube at its mouth. The open end of the tube is kept in a beaker containing water. When the bottle is heated, bubbles of air are seen escaping into the water. Explain the reason.
Answer:
When the bottle is heated, bubbles of air are seen escaping into the water. This happens because the air present in glass bottle expands on heating and tries to escape out through the tube into the water.

Question 28.
State which expands more, when heated to the same temperature : solid, liquid or gas ?
Answer:
Gases expand much more than the liquids and the solids. Like liquids, the gases do not have a definite shape, so they also have only the cubical expansion.

Question 29.
Name the three modes of transfer of heat.
Answer:
There are three modes of transfer of heat (i) Conduction (ii) Convection (iii) Radiation.
(i) Conduction “is that mode of transfer of heat, when heat travels from hot end to cold end from particle to particle of the medium, without actual movement of particles.”
(ii) Convection. “Is a process of transfer of heat by actual move-ment of the medium particles.”
(iii) Radiation. “Is that mode of transfer of heat in which heat directly passes from one body to the other body without heating the medium.”

Question 30.
Name the mode of transfer of heat in the following :
(a) solid,
(b) liquid,
(c) gas
(d) vacuum
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 7

Question 31.
What are the good and bad conductors of heat ? Give two examples of each.
Answer:
Good conductors. “The substances through which heat is easily conducted are called good conductors of heat.”
Example : Copper, iron.
Bad conductors. “The substances through which heat is not conducted easily are called bad conductors of heat or poor conductors of heat.”
Example : Wood, cloth.

Question 32.
Name a liquid which is a good conductor of heat.
Answer:
Mercury is good conductor of heat.

Question 33.
Name a solid which is a good conductor of heat.
Answer:
Aluminium is a good conductor of heat.

Question 34.
Select good and bad conductors of heat from the following :
copper, mercury, wood, iron, air, saw-dust, cardboard, silver, plastic, wool.
Answer:
Good conductors — Mercury, copper, silver, iron.
Bad conductors — Wood, air, saw dust, plastic, wool, cardboard.

Question 35.
Why is an oven made of double walls with the space in between filled with cork ?
Answer:
An oven is made of double walls and the space between them is filled with wool, cork etc. because the wool and cork are the insulator of heat. They prevent the heat of the oven to escape.

Question 36.
Why do we use cooking utensils made up of copper.
Answer:
Cooking utensils are made of metals such as copper, aluminium, brass, steel etc., so that heat is easily conducted through the base to their contents. But they are provided with handles of bad conductors (such as ebonite or wood) to hold them easily as handles will not conduct heat from the utensil to our hand.

Question 37.
Why is a tea kettle provided with an ebonite handle ?
Answer:
Tea kettles are provided with wooden or ebonite handles. The wood or the ebonite being the insulators of heat, does not pass heat from the utensils to our hand. Thus, we can hold the hot utensils or pans comfortably by their handles.

Question 38.
In summer, ice is kept wrapped in a gunny bag. Explain the reason.
Answer:
In summer, the ice is kept wrapped in a gunny bag or it is covered with saw dust. The air filled in the fine pores of the gunny bag or saw dust, is the insulator of heat. The air does not allow heat from outside to pass through it to the ice. Thus, the ice is prevented from melting rapidly.

Question 39.
Explain why
(a) we wear woolen clothes in winter.
(b) the water pipes are covered with cotton during very cold weather.
Answer:
(a) Woolen clothes have fine pores filled with air. Wool and air both are bad conductors of heat. Therefore in winter, we wear woolen clothes as they check the conduction of heat from the body to the surroundings and thus keeps the body warm.
(b) During very cold weather, the water pipes are covered with cotton. The cotton has air trapped in its fine pores. The cotton and air are the insulators of heat. They do not pass heat from water inside the pipes to the outside atmosphere. Thus, cotton prevents the water in the pipes from freezing.

Question 40.
Why are quilts filled with fluffy cotton ?
Answer:
Quilts are filled with fluffy cotton. Air is trapped in the fine pores of cotton. Cotton and air are the insulators of heat. They check heat from our body to escape and thus keep us warm.
The newly made quilts are warmer than the old ones because in the old quilts, there is no air trapped in the cotton.

Question 41.
State the direction of heat transfer by way of convection.
Answer:
By the process of convection, heat is always transferred vertically upwards. The reason is that the medium particles near the source of heat absorb heat from the source and they start moving faster. As a result, the medium at this place becomes less dense so it rises up and the medium from above being denser, moves down to take its place. Thus, current is set up in the medium which is called a convection current. The current continues till the entire medium acquires the same temperature.

Question 42.
Why is a ventilator provided in a room ?
Answer:
Ventilators and windows are provided in rooms for proper ventilation. The reason is that when we breathe out in a room, the air in the room becomes warm and impure. The warm air is less dense i.e. lighter, so it rises up and moves out through the ventilators. Then the cold fresh air comes in the room through the windows to take its place. Thus the continuous circulation of fresh air keeps the air in the room fresh.

Question 43.
Why are chimneys provided over furnace in factories ?
Answer:
Chimneys are provided over the furnace in factories. This is because the hot gases coming out of the furnace are less dense than the air. They rise up through the chimney. The smoke, fumes etc. around the furnace rush in so as to take their place and they are sucked out. Thus, the chimney helps to remove the undesired fumes, smoke etc. from the premises.

Question 44.
What are the land and sea breezes ? Explain their formation.
Answer:
LAND BREEZE : Blowing of breeze (air) from land towards sea is called land breeze.
During night land and sea water both lose heat. Specific heat capacity of land being very low as compared to that of sea water, land loses heat energy fast and cools more rapidly as compared to sea. Sea water being at higher temperature, the air above it becomes lighter and rise up. Air from land being at higher pressure. So air from land starts blowing towards sea and gives rise to Land Breeze.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 8
SEA BREEZE : Blowing of breeze (cold air) from sea towards land during the day is called the SEA BREEZE. During day time land and sea both are heated equally by the sun, but land has very low specific heat capacity as compared to sea, is heated up more quickly. Thus air above land due to heat becomes lighter and rises up. Thus pressure decreases and cold and humid air above the sea starts blowing towards land, thereby giving rise to SEABREEZE.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 9

Question 45.
Why is the freezing chest in a refrigerator fitted near its top?
Answer:
Freezing chest in a refrigerator is fitted near the top, because it cools the remaining space of the refrigerator by convection current. Air near the top comes in contact with the freezing chest gets cooled, becomes denser and therefore descends while the hot air from the lower part rises and hence convection currents produced cool the whole space inside.

Question 46.
Explain briefly the process of heat transfer by radiation.
Answer:
RADIATION. “The transfer of heat energy from a hot body to cold body directly, without heating the medium between two bodies is called RADIATION.”
The radiant heat or thermal radiation is of the form of ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES. These waves can travel even in vacuum in all directions in straight line with the speed of light. They do not heat the medium through which they pass. Heat radiations are also called INFRA-RED RADIATIONS because the wavelength of heat radiations is longer than that of visible light. These radiations can cause heating effect only if they are absorbed by some material.

Question 47.
Give one example of heat transfer by radiation.
Answer:
When we sit in the sun, we feel warm. We cannot get heat from the sun by the process of conduction or convection because most of the space between the sun and the earth is a vacuum and both of these modes of heat transfer require medium. Hence, one must be getting heat from the sun by the mode of radiation.

Question 48.
Why do we prefer to wear white or light coloured clothes in summer and black or dark coloured clothes in winter ?
Answer:
We prefer to wear white clothes in summer. The reason is that the white clothes reflects most of the sun’s heat and absorb very little of the sun’s heat, thus they keep our body cool.
We prefer to wear black and dark coloured clothes in winter. The reason is that the black or dark colour clothes absorb most of the sun’s heat and keep our body warm.

Question 49.
The bottom of a cooking utensil is painted black. Give the reason.
Answer:
The bottom part of the cooking utensil or pan is painted black. The reason is that the black surface absorbs more heat and so the contents of utensil or pan get cooked rapidly if its bottom part is painted black.

Question 50.
Draw a labelled diagram of a thermo flask. Explain how the transfer of heat by conduction, convection and radiation is reduced to a minimum in it.
Answer:
Heat transfer is minimised because of:
(1) The vacuum between the two walls, rubber, glass, cork and air do not allow the loss of heat by conduction.
(2) Cork in the neck of flask and the cup over it prevent loss of heat by convection.
(3) Heat cannot be lost by conduction or convection because of vacuum between the two walls.
(4) Heat loss is also minimised by radiation, by making outer surface of inner wall and inner surface of outer wall silvered. The inner wall is a BAD RADIATOR and the outer wall is a GOOD REFLECTOR of radiation.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 10

C. Numericals

Question 1.
The temperature of a body rises by 1°C. What is the corresponding rise on the (a) Fahrenheit scale (b) Kelvin scale?
Answer:
(a) Since 100 divisions on Celsius scale =180 divisions on the Fahrenheit scale 1 division on Celsius scale
∴ 1 division on Celsius scale
= 1.80 / 1.00 × 1
= 1.8 divisions in the Fahrenheit scale.
For 1°C rise corresponding rise in Fahrenheit = 1.8°F
(b) Since 100 divisions in the Celsius scale = 100 divisions in the Kelvin scale
1 division on Celsius scale = 100 / 100 × 1
= 1 division on Kelvin scale
For 1°C rise corresponding rise in Kelvin is 1 K.

Question 2.
The temperature rises by 18°F. What is the rise on the Celsius scale ?
Answer:
Since 100 divisions on the Celsius scale =180 divisions on the Fahrenheit scale
∴ 18 divisions on Fahrenheit scale.

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 11

Question 3.
Convert 5°F to the Celsius scale.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 12

Question 4.
Convert 40°C to the (a) Fahrenheit scale (b) Kelvin Scale.
Answer:
(a) Fahrenheit scale
C = 40°C
Substitute value of C = 40° in below equation

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 13

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 14

Question 5.
Convert – 40°F to the Celsius scale.
Answer:

Selina Concise Physics Class 7 ICSE Solutions Chapter 5 Heat 15

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – India in the Eighteenth Century

ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics – India in the Eighteenth Century

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics. You can download the History and Civics ICSE Solutions for Class 8 with Free PDF download option. History and Civics for Class 8 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 8 History & Civics GeographyBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

Time To Learn
I. Fill in the blanks:

  1. Murshid Quli Khan became the independent ruler of Bengal and shifted his capital to Murshidabad.
  2. Chin Qilich Khan founded the Asaf Jahi dynasty in AD 1724.
  3. Haider Ali was the ruler of Mysore.
  4. Banda Bahadur was the leader of the Sikhs after the death of Guru Govind Singh.
  5. Balaji Vishwanath was the first Peshwa.

II. Match the contents of Column A and Column B:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 1
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 2

Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 3

III. State whether the following statements are True or False:

  1. The office of the Peshwas was always hereditary.
    False.
  2. In the Third Battle of Panipat, the Marathas fought with the Rajputs and the Jats.
    False.
  3. The later Mughal kings were able rulers.
    False.
  4. Safdar Jung was the first Nizam of Hyderabad.
    False.
  5. Jai Singh built an observatory (Jantar Mantar) and Pink City (Jaipur).
    True.

 IV. Answer the following questions:

Question 1.
Write in brief the causes that led to the downfall of the Mughal empire.
Answer:
Causes that led to the downfall of Mughal Empire were
(a)
Weak successors: After Aurangzeb’s death the Mugh empire started declining. His successors were weak are were toys in the hands of nobles and Governors. The lacked the administrative skills of their predecessors.
(b)
Internal Rivalry: The nobles and Governors belonged different groups and were always engaged in const? struggle for power. This hampered the growth of the emp
(c)
Crisis in Jagirdari and Mansabdari system: The Mugh introduced the Jagirdari and the mansabdari systems , smooth running of their administration but they only prov to be the cause of the decline of their empire.
(d)
Invasion of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali:
Duri the reign of Mohammad Shah two foreign invasions crippl the Mughal empire. They invaded India and weakened tl Mughal Empire.

Question 2.
When and between whom was the Third Battle of Panipa fought? What were its results?
Answer:
The third battle of Panipat was fought in 1761 between Ahmad Shah Abdali, an Afghan invader and Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao. The Peshwa suffered a crushing defeat and this put an end to the Maratha power.

Question 3.
Name the first independent Nawab of Bengal. What were his achievements?
Answer:
Murshid Quli Khan became the first independent Nawab of Bengal. He established an efficient administration and effectively organised the revenue system. He also started the new system of land revenue collection, on the basis of contracts, known as Ijara system. He reorganised the zamindari for which he is will remembered in the history of Bengal.

Question 4.
When was the Battle of Plassey fought? What effect did it have on the position of the English East India Company?
Answer:
The Battle of Plassey was fought in 1757 between the British and Siraj-ud-daulah in which the English defeated the army of Siraj-ud-daulah. From then onwards the English East India Company functioned as king makers in Bengal politics. Finally,the English established their full sway in 1765 when Robert Clive set up the Dual Government in Bengal.

Question 5.
Who was Haider All? Discuss his achievements.
Answer:
Hyder All was the ruler of Mysore. He started his career as an ordinary soldier in the Mysore army. He won many battles against the Marathas, the Nizam of Hyderabad and routed his enemies in two consecutive Anglo-Mysore Wars.

Question 6.
Which ruler was known as the Tiger of Mysore?
Answer:
Tipu Sultan, the son and heir of Haider Ah and ruler of Mysore is known as ‘Tiger of Mysore.

V. Tell me why

Question 1.
The consequence of the Third Battle of Panipat was n advantageous for the British.
Answer:
The Marathas had established a Maratha Kingdom during the reign of Aurangzeb. They were very powerful and with time and with the decline of the Mughals would have proved worthy , opponents to the emerging British empire but the third Battle of Panipat (1761) sealed their fate. Ahmad Shah Abdali, an Afghan . invader gave a crushing defeat to the forces of Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao. It put an end to the Maratha power and their dream of ruling India. Thus, the way was proved for the British East India Company to gain power and become supreme.

Question 2.
Independent states were formed in the 18th century.
Answer:
The later Mughal rulers were so weak that they could not hold the provinces of the empire together. These provinces were under Governors who were always engaged in wars. Gradually, they took advantage of the situation of misrule and misgovemance by the central authority and declared independence.Thus, Bengal, Hyderabad, Awadh Rohikhand became independent one after the other.

VI. Pictury study – This is a picture of a great ruler of Punjab.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 4

Question 1.
Identify him.
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh.

Question 2.
How did the unite the Sikhs in Punjab?
Answer:
Maharaja Ranjit Singh brought the whole area west of River Sutlej under his control and established the Sikh kingdom in Punjab. He signed the Treaty of Amritsar (1809) with the British which confirmed his conquests and established his sovereignty over the terrioty west of Satluj. It was only after his death in 1839 that the British gained control over the Punjab.

Additional Questions

EXERCISES
A. Fill in the blanks:

  1. During the first half of the 18th century, the great Mughal empire decayed and disintegrated.
    The Mughal emperors who ruled India after the death of Aurangzeb are known as the later Mughals.
  2. There were four groups of nobles in the Mughal court.
  3. Nadir Shah looted and plundered Delhi He carried away immense treasures including the priceless Kohinoor and the Peacock Throne.
  4. Ahmad Shah Abdali, the ruler of Afghanistan, repeatedly attacked the Mughal empire.
  5. Bahadur Shah Zafar, was defeated in the Revolt of 1857 and exiled to Rangoon by the British.

B. Match the following:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 5
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 6
Answer:
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 7

C. Choose the correct answer:

  1. Aurangzeb/Akbar/Shah Jahan followed a policy of religious intolerance.
    Ans. Aurangzeb followed a policy of religious intolerance.
  2. The military campaign in the Deccan led by Shah Jahan/ Aurangzeb/Akbar ruined the Mughal empire financially
    Ans. The military campaign in the Deccan led by Aurangzeb ruined the Mughal empire financially.
  3. The invasions of Ahmad Shah Abdali, the ruler of Afghanistan/Persia/Iraq shattered the power and prestige of the Mughal empire.
    Ans. The invasions of Ahmad Shah Abdali, the ruler of Afghanistan shattered the power and prestige of the Mughal empire.
  4. The Mughal empire lasted for over 3/5/6
    Ans. The Mughal empire lasted for over 3 centuries.
  5. The British ruled over India for a 100 years/nearly 200 years/ 300 years.
    Ans. The British ruled over India for nearly 200 years.

D. State whether the following are true or false.

  1. Bahadur Shah ascended the throne after the death of Aurangzeb.
    True.
  2. The Mughal court was united and stable.
    False
    Correct:- The Mughal court was divided and unstable.
  3. The Mughal officers were given jagirs as payments for their services.
    True.
  4. The Mughal rulers did not have a navy.
    True.
  5. The successors of Aurangzeb were very strong and efficient.
    False.
    Correct: The successors of Aurangzeb were very weak and unefficient.

E. Answer the following questions in one or two words/ sentences:

Question 1.
When did the transition from the Medieval to the Modern Period begin in India?
Answer:
The transition from the Medieval to the Modem Priod began with the decline of the Mughal empire in the first half of the 18th century.

Question 2.
Name the first and the last emperors in the line of the Later Mughals.
Answer:
Bahadur Shah first in the line of emperors referred to as the Later Mughals. Bahadur Shah Zafar last emperor in the line of the Later Mughals.

Question 3.
Name any two rival groups of nobles in the Mughal court.
Answer:

  1. The Iranis hailed from Persia
  2. Turanis hailed fromTransoxiana.

Question 4.
Mention any two reasons for the failure of the mansabdari system.
Answer:
Mansabdars had to maintain a fixed number of troops. They were given jagirs as the payment for doing so. Later, an increase in the number of mansabs and a shortage of jagirs led to corruption and inefficiency in the system.

Question 5.
What was the economic impact of the Mughal wars of succession?
Answer:
After the death of a Mughal ruler, generally there were wars of succession among rival claimants to the throne. These wars proved very costly and destructive. They drained the resources of the empire and made it instable and weak.

Question 6.
How did Aurangzeb’s religious policy affect the relationship between the Mughals and the Rajputs?
Answer:
Aurangzeb’s policy of religious intolerance shook the foundations of the empire and resulted in the following:

  • The costly, long-drawn and ruinous Deccan campaign.
  • Numerous wars with the Sikhs, the Marathas, the Jats and the Rajputs.
  • Loss of support of the loyal Rajputs who had earlier contributed greatly to the stability of the Mughal empire but now became its bitter foes.

Question 7.
What led to the drain on the royal treasury during Shah Jahan’s reign?
Answer:
The enormous sums of money spent by Shah Jahan on magnificent monuments like the Taj Mahal had drained the royal treasury.

Question 8.
Which Mughal emperor assumed leadership of the Revolt of 1857? What happened to him after the Revolt?
Answer:
Bahadur Shah Zafar, the last of the Mughals, assumed leadership of the rebels in the Revolt of 1857 against the British. He was defeated and exiled to Rangoon where he died. The Mughal empire came to an inglorious end.

F. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Several factors were responsible for the decline of the Mughal empire. In this context answer the following questions:
(a).How did court politics undermine the authority and prestige of the Mughal empire?
(b).To what extent was the jagirdari crisis responsible for a further decline of the power of the emperor?(c).How did the wars of succession destabilize the Mughal empire?
Answer:
(a).
There were four groups of nobles in the Mughal court- Iranis, Turanis, Afghans and Hindustanis. The Iranis hailed from Persia, the Turanis hailed from Transoxiana, and the Afghans came from the mountainous border regions across the river Indus. The Mughal court was a house sharply divided from within. This resulted in a constant struggle for power among these groups. Their mutual jealousies and rivalries caused great harm to the Mughal administration and undermined the prestige and authority of the Mughal emperor.
(b)
The Mughal officers were given jagirs as payment for their services. Towards the end of the 17th century, there were very few jagirs left. To satisfy the demands of the newly recruited officers, crown lands were converted to jagir lands and given to the nobles. This led to a loss of revenue for the royal treasury and a further decline in the power of the emperor.
(c)
After the death of a Mughal ruler, generally there were wars of succession among rival claimants to the throne. These wars proved very costly and destructive. They drained the resources of the empire and made it instable and weak.

Question 2.
With reference to the decline and disintegration of
(a) The Mughal empire discuss the following:
(b) The breakdown of the mansabdari system The weaknesses
(c) of the Mughal army Aurangzeb’s religioius policy
Answer:
(a) Under this system, mansabdars had to maintain a fixed number of troops. They were given jagirs as the payment for doing so. Later, an increase in the number of mansabs and a shortage of jagirs led to corruption and inefficiency in the system.

(b) 
The Mughal army also failed to keep pace with the time. The Mughal rulers did not have a navy and made no efforts to establish one. Their equipment and techniques of warfare were obsolete and ineffective. Nothing was done to reform, modernize and strengthen the army.

(c) 
His policy of religious intolerance shook the foundations of the empire and resulted in the following:

  1. The costly, long-drawn and ruinous Deccan campaign.
  2. Numerous wars with the Sikhs, the Marathas, the Jats and the Rajputs.
  3. Loss of support of the loyal Rajputs who had earlier contributed greatly to the stability of the Mughal empire but now became its bitter foes.

Question 3.
To what extent were the following factors responsible for the eventual collapse of the Mughal empire?
(a) Economic bankruptcy (b) Foreign invasions (c) Weak successors
Answer:
(a) Economic bankruptcy: A major cause of the disintegration of the Mughal empire was its economic bankruptcy. The enormous sums of money spent by Shah jahan on magnificent monuments like the Taj Mahal had drained the royal treasury. Aurangzeb’s Deccan campaign was a financial disaster that ruined the empire and made its collapse inevitable.

(b)Foreign invasions:
The invasions of Nadir Shah, the ruler of Persia (Iran), and Ahmad Shah Abdali, the ruler of Afghanistan, shattered the power and prestige of the Mughals. Nadir Shah looted and plundered Delhi and carried away valuable treasures, including the priceless Kohinoor Diamond and the Peacock Throne. Ahmad Shad Abdali plundered northern India repeatedly.

(c) Weak successors:
Aurangzeb ruled over a vast empire which he controlled with an iron hand. His successors were pleasure-loving, weak and inefficient. They were puppets in the hands of powerful, ambitious nobles who controlled the administration. The provincial governors took advantage of the weak government at the centre and set up independent kingdoms in the Mughal provinces. This led to the break-up and collapse of the empire.

G. Picture Study:

This is a portrait of the last of the Later Mughals.
ICSE Solutions for Class 8 History and Civics - India in the Eighteenth Century 8

Question 1.
Identify the Mughal emperor represented in this picture.
Answer:
Bahadur Shah Zafar.

Question 2.
What part did he play in the Revolt of 1857?
Answer:
Role of Bahadur Shah Zafar in the Revolt of 1857:
As the Indian rebellion of 1857 spread, sepoy regiments seized Delhi. Seeking a figure that could unite all Indians, Hindu and Muslim alike, Most rebelling Indian kings and the Indian regiments accepted Zafar as the Emperorof India. Under whom the smaller Indian kingdom would unite until the British were defeated. Zafar was the least threatening and least ambitious of monarchs, and the legacy of the Mughal Empire was more acceptable a uniting force to most allied kings than the domination of any other Indian kingdom.

Question 3.
What happened to the Mughal empire after his death?
Answer:
The Mughal Empire came to an inglorious end.

Question 4.
Mention any four reasons for the decline of the Mughal empire Explain any two reasons.
Answer:
(a) Politics in the Mughal court
(b) Weak Military organization and Administration
(c) Aurangzeb’s Bankruptcy
(d) Foreign Invasions

  • Politics in the Mughal court: There were four groups of nobles in the Mughal court Iranis, Turanis, Afghans and Hindustanis. The Iranis hailed from Persia, the Turanis hailed from Transoxiana, and Afghans came from the mountainous border regions across the Indus. The Mughal court was a house sharply divided from within. This resulted in a constant struggle for power among these groups. Their mutual jealousies and rivalries caused great harm to the Mughal administration and undermined the prestige and authority of the Mughal Emperor.
  • Economic Bankruptcy: A major cause of the disintegration of the Mughal Empire was its economic bankruptcy. The enormous sums of money spent by Shah Jahan on magnificent monuments like the Taj Mahal had drained the royal treasury. Aurangzeb’s Deccan campaign was a financial disaster that ruined the empire and made its collapse inevitable.

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America : Location, Area, Political and Physical Features

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage – North America : Location, Area, Political and Physical Features

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage. You can download the Voyage Geography ICSE Solutions for Class 6 with Free PDF download option. Geography Voyage for Class 6 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

ICSE Solutions Class 6 GeographyHistory & CivicsBiologyChemistryPhysicsMaths

POINTS TO REMEMBER

  • North America has been named after Amerigo Vespucci, an Italian explorer. However, Christopher Columbus is credited with the discovery of this continent.
  • The continent lies in the northern and the western hemispheres surrounded by the Arctic, the Atlantic and the Pacific oceans. The Isthmus of Panama joins North America to South America.
  • The United States of America and Canada occupy three fourths of North america.
  • NorthAmerica can be divided into four major physical divisions— the Canadian or Laurentian Shield, the Western Mountain System or Western Cordilleras, the Eastern Highlands or Appalachian Mountains and the Central Lowlands or Great Central Plains.
  • The Canadian Shield is composed of some of the oldest known hard rocks of the world. The surface of the Shield consists of many deep depressions formed by scraping and scouring out by moving ice. These depressions have been filled up with meltwater to form many freshwater lakes such as the five Great Lakes.
  • The Western Cordilleras are a series of young fold mountain ranges which have many active and extinct volcanoes, earthquake-prone regions and hot springs. The Cordilleras consist of several parallel ranges such as the Alaska Range and the Brooks Range. The highest point in North America, Mt McKinley, lies here. .
  • The Appalachians are lower than the Western Cordilleras. The eastern slopes of these highlands are very steep.
  • The edge of the Piedmont Plateau (located at the foot of the Appalachians or the Eastern Highlands) has many waterfalls along its length. It is referred to as the Fall Line.
  • The Great Central Plains have the largest river system in North America—the Mississippi-Missouri river system.
  • North America has several large rivers such as the Mississippi, Missouri, Mackenzie, Nelson, St Lawrence, Hudson, Yukon, Columbia and Rio Grande.
  • Lumbering is an important activity in the coniferous or taiga forests of Canada, carried out by lumbermen or lumberjacks.
  • Lumbering involves several stages of work such as cutting, skidding and hauling.

IMPORTANT TERMS

Gorge : A deep narrow valley with near vertical sides. Intermontane plateau: a plateau surrounded by mountains on all sides.
Lumbering : The cutting down of trees and the processes leading to the manufacture of products like paper, newsprint, synthetic fibres, etc.
Lumberjacks : Workers engaged in lumbering.
Meltwater : Water derived from the melting of glacier ice and/or snow.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

All occupations are important. Every job has dignity and deserves our respect.
How do you treat the people who work in your home and help you in your daily life ?
Answer:
We treat them with respect and dignity.

EXERCISES

A. Fill in the blanks

  1. A narrow stretch of land that joins North America to South America and separates the Atlantic Ocean from the Pacific Ocean : The Isthmus of Panama.
  2. The tropical islands, called the West Indies, are located in this sea : Caribbean Sea.
  3. Aphysical division of North America around the Hudson Bay which has the oldest known hard rocks of the world : The Canadian Shield.
  4. A river that flows northwards and drains into the Hudson Bay : River Meckenzie and River Nelson.

B. Identify who I am.

  1. I am a city in North America which is a symbol of unity, history, and democracy : Washington DG.
  2. I am an island at the entrance of river Hudson where the famous Statue of Liberty is situated : Liberty Island.
  3. I am the city which is world famous for its film industry : Los Angeles.
  4. I am the city which has the Ridean Canal : Ottawa
  5. I am the city of Canada which was once the world’s leading grain port : Montreal

C. Give geographical reasons why 

Question 1.
The 49° N latitude and the 100°W longitude are important for North America.
Answer:
The 49° N latitude marks the boundary between Canada and United States whereas 100°W longitude passes through the centre of North America. So both are important.

Question 2.
The Western Cordilleras form part of the ‘Pacific Ring of Fire’.
Answer:
The Western Cordilleras i.e. the western part of North America from Alaska to the Isthmus of Panama consists of young fold mountain ranges which contain very active volcanoes and lie close to the pacific ocean thus forming a part of the ‘ Pacific Ring of Fire’.

Question 3.
The Appalachians appear as low hills today.
Answer:
The Appalachians are old fold mountains and the glaciers and rivers have eroded them over millions of years. So they appear as low hills today.

Question 4.
Lumbering is traditionally done in the winter season.
Answer:
In winters the sap in trees is frozen,making it easier to cut and drag the logs on frozen river grounds. The winter air is clean, refreshing and free from perts.

D. Answer the following questions in brief
Question 1.
Name the Italian explorer who reached North America in 1507 CE.
Answer:
Amerigo Vespucci.

Question 2.
Name some of the islands that are collectively called the West Indies.
Answer:
The tropical islands of the Caribbean sea are collectively called the West Indies. They include Cuba, Jamaica, Puerto Rico, Dominican Republic, Haiti, etc. form West Indies.

Question 3.
Why is New York an important city in the USA ?
Answer:
Hudson River is the famous Statue of Liberty on Liberty Island.

Question 4.
Where are the Great Lakes situated ? Which river drains these lakes into the Atlantic Ocean ?
Answer:
The Great Rivers are located in the Canadian or Laurentian shield. The St. Lawrence River connects and drains the Great Lakes.

Question 5.
Write about the largest river system of North America.
Answer:
The largest river system of America includes River Mackenzie falling into the Arctic Ocean. St. Lawrence, Hudson connecting all the Great Lakes draining into the North Atlantic Ocean, Yukon, Columbia falling into Pacific Ocean and Mississippi and Missouri rivers falling into Gulf of Mexico.

Question 6.
Where is the Grand Canyon situated ? Why is it so famous?
Answer:
The Grand Canyon of the Colorado River is 2000 m deep and 400 km long and so it is famous for its majesty and beauty.

D. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
List the four major physical divisions of North America. Describe any one of them briefly.
Answer:
The four major physical divisions of North America are the Canadian or Laurentian shield, the Western Mountain System or Western Cordilleras, the eastern highlands or Appalachians Mountains and the central lowlands or Great Central Plains. The Central lowlands extend from Hindsom Bay in the north to
the Gulf of Mexico in the South covering distance of more than 6000 km and about 2000 km in width. They are also called the Great Central Plains. The plains are higher in West and slope northward in Canada. The main rivers which flow in these plains include Mackenzie, Mississippi—Missouri.

Question 2.
Why is the Canadian Shield region full of lakes ? Name any three lakes other than the five Great Lakes.
Answer:
The Canadian Shield is composed of oldest known hard rocks and the surface of land consists of many deep hollows of depression. When Ice Age ended, these depressions were filled by meltwater from glaciers and ice-sheets. Apart from the Great Lakes, Lake Winnipeg, Great Bear Lake, Great Slave Lake and Lake Athabasca are important lakes present in this region.

Question 3.
What are the various categories of lumberjacks ? What kind of work do they do ?
Answer:
The various categories of Lumberjacks include the high riggers, sawers or buckers. Skidders and haulers or transporters. The high riggers are people who climb the tall coniferous trees to cut off its branches first and then trunk.
The sawers use saw and axes to cut the trunk into lengths measuring 1 to 5 m.
The skidders mainly collect the logs and stack them along a frozen river bank, road or railway line.
The haulers ensure the transfer of logs down a river till they reach, a sawnill or factory. This include clearing ‘ log-jams’ with long poles or use sticks of dynamites to move logs which cause jams.

Question 4.
Describe how the lives and work of lumberjacks have changed in modern times.
Answer:
Lumberjacks used to have a very hard life in earlier days as their work of falling trees begins early followed by cutting off branches of fallen trees, skidding and hauling. They had to live in camps and start their days quiet early. But now settled communities of forest workers have developed. The forests are more accessible and they use power driven saws, powered cranes and automobiles.

E. Read books and encyclopaedias to find more information about Christopher Columbus, Amerigo Vespucci and other great explorers. Record your findings and stick some pictures alongside, if possible. Then share this information with other classmates and have a classroom discussion.
Answer:
Do it yourself.

F. Picture study

ICSE Solutions for Class 6 Geography Voyage Chapter 8 North America Location, Area, Political and Physical Features 1
This is a photograph of the Grand Canyon in Arizona.

Question 1.
Why do you think this canyon is called ‘Grand’ ?
Answer:
This Canyon is about 2000 m deep and 400 km long because it is world famous for its majesty and beauty, so it is called the Grand Canyon.

Question 2.
Name the river that has carved out the Grand Canyon.
Answer:
Its carved out of Colorado River.

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Physical and Chemical Changes

Selina Concise Chemistry Class 7 ICSE Solutions – Physical and Chemical Changes

ICSE SolutionsSelina ICSE SolutionsML Aggarwal Solutions

APlusTopper.com provides step by step solutions for Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Chemistry. You can download the Selina Concise Chemistry ICSE Solutions for Class 7 with Free PDF download option. Selina Publishers Concise Chemistry for Class 7 ICSE Solutions all questions are solved and explained by expert teachers as per ICSE board guidelines.

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Selina Concise ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Chemistry Chapter 2 Physical and Chemical Changes

Points to Remember :

  1. All changes are classified into two types
    (i) Physical change
    (ii) Chemical change.
  2. Physical Change— A physical change is a temporary change in which no new substance is formed and chemical composition remains same. e.g. Melting of ice.
  3. Chemical Change— A chemical change is a permanent change, in which a new substances are formed whose chemical composition and physical properties are different, e.g. Burning of a candle.
  4. Chemical Reaction— Any chemical change in matter involving its transformation into one or more new substances is called a chemical reaction.
  5. Chemical Equations— A chemical equation is the symbolic representation of a chemical reaction using the symbols and the formulae of the substances involved in the reaction.
  6. The substances that react with one another are called reactants, and the new substances thus formed are called products.
  7. A balanced chemical reaction is one in which the number of the atoms of each element on the
  8. reactant side is equal to the number of atoms of that element on the product side.
  9. The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor be destroyed.
  10. A chemical equation gives both qualitative and quantitative information about reactants aftd products.
  11. The type of chemical reaction in which two substances combine to form a new substance is known as combination reaction.
  12. The type of chemical reaction in which a substance breaks up on heating to form two or more simpler substances,
    which can be either elements or compounds, known as decomposition reaction.

Exercise

Question 1.
(a) Define:
(i) a physical change
(ii) a chemical change
(b) Give two examples for each of the above two changes.
Answer:
(a) (i) Physical chagne : A temporary change in which no new substance is formed, the composition of substance remains the same, though its state, shape and size may change.
(ii) Chemical change : A permanent change in which new substances are formed whose composition and properties are completely different from those of the original substances.
(b) Physical change:
(i) Change of water into its vapours.
(ii) Heating of iron rod.
Chemical change:
(i) Burning of wood.
(ii) Breathing.

Question 2.
What are reversible and irreversible changes ? Give one example for each.
Answer:

  1. Reversible change : When a change in a substance can be reversed by changing the conditions, it is said to be a reversible change.
    Example : Melting of ghee or wax.
  2. Irreversible change : When a substance can not be brought back to its original state after a change, it is said to be an irreversible change.
    Example : Souring of milk.

Question 3.
Mention a change which is always
Answer:

  1. Desirable : Changes that are useful to man are desirable changes, e.g. change of milk into curd.
  2. Undesirable : Change that brings about destruction is an undesirable change, e.g. floods and epidemics are undesirable changes.
  3. Periodic : Changes that are repeated at regular intervals of time are called periodic changes, e.g. change of day and night.

Question 4.
Is burning a physical change or a chemical change? Why?
Answer:
Burning is a chemical change as new substance is formed with new properties and it cannot be reversed.

Question 5.
A burning candle shows both physical and chemical changes. Explain ?
Answer:
A burning candle produces wax vapours which solidify and form wax again is physical change. At the same time wax on burning produces water vapours and carbondioxide which escape into the atmosphere which are new substances with new properties. It is a chemical change.
Hence burning of candle shows both physical and chemcial changes.

Question 6.
State three differences between evaporation and boiling
Answer:

Evaporation Boiling
  1. Evaporation is a slow process.
  2. Evaporation takes place from the surface of the liquid.
  3. Evaporation takes place at all temperature.
  1. Boiling is a fast process.
  2. Bgiling takes place from all parts of the liquid.
  3. Boiling takes place at a fixed temperature on heating.

Question 7.
State four differences between physical and chemical changes.
Answer:
Four differences are :

Physical change Chemical change
  1. No new substances with new properties are formed.
  2. It can be reversed by simple physical methods.
  3. It is temporary change.
  4. Energy is neither needed nor produced.
  1. New substances with new properties are formed.
  2. Change cannot be reversed by simple physical methods.
  3. It is permanent change.
  4. Energy is either needed or evolved.

Question 8.
What do you observe when :

  1. water is boiled
    On boiling water changes into steam (gas) physical change.
  2. a piece of paper is burnt
    On burning piece of paper produces carbon dioxide and ash is left behind. Is a chemical change.
  3. some ice cubes are kept in a glass tumbler
    Ice cubes (solid) turn into water (liquid) only state changes (physical change).
  4. solid ammonium chloride is heated
    Solid ammonium chloride on heating changes into vapours (change of state) is physical change.
  5. an iron nail is kept in tap water for few days
    We observe reddish brown coating on the nail called rust (entirely new substance) is chemical change.
  6. a spoon of sugar is heated in a pan
    When a spoon of sugar is heated in a pan, black (charred sugar) (carbon) is seen. Is a chemical change.
  7. lighted match stick is brought near the mouth of the test tube containing hydrogen gas.
    We observe that hydrogen bums at the mouth of test tube with blue flame and pop sound is heard. It is chemical change.
  8. quick lime is dissolved in water.
    The following two observations will be observed
    (i) A hissing sound is observed.
    (ii) The mixture starts boiling and lime water is obtained.
  9.  liittle ammount of curd is added to a bowl containing warm milk and kept for five hours.
    When a little amount curd is added to a bowl containing warm milk and kept for five hours, a permanent change occured.
    The milk will change to curd. On boiling water changes into steam (gas) physical change.

Question 9.
Name a chemical change which takes place in presence of:
Answer:
Heat:

  1. Burning of paper.
  2. Cooking of food need heat.

Light :

  1. Formation of food by plants i.e. photosynthesis need light.
  2. Hydrogen and chlorine react in presence of light

Electricity:

  1. Water breaks into hydrogen and oxygen on passing electricity.
  2. Sodium chloride solution breaks up into its components sodium and Chlorine on passing electric current through sodium chloride solution.

Objective Type Questions

Question 1.
Fill in the blanks.

  1. A new substance is always formed in a chemical change.
  2. Melting of ice is a physical change.
  3. When a candle burns, wax melts. Melting of wax is a physical change.
  4. Chemical change occurs as a result of rearrangement of atoms between two substances.
  5. Burning of a fuel is a chemical change.
  6. Revolution of the earth around the sun is a natural periodic change.
  7. Growing of a seedling into a plant is chemical change.

Question 2.
State whether the following are physical or chemical changes.

  1. glowing of a bulb — physical change,
  2. burning of sugar — chemical change,
  3. heating of water — physical change,
  4. growing of a piglet into a pig — chemical change,
  5. burning of wood — chemical change,
  6. passing electric current through a heater rod — physical change.
  7. water cycle in nature — physical change,
  8. respiration in living beings — chemical change,
  9. shaping a piece of glass — physical change,
  10. lightning — chemical change,
  11. (energy produced) dissolving sugar in water — physical change,
  12. heating a mixture of iron filings and sulphur—chemical change.
  13. mixing oil with water — physical change.
  14. cutting wood into small pieces — physical change,
  15. photosynthesis — chemical change.
  16. Digestion of food — chemical change.
  17. Melting of wax — physical change.
  18. Boiling of an egg — chemical change.
  19. Slaking of lime — chemical change.

Question 3.
Match the following:

Physical and Chemical changes 1
Physical and Chemical changes 3
Answer:
Physical and Chemical changes 4

Question 4.
Write true or false against the following statements :

  1. Cutting of paper into pieces is a chemical change.
    False
  2. Rusting of iron is a chemical change.
    True
  3. Earthquake is a desirable change.
    False
  4. Melting of ice is a physical change.
    True
  5. Burning of sugar is a temporary change.
    False

Multiple Choice Questions

Tick (√) the correct alternative from the choice given for the following statements :
Question 1.
A substance which can not sublime is
Answer:

  1. iodine
  2. camphor
  3. sugar
  4. dry ice

Question 2.
When you put some ice cubes in a glass, droplets of water are formed on the outerwall of the glass. This explains the phenomenon of
Answer:

  1. melting
  2. freezing
  3. condensation
  4. evaporation

Question 3.
Burning is a
Answer:

  1. slow process
  2. fast process
  3. natural process
  4. none of the above

Question 4.
Which one of the following is volatile in nature ?
Answer:

  1. common salt
  2. petrol
  3. water
  4. milk

Question 5.
An example of both physical and chemical change is
Answer:

  1. burning of candle
  2. melting of ice
  3. cooking of food
  4. blowing of bulb

Question 6.
The compound rust is a hydrated oxide of
Answer:

  1. copper
  2. aluminium
  3. iron
  4. gold

Question 7.
When sugar is heated, its colour changes into
Answer:

  1. red
  2. brown
  3. black
  4. grey

Question 8.
A pop sound is heard when a lighted match stick is brought
near the mouth of a jar. This indicates the release of gas.
Answer:

  1. oxygen
  2. hydrogen
  3. nitrogen
  4. water-vapour

Question 9.
When we add water to the following substances, which one will show a chemical change ?
Answer:

  1. salt
  2. sugar
  3. oild
  4. quick lime

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Location, Area, Political & Physical Features

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage – Africa: Location, Area, Political & Physical Features

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THINK AND ANSWER

Why did Africa remain unexplored for a long time ?
Answer:
The equator passes through the middle of the continent and most of Africa lies within the tropics. It is, therefore, the hottest continent.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa. In the north, the Sahara, the world’s largest desert, was impenetrable due to severe heat and dry conditions. Most of Africa consists of undulating plateaus, so it was difficult to reach the interior from the coastal areas. The rivers of Africa have many rapids and waterfalls, and are not fit for navigation. The extensive equatorial forests and swampy lands teeming with dangerous tsetse flies and poisonous insects discouraged explorers from entering the heart of the continent.

Discuss

Deforestation rate in Africa is twice the average for the rest of the world with more than four million hectares of primary forest disappearing every year. What could be the reasons for this.
Answer:
The reasons would be :

  1. Conversion of forests for subsistenance and commercial agriculture.
  2. Deforestation done because of commercial logging
  3. Other activities such as cattle rattling, cash crop plantations, and the construction of dams, roads and mines.

VALUES AND LIFE SKILLS

The Sahara Desert forms a large part of Africa. This desert extends from the Atlantic in the west to the Red Sea in the east.
Suppose you were going to the Sahara Desert. List the things you would take with you.
What kind of problems are you likely to face ?
How would you cope with them ?
Answer:
The things one should carry and the problems we can face are discussed below :
1. Preparing for Desert Emergencies —
(a) Wear clothing that minimizes sweat loss : Most of your body’s water loss happens through perspiration. Cover as much skin as possible with loose, light-weight clothing. This will trap the sweat against your skin, slowing evaporation and therefore water loss.
(b) Bring lots of extra water : Whenever you enter a desert, bring more water than you expect. While walking in sunshine and 40°C (104°F) heat, the average person loses 900 mL (30 oz) of sweat every hour. In an emergency situation, you’ll be thankful for any water you carried.

  1. Divide the water you’ re carrying among several containers. This minimizes the amount of water you can lose to one leak.
  2. Store the excess in a cool spot in your vehicle, away from direct sunlight.

(c) Bring food that packs the most nutrition in the least size and weight: Energy bars, pemmican, jerky, and trail mix are popular choices. Do your research, experiment beforehand, and be prepared. When wheeled vehicles break down, it’s just your two legs and the path to the next town, and you don’t want to be carrying anything nonessential.
(d) Pack survival equipment: Here are the bare essentials for a survival kit:

  1. Sturdy emergency blankets
  2. Cords or rope
  3. Water purification tablets
  4. First aid kit
  5. Fire starters
  6. Powerful flashlight or headlamp. LEDs last longest.
  7. Knife
  8. Compass
  9. Signal mirror
  10. Goggles and a dust mask or bandana (for dust storms)

2. Survival Tactics :
(a) Become nocturnal: In a desert survival situation, you do not want to be moving around during the day. The cooler night air enables you to travel farther and faster with minimum danger of heat exhaustion. In hot climates, this single decision will save your body about three liters (three quarts) of water per day.
(b) Stay in a shelter during the day: If you don’t have a shaded car to stay in, string cords between a pair of objects in a place that gets shade most of the day. Drape a sturdy emergency blanket over the cords. Place a few pieces of brush on top of the blanket, then cover it with another emergency blanket (this one can be a thin Mylar sheet). The gap of air between the two blankets insulates the shelter, keeping it cooler.
(c) Signal for help : Building a fire is a great way to make a signal, creating smoke during the day and light at night. While in transit, keep a signal mirror in reach to reflect light at passing aircraft or distant cars.
(d) Decide whether to stay in place : If you have a supply of water and someone knows where you are, staying in one place may be your best chance of rescue. Traveling to find help will exhaust you much faster than staying in place, and water loss will cut your survival time way down if you can’t find another supply. That said, if your water supplies are low, you will need to look for more. You cannot expect to survive more than a couple of days if you run out of water.
(e) Find water sources : If there’s been a rainstorm recently, you may find pockets of water in rock outcrops or flat stone surfaces. More often, you’ll need to search for areas with possible groundwater:

  1. Follow animal tracks leading downhill, birds circling around something, or even flying insects.
  2. Walk to the greenest vegetation you can see, especially large plants with wide leaves.

3. Recognizing Dangers
(a) Watch out for signs of dehydration : Many people make their journey much harder by underestimating their water needs. Trying to ration your supply is a mistake that can cost your life. If you notice any of the following symptoms, drink more water:

  1. Urine with a dark color or a noticeable smell.
  2. Dry skin
  3. Dizziness
  4. Fainting

(b) Rest if you experience heat exhaustion : If you feel lightheaded or nauseous, or if your skin feels cool and clammy, seek shade immediately. Rest and treat yourself as follows:

  1. Remove or loosen your clothing
  2. Sip a sports drink or slightly salty water (about 5 mL salt per liter water /1 tsp per quart).
  3. Apply wet cloth on your skin to aid cooling evaporation.

(c) Stay away from dangerous animals : Most mammals and reptiles will stay away from you, especially if they are alone. Follow the same practice and be aware of your surroundings to avoid accidentally cornering something.

EXERCISES

A. Choose the correct answer :

1. The strait that separates Europe from Africa is the

  1. Palk Srait
  2. Bering Strait
  3. Strait of Gibraltar
  4. trait of Magellan

2. A large portion of Africa lies in the

  1. desert
  2. tropics
  3. temperate region
  4. marshy land

3. The area in a desert where water can be found is called a/an

  1. pond
  2. well
  3. depression
  4. oasis

4. The Sudd is a

  1. lake
  2. swamp
  3. gulf
  4. cape

5. The largest lake in Africa is

  1. Lake Chad
  2. Lake Tana
  3. Lake Victoria
  4. Lake Tanganyika

B. Identify who I am

1. i am a country through which the Tropic of Capricorn passes: Namibia.
2. I am the southernmost tip of Africa: Cape of Good Hope.
3. I am a snow-capped mountain near the equator: Mt. Kilimanjaro.
4. I am the longest river of Africa: Nile.
5. I am a river that flows into Lake Chad: The Chari.
6. I am a lake that does not lie in the Great Rift Valley of Africa: Lake Victoria.
7. I am a river that flows through the Namib Desert: Okavango

C. Match the following:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 1
Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 2

D. Give geographical reasons

Question 1.
People faced many difficulties while exploring Africa.
Answer:
It was difficult to explore Africa because of deserts like Sahara which have severe heat and dry conditions, the undulating plateaux, non-navigable rivers, extensive equatorial forests, swampy lands and poisonous insects.

Question 2.
The rivers of Africa are not very suitable for navigation in their lower course.
Answer:
The rivers have many rapids and waterfalls making them unfit for navigation.

Question 3.
The river Nile flows through a desert and yet has water throughout the year.
Answer:
River Nile has water throughout the year because its source is Lake Victoria which lies in the rainy equatorial region.

E. Answer the following questions briefly.

Question 1.
Give the latitudinal extent of Africa and explain why it is mostly a tropical continent.
Answer:
Latitudinal extent of Africa is 37°N to 35°S. Africa is known as mostly tropical continent because a large portion of Africa lies in the Tropics, the Tropic of cancer (23 1/2° N) in the North and the Tropic of Capricorn (23 1/2° S) in the South.

Question 2.
Name three great explorers connected with the African continent.
Answer:
David Livingstone, who discovered Victoria Falls in 1855. Mungo Park followed the course of the river Niger. Henry Morton Stanley traced the course of the river Congo from Lake Tanganyika to its mouth.

Question 3.
Name the major mountain ranges of Africa.
Answer:
The Atlas Mountains lie in north-western Africa. They are young fold mountains consisting of three parallel ranges—the Tell Atlas in the north, the High Atlas in the middle, and the Sahara Atlas in the south. The highest peak in the Atlas Mountains is Mt Toublkal, which remains snow-capped most of the year.

Question 4.
Name the lakes found in the Great Rift Valley.
Answer:
The lakes found in the Great Rift Valley are Lake Malawi, Lake Mobutu, Lake Edward and Lake Turkana.

Question 5.
How much time does it take the cocoa tree to yield cocoa pods ?
Answer:
An evergreen tropical plant, the cocoa tree grows to a height of 4 to 9 m. It begins to yield cocoa pods after about 5-7 years. Cocoa pods grow on the trunk and main branches. Each pod is about 18-25 cm long and contains pulp with beans.

F. Answer the following questions in one or two paragraphs

Question 1.
Elaborate on the achievements of the great explorers in opening up the continent of Africa.
Answer:
Explorers like David Livingstone discovered Victoria Falls. Mungo Park discovered the course of river Niger. Henry Morton Stanley traced the source of river Congo from Lake Tanganyika to its mouth.

Question 2.
Name the major physical divisions of Africa. Describe any one.
Answer:
Africa can be divided into the following physical divisions: the Atlas Mountains, the low central plateau, the high plateau of the south, the Great Rift Valley, the Nile and Congo-Zaire Basins, and the coastal plains.

  1. The Atlas Mountains lie in north-western Africa. They are young fold mountains.
  2. There are three parallel ranges – the Tell Atlas in the north, the High Atlas in the middle, and the Sahara Atlas in the south. The highest peak in the Atlas Mountains is Mt Toubkal, which remains snow-capped most of the year.
  3. The low central plateau extends from the Atlantic Coast in the west to the Nile Valley in the east. The Sahara Desert forms a part of this plateau. This desert extends from the Atlantic in the west to the Red Sea in the east, and covers an area of 8.6 million sq.km.
  4. The Great Rift Valley of Africa is a special physical feature of the southern plateau. It is a long narrow valley formed as a
    result of vertical cracks that developed because of the movements within the earth. It extends for a total distance of 5,000 km from Lake Malawi to the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aqaba to the Dead Sea in Jordan.

Question 3.
Describe the three important deserts found in Africa.
Answer:
The three important deserts are Sahara, The Namib, The Kalahari.
Sahara is part of the low Central Plateau. It is the largest desert in the world covering the area of 8.6 million square km.
The Namib, desert runs along the Western Coast in South-West Africa.
Kalahari desert lies in the Southern part of Africa forming part of High Plateau of South Africa.

Question 4.
What is a rift valley? How is it formed?
Answer:
The Great Rift Valley is a long narrow valley formed as a result of vertical cracks that developed because of movements within the earth. It extends for a total distance of5,000 km from Lake Malawi to Red Sea and the Gulf of Aqaba to Dead Sea in Jordan. Many freshwater lakes, such as Malawi, Tanganyika, and Turkana are found here.

Question 5.
Give an account of the major lakes of Africa.
Answer:
Lake Victoria is the largest lake of Africa. The river Chari flows into Lake Chad. Lake Tanganyika is one of the longest freshwater lake in the world. Other large lakes in Great Rift Valley are Malawi, Mobutu, Edward and Turkana.

G. Map work:
On a blank outline map of Africa, mark the following:

  1. The Cape of Good Hope
  2. The Drakensberg Mountains
  3. The Victoria Falls
  4. The Atlas Mountains
  5. The Nile River
  6. The Libyan Desert
  7. The Suez Canal

Answer:

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 3

H. Picture Study

ICSE Solutions for Class 7 Geography Voyage Chapter 14 Africa Location, Area, Political & Physical Features 4
This is a photograph of Victoria Falls.
Question 1.
Name the explorer who discovered it.
Answer:
David Livingstone discovered Victoria Falls in 1855.

Question 2.
On which river is this fall located ?
Answer:
Victoria Fall is located on Zambezi River.

LET’S DO SOMETHING

On a blank outline map of Africa

(a) Mark with brown lines the Atlas and the Drakensberg Mountains.
(b) Shade with yellow and label the Sahara Desert and the Kalahari Desert.
(c) Shade with light brown the plateau region of Africa, the Ethiopian and Adamawa Highlands.
(d) Colour with blue and label neatly all the surrounding water bodies, oceans, seas, bays, gulfs, and straits.

Answer:
Do it Yourself.